UPSC Prelims 1999 Solved Question Paper
Complete General Studies Previous Year Questions with Explanations & Key Insights
Q1.
One consistent feature found in the history of southern India was the growth of small regional kingdoms rather than large empires because of
Correct Option (C):
(c) the absence of vast areas of fertile land
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) the absence of vast areas of fertile land (or (b) in select interpretations)
Unlike the vast, contiguous alluvial plains of the Indo-Gangetic basin that facilitated massive centralized empires in northern India, the geography of peninsular southern India is fragmented by rocky plateaus, hills, forests, and non-perennial river valleys with relatively small, isolated pockets of fertile agricultural river deltas. This ecological fragmentation sustained localized agrarian bases, promoting regional kingdoms rather than monolithic pan-peninsular empires.
Unlike the vast, contiguous alluvial plains of the Indo-Gangetic basin that facilitated massive centralized empires in northern India, the geography of peninsular southern India is fragmented by rocky plateaus, hills, forests, and non-perennial river valleys with relatively small, isolated pockets of fertile agricultural river deltas. This ecological fragmentation sustained localized agrarian bases, promoting regional kingdoms rather than monolithic pan-peninsular empires.
Q2.
From the balance sheet of a company, it is possible to
Correct Option (C):
(c) determine the size and composition of the assets and liabilities of the company
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) determine the size and composition of the assets and liabilities of the company
A Balance Sheet is a static financial statement that presents the financial position of an enterprise at a specific date by outlining the total Assets (current and non-current/fixed assets) and Liabilities (short-term, long-term debt, and shareholders' equity). Operational profitability is detailed in the Income/Profit & Loss Statement, not the Balance Sheet.
A Balance Sheet is a static financial statement that presents the financial position of an enterprise at a specific date by outlining the total Assets (current and non-current/fixed assets) and Liabilities (short-term, long-term debt, and shareholders' equity). Operational profitability is detailed in the Income/Profit & Loss Statement, not the Balance Sheet.
Q3.
If it is 10.00 a.m. I.S.T., then what would be the local time at Shillong on 92°E longitude?
Correct Option (B):
(b) 10.38 a.m.
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) 10.38 a.m.
1. Indian Standard Time (IST) is based on the Standard Meridian of India at $82.5^\circ\text{E}$ ($82^\circ 30'\text{E}$).
2. Longitude of Shillong $= 92^\circ\text{E}$.
3. Longitudinal difference:
$$\Delta\lambda = 92^\circ - 82.5^\circ = 9.5^\circ\text{ (East of IST meridian)}$$
4. Since $1^\circ = 4\text{ minutes}$, the local time difference is:
$$\Delta t = 9.5 \times 4 = 38\text{ minutes ahead}$$
5. Local time at Shillong $= 10:00\text{ AM} + 38\text{ minutes} = \mathbf{10:38\text{ AM}}$.
1. Indian Standard Time (IST) is based on the Standard Meridian of India at $82.5^\circ\text{E}$ ($82^\circ 30'\text{E}$).
2. Longitude of Shillong $= 92^\circ\text{E}$.
3. Longitudinal difference:
$$\Delta\lambda = 92^\circ - 82.5^\circ = 9.5^\circ\text{ (East of IST meridian)}$$
4. Since $1^\circ = 4\text{ minutes}$, the local time difference is:
$$\Delta t = 9.5 \times 4 = 38\text{ minutes ahead}$$
5. Local time at Shillong $= 10:00\text{ AM} + 38\text{ minutes} = \mathbf{10:38\text{ AM}}$.
Q4.
The Constitution of India recognises
Correct Option (C):
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) religious and linguistic minorities
Under Article 30(1) of the Constitution of India, all minorities, whether based on religion or language, have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The Constitution specifically recognizes only religious and linguistic minorities, without providing for ethnic minorities.
Under Article 30(1) of the Constitution of India, all minorities, whether based on religion or language, have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The Constitution specifically recognizes only religious and linguistic minorities, without providing for ethnic minorities.
Q5.
"The king was freed from his people and they from their king". On whose death did Badauni comment thus?
Correct Option (C):
(c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlak
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) Muhammad-bin-Tughlak
Upon the death of Sultan Muhammad bin Tughluq at Thatta (Sindh) in March 1351, the contemporary chronicler Abdul Qadir Badauni (in Muntakhab-ut-Tawarikh) remarked: 'Sultan ko uski praja se aur praja ko apne Sultan se mukti mil gayi' ("The king was freed from his people and they from their king"), summing up the severe estrangement caused by his experimental policies.
Upon the death of Sultan Muhammad bin Tughluq at Thatta (Sindh) in March 1351, the contemporary chronicler Abdul Qadir Badauni (in Muntakhab-ut-Tawarikh) remarked: 'Sultan ko uski praja se aur praja ko apne Sultan se mukti mil gayi' ("The king was freed from his people and they from their king"), summing up the severe estrangement caused by his experimental policies.
Q6.
In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993 (73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992), there are several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provision?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability.
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added mandatory constitutional provisions for:
• Regular direct elections every five years conducted by a State Election Commission (Article 243E/K).
• Minimum one-third reservation of seats and chairpersons for women (Article 243D).
• Devolution of powers across 29 functional items enumerated in the Eleventh Schedule.
• Payment of regular fixed remuneration/salaries to elected panchayat members is not a constitutional provision under Part IX.
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added mandatory constitutional provisions for:
• Regular direct elections every five years conducted by a State Election Commission (Article 243E/K).
• Minimum one-third reservation of seats and chairpersons for women (Article 243D).
• Devolution of powers across 29 functional items enumerated in the Eleventh Schedule.
• Payment of regular fixed remuneration/salaries to elected panchayat members is not a constitutional provision under Part IX.
Q7.
A ship sailing from the eastern extremity of the Aleutian Islands to Dutch harbour crosses 180° meridian at 23.30 hrs on January 1, 1999. What time and date will be recorded by the captain of the ship in his diary after one-hour journey from the point of crossing of the meridian?
Correct Option (A):
(a) January 1, 0030 hrs
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) January 1, 0030 hrs (or (b) January 2 depending on directional hemisphere conventions)
1. Crossing the $180^\circ$ meridian (International Date Line) from the Eastern Hemisphere towards the Western Hemisphere (moving eastward into West longitude) requires setting the calendar back by one full day (repeating the date: January 1 becomes December 31 at the crossing point).
2. Advancing one hour past 23:30 hrs turns the clock past midnight into 00:30 hrs on the repeated date, yielding January 1, 0030 hrs.
1. Crossing the $180^\circ$ meridian (International Date Line) from the Eastern Hemisphere towards the Western Hemisphere (moving eastward into West longitude) requires setting the calendar back by one full day (repeating the date: January 1 becomes December 31 at the crossing point).
2. Advancing one hour past 23:30 hrs turns the clock past midnight into 00:30 hrs on the repeated date, yielding January 1, 0030 hrs.
Q8.
Consider the following statements:
An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
I. Lok Sabha.
II. Rajya Sabha.
III. State Legislatures.
IV. President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the
I. Lok Sabha.
II. Rajya Sabha.
III. State Legislatures.
IV. President.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct Option (D):
(d) I and II
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) I and II
According to Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India, a bill for constitutional amendment can be initiated only in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha). It cannot be initiated in State Legislatures, nor can it be initiated directly by the President.
According to Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India, a bill for constitutional amendment can be initiated only in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha). It cannot be initiated in State Legislatures, nor can it be initiated directly by the President.
Q9.
The first venture of Gandhi in all-India politics was the
Correct Option (B):
(b) Rowlatt Satyagraha
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) Rowlatt Satyagraha (or (a) in select older keys)
While Mahatma Gandhi's initial political struggles in India were localized regional experiments (Champaran Satyagraha in 1917, Ahmedabad Mill Strike and Kheda Satyagraha in 1918), his first nationwide mass political agitation on an all-India platform was the Rowlatt Satyagraha of April 1919 against the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act (Rowlatt Act) through the Satyagraha Sabha.
While Mahatma Gandhi's initial political struggles in India were localized regional experiments (Champaran Satyagraha in 1917, Ahmedabad Mill Strike and Kheda Satyagraha in 1918), his first nationwide mass political agitation on an all-India platform was the Rowlatt Satyagraha of April 1919 against the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act (Rowlatt Act) through the Satyagraha Sabha.
Q10.
Persons below the poverty line in India are classified as such based on whether
Correct Option (A):
(a) they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
The official methodology for determining the Poverty Line in India (established by the Planning Commission task forces and the Lakdawala Expert Group) defines poverty based on monthly per capita consumer expenditure (MPCE) required to afford a minimum standardized consumption basket satisfying nutritional energy criteria—specifically 2400 kcal per person per day in rural areas and 2100 kcal in urban areas.
The official methodology for determining the Poverty Line in India (established by the Planning Commission task forces and the Lakdawala Expert Group) defines poverty based on monthly per capita consumer expenditure (MPCE) required to afford a minimum standardized consumption basket satisfying nutritional energy criteria—specifically 2400 kcal per person per day in rural areas and 2100 kcal in urban areas.
Q11.
The term 'Aryan' denotes
Correct Option (C):
(c) a speech group
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) a speech group (or (d) in colonial racial interpretations)
In modern historical and linguistic science (established by Max Müller and modern philologists), the term Aryan (from Sanskrit Arya, meaning noble/cultivated) is strictly a linguistic term denoting a speech group belonging to the Indo-Iranian sub-branch of the Indo-European language family, rather than a biological or racial category.
In modern historical and linguistic science (established by Max Müller and modern philologists), the term Aryan (from Sanskrit Arya, meaning noble/cultivated) is strictly a linguistic term denoting a speech group belonging to the Indo-Iranian sub-branch of the Indo-European language family, rather than a biological or racial category.
Q12.
Consider the following statements:
Regional disparities in India are high and have been rising in recent years because
I. there is persistent investment over time only in select locales.
II. some areas are agro-climatically less conducive to development.
III. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and economic opportunities.
IV. some areas have faced continuous political instability.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Regional disparities in India are high and have been rising in recent years because
I. there is persistent investment over time only in select locales.
II. some areas are agro-climatically less conducive to development.
III. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and economic opportunities.
IV. some areas have faced continuous political instability.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option (A):
(a) I, II and III
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) I, II and III
Spatial and economic regional imbalances in India stem primarily from:
• I: Skewed public and private capital investment concentrated in industrially advanced coastal and metropolitan states.
• II: Unfavorable agro-climatic factors (arid zones, rain-fed drought tracts, rugged terrain).
• III: Sluggish agrarian transformation, semi-feudal land relations, and low rural infrastructure.
Spatial and economic regional imbalances in India stem primarily from:
• I: Skewed public and private capital investment concentrated in industrially advanced coastal and metropolitan states.
• II: Unfavorable agro-climatic factors (arid zones, rain-fed drought tracts, rugged terrain).
• III: Sluggish agrarian transformation, semi-feudal land relations, and low rural infrastructure.
Q13.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Volcanic Mountain) | List II (Country) |
|---|---|
| I. Mt. Rainier | A. Italy |
| II. Etna | B. Mexico |
| III. Paricutin | C. Philippines |
| IV. Taal | D. USA |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (B):
(b) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
• I. Mt. Rainier: Active stratovolcano in Washington State, USA (D).
• II. Mount Etna: Stratovolcano on the east coast of Sicily, Italy (A).
• III. Parícutin: Famous cinder cone volcano in Michoacán, Mexico (B).
• IV. Taal Volcano: Complex caldera volcano in Batangas, Philippines (C).
• I. Mt. Rainier: Active stratovolcano in Washington State, USA (D).
• II. Mount Etna: Stratovolcano on the east coast of Sicily, Italy (A).
• III. Parícutin: Famous cinder cone volcano in Michoacán, Mexico (B).
• IV. Taal Volcano: Complex caldera volcano in Batangas, Philippines (C).
Q14.
Consider the following statements about the amendments to the Election Law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1996:
I. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction.
II. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha.
III. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency.
IV. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate.
Which of the above statements are correct?
I. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction.
II. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha.
III. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliamentary constituency.
IV. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option (B):
(b) I, II and IV
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) I, II and IV
• Statement I is correct: Disqualification under Section 8(1) of the RPA, 1951 was extended for 6 years upon conviction under the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.
• Statement II is correct: Security deposits for Lok Sabha and Assembly elections were substantially increased to discourage non-serious candidates.
• Statement IV is correct: Section 52 was amended so that an election is no longer countermanded upon the death of a candidate; instead, recognized political parties are allowed a specified period to nominate a replacement.
• Statement III is incorrect: The 1996 amendment restricted a candidate to contesting from a maximum of two constituencies (not one) simultaneously.
• Statement I is correct: Disqualification under Section 8(1) of the RPA, 1951 was extended for 6 years upon conviction under the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.
• Statement II is correct: Security deposits for Lok Sabha and Assembly elections were substantially increased to discourage non-serious candidates.
• Statement IV is correct: Section 52 was amended so that an election is no longer countermanded upon the death of a candidate; instead, recognized political parties are allowed a specified period to nominate a replacement.
• Statement III is incorrect: The 1996 amendment restricted a candidate to contesting from a maximum of two constituencies (not one) simultaneously.
Q15.
Consider the following statements: The striking feature of the Jama Masjid in Srinagar (Kashmir) completed by Zain-ul-Abidin include(s)
I. turret.
II. similarity with Buddhist pagodas.
III. Persian style.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
I. turret.
II. similarity with Buddhist pagodas.
III. Persian style.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct Option (B):
(b) I, II and III
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) I, II and III (or (d) I and III in select keys)
The historic Jama Masjid in Srinagar (founded by Sultan Sikandar Butshikan in 1394 and completed/restored under Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin) displays a distinctive Kashmiri wooden architecture: it features an open courtyard with 378 monumental deodar pillars, wooden turrets (I) at the four cardinal sides, synthesis with Persian court styles (III), and multi-tiered wooden pyramidal stepped roofs resembling Buddhist/Himalayan pagodas (II).
The historic Jama Masjid in Srinagar (founded by Sultan Sikandar Butshikan in 1394 and completed/restored under Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin) displays a distinctive Kashmiri wooden architecture: it features an open courtyard with 378 monumental deodar pillars, wooden turrets (I) at the four cardinal sides, synthesis with Persian court styles (III), and multi-tiered wooden pyramidal stepped roofs resembling Buddhist/Himalayan pagodas (II).
Q16.
The Ravva offshore block, with great potential for oil, is located in
Correct Option (A):
(a) Krishna-Godavari basin
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Krishna-Godavari basin
The Ravva offshore block is a productive oil and natural gas field located in the shallow offshore region of the Krishna-Godavari (KG) Basin off the coast of Andhra Pradesh (near the Godavari river mouth in the Bay of Bengal).
The Ravva offshore block is a productive oil and natural gas field located in the shallow offshore region of the Krishna-Godavari (KG) Basin off the coast of Andhra Pradesh (near the Godavari river mouth in the Bay of Bengal).
Q17.
In the given map of the Atlantic Ocean around the African continent, which one of the following pairs of ocean currents is shown?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Benguela and Guinea
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Benguela and Guinea
• Benguela Current: A cold, northward-flowing eastern boundary current along the southwest coast of Africa (Namibia and South Africa).
• Guinea Current: A warm, eastward-flowing tropical ocean current along the Gulf of Guinea coastline near the equator in West Africa.
• Benguela Current: A cold, northward-flowing eastern boundary current along the southwest coast of Africa (Namibia and South Africa).
• Guinea Current: A warm, eastward-flowing tropical ocean current along the Gulf of Guinea coastline near the equator in West Africa.
Q18.
Which one of the following statements regarding the levying, collecting and distribution of Income Tax (other than agricultural income) is correct under the Constitution of India?
Correct Option (A):
(a) The Union levies, collects and distributes the proceeds of income-tax between itself and the States
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) The Union levies, collects and distributes the proceeds of income-tax between itself and the States
Under Article 270 of the Indian Constitution, taxes on income (other than agricultural income) are levied and collected by the Union, but the net proceeds are distributed (devolved) between the Union and the States in accordance with the formula recommended by the Finance Commission.
Under Article 270 of the Indian Constitution, taxes on income (other than agricultural income) are levied and collected by the Union, but the net proceeds are distributed (devolved) between the Union and the States in accordance with the formula recommended by the Finance Commission.
Q19.
The Congress policy of pray and petition ultimately came to an end under the guidance of
Correct Option (B):
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak strongly challenged the Moderate era's cautious 'politics of prayer, petition, and protest', dismissing it as 'political mendicancy'. He popularized direct political mobilization with the declaration 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it', transforming the Indian National Congress into a mass-based assertive movement.
Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak strongly challenged the Moderate era's cautious 'politics of prayer, petition, and protest', dismissing it as 'political mendicancy'. He popularized direct political mobilization with the declaration 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it', transforming the Indian National Congress into a mass-based assertive movement.
Q20.
Consider the following statements: Industrial development in India, to an extent, is constrained by
I. lack of adequate entrepreneurship and leadership in business.
II. lack of savings to invest.
III. lack of technology, skills and infrastructure.
IV. limited purchasing power among the larger masses.
Which of the above statements are correct?
I. lack of adequate entrepreneurship and leadership in business.
II. lack of savings to invest.
III. lack of technology, skills and infrastructure.
IV. limited purchasing power among the larger masses.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option (C):
(c) II, III and IV
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) II, III and IV
The major structural bottlenecks in Indian industrial growth include:
• II: Capital shortage and low per-capita domestic savings for heavy capital goods investments.
• III: Gaps in indigenous technology, specialized technical workforce, power, and logistics infrastructure.
• IV: Constrained domestic effective market demand due to low disposable incomes and widespread rural poverty.
• Statement I is not considered a primary constraint, as India has maintained an active entrepreneurial class (Parsis, Marwaris, Gujaratis, Chettiars).
The major structural bottlenecks in Indian industrial growth include:
• II: Capital shortage and low per-capita domestic savings for heavy capital goods investments.
• III: Gaps in indigenous technology, specialized technical workforce, power, and logistics infrastructure.
• IV: Constrained domestic effective market demand due to low disposable incomes and widespread rural poverty.
• Statement I is not considered a primary constraint, as India has maintained an active entrepreneurial class (Parsis, Marwaris, Gujaratis, Chettiars).
Q21.
At which one of the following positions shown in the diagram (representing lunar orbital positions relative to Earth and the Sun during Syzygy / Conjunction) will the height of the ocean tide be maximum?
Correct Option (B):
(b) M2
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) M2 (or position representing Syzygy - New Moon / Full Moon)
Maximum tidal range and highest ocean tides (Spring Tides) occur when the Sun, Earth, and Moon form a linear alignment (Syzygy) during New Moon (conjunction) or Full Moon (opposition). In this position, the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun act along the same axis, reinforcing each other to produce exceptionally high tidal bulges.
Maximum tidal range and highest ocean tides (Spring Tides) occur when the Sun, Earth, and Moon form a linear alignment (Syzygy) during New Moon (conjunction) or Full Moon (opposition). In this position, the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun act along the same axis, reinforcing each other to produce exceptionally high tidal bulges.
Q22.
Among which one of the following sets of social/religious groups is the extent of poverty the highest, as per Government statistics for the nineties?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Tribals in Bihar, Orissa, M.P. and Maharashtra
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) Tribals in Bihar, Orissa, M.P. and Maharashtra
According to National Sample Survey (NSSO) rounds and Planning Commission poverty estimates of the 1990s, the incidence of headcount poverty was highest among the Scheduled Tribes (STs) residing in the central and eastern forested plateaus (undivided Bihar, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra), where over $50\%$ of tribal households lived below the poverty line.
According to National Sample Survey (NSSO) rounds and Planning Commission poverty estimates of the 1990s, the incidence of headcount poverty was highest among the Scheduled Tribes (STs) residing in the central and eastern forested plateaus (undivided Bihar, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, and Maharashtra), where over $50\%$ of tribal households lived below the poverty line.
Q23.
Which one of the following ports handled the north Indian trade during the Gupta period?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Tamralipti
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Tamralipti (or (b) Broach / Barygaza in western seaboard contexts)
During the Gupta Age, Tamralipti (located in the modern Purba Medinipur district of West Bengal) was the premier riverine and maritime port handling northern Indian trade across the Bay of Bengal with Sri Lanka, Java, Sumatra, China, and Southeast Asia (as documented by the Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien).
During the Gupta Age, Tamralipti (located in the modern Purba Medinipur district of West Bengal) was the premier riverine and maritime port handling northern Indian trade across the Bay of Bengal with Sri Lanka, Java, Sumatra, China, and Southeast Asia (as documented by the Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien).
Q24.
Tourism industry in India is quite small compared to many other countries in terms of India's potential and size. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard?
Correct Option (D):
(d) In India, the infrastructure required for attracting tourists is inadequate
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) In India, the infrastructure required for attracting tourists is inadequate
The primary structural bottleneck hindering the realization of India's vast international tourism potential has historically been inadequate physical, civic, and transport infrastructure—including limited last-mile road/rail connectivity, airport handling constraints, insufficient budget accommodation, and cleanliness/sanitation challenges.
The primary structural bottleneck hindering the realization of India's vast international tourism potential has historically been inadequate physical, civic, and transport infrastructure—including limited last-mile road/rail connectivity, airport handling constraints, insufficient budget accommodation, and cleanliness/sanitation challenges.
Q25.
Which one of the areas marked as A, B, C and D in the given cross-sectional schematic figure of a tropical cyclone witnesses heavy torrential short-duration rainfall accompanied by thunderstorms?
Correct Option (C):
(c) C
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) C (Eyewall Region)
In a tropical cyclone structure, the Eyewall (the dense ring of towering cumulonimbus clouds immediately surrounding the calm, cloud-free central eye) experiences the most destructive winds, maximum vertical convection, torrential rain, and intense thunderstorms.
In a tropical cyclone structure, the Eyewall (the dense ring of towering cumulonimbus clouds immediately surrounding the calm, cloud-free central eye) experiences the most destructive winds, maximum vertical convection, torrential rain, and intense thunderstorms.
Q26.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Kacchativu and Tin Bigha?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are territories handed over to Sri Lankan and Bangladeshi sovereignty respectively by the Government of India
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are territories handed over to Sri Lankan and Bangladeshi sovereignty respectively by the Government of India
• Katchatheevu Island: Ceded/recognized under Sri Lankan sovereignty by India under the 1974 Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement.
• Teen Bigha Corridor: A strip of Indian land in West Bengal leased in perpetuity to Bangladesh in 1992 to provide access to the Dahagram–Angarpota enclaves.
• Katchatheevu Island: Ceded/recognized under Sri Lankan sovereignty by India under the 1974 Indo-Sri Lankan Maritime Agreement.
• Teen Bigha Corridor: A strip of Indian land in West Bengal leased in perpetuity to Bangladesh in 1992 to provide access to the Dahagram–Angarpota enclaves.
Q27.
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Jahangir : William Hawkins
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Jahangir : William Hawkins (or (c) Shahjahan : Tavernier in historical lists)
• Jahangir : Captain William Hawkins (Correct): Hawkins arrived at Surat in 1608 and visited Emperor Jahangir's court in Agra in 1609 as an envoy of King James I of England, receiving a mansab of 400.
• Sir Thomas Roe: Visited the court of Jahangir (not Akbar) in 1615.
• Jean-Baptiste Tavernier: French gem merchant who visited India during both Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb's reigns.
• Niccolao Manucci: Italian traveller who arrived during the war of succession and served under Dara Shikoh and Aurangzeb.
• Jahangir : Captain William Hawkins (Correct): Hawkins arrived at Surat in 1608 and visited Emperor Jahangir's court in Agra in 1609 as an envoy of King James I of England, receiving a mansab of 400.
• Sir Thomas Roe: Visited the court of Jahangir (not Akbar) in 1615.
• Jean-Baptiste Tavernier: French gem merchant who visited India during both Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb's reigns.
• Niccolao Manucci: Italian traveller who arrived during the war of succession and served under Dara Shikoh and Aurangzeb.
Q28.
The Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) envisages financial assistance to rural areas for guaranteeing employment to at least
Correct Option (D):
(d) None of the above
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) None of the above
The Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS), launched in October 1993, aimed to provide 100 days of assured manual wage employment during the lean agricultural season to up to two adults (seeking employment) per rural household living below the poverty line, without the specific proportional formulas listed in (a), (b), or (c).
The Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS), launched in October 1993, aimed to provide 100 days of assured manual wage employment during the lean agricultural season to up to two adults (seeking employment) per rural household living below the poverty line, without the specific proportional formulas listed in (a), (b), or (c).
Q29.
Consider the following monthly temperature (°C) and rainfall (cm) data:
The climate to which this data pertains is:
| Month | Temperature (°C) | Rainfall (cm) |
|---|---|---|
| Jan | 6.7 | 14.0 |
| Feb | 6.7 | 13.2 |
| Mar | 7.2 | 11.4 |
| Apr | 8.9 | 9.4 |
| May | 11.1 | 8.1 |
| Jun | 13.9 | 8.1 |
| Jul | 15.0 | 9.6 |
| Aug | 15.0 | 12.2 |
| Sep | 13.9 | 10.4 |
| Oct | 11.1 | 14.4 |
| Nov | 8.9 | 14.0 |
| Dec | 7.8 | 16.8 |
The climate to which this data pertains is:
Correct Option (C):
(c) West European type
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) West European type (British Type Climate / Cfb)
The data displays a maritime temperate climate with cool-to-mild summers ($15^\circ\text{C}$), mild winters ($6.7^\circ\text{C}$), a narrow annual temperature range (under $10^\circ\text{C}$), and year-round rainfall with a slight winter/autumn cyclonic maximum driven by maritime Westerlies—the textbook signature of the West European / Marine West Coast climate.
The data displays a maritime temperate climate with cool-to-mild summers ($15^\circ\text{C}$), mild winters ($6.7^\circ\text{C}$), a narrow annual temperature range (under $10^\circ\text{C}$), and year-round rainfall with a slight winter/autumn cyclonic maximum driven by maritime Westerlies—the textbook signature of the West European / Marine West Coast climate.
Q30.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Leader / Reformer) | List II (Journal / Newspaper) |
|---|---|
| I. Shyamji Krishna Varma | A. Bande Mataram |
| II. Madame Bhikaji Cama | B. Indian Sociologist |
| III. Annie Besant | C. The Talwar |
| IV. Aurobindo Ghosh | D. Commonweal |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A (or I-B, II-A/C variant)
• I. Shyamji Krishna Varma: Founded The Indian Sociologist in London (1905) (B).
• II. Madame Bhikaji Cama: Published The Talwar (and Paris Bande Mataram) from Europe (C).
• III. Annie Besant: Founded and edited the weekly journal Commonweal and New India (D).
• IV. Aurobindo Ghosh: Served as the editor of the English daily Bande Mataram in Calcutta (A).
• I. Shyamji Krishna Varma: Founded The Indian Sociologist in London (1905) (B).
• II. Madame Bhikaji Cama: Published The Talwar (and Paris Bande Mataram) from Europe (C).
• III. Annie Besant: Founded and edited the weekly journal Commonweal and New India (D).
• IV. Aurobindo Ghosh: Served as the editor of the English daily Bande Mataram in Calcutta (A).
Q31.
A British citizen staying in India cannot claim Right to
Correct Option (A):
(a) Freedom of trade and profession
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Freedom of trade and profession
Under the Constitution of India, certain Fundamental Rights are exclusively guaranteed to citizens only and are denied to foreigners (aliens), including:
• Article 19: Protection of six freedoms (speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and the right to practice any profession, trade, or business under Article 19(1)(g)).
• Articles 15, 16, 29, and 30.
In contrast, Equality before the law (Article 14), Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21), and Freedom of religion (Article 25) are available to all persons (citizens and foreigners alike).
Under the Constitution of India, certain Fundamental Rights are exclusively guaranteed to citizens only and are denied to foreigners (aliens), including:
• Article 19: Protection of six freedoms (speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and the right to practice any profession, trade, or business under Article 19(1)(g)).
• Articles 15, 16, 29, and 30.
In contrast, Equality before the law (Article 14), Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21), and Freedom of religion (Article 25) are available to all persons (citizens and foreigners alike).
Q32.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Timber / Tree Species) | List II (Major Country) |
|---|---|
| I. Cedar | A. Myanmar |
| II. Douglas Fir | B. Canada |
| III. Mahogany | C. Mexico |
| IV. Teak | D. Honduras |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (B):
(b) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
• I. Cedar: Found in the highlands and temperate forests of Mexico (C) (and North America).
• II. Douglas Fir: Major commercial softwood of the Pacific Northwest and Canada (B).
• III. Mahogany: Tropical hardwood indigenous to Central America, prominently harvested in Honduras (D).
• IV. Teak (Tectona grandis): Deciduous tropical hardwood native to Southeast Asia, with Myanmar (A) being the world's leading producer.
• I. Cedar: Found in the highlands and temperate forests of Mexico (C) (and North America).
• II. Douglas Fir: Major commercial softwood of the Pacific Northwest and Canada (B).
• III. Mahogany: Tropical hardwood indigenous to Central America, prominently harvested in Honduras (D).
• IV. Teak (Tectona grandis): Deciduous tropical hardwood native to Southeast Asia, with Myanmar (A) being the world's leading producer.
Q33.
The first writer to use Urdu as the medium of poetic expression was
Correct Option (A):
(a) Amir Khusru
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Amir Khusru
Amir Khusrau Dehlavi (1253–1325 CE) (the 'Tuti-i-Hind' or Parrot of India) is celebrated as the earliest pioneer to introduce proto-Urdu (Hindavi / Dehlavi) into poetic composition, blending vernacular Khariboli Hindi with Persian meter and vocabulary.
Amir Khusrau Dehlavi (1253–1325 CE) (the 'Tuti-i-Hind' or Parrot of India) is celebrated as the earliest pioneer to introduce proto-Urdu (Hindavi / Dehlavi) into poetic composition, blending vernacular Khariboli Hindi with Persian meter and vocabulary.
Q34.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of India:
I. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India.
II. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission.
III. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
IV. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission.
Which of the above statements are correct (as per the original 1993 Act framework)?
I. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India.
II. It has formations in each state as State Human Rights Commission.
III. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature.
IV. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the Commission.
Which of the above statements are correct (as per the original 1993 Act framework)?
Correct Option (D):
(d) I and III
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) I and III
Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993:
• Statement I is correct: The Chairperson was statutorily required to be a retired Chief Justice of India (prior to the 2019 amendment which made retired Supreme Court judges eligible as well).
• Statement III is correct: The recommendations made by the NHRC are advisory/recommendatory in nature and not binding on the concerned government or authority.
• Statement II is incorrect: State Human Rights Commissions are created independently under state discretion, not as structural subordinate branch formations of the NHRC.
• Statement IV is incorrect: Under the original 1993 Act, mandatory representation for women was provided only in the 2019 amendment.
Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993:
• Statement I is correct: The Chairperson was statutorily required to be a retired Chief Justice of India (prior to the 2019 amendment which made retired Supreme Court judges eligible as well).
• Statement III is correct: The recommendations made by the NHRC are advisory/recommendatory in nature and not binding on the concerned government or authority.
• Statement II is incorrect: State Human Rights Commissions are created independently under state discretion, not as structural subordinate branch formations of the NHRC.
• Statement IV is incorrect: Under the original 1993 Act, mandatory representation for women was provided only in the 2019 amendment.
Q35.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Crop) | List II (Climatic Requirements) |
|---|---|
| I. Cotton | A. Rainfall 1500–2000 mm; Temperature 25°–35°C |
| II. Flax | B. Rainfall 500–1000 mm; Temperature 18°–22°C |
| III. Sugarbeet | C. Rainfall 600–800 mm; Temperature 5°–18°C |
| IV. Jute | D. Rainfall 500–600 mm; Temperature 18°–22°C |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (D):
(d) I-D, II-C, III-E, IV-B
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-D, II-C, III-E, IV-B (or I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A matching high rainfall to Jute)
• I. Cotton: Semi-arid subtropical cash crop requiring $500 - 1000\text{ mm}$ rainfall and warm temperatures ($21^\circ - 30^\circ\text{C}$) with 210 frost-free days.
• II. Flax: Temperate fiber/oilseed crop thriving in cool, moderate climates ($15^\circ - 20^\circ\text{C}$) with $600 - 800\text{ mm}$ rainfall.
• III. Sugarbeet: Temperate root crop requiring cool growing temperatures ($10^\circ - 18^\circ\text{C}$) and moderate rainfall.
• IV. Jute: Hot, humid tropical monsoon crop requiring heavy rainfall ($1500 - 2000\text{ mm}$) and high temperatures ($25^\circ - 35^\circ\text{C}$).
• I. Cotton: Semi-arid subtropical cash crop requiring $500 - 1000\text{ mm}$ rainfall and warm temperatures ($21^\circ - 30^\circ\text{C}$) with 210 frost-free days.
• II. Flax: Temperate fiber/oilseed crop thriving in cool, moderate climates ($15^\circ - 20^\circ\text{C}$) with $600 - 800\text{ mm}$ rainfall.
• III. Sugarbeet: Temperate root crop requiring cool growing temperatures ($10^\circ - 18^\circ\text{C}$) and moderate rainfall.
• IV. Jute: Hot, humid tropical monsoon crop requiring heavy rainfall ($1500 - 2000\text{ mm}$) and high temperatures ($25^\circ - 35^\circ\text{C}$).
Q36.
The minimum land area recommended for forest cover to maintain proper ecological balance in India is
Correct Option (B):
(b) 33%
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) 33%
The National Forest Policy of 1988 (reiterating the target set in the 1952 Forest Policy) stipulates that a minimum of one-third ($33\%$) of India's total geographical landmass should be under forest or tree cover to maintain ecological stability and environmental balance (with $67\%$ recommended in mountainous/hilly regions and $20\%$ in plains).
The National Forest Policy of 1988 (reiterating the target set in the 1952 Forest Policy) stipulates that a minimum of one-third ($33\%$) of India's total geographical landmass should be under forest or tree cover to maintain ecological stability and environmental balance (with $67\%$ recommended in mountainous/hilly regions and $20\%$ in plains).
Q37.
The paintings of Abanindranath Tagore are classified as
Correct Option (C):
(c) revivalistic
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) revivalistic
Abanindranath Tagore, the principal founder of the Bengal School of Art, spearheaded a nationalist revivalist movement in modern Indian painting. Rejecting Western academic realism (propagated by Raja Ravi Varma and colonial art colleges), he revived classical indigenous aesthetic traditions inspired by Ajanta murals, Rajput miniatures, Mughal illuminations, and traditional wash techniques (e.g., his iconic 1905 painting Bharat Mata).
Abanindranath Tagore, the principal founder of the Bengal School of Art, spearheaded a nationalist revivalist movement in modern Indian painting. Rejecting Western academic realism (propagated by Raja Ravi Varma and colonial art colleges), he revived classical indigenous aesthetic traditions inspired by Ajanta murals, Rajput miniatures, Mughal illuminations, and traditional wash techniques (e.g., his iconic 1905 painting Bharat Mata).
Q38.
From the third century AD when the Hun invasion ended the Roman Empire, the Indian merchants relied more and more on the
Correct Option (C):
(c) South-East Asian trade
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) South-East Asian trade
Following the collapse and fragmentation of the Western Roman Empire and the disruption of direct trans-Mediterranean commerce, Indian mercantile guilds (Shrenis) reoriented maritime commercial ventures toward the flourishing markets of Southeast Asia (Suvarnabhumi / Suvarnadvipa), expanding trade with Malaya, Sumatra, Java, Cambodia (Funan), and China.
Following the collapse and fragmentation of the Western Roman Empire and the disruption of direct trans-Mediterranean commerce, Indian mercantile guilds (Shrenis) reoriented maritime commercial ventures toward the flourishing markets of Southeast Asia (Suvarnabhumi / Suvarnadvipa), expanding trade with Malaya, Sumatra, Java, Cambodia (Funan), and China.
Q39.
The planning process in the industrial sector in India has assumed a relatively less important position in the nineties as compared to that in the earlier period. Which one of the following is true in this regard?
Correct Option (A):
(a) With the advent of liberalisation, industrial investments/development have largely been placed within the domain of private and multinational sectors
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) With the advent of liberalisation, industrial investments/development have largely been placed within the domain of private and multinational sectors (or (b) in market-economy framing)
Following the New Economic Policy of July 1991, comprehensive industrial delicensing, abolition of the MRTP threshold limits, and opening up of public sector reservations meant that industrial investment and capital allocation were deregulated and transferred to private enterprise and market mechanisms, transitioning the state's role from centralized command planning to indicative planning and infrastructure/social enablement.
Following the New Economic Policy of July 1991, comprehensive industrial delicensing, abolition of the MRTP threshold limits, and opening up of public sector reservations meant that industrial investment and capital allocation were deregulated and transferred to private enterprise and market mechanisms, transitioning the state's role from centralized command planning to indicative planning and infrastructure/social enablement.
Q40.
Which one of the following port cities in Venezuela has been developed as an oil port?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Maracaibo
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) Maracaibo
Maracaibo, located on the channel connecting Lake Maracaibo with the Gulf of Venezuela, is Venezuela's premier commercial oil port and refining metropolis, anchoring one of the most prolific petroleum-producing basins in the world.
Maracaibo, located on the channel connecting Lake Maracaibo with the Gulf of Venezuela, is Venezuela's premier commercial oil port and refining metropolis, anchoring one of the most prolific petroleum-producing basins in the world.
Q41.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Musician / Theorist) | List II (Contribution / Style) |
|---|---|
| I. Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar | A. Introduced the scheme of Raga classification of Indian music |
| II. Venkatamakhin | B. Proponent of Carnatic music |
| III. Shyama Shastri | C. Proponent of the Khayal form of Hindustani music |
| IV. Amir Khusru | D. Wrote the music for the song 'Vande Mataram' |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (B):
(b) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
• I. Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar: Composed the iconic classical tune for Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay's 'Vande Mataram' (D) (in Raga Kafi) and founded the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya.
• II. Venkatamakhin: 17th-century musicologist who authored Chaturdandi Prakasika and formulated the 72 Melakarta Raga classification scheme (A) in Carnatic music.
• III. Shyama Shastri: Revered as one of the 'Musical Trinity' (Trimurti) of Carnatic music (B) alongside Tyagaraja and Muthuswami Dikshitar.
• IV. Amir Khusrau: 13th-century musical innovator credited with popularizing the Khayal style (C), Qawwali, and inventing instruments like the Sitar and Tabla.
• I. Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar: Composed the iconic classical tune for Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay's 'Vande Mataram' (D) (in Raga Kafi) and founded the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya.
• II. Venkatamakhin: 17th-century musicologist who authored Chaturdandi Prakasika and formulated the 72 Melakarta Raga classification scheme (A) in Carnatic music.
• III. Shyama Shastri: Revered as one of the 'Musical Trinity' (Trimurti) of Carnatic music (B) alongside Tyagaraja and Muthuswami Dikshitar.
• IV. Amir Khusrau: 13th-century musical innovator credited with popularizing the Khayal style (C), Qawwali, and inventing instruments like the Sitar and Tabla.
Q42.
There was no independent development of industries in India during British rule because of the
Correct Option (A):
(a) absence of heavy industries
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) absence of heavy industries (or (d) in socio-economic investment analysis)
The colonial economic structure in India maintained a lopsided industrial framework characterized by the near-total absence of basic capital goods, machinery, metallurgical, and heavy core industries. British tariff and trade policies intentionally reduced India to an exporter of raw primary commodities and a captive market for British manufactured goods, preventing independent, self-sustaining industrialization.
The colonial economic structure in India maintained a lopsided industrial framework characterized by the near-total absence of basic capital goods, machinery, metallurgical, and heavy core industries. British tariff and trade policies intentionally reduced India to an exporter of raw primary commodities and a captive market for British manufactured goods, preventing independent, self-sustaining industrialization.
Q43.
Consider the following statements:
Small-scale industries are, in most cases, not as efficient and competitive as the large-scale ones. Yet the Government provides preferential treatment and reservations in a range of products to the small firms because small-scale industries
I. provide higher employment on a per unit capital deployment basis.
II. promote a regional dispersion of industries and economic activities.
III. have performed better in export of manufactured products than the large scale ones.
IV. provide jobs to low-skill workers, who otherwise may not find employment avenues elsewhere.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Small-scale industries are, in most cases, not as efficient and competitive as the large-scale ones. Yet the Government provides preferential treatment and reservations in a range of products to the small firms because small-scale industries
I. provide higher employment on a per unit capital deployment basis.
II. promote a regional dispersion of industries and economic activities.
III. have performed better in export of manufactured products than the large scale ones.
IV. provide jobs to low-skill workers, who otherwise may not find employment avenues elsewhere.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option (B):
(b) I and II
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) I and II (or (a) I and IV in labour-market perspectives)
The official rationale for state support, subsidies, and item reservations for Small Scale Industries (SSIs) in India rests on two key socio-economic pillars:
• I. High Employment-to-Capital Ratio: SSIs utilize labor-intensive techniques, generating significantly more employment opportunities per unit of invested capital compared to capital-intensive large industries.
• II. Spatial & Regional Decentralization: SSIs can be established in semi-urban and rural areas with modest local capital, curbing regional disparities and preventing industrial hyper-concentration in major metropolises.
The official rationale for state support, subsidies, and item reservations for Small Scale Industries (SSIs) in India rests on two key socio-economic pillars:
• I. High Employment-to-Capital Ratio: SSIs utilize labor-intensive techniques, generating significantly more employment opportunities per unit of invested capital compared to capital-intensive large industries.
• II. Spatial & Regional Decentralization: SSIs can be established in semi-urban and rural areas with modest local capital, curbing regional disparities and preventing industrial hyper-concentration in major metropolises.
Q44.
The first feature film (talkie) to be produced in India was
Correct Option (B):
(b) Alam Ara
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) Alam Ara
Directed by Ardeshir Irani and released on March 14, 1931, at the Majestic Cinema in Bombay, Alam Ara was the first Indian sound motion picture (talkie). It featured the famous first recorded Hindi film song 'De de khuda ke naam pe pyaare' sung by W. M. Khan. (Note: Dadasaheb Phalke's 'Raja Harishchandra' in 1913 was the first full-length Indian silent feature film).
Directed by Ardeshir Irani and released on March 14, 1931, at the Majestic Cinema in Bombay, Alam Ara was the first Indian sound motion picture (talkie). It featured the famous first recorded Hindi film song 'De de khuda ke naam pe pyaare' sung by W. M. Khan. (Note: Dadasaheb Phalke's 'Raja Harishchandra' in 1913 was the first full-length Indian silent feature film).
Q45.
The economic crisis in the latter half of 1990s most seriously affected Indonesia, Thailand, Malaysia and South Korea. The cause of the crisis was
Correct Option (A):
(a) mismanagement of the financial resources and financial sector, in general
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) mismanagement of the financial resources and financial sector, in general (or (b) in currency-peg mechanisms)
The Asian Financial Crisis of 1997 was precipitated by structural vulnerabilities in the financial and banking systems of the 'Tiger Economies'—including excessive short-term unhedged foreign debt, poor prudential regulatory oversight, crony capitalism, speculative asset price bubbles in real estate, and fixed currency pegs against the US dollar that collapsed under speculative attacks following the devaluation of the Thai Baht.
The Asian Financial Crisis of 1997 was precipitated by structural vulnerabilities in the financial and banking systems of the 'Tiger Economies'—including excessive short-term unhedged foreign debt, poor prudential regulatory oversight, crony capitalism, speculative asset price bubbles in real estate, and fixed currency pegs against the US dollar that collapsed under speculative attacks following the devaluation of the Thai Baht.
Q46.
A person of mixed European and Indian (Amerindian) blood in Latin America is called a
Correct Option (B):
(b) Mestizo
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) Mestizo
• Mestizo: A person of combined European (primarily Spanish/Portuguese) and Indigenous American (Amerindian) descent in Latin America.
• Mulatto: A person of mixed white European and Black African descent.
• Zambo / Pardo: A person of mixed African and Amerindian heritage.
• Mestizo: A person of combined European (primarily Spanish/Portuguese) and Indigenous American (Amerindian) descent in Latin America.
• Mulatto: A person of mixed white European and Black African descent.
• Zambo / Pardo: A person of mixed African and Amerindian heritage.
Q47.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Heritage Library) | List II (Location / City) |
|---|---|
| I. Saraswati Mahal Library | A. Patna |
| II. Library of Tibetan Works and Archives | B. Dharamshala |
| III. Raza Library | C. Thanjavur |
| IV. Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library | D. Rampur |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-C, II-B, III-D, IV-A
• I. Saraswathi Mahal Library: Renowned ancient royal manuscript repository located inside the Nayak/Maratha palace in Thanjavur (C), Tamil Nadu.
• II. Library of Tibetan Works and Archives: Founded by the 14th Dalai Lama in Dharamshala (B), Himachal Pradesh.
• III. Raza Library: Famous repository of Indo-Islamic manuscripts established by Nawab Faizullah Khan in Rampur (D), Uttar Pradesh.
• IV. Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library: Historic public library renowned for rare Arabic and Persian manuscripts located in Patna (A), Bihar.
• I. Saraswathi Mahal Library: Renowned ancient royal manuscript repository located inside the Nayak/Maratha palace in Thanjavur (C), Tamil Nadu.
• II. Library of Tibetan Works and Archives: Founded by the 14th Dalai Lama in Dharamshala (B), Himachal Pradesh.
• III. Raza Library: Famous repository of Indo-Islamic manuscripts established by Nawab Faizullah Khan in Rampur (D), Uttar Pradesh.
• IV. Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library: Historic public library renowned for rare Arabic and Persian manuscripts located in Patna (A), Bihar.
Q48.
The following foreign travellers came to India at one time or another:
I. Fa-Hien
II. I-Tsing (Yijing)
III. Megasthenes
IV. Hiuen-Tsang (Xuanzang)
The correct chronological sequence of their visits is:
I. Fa-Hien
II. I-Tsing (Yijing)
III. Megasthenes
IV. Hiuen-Tsang (Xuanzang)
The correct chronological sequence of their visits is:
Correct Option (B):
(b) III, I, IV, II
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Chronological Sequence: III, I, IV, II
1. III. Megasthenes: c. 302–298 BCE (Greek ambassador of Seleucus I Nicator to the Mauryan court of Chandragupta Maurya at Pataliputra; authored Indica).
2. I. Fa-Hien: c. 399–414 CE (Chinese Buddhist pilgrim during the reign of Chandragupta II 'Vikramaditya').
3. IV. Hiuen-Tsang (Xuanzang): c. 629–645 CE (Chinese Buddhist monk who studied at Nalanda during the reign of King Harsha Vardhana; authored Si-Yu-Ki).
4. II. I-Tsing (Yijing): c. 671–695 CE (Chinese Buddhist traveller who spent over a decade studying at Nalanda University).
1. III. Megasthenes: c. 302–298 BCE (Greek ambassador of Seleucus I Nicator to the Mauryan court of Chandragupta Maurya at Pataliputra; authored Indica).
2. I. Fa-Hien: c. 399–414 CE (Chinese Buddhist pilgrim during the reign of Chandragupta II 'Vikramaditya').
3. IV. Hiuen-Tsang (Xuanzang): c. 629–645 CE (Chinese Buddhist monk who studied at Nalanda during the reign of King Harsha Vardhana; authored Si-Yu-Ki).
4. II. I-Tsing (Yijing): c. 671–695 CE (Chinese Buddhist traveller who spent over a decade studying at Nalanda University).
Q49.
The farmers are provided credit from a number of sources for their short and long-term needs. The main sources of credit to the farmers include
Correct Option (A):
(a) the Primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies, commercial banks, RRBs and private moneylenders
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies, commercial banks, RRBs and private moneylenders
The multi-agency rural credit delivery system in India provides agricultural loans through:
1. Institutional Retail Lending Sources: Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS - short/medium-term cooperative credit), Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
2. Non-Institutional Sources: Traditional village moneylenders, commission agents, and traders.
• Note: Apex regulatory institutions like NABARD and RBI provide refinance and policy oversight rather than direct retail loans to individual farmers.
The multi-agency rural credit delivery system in India provides agricultural loans through:
1. Institutional Retail Lending Sources: Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS - short/medium-term cooperative credit), Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs), and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
2. Non-Institutional Sources: Traditional village moneylenders, commission agents, and traders.
• Note: Apex regulatory institutions like NABARD and RBI provide refinance and policy oversight rather than direct retail loans to individual farmers.
Q50.
Transchart is the
Correct Option (A):
(a) chartering wing of the Ministry of Surface Transport
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) chartering wing of the Ministry of Surface Transport
Transchart (the Central Chartering Organisation) is the specialized centralized wing under the Ministry of Surface Transport (Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways) responsible for chartering ocean-going dry cargo and tanker vessels for the maritime shipment of government-owned, controlled, or aided cargoes (such as crude oil, fertilizers, food grains, and coal).
Transchart (the Central Chartering Organisation) is the specialized centralized wing under the Ministry of Surface Transport (Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways) responsible for chartering ocean-going dry cargo and tanker vessels for the maritime shipment of government-owned, controlled, or aided cargoes (such as crude oil, fertilizers, food grains, and coal).
Q51.
To which Lodi Sultan does the given map relate and what town does the site marked A on the map represent?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Behlol Lodi, Jaunpur
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Bahlol Lodi, Jaunpur (or (c) Ibrahim Lodi, Jaunpur)
Founder of the Lodi Dynasty, Bahlul Lodi (1451–1489 CE), successfully waged a prolonged war against Sultan Hussain Shah Sharqi of the Sharqi Dynasty, culminating in the complete annexation of the strategic eastern sultanate of Jaunpur (A) into the Delhi Sultanate.
Founder of the Lodi Dynasty, Bahlul Lodi (1451–1489 CE), successfully waged a prolonged war against Sultan Hussain Shah Sharqi of the Sharqi Dynasty, culminating in the complete annexation of the strategic eastern sultanate of Jaunpur (A) into the Delhi Sultanate.
Q52.
Which one of the following statements is not true of the Konkan Railway?
Correct Option (B):
(b) It runs through the states of Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Kerala
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) It runs through the states of Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Kerala (or (c) as older mountain ghat sections like Bhor Ghat/Thal Ghat exist)
• Statement (b) is not true: The 741 km (approx. 760 km) Konkan Railway route connects Roha (Maharashtra) to Thokur/Mangalore (Karnataka), passing through only three states: Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka. While Kerala is an equity shareholder in the Konkan Railway Corporation (KRCL), the physical line itself terminates in Karnataka before entering Kerala.
• Note on Statement (c): Other historical railway tracks crossing the Western Ghats include the Thal Ghat and Bhor Ghat sections of Central Railway.
• Statement (b) is not true: The 741 km (approx. 760 km) Konkan Railway route connects Roha (Maharashtra) to Thokur/Mangalore (Karnataka), passing through only three states: Maharashtra, Goa, and Karnataka. While Kerala is an equity shareholder in the Konkan Railway Corporation (KRCL), the physical line itself terminates in Karnataka before entering Kerala.
• Note on Statement (c): Other historical railway tracks crossing the Western Ghats include the Thal Ghat and Bhor Ghat sections of Central Railway.
Q53.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (PLC Stage) | List II (Financial / Market Zone) |
|---|---|
| I. Product Development | A. Negative Profit / High Investment |
| II. Maturity | B. Introduction / Low Sales |
| III. Growth | C. Rapidly Rising Sales |
| IV. Introduction | D. Peak Profit |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (B):
(b) I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B
In the standard Product Life Cycle (PLC) framework:
• I. Product Development: Characterized by zero sales, heavy R&D expenditure, and net losses / capital investment (A).
• II. Maturity: Stage of stable market penetration, cost optimization, and peak profitability (D).
• III. Growth: Characterized by rapid market acceptance and accelerating sales volume (C).
• IV. Introduction: Characterized by slow initial takeoff and low sales (B).
In the standard Product Life Cycle (PLC) framework:
• I. Product Development: Characterized by zero sales, heavy R&D expenditure, and net losses / capital investment (A).
• II. Maturity: Stage of stable market penetration, cost optimization, and peak profitability (D).
• III. Growth: Characterized by rapid market acceptance and accelerating sales volume (C).
• IV. Introduction: Characterized by slow initial takeoff and low sales (B).
Q54.
'Abhinav Bharat', a secret society of revolutionaries, was organised by
Correct Option (B):
(b) V. D. Savarkar
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) V. D. Savarkar
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (along with his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar) initially founded the Mitra Mela at Nasik in 1899, which was reorganized in 1904 into the revolutionary secret society Abhinav Bharat Society (Young India Society), aimed at achieving India's freedom through armed resistance and insurrection.
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (along with his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar) initially founded the Mitra Mela at Nasik in 1899, which was reorganized in 1904 into the revolutionary secret society Abhinav Bharat Society (Young India Society), aimed at achieving India's freedom through armed resistance and insurrection.
Q55.
Which one of the following is the objective of the National Renewal Fund (NRF)?
Correct Option (A):
(a) To safeguard the interests of workers who may be affected by technological upgradation of industry or closure of sick units
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) To safeguard the interests of workers who may be affected by technological upgradation of industry or closure of sick units
The National Renewal Fund (NRF) was set up by the Government of India in February 1992 as a social safety net mechanism during the post-1991 economic reforms. It provided financial compensation, voluntary retirement schemes (VRS), retraining, redeployment, and rehabilitation assistance to industrial laborers affected by modernization, technological upgrades, and restructuring or closure of sick public and private enterprises.
The National Renewal Fund (NRF) was set up by the Government of India in February 1992 as a social safety net mechanism during the post-1991 economic reforms. It provided financial compensation, voluntary retirement schemes (VRS), retraining, redeployment, and rehabilitation assistance to industrial laborers affected by modernization, technological upgrades, and restructuring or closure of sick public and private enterprises.
Q56.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Resorts) | List II (States) |
|---|---|
| I. Chakrata | A. Assam |
| II. Haflong | B. West Bengal |
| III. Kalimpong | C. Uttar Pradesh (now Uttarakhand) |
| IV. Kufri | D. Himachal Pradesh |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (C):
(c) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
• I. Chakrata: Cantonment hill station in Dehradun district, Uttar Pradesh / Uttarakhand (C).
• II. Haflong: Only hill station in Dima Hasao district, Assam (A).
• III. Kalimpong: Hill resort in the northern Darjeeling hills, West Bengal (B).
• IV. Kufri: Renowned winter sports and tourist hill resort near Shimla, Himachal Pradesh (D).
• I. Chakrata: Cantonment hill station in Dehradun district, Uttar Pradesh / Uttarakhand (C).
• II. Haflong: Only hill station in Dima Hasao district, Assam (A).
• III. Kalimpong: Hill resort in the northern Darjeeling hills, West Bengal (B).
• IV. Kufri: Renowned winter sports and tourist hill resort near Shimla, Himachal Pradesh (D).
Q57.
Consider the following statements about the European Union:
I. The European Union was known earlier as the European Community.
II. The Single European Act (1986) and the Maastricht Treaty were milestones in its formation.
III. Citizens of European Union countries enjoy dual citizenship.
IV. Switzerland is a member of the European Union.
Which of the above statements are correct?
I. The European Union was known earlier as the European Community.
II. The Single European Act (1986) and the Maastricht Treaty were milestones in its formation.
III. Citizens of European Union countries enjoy dual citizenship.
IV. Switzerland is a member of the European Union.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option (D):
(d) I, II and III
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) I, II and III (or (a) I and II in strict supranational citizenship definitions)
• Statement I is correct: The EU formally evolved from the European Coal and Steel Community / European Economic Community / European Community (EC).
• Statement II is correct: The Single European Act (1986) established the single internal market, and the Maastricht Treaty (1992) formally founded the European Union and European citizenship.
• Statement III is correct: Article 20 of the TFEU establishes EU citizenship as an additional tier that complements national citizenship without replacing it.
• Statement IV is incorrect: Switzerland is not a member of the European Union (maintaining ties via bilateral treaties and the EFTA/Schengen area).
• Statement I is correct: The EU formally evolved from the European Coal and Steel Community / European Economic Community / European Community (EC).
• Statement II is correct: The Single European Act (1986) established the single internal market, and the Maastricht Treaty (1992) formally founded the European Union and European citizenship.
• Statement III is correct: Article 20 of the TFEU establishes EU citizenship as an additional tier that complements national citizenship without replacing it.
• Statement IV is incorrect: Switzerland is not a member of the European Union (maintaining ties via bilateral treaties and the EFTA/Schengen area).
Q58.
Which one of the following was initially the most powerful city state of India in the 6th century B.C.?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Magadh
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Magadh (or (c) Kashi in early 6th-century BCE historiography)
• Historiographical note: In the early 6th century BCE, the kingdom of Kashi (Varanasi) was initially the most prosperous and powerful realm, engaging in supremacy struggles against Kosala and Anga.
• However, Magadha (under Bimbisara and Ajatashatru of the Haryanka dynasty) quickly eclipsed all rival city-states due to its strategic capitals (Rajgriha and Pataliputra), vast iron deposits in the Rajmahal hills, rich alluvial agriculture, and large-scale military use of war elephants, becoming the paramount imperial power of ancient India.
• Historiographical note: In the early 6th century BCE, the kingdom of Kashi (Varanasi) was initially the most prosperous and powerful realm, engaging in supremacy struggles against Kosala and Anga.
• However, Magadha (under Bimbisara and Ajatashatru of the Haryanka dynasty) quickly eclipsed all rival city-states due to its strategic capitals (Rajgriha and Pataliputra), vast iron deposits in the Rajmahal hills, rich alluvial agriculture, and large-scale military use of war elephants, becoming the paramount imperial power of ancient India.
Q59.
Which one of the following statements is not correct? Dinar / New Dinar is the currency of
Correct Option (C):
(c) UAE
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) UAE
The statement is not correct regarding the UAE because the official currency of the United Arab Emirates is the UAE Dirham (AED), not the Dinar. In contrast, the Dinar/New Dinar was historically the legal tender in the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia, Tunisia (Tunisian Dinar), and Sudan (Sudanese Dinar between 1992 and 2007).
The statement is not correct regarding the UAE because the official currency of the United Arab Emirates is the UAE Dirham (AED), not the Dinar. In contrast, the Dinar/New Dinar was historically the legal tender in the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia, Tunisia (Tunisian Dinar), and Sudan (Sudanese Dinar between 1992 and 2007).
Q60.
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Jim Laker : Highest number of wickets in a Cricket Test match
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Jim Laker : Highest number of wickets in a Cricket Test match (or (c)/(d) in contemporaneous milestone sets)
• Jim Laker (Correct all-time record): Took an unprecedented 19 wickets for 90 runs in the 4th Ashes Test at Old Trafford in July 1956, which remains the unbroken world record for the highest number of wickets taken in a single Test match.
• Sanath Jayasuriya and Roshan Mahanama: Set a world record 2nd-wicket partnership of 576 runs against India at Colombo in August 1997 (which was later surpassed by Sangakkara and Jayawardene in 2006).
• Sunil Gavaskar: First batsman to score 10,000 Test runs, but Allan Border had surpassed his aggregate record by 1993.
• Jim Laker (Correct all-time record): Took an unprecedented 19 wickets for 90 runs in the 4th Ashes Test at Old Trafford in July 1956, which remains the unbroken world record for the highest number of wickets taken in a single Test match.
• Sanath Jayasuriya and Roshan Mahanama: Set a world record 2nd-wicket partnership of 576 runs against India at Colombo in August 1997 (which was later surpassed by Sangakkara and Jayawardene in 2006).
• Sunil Gavaskar: First batsman to score 10,000 Test runs, but Allan Border had surpassed his aggregate record by 1993.
Q61.
The most short-lived of all of Britain's constitutional experiments in India was the
Correct Option (C):
(c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) Indian Councils Act of 1909
The Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) survived effectively for only 10 years before being overhauled and replaced by the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms), making it the most short-lived major constitutional framework enacted by the British Parliament for colonial India.
The Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) survived effectively for only 10 years before being overhauled and replaced by the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms), making it the most short-lived major constitutional framework enacted by the British Parliament for colonial India.
Q62.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Industries) | List II (Industrial Centres) |
|---|---|
| I. Pearl fishing | A. Pune |
| II. Automobiles | B. Tuticorin (Thoothukudi) |
| III. Ship-building | C. Pinjore |
| IV. Engineering goods | D. Marmagao (Goa Shipyard) |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
• I. Pearl fishing: Tuticorin (Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu), traditionally known as the 'Pearl City' in the Gulf of Mannar (B).
• II. Automobiles: Pune (Maharashtra), major automotive manufacturing hub (Tata Motors, Bajaj Auto) (A).
• III. Ship-building: Marmagao (Goa), site of Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) (D).
• IV. Engineering goods / Machine tools: Pinjore (Haryana), home to HMT (Hindustan Machine Tools) manufacturing plant (C).
• I. Pearl fishing: Tuticorin (Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu), traditionally known as the 'Pearl City' in the Gulf of Mannar (B).
• II. Automobiles: Pune (Maharashtra), major automotive manufacturing hub (Tata Motors, Bajaj Auto) (A).
• III. Ship-building: Marmagao (Goa), site of Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) (D).
• IV. Engineering goods / Machine tools: Pinjore (Haryana), home to HMT (Hindustan Machine Tools) manufacturing plant (C).
Q63.
The language spoken by the largest number of people in the world (native speakers) is
Correct Option (C):
(c) Mandarin
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) Mandarin
Mandarin Chinese is spoken by the largest number of first-language (native) speakers in the world (approaching nearly 1 billion native speakers), predominantly across the People's Republic of China, Taiwan, and Singapore.
Mandarin Chinese is spoken by the largest number of first-language (native) speakers in the world (approaching nearly 1 billion native speakers), predominantly across the People's Republic of China, Taiwan, and Singapore.
Q64.
"It made its proposals in May. It still wanted a united India. There was to be a Federal Union composed of British provinces." The above quotation is related to
Correct Option (D):
(d) Cabinet Mission
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Cabinet Mission
On May 16, 1946, the British Cabinet Mission (comprising Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A. V. Alexander) published its constitutional scheme. It rejected the demand for a sovereign Pakistan, proposing instead a three-tier Federal Union of India embracing both British Indian provinces and princely states, with a weak center managing defense, foreign affairs, and communications, and grouped provincial autonomy.
On May 16, 1946, the British Cabinet Mission (comprising Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A. V. Alexander) published its constitutional scheme. It rejected the demand for a sovereign Pakistan, proposing instead a three-tier Federal Union of India embracing both British Indian provinces and princely states, with a weak center managing defense, foreign affairs, and communications, and grouped provincial autonomy.
Q65.
The Governor-General who followed a spirited "Forward" policy towards Afghanistan was
Correct Option (D):
(d) Lytton
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Lytton (or (a) Auckland / (d) Lytton in colonial imperial forward policies)
Viceroy Lord Lytton (1876–1880) pursued an aggressive, imperialist 'Forward Policy' towards the northwest frontier and Afghanistan to check expanding Russian diplomatic influence in Central Asia. His provocative demands on Emir Sher Ali Khan precipitated the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–1880) and the Treaty of Gandamak.
Viceroy Lord Lytton (1876–1880) pursued an aggressive, imperialist 'Forward Policy' towards the northwest frontier and Afghanistan to check expanding Russian diplomatic influence in Central Asia. His provocative demands on Emir Sher Ali Khan precipitated the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–1880) and the Treaty of Gandamak.
Q66.
The first marine sanctuary in India, having within its bounds coral reefs, mollusca, dolphins, tortoises and various kinds of sea birds, has been established in
Correct Option (C):
(c) Gulf of Kachchh
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) Gulf of Kachchh
The Marine Sanctuary and Marine National Park in the Gulf of Kachchh (Jamnagar district, Gujarat), notified in 1980–1982, was India's first designated Marine Protected Area. It encompasses an archipelago of 42 islands and rich intertidal ecosystems preserving fringing coral reefs, mangrove swamps, endangered dugongs, green sea turtles, dolphins, and diverse marine mollusks.
The Marine Sanctuary and Marine National Park in the Gulf of Kachchh (Jamnagar district, Gujarat), notified in 1980–1982, was India's first designated Marine Protected Area. It encompasses an archipelago of 42 islands and rich intertidal ecosystems preserving fringing coral reefs, mangrove swamps, endangered dugongs, green sea turtles, dolphins, and diverse marine mollusks.
Q67.
Which one of the following pairs of folk dance forms and states is not correctly matched?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Korku : Maharashtra
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Korku : Maharashtra (or (d) Mukna as a traditional wrestling martial sport)
• Korku is an Austroasiatic scheduled tribe indigenous primarily to the Satpura hills and Nimar region of Madhya Pradesh (and parts of Vidarbha), famous for tribal rituals like Sidoli rather than a standalone dance style.
• Jhummar: Traditional folk dance popular in Haryana and Punjab.
• Thali: Traditional celebratory brass plate dance of Himachal Pradesh and Kumaon.
• Mukna: Traditional indigenous folk wrestling/sport art form of Manipur.
• Korku is an Austroasiatic scheduled tribe indigenous primarily to the Satpura hills and Nimar region of Madhya Pradesh (and parts of Vidarbha), famous for tribal rituals like Sidoli rather than a standalone dance style.
• Jhummar: Traditional folk dance popular in Haryana and Punjab.
• Thali: Traditional celebratory brass plate dance of Himachal Pradesh and Kumaon.
• Mukna: Traditional indigenous folk wrestling/sport art form of Manipur.
Q68.
The population growth rate in Kerala is the lowest among major Indian states. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted reason for this?
Correct Option (C):
(c) Kerala has invested heavily in promoting literacy and public health and placed high priority on social policies
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) Kerala has invested heavily in promoting literacy and public health and placed high priority on social policies
Kerala's early transition to below-replacement Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is celebrated as the 'Kerala Model of Development'. Sustained public investments in universal primary education (especially high female literacy), widespread decentralized healthcare infrastructure, low infant mortality rates, elevated age of marriage, and female autonomy together drove voluntary fertility reduction without coercive demographic mandates.
Kerala's early transition to below-replacement Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is celebrated as the 'Kerala Model of Development'. Sustained public investments in universal primary education (especially high female literacy), widespread decentralized healthcare infrastructure, low infant mortality rates, elevated age of marriage, and female autonomy together drove voluntary fertility reduction without coercive demographic mandates.
Q69.
In order to win the Grand Slam in Tennis, a player must win which one of the following groups of tournaments?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Australian Open, Wimbledon, French Open, US Open
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Australian Open, Wimbledon, French Open, US Open
In professional tennis, achieving a Calendar-Year Grand Slam requires a player or doubles team to win all four major championship titles in a single calendar year:
1. Australian Open (Melbourne, hard court)
2. French Open / Roland-Garros (Paris, clay court)
3. Wimbledon Championships (London, grass court)
4. US Open (New York, hard court)
In professional tennis, achieving a Calendar-Year Grand Slam requires a player or doubles team to win all four major championship titles in a single calendar year:
1. Australian Open (Melbourne, hard court)
2. French Open / Roland-Garros (Paris, clay court)
3. Wimbledon Championships (London, grass court)
4. US Open (New York, hard court)
Q70.
Which one of the following legislations does not deal with the protection of environment?
Correct Option (D):
(d) The Port Laws Amendment Act, 1997
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) The Port Laws Amendment Act, 1997
• The Port Laws (Amendment) Act, 1997 was enacted to amend administrative, tariff-fixing (TAMP), and commercial operations of Major Port Trusts in India.
• In contrast, The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977, The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, and The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 (mandatory statutory insurance against hazardous chemical accidents) are key components of India's environmental statutory framework.
• The Port Laws (Amendment) Act, 1997 was enacted to amend administrative, tariff-fixing (TAMP), and commercial operations of Major Port Trusts in India.
• In contrast, The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977, The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, and The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 (mandatory statutory insurance against hazardous chemical accidents) are key components of India's environmental statutory framework.
Q71.
The Indo-Greek kingdom set up in north Afghanistan in the beginning of the second century BC was
Correct Option (A):
(a) Bactria
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Bactria
Following the secession of Diodotus I from the Seleucid Empire in the mid-3rd century BCE, the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom in Bactria (northern Afghanistan and the Oxus river valley) expanded southward under Demetrius I in the early 2nd century BCE (c. 180 BCE), establishing Indo-Greek rule across Arachosia, Gandhara, and the Punjab basin.
Following the secession of Diodotus I from the Seleucid Empire in the mid-3rd century BCE, the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom in Bactria (northern Afghanistan and the Oxus river valley) expanded southward under Demetrius I in the early 2nd century BCE (c. 180 BCE), establishing Indo-Greek rule across Arachosia, Gandhara, and the Punjab basin.
Q72.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (International Institution) | List II (Primary Function / Mandate) |
|---|---|
| I. WTO | A. Provides loans to address short-term balance of payment problems |
| II. IDA | B. Multi-lateral trade negotiation body |
| III. IMF | C. Sanction of soft loans |
| IV. IBRD | D. Facilitating lendings and borrowings for reconstruction and development |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (B):
(b) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
• I. WTO: Multilateral forum governing international trade rules and multilateral trade agreements (B).
• II. IDA (International Development Association): The World Bank's 'soft loan window' offering concessional, interest-free credits to low-income developing nations (C).
• III. IMF: Provides macroeconomic assistance and stabilization loans to resolve short-term balance of payments (BoP) crises (A).
• IV. IBRD: World Bank arm financing long-term capital projects for economic reconstruction and infrastructure development (D).
• I. WTO: Multilateral forum governing international trade rules and multilateral trade agreements (B).
• II. IDA (International Development Association): The World Bank's 'soft loan window' offering concessional, interest-free credits to low-income developing nations (C).
• III. IMF: Provides macroeconomic assistance and stabilization loans to resolve short-term balance of payments (BoP) crises (A).
• IV. IBRD: World Bank arm financing long-term capital projects for economic reconstruction and infrastructure development (D).
Q73.
At a time when empires in Europe were crumbling before the might of Napoleon which one of the following Governors-General kept the British flag flying high in India?
Correct Option (C):
(c) Lord Wellesley
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) Lord Wellesley
During the Napoleonic Wars (1798–1805) when Napoleon Bonaparte invaded Egypt and threatened British overland routes to the East, Governor-General Lord Wellesley (Richard Wellesley) aggressively expanded and consolidated British imperial hegemony across India. He neutralized French influence by defeating Tipu Sultan in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1799), subjugating the Nizam of Hyderabad and Maratha confederacy through his proactive system of Subsidiary Alliances.
During the Napoleonic Wars (1798–1805) when Napoleon Bonaparte invaded Egypt and threatened British overland routes to the East, Governor-General Lord Wellesley (Richard Wellesley) aggressively expanded and consolidated British imperial hegemony across India. He neutralized French influence by defeating Tipu Sultan in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War (1799), subjugating the Nizam of Hyderabad and Maratha confederacy through his proactive system of Subsidiary Alliances.
Q74.
Which one of the following pairs of states and tribes is not correctly matched?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Madhya Pradesh : Lambada
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Madhya Pradesh : Lambada
• Lambada (Banjara / Sugali): Major scheduled tribe concentrated primarily in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, and Maharashtra (not Madhya Pradesh).
• Miri (Mishing): Indigenous tribe of the Brahmaputra valley in Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Konyak: Largest of the Naga tribes, inhabiting the Mon district of Nagaland.
• Apatani: Indigenous tribal group inhabiting the Ziro valley in Arunachal Pradesh.
• Lambada (Banjara / Sugali): Major scheduled tribe concentrated primarily in Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, and Maharashtra (not Madhya Pradesh).
• Miri (Mishing): Indigenous tribe of the Brahmaputra valley in Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
• Konyak: Largest of the Naga tribes, inhabiting the Mon district of Nagaland.
• Apatani: Indigenous tribal group inhabiting the Ziro valley in Arunachal Pradesh.
Q75.
Which Indian nationalist leader looked upon a war between Germany and Britain as a godsent opportunity which would enable Indians to exploit the situation to their advantage?
Correct Option (C):
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) Subhas Chandra Bose
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose advocated that Britain's involvement in the Second World War presented a historic, godsent opportunity ('Britain's difficulty is India's opportunity') to launch an uncompromising mass struggle and align with Britain's international adversaries (Axis powers) to liberate India by armed force.
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose advocated that Britain's involvement in the Second World War presented a historic, godsent opportunity ('Britain's difficulty is India's opportunity') to launch an uncompromising mass struggle and align with Britain's international adversaries (Axis powers) to liberate India by armed force.
Q76.
As per 1991 Census, which one of the following groups of Union Territories had the highest literacy rate?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) Delhi and Andaman & Nicobar Islands (or (c)/(d) in UT groupings)
According to the 1991 Census of India, the Union Territories with the highest literacy rates among the provided options were Delhi ($75.29\%$) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands ($73.02\%$), followed by Chandigarh ($77.81\%$) and Pondicherry ($74.74\%$).
According to the 1991 Census of India, the Union Territories with the highest literacy rates among the provided options were Delhi ($75.29\%$) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands ($73.02\%$), followed by Chandigarh ($77.81\%$) and Pondicherry ($74.74\%$).
Q77.
In the rough outline map of a part of Jammu and Kashmir shown in the figure, places marked A, B, C and D represent respectively
Correct Option (C):
(c) Baramula, Srinagar, Anantnag and Kargil
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) Baramula, Srinagar, Anantnag and Kargil
Following the geography of the Jhelum valley and the Ladakh transit highway:
• A: Baramulla (in the northwest of the Kashmir Valley downstream on the Jhelum).
• B: Srinagar (central Kashmir Valley).
• C: Anantnag (Islamabad) (southern Kashmir Valley upstream on the Jhelum).
• D: Kargil (across the Zoji La pass in the Suru river basin, Ladakh).
Following the geography of the Jhelum valley and the Ladakh transit highway:
• A: Baramulla (in the northwest of the Kashmir Valley downstream on the Jhelum).
• B: Srinagar (central Kashmir Valley).
• C: Anantnag (Islamabad) (southern Kashmir Valley upstream on the Jhelum).
• D: Kargil (across the Zoji La pass in the Suru river basin, Ladakh).
Q78.
Which one of the following leaders of the Congress was totally in favour of Cabinet Mission Plan?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (or (c) Sardar Patel)
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (Congress President during the negotiations) was totally and unequivocally in favor of accepting the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 in its entirety without reservations, believing that its federal grouping system offered the last viable framework to preserve the territorial unity of undivided India and prevent partition.
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (Congress President during the negotiations) was totally and unequivocally in favor of accepting the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 in its entirety without reservations, believing that its federal grouping system offered the last viable framework to preserve the territorial unity of undivided India and prevent partition.
Q79.
Which one of the following statements is not correct / correct regarding modern Indian theatre?
Correct Option (C):
(c) The play 'Navanna' by Nabin Chandra Das was based on the famine of Bengal
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) The play 'Navanna' by Nabin Chandra Das was based on the famine of Bengal (as the incorrect statement in 'Which is NOT correct' framing)
• Fact check: The iconic socio-political play Nabanna (1944), portraying the horrors of the 1943 Bengal Famine and produced by the Indian People's Theatre Association (IPTA), was written by Bijon Bhattacharya (not Nabin Chandra Das).
• Statements (a) (Dinabandhu Mitra's Nil Darpan, 1860), (b) (Vijay Tendulkar's Ghashiram Kotwal, 1972), and (d) are historically accurate.
• Fact check: The iconic socio-political play Nabanna (1944), portraying the horrors of the 1943 Bengal Famine and produced by the Indian People's Theatre Association (IPTA), was written by Bijon Bhattacharya (not Nabin Chandra Das).
• Statements (a) (Dinabandhu Mitra's Nil Darpan, 1860), (b) (Vijay Tendulkar's Ghashiram Kotwal, 1972), and (d) are historically accurate.
Q80.
Which one of the following Indian leaders was dismissed by the British from the Indian Civil Service?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Surendranath Banerji
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) Surendranath Banerji
Surendranath Banerjea cleared the competitive Indian Civil Service examination in 1869 and was appointed Assistant Magistrate in Sylhet. In 1874, he was dismissed from service by the British authorities over a minor procedural error in judicial records. Following his dismissal, he entered active public life, founded the Indian Association (1876), and organized the Indian National Conference.
Surendranath Banerjea cleared the competitive Indian Civil Service examination in 1869 and was appointed Assistant Magistrate in Sylhet. In 1874, he was dismissed from service by the British authorities over a minor procedural error in judicial records. Following his dismissal, he entered active public life, founded the Indian Association (1876), and organized the Indian National Conference.
Q81.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Author) | List II (Novel / Book) |
|---|---|
| I. Shashi Tharoor | A. Clear Light of Day |
| II. Amitav Ghosh | B. The Circle of Reason |
| III. Anita Desai | C. Love and Longing in Bombay |
| IV. Vikram Chandra | D. Show Business |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C
• I. Shashi Tharoor: Authored the satirical novel Show Business (1992) (D).
• II. Amitav Ghosh: Debut novel The Circle of Reason (1986) (B).
• III. Anita Desai: Booker Prize-shortlisted novel Clear Light of Day (1980) (A).
• IV. Vikram Chandra: Acclaimed short story collection Love and Longing in Bombay (1997) (C).
• I. Shashi Tharoor: Authored the satirical novel Show Business (1992) (D).
• II. Amitav Ghosh: Debut novel The Circle of Reason (1986) (B).
• III. Anita Desai: Booker Prize-shortlisted novel Clear Light of Day (1980) (A).
• IV. Vikram Chandra: Acclaimed short story collection Love and Longing in Bombay (1997) (C).
Q82.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Rivers) | List II (Dams) |
|---|---|
| I. Cauvery | A. Alamatti |
| II. Krishna | B. Mettur |
| III. Narmada | C. Gandhi Sagar |
| IV. Chambal | D. Sardar Sarovar |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
• I. Cauvery: Mettur Dam (B) (Stanley Reservoir) in Salem district, Tamil Nadu.
• II. Krishna: Almatti Dam (A) (Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam) in Karnataka.
• III. Narmada: Sardar Sarovar Dam (D) in Navagam, Gujarat.
• IV. Chambal: Gandhi Sagar Dam (C) in Mandsaur district, Madhya Pradesh.
• I. Cauvery: Mettur Dam (B) (Stanley Reservoir) in Salem district, Tamil Nadu.
• II. Krishna: Almatti Dam (A) (Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam) in Karnataka.
• III. Narmada: Sardar Sarovar Dam (D) in Navagam, Gujarat.
• IV. Chambal: Gandhi Sagar Dam (C) in Mandsaur district, Madhya Pradesh.
Q83.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Books) | List II (Authors) |
|---|---|
| I. The First Indian War of Independence | A. Rabindranath Tagore |
| II. Anandmath | B. Sri Aurobindo |
| III. The Life Divine | C. Bankim Chandra Chatterji |
| IV. Sadhana | D. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
• I. The Indian War of Independence 1857: Authored by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (D).
• II. Anandamath: Celebrated Bengali novel (containing 'Vande Mataram') by Bankim Chandra Chatterji (C).
• III. The Life Divine: Major philosophical treatise on Integral Yoga composed by Sri Aurobindo (B).
• IV. Sadhana: The Realisation of Life: Collection of philosophical essays delivered and written by Rabindranath Tagore (A).
• I. The Indian War of Independence 1857: Authored by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (D).
• II. Anandamath: Celebrated Bengali novel (containing 'Vande Mataram') by Bankim Chandra Chatterji (C).
• III. The Life Divine: Major philosophical treatise on Integral Yoga composed by Sri Aurobindo (B).
• IV. Sadhana: The Realisation of Life: Collection of philosophical essays delivered and written by Rabindranath Tagore (A).
Q84.
Consider the following events:
I. Indigo Revolt
II. Santhal Rebellion
III. Deccan Riots
IV. Mutiny of the Sepoys (Revolt of 1857)
The correct chronological sequence of these events is:
I. Indigo Revolt
II. Santhal Rebellion
III. Deccan Riots
IV. Mutiny of the Sepoys (Revolt of 1857)
The correct chronological sequence of these events is:
Correct Option (D):
(d) II, IV, I, III
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Chronological Sequence: II, IV, I, III
1. II. Santhal Rebellion (Hul): 1855–1856 (led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu in Rajmahal hills).
2. IV. Mutiny of the Sepoys / Great Revolt: May 1857 (erupted at Meerut and Delhi).
3. I. Indigo Revolt (Nil Bidroha): 1859–1860 (initiated by peasants of Govindpur/Nadia, Bengal under Digambar and Bishnu Biswas).
4. III. Deccan Riots: May–June 1875 (agrarian riots against Gujarati/Marwari moneylenders across Pune and Ahmednagar districts of Maharashtra).
1. II. Santhal Rebellion (Hul): 1855–1856 (led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu in Rajmahal hills).
2. IV. Mutiny of the Sepoys / Great Revolt: May 1857 (erupted at Meerut and Delhi).
3. I. Indigo Revolt (Nil Bidroha): 1859–1860 (initiated by peasants of Govindpur/Nadia, Bengal under Digambar and Bishnu Biswas).
4. III. Deccan Riots: May–June 1875 (agrarian riots against Gujarati/Marwari moneylenders across Pune and Ahmednagar districts of Maharashtra).
Q85.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Year) | List II (Event) |
|---|---|
| I. 1775 | A. First Anglo-Burmese War |
| II. 1780 | B. First Anglo-Afghan War |
| III. 1824 | C. First Anglo-Maratha War |
| IV. 1838 | D. Second Anglo-Mysore War |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
• I. 1775: Outbreak of the First Anglo-Maratha War (1775–1782) (C) following the Treaty of Surat.
• II. 1780: Outbreak of the Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780–1784) (D) under Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan.
• III. 1824: Outbreak of the First Anglo-Burmese War (1824–1826) (A) under Lord Amherst (concluded by Treaty of Yandabo).
• IV. 1838: Commencement of the First Anglo-Afghan War (1838–1842) (B) under Lord Auckland (Tripartite Treaty of 1838).
• I. 1775: Outbreak of the First Anglo-Maratha War (1775–1782) (C) following the Treaty of Surat.
• II. 1780: Outbreak of the Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780–1784) (D) under Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan.
• III. 1824: Outbreak of the First Anglo-Burmese War (1824–1826) (A) under Lord Amherst (concluded by Treaty of Yandabo).
• IV. 1838: Commencement of the First Anglo-Afghan War (1838–1842) (B) under Lord Auckland (Tripartite Treaty of 1838).
Q86.
Since 1980, the share of the tertiary (services) sector in the total GDP of India has
Correct Option (A):
(a) shown an increasing trend
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) shown an increasing trend
Since 1980–81, India's macroeconomic growth pattern has been characterized by structural tertiarization: the share of the primary/agricultural sector in gross domestic product contracted steadily, while the tertiary (services) sector expanded continuously from around $37\%$ in 1980 to over $50\%$ by the late 1990s and early 2000s, becoming the largest contributor to India's GDP.
Since 1980–81, India's macroeconomic growth pattern has been characterized by structural tertiarization: the share of the primary/agricultural sector in gross domestic product contracted steadily, while the tertiary (services) sector expanded continuously from around $37\%$ in 1980 to over $50\%$ by the late 1990s and early 2000s, becoming the largest contributor to India's GDP.
Q87.
The term "imperial preference" was applied to the
Correct Option (A):
(a) special privileges on British imports in India
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) special privileges on British imports in India
Imperial Preference (formalized at the Ottawa Imperial Conference of 1932) was a colonial reciprocal tariff system that granted preferential low customs tariffs and duty exemptions to manufactured goods imported from Britain and the British Empire into India, while imposing higher protective tariffs on non-British foreign imports.
Imperial Preference (formalized at the Ottawa Imperial Conference of 1932) was a colonial reciprocal tariff system that granted preferential low customs tariffs and duty exemptions to manufactured goods imported from Britain and the British Empire into India, while imposing higher protective tariffs on non-British foreign imports.
Q88.
Assertion (A): During the time of Akbar, for every ten cavalrymen, the mansabdars had to maintain twenty horses.
Reason (R): Horses had to be rested while on march and replacements were necessary in times of war.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): Horses had to be rested while on march and replacements were necessary in times of war.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
• Assertion (A) is true: Under Emperor Akbar's Mansabdari regulations, the Dah-Bisti (ten-twenty) rule mandated that a contingent of 10 Sawars (cavalry troopers) had to maintain 20 horses (specifically: 3 troopers with 3 horses each = 9, 4 troopers with 2 horses each = 8, and 3 troopers with 1 horse each = 3; total = 20 horses).
• Reason (R) is true and directly explains A: Maintaining remounts and spare warhorses was vital to avoid exhausting mounts during long expeditionary marches and to provide immediate replacements for horses injured, fatigued, or killed in combat.
• Assertion (A) is true: Under Emperor Akbar's Mansabdari regulations, the Dah-Bisti (ten-twenty) rule mandated that a contingent of 10 Sawars (cavalry troopers) had to maintain 20 horses (specifically: 3 troopers with 3 horses each = 9, 4 troopers with 2 horses each = 8, and 3 troopers with 1 horse each = 3; total = 20 horses).
• Reason (R) is true and directly explains A: Maintaining remounts and spare warhorses was vital to avoid exhausting mounts during long expeditionary marches and to provide immediate replacements for horses injured, fatigued, or killed in combat.
Q89.
Assertion (A): Lord Linlithgow described the August Movement of 1942 as the most serious rebellion since Sepoy Mutiny.
Reason (R): There was massive upsurge of the peasantry in certain areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): There was massive upsurge of the peasantry in certain areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
• Assertion (A) is true: In a confidential cable sent to Prime Minister Winston Churchill on August 31, 1942, Viceroy Lord Linlithgow wrote: 'I am engaged here in meeting by far the most serious rebellion since that of 1857, the gravity and extent of which we have so far concealed from the world for reasons of military security.'
• Reason (R) is true and directly explains A: Following the pre-emptive arrest of top national leaders, the movement transformed into a spontaneous mass uprising dominated by agrarian peasants, students, and workers who destroyed railway lines, severed telegraph lines, stormed police stations, and established parallel national governments (Prati Sarkar / Jatiya Sarkar in Tamluk, Satara, Talcher, and Ballia).
• Assertion (A) is true: In a confidential cable sent to Prime Minister Winston Churchill on August 31, 1942, Viceroy Lord Linlithgow wrote: 'I am engaged here in meeting by far the most serious rebellion since that of 1857, the gravity and extent of which we have so far concealed from the world for reasons of military security.'
• Reason (R) is true and directly explains A: Following the pre-emptive arrest of top national leaders, the movement transformed into a spontaneous mass uprising dominated by agrarian peasants, students, and workers who destroyed railway lines, severed telegraph lines, stormed police stations, and established parallel national governments (Prati Sarkar / Jatiya Sarkar in Tamluk, Satara, Talcher, and Ballia).
Q90.
Assertion (A): Devaluation of a currency may promote export.
Reason (R): Price of the country's products in the international market may fall due to devaluation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): Price of the country's products in the international market may fall due to devaluation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
• Assertion (A) is true: Devaluation of a domestic currency against foreign currencies enhances the price competitiveness of home-produced commodities in overseas export markets, stimulating total export volume (provided the Marshall-Lerner condition holds).
• Reason (R) is true and directly explains A: When a currency devalues, fewer foreign currency units are required by international buyers to purchase the same quantity of domestic goods, causing export prices denominated in foreign currencies to fall and boosting foreign import demand.
• Assertion (A) is true: Devaluation of a domestic currency against foreign currencies enhances the price competitiveness of home-produced commodities in overseas export markets, stimulating total export volume (provided the Marshall-Lerner condition holds).
• Reason (R) is true and directly explains A: When a currency devalues, fewer foreign currency units are required by international buyers to purchase the same quantity of domestic goods, causing export prices denominated in foreign currencies to fall and boosting foreign import demand.
Q91.
Assertion (A): Fiscal deficit is greater than budgetary deficit.
Reason (R): Fiscal deficit is the borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India plus other liabilities of the Government to meet its expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): Fiscal deficit is the borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India plus other liabilities of the Government to meet its expenditure.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
• Assertion (A) is true: Fiscal Deficit is a broader measure of government borrowing requirements than Budgetary Deficit.
• Reason (R) is true and explains A:
$$\text{Budgetary Deficit} = \text{Total Expenditure} - \text{Total Receipts (including all borrowings)}$$
$$\text{Fiscal Deficit} = \text{Total Expenditure} - (\text{Revenue Receipts} + \text{Non-debt Capital Receipts}) = \text{Budgetary Deficit} + \text{Market Borrowings and Other Liabilities}$$
Because Fiscal Deficit encompasses the total net borrowing requirement (borrowing from the RBI via monetized deficit plus domestic market loans, small savings, and external debts), it is always larger than the conventional budgetary deficit.
• Assertion (A) is true: Fiscal Deficit is a broader measure of government borrowing requirements than Budgetary Deficit.
• Reason (R) is true and explains A:
$$\text{Budgetary Deficit} = \text{Total Expenditure} - \text{Total Receipts (including all borrowings)}$$
$$\text{Fiscal Deficit} = \text{Total Expenditure} - (\text{Revenue Receipts} + \text{Non-debt Capital Receipts}) = \text{Budgetary Deficit} + \text{Market Borrowings and Other Liabilities}$$
Because Fiscal Deficit encompasses the total net borrowing requirement (borrowing from the RBI via monetized deficit plus domestic market loans, small savings, and external debts), it is always larger than the conventional budgetary deficit.
Q92.
Assertion (A): According to statistics, more female children are born each year than male children in India.
Reason (R): In India, the death rate of a male child is higher than that of the female child.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): In India, the death rate of a male child is higher than that of the female child.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (D):
(d) A is false, but R is true
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true (or Assertion is false)
• Assertion (A) is false: Globally and in India, the natural sex ratio at birth (SRB) biologically favors males (approximately 105 male births per 100 female births).
• Reason (R) is considered true biologically: While male infants naturally exhibit slightly higher neonatal biological vulnerability, in the demographic context of India, under-five female mortality has historically remained higher due to adverse socio-cultural factors and gender neglect.
• Assertion (A) is false: Globally and in India, the natural sex ratio at birth (SRB) biologically favors males (approximately 105 male births per 100 female births).
• Reason (R) is considered true biologically: While male infants naturally exhibit slightly higher neonatal biological vulnerability, in the demographic context of India, under-five female mortality has historically remained higher due to adverse socio-cultural factors and gender neglect.
Q93.
Assertion (A): Information technology is fast becoming a very important field of activity in India.
Reason (R): Software is one of the major exports of the country and India has a very strong base in hardware.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): Software is one of the major exports of the country and India has a very strong base in hardware.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (C):
(c) A is true, but R is false
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false
• Assertion (A) is true: Information Technology emerged as one of the fastest-growing sectors and primary drivers of services-led economic expansion in India from the late 1990s.
• Reason (R) is false: While software development and IT-enabled services (ITES) constitute one of the largest export earners, India's indigenous IT hardware and semiconductor manufacturing base has historically remained weak and heavily reliant on electronic imports.
• Assertion (A) is true: Information Technology emerged as one of the fastest-growing sectors and primary drivers of services-led economic expansion in India from the late 1990s.
• Reason (R) is false: While software development and IT-enabled services (ITES) constitute one of the largest export earners, India's indigenous IT hardware and semiconductor manufacturing base has historically remained weak and heavily reliant on electronic imports.
Q94.
Assertion (A): Chile continues to be an important producer of copper in the world.
Reason (R): Chile is endowed with the world's largest deposit of porphyry copper.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): Chile is endowed with the world's largest deposit of porphyry copper.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
• Assertion (A) is true: Chile is the world's leading producer and exporter of copper, accounting for roughly $28\% - 30\%$ of global mine production.
• Reason (R) is true and directly explains A: The western Andean cordillera in Chile is endowed with the world's largest hydrothermal porphyry copper deposits, including mega-mines such as Escondida, Chuquicamata, and El Teniente.
• Assertion (A) is true: Chile is the world's leading producer and exporter of copper, accounting for roughly $28\% - 30\%$ of global mine production.
• Reason (R) is true and directly explains A: The western Andean cordillera in Chile is endowed with the world's largest hydrothermal porphyry copper deposits, including mega-mines such as Escondida, Chuquicamata, and El Teniente.
Q95.
In eye donation, which one of the following parts of donor's eye is utilised?
Correct Option (C):
(c) Cornea
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) Cornea
In clinical corneal grafting / transplantation (Keratoplasty), only the cornea (the clear, avascular front surface tissue of the eye) is harvested from a deceased donor's eye to replace a diseased, scarred, or cloudy cornea and restore sight.
In clinical corneal grafting / transplantation (Keratoplasty), only the cornea (the clear, avascular front surface tissue of the eye) is harvested from a deceased donor's eye to replace a diseased, scarred, or cloudy cornea and restore sight.
Q96.
Consider the following statements:
An ordinary light bulb has a rather short life because the:
I. filament wire is not uniform.
II. bulb cannot be evacuated completely.
III. wires supporting the filament melt at high temperatures.
Which of the above statements are correct?
An ordinary light bulb has a rather short life because the:
I. filament wire is not uniform.
II. bulb cannot be evacuated completely.
III. wires supporting the filament melt at high temperatures.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option (C):
(c) I and II
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) I and II (or (d) I, II and III in general wear mechanisms)
• Statement I is correct: Slight micro-variations in tungsten filament wire diameter create localized high-resistance 'hot spots' where accelerated evaporation occurs, leading to filament burnout.
• Statement II is correct: Residual oxygen/air inside imperfectly evacuated bulbs oxidizes the hot tungsten wire at operating temperatures ($> 2000^\circ\text{C}$), degrading its operational life.
• Statement III is incorrect: Lead-in/support wires are made of refractory metals like molybdenum or nickel-iron alloys with melting points higher than operating temperatures.
• Statement I is correct: Slight micro-variations in tungsten filament wire diameter create localized high-resistance 'hot spots' where accelerated evaporation occurs, leading to filament burnout.
• Statement II is correct: Residual oxygen/air inside imperfectly evacuated bulbs oxidizes the hot tungsten wire at operating temperatures ($> 2000^\circ\text{C}$), degrading its operational life.
• Statement III is incorrect: Lead-in/support wires are made of refractory metals like molybdenum or nickel-iron alloys with melting points higher than operating temperatures.
Q97.
Match the hormones in List I with items in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Hormones / Biochemicals) | List II (Function / Associated Target) |
|---|---|
| I. Adrenaline | A. Anger, fear, danger (Fight or Flight) |
| II. Estrogen | B. Attracting partners through sense of smell |
| III. Insulin | C. Female secondary sexual characteristics |
| IV. Pheromones | D. Glucose regulation |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (C):
(c) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
• I. Adrenaline (Epinephrine): Secreted by the adrenal medulla during acute stress, regulating anger, fear, and fight-or-flight responses (A).
• II. Estrogen: Primary ovarian steroid hormone regulating the female reproductive system and secondary sexual characteristics (C).
• III. Insulin: Pancreatic peptide hormone regulating cellular uptake of blood glucose (D).
• IV. Pheromones: Ectohormones secreted externally to trigger behavioral responses like attracting mating partners through olfaction (B).
• I. Adrenaline (Epinephrine): Secreted by the adrenal medulla during acute stress, regulating anger, fear, and fight-or-flight responses (A).
• II. Estrogen: Primary ovarian steroid hormone regulating the female reproductive system and secondary sexual characteristics (C).
• III. Insulin: Pancreatic peptide hormone regulating cellular uptake of blood glucose (D).
• IV. Pheromones: Ectohormones secreted externally to trigger behavioral responses like attracting mating partners through olfaction (B).
Q98.
Neem tree (Azadirachta indica) has acquired industrial importance as a source of
Correct Option (C):
(c) biofertilizer, biopesticide and anti-fertility compound
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) biofertilizer, biopesticide and anti-fertility compound
The versatile bioactive phytochemicals of the Neem tree (Azadirachta indica) yield major industrial products:
• Biopesticide: Active triterpenoid Azadirachtin acts as an insect antifeedant, repellent, and growth regulator.
• Biofertilizer / Soil Conditioners: De-oiled Neem seed cake enriches soil organic matter and acts as a natural nitrification inhibitor.
• Anti-fertility Compound: Purified Neem seed extracts (Praneem) have documented spermicidal and anti-implantation properties.
The versatile bioactive phytochemicals of the Neem tree (Azadirachta indica) yield major industrial products:
• Biopesticide: Active triterpenoid Azadirachtin acts as an insect antifeedant, repellent, and growth regulator.
• Biofertilizer / Soil Conditioners: De-oiled Neem seed cake enriches soil organic matter and acts as a natural nitrification inhibitor.
• Anti-fertility Compound: Purified Neem seed extracts (Praneem) have documented spermicidal and anti-implantation properties.
Q99.
Match List I (Drugs / Chemicals) with List II (Their uses) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Drug / Chemical) | List II (Medical / Practical Application) |
|---|---|
| I. Atropine | A. Local anaesthesia |
| II. Ether | B. Heart trouble (Angina Pectoris) |
| III. Nitroglycerine | C. Dilation of pupil (Mydriasis) |
| IV. Pyrethrin | D. Mosquito control |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (D):
(d) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
• I. Atropine: Anticholinergic alkaloid from Atropa belladonna used as a mydriatic for dilation of the pupil (C).
• II. Diethyl Ether: Historically standard inhalation agent for anaesthesia (A).
• III. Nitroglycerine (Glyceryl trinitrate): Potent vasodilator used to relieve acute angina pectoris and ischemic heart symptoms (B).
• IV. Pyrethrin: Natural botanical insecticide extracted from Chrysanthemum cinerariifolium used in repellent coils and sprays for mosquito control (D).
• I. Atropine: Anticholinergic alkaloid from Atropa belladonna used as a mydriatic for dilation of the pupil (C).
• II. Diethyl Ether: Historically standard inhalation agent for anaesthesia (A).
• III. Nitroglycerine (Glyceryl trinitrate): Potent vasodilator used to relieve acute angina pectoris and ischemic heart symptoms (B).
• IV. Pyrethrin: Natural botanical insecticide extracted from Chrysanthemum cinerariifolium used in repellent coils and sprays for mosquito control (D).
Q100.
Match List I (Naturally occurring substances) with List II (Elements) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Substances) | List II (Constituent Element) |
|---|---|
| I. Diamond | A. Calcium |
| II. Marble | B. Silicon |
| III. Sand | C. Aluminium |
| IV. Ruby | D. Carbon |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (D):
(d) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
• I. Diamond: Allotrope of pure Carbon ($C$) (D).
• II. Marble: Metamorphic rock consisting primarily of recrystallized Calcium carbonate ($\text{CaCO}_3$) (A).
• III. Sand / Quartz: Composed largely of Silica ($\text{SiO}_2$), containing Silicon ($Si$) (B).
• IV. Ruby (Corundum): Crystalline gemstone of Aluminium oxide ($\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3$) (C) with chromium trace impurities.
• I. Diamond: Allotrope of pure Carbon ($C$) (D).
• II. Marble: Metamorphic rock consisting primarily of recrystallized Calcium carbonate ($\text{CaCO}_3$) (A).
• III. Sand / Quartz: Composed largely of Silica ($\text{SiO}_2$), containing Silicon ($Si$) (B).
• IV. Ruby (Corundum): Crystalline gemstone of Aluminium oxide ($\text{Al}_2\text{O}_3$) (C) with chromium trace impurities.
Q101.
Which one of the following scholars suggests the earth's origin from gases and dust particles?
Correct Option (D):
(d) O. Schmidt
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) O. Schmidt
In 1943, Russian geophysicist and astronomer Otto Schmidt proposed the Interstellar Dust Hypothesis (revised and expanded by Carl Friedrich von Weizsäcker), postulating that the solar system and primordial planets condensed from a vast rotating cloud of primordial interstellar gases and dust particles captured by the Sun.
• Note: Sir James Jeans proposed the Tidal Hypothesis (1919), Hannes Alfvén formulated the Electromagnetic Theory, and Fred Hoyle proposed the Supernova Hypothesis.
In 1943, Russian geophysicist and astronomer Otto Schmidt proposed the Interstellar Dust Hypothesis (revised and expanded by Carl Friedrich von Weizsäcker), postulating that the solar system and primordial planets condensed from a vast rotating cloud of primordial interstellar gases and dust particles captured by the Sun.
• Note: Sir James Jeans proposed the Tidal Hypothesis (1919), Hannes Alfvén formulated the Electromagnetic Theory, and Fred Hoyle proposed the Supernova Hypothesis.
Q102.
Indian farmers are unhappy over the introduction of "Terminator Seed Technology" because the seeds produced by this technology are expected to
Correct Option (D):
(d) give rise to plants incapable of forming viable seeds
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) give rise to plants incapable of forming viable seeds
Terminator Technology (Genetic Use Restriction Technology - GURT) genetically modifies crops so that the second-generation harvested seeds are biologically sterile and unable to germinate. This prevents farmers from saving, sharing, and replanting seeds from their harvest, forcing them into commercial dependency by purchasing new seeds each cropping cycle.
Terminator Technology (Genetic Use Restriction Technology - GURT) genetically modifies crops so that the second-generation harvested seeds are biologically sterile and unable to germinate. This prevents farmers from saving, sharing, and replanting seeds from their harvest, forcing them into commercial dependency by purchasing new seeds each cropping cycle.
Q103.
Consider the following statements regarding a motor car battery:
I. The voltage is usually 12 V.
II. Electrolyte used is hydrochloric acid.
III. Electrodes are lead and copper.
IV. Capacity is expressed in ampere-hour.
Which of the above statements are correct?
I. The voltage is usually 12 V.
II. Electrolyte used is hydrochloric acid.
III. Electrodes are lead and copper.
IV. Capacity is expressed in ampere-hour.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option (D):
(d) I and IV
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) I and IV
• Statement I is correct: A standard automobile lead-acid storage battery consists of six 2V cells connected in series to deliver a nominal potential difference of 12 V.
• Statement IV is correct: The electric charge capacity of an automotive battery is specified in Ampere-hours (Ah).
• Statement II is incorrect: The electrolyte is dilute sulphuric acid ($\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$), not hydrochloric acid.
• Statement III is incorrect: The active plate materials are lead dioxide ($\text{PbO}_2$, positive plate) and spongy lead ($\text{Pb}$, negative plate), not copper.
• Statement I is correct: A standard automobile lead-acid storage battery consists of six 2V cells connected in series to deliver a nominal potential difference of 12 V.
• Statement IV is correct: The electric charge capacity of an automotive battery is specified in Ampere-hours (Ah).
• Statement II is incorrect: The electrolyte is dilute sulphuric acid ($\text{H}_2\text{SO}_4$), not hydrochloric acid.
• Statement III is incorrect: The active plate materials are lead dioxide ($\text{PbO}_2$, positive plate) and spongy lead ($\text{Pb}$, negative plate), not copper.
Q104.
Match List I (Quantity) with List II (Units) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Physical Quantity) | List II (Measurement Unit) |
|---|---|
| I. High speed | A. Mach |
| II. Wavelength | B. Angstrom |
| III. Pressure | C. Pascal |
| IV. Energy | D. Joule |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (C):
(c) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
• I. High speed: Measured in Mach number (A) (speed relative to the local speed of sound).
• II. Wavelength: Measured in Angstroms ($\text{Å} = 10^{-10}\text{ m}$) (B).
• III. Pressure: SI unit is Pascal ($\text{Pa} = \text{N/m}^2$) (C).
• IV. Energy: SI unit is Joule ($\text{J} = \text{N}\cdot\text{m}$) (D).
• I. High speed: Measured in Mach number (A) (speed relative to the local speed of sound).
• II. Wavelength: Measured in Angstroms ($\text{Å} = 10^{-10}\text{ m}$) (B).
• III. Pressure: SI unit is Pascal ($\text{Pa} = \text{N/m}^2$) (C).
• IV. Energy: SI unit is Joule ($\text{J} = \text{N}\cdot\text{m}$) (D).
Q105.
Which one of the following genetic diseases is sex-linked?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Royal haemophilia
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Royal haemophilia
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder affecting blood coagulation factors (Factor VIII or IX). It is known as the 'Royal Disease' because Queen Victoria of the United Kingdom was an asymptomatic carrier who transmitted the mutant X chromosome to descendants across European royal dynasties.
• Tay-Sachs disease and Cystic fibrosis are autosomal recessive genetic disorders.
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder affecting blood coagulation factors (Factor VIII or IX). It is known as the 'Royal Disease' because Queen Victoria of the United Kingdom was an asymptomatic carrier who transmitted the mutant X chromosome to descendants across European royal dynasties.
• Tay-Sachs disease and Cystic fibrosis are autosomal recessive genetic disorders.
Q106.
For which one of the following is capillarity not the only reason?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Rising of water from the roots of a plant to its foliage
While capillary forces inside xylem vessels play a minor role, the primary physiological mechanism responsible for the continuous upward ascent of sap to the leaves of tall trees is the Transpiration Pull (explained by Dixon and Joly's Cohesion-Tension theory) along with active root pressure.
• In contrast, ink absorption by blotting paper, water dispersion in porous cotton fabrics, and sub-surface moisture movement through fine soil pores are governed mainly by capillary action.
While capillary forces inside xylem vessels play a minor role, the primary physiological mechanism responsible for the continuous upward ascent of sap to the leaves of tall trees is the Transpiration Pull (explained by Dixon and Joly's Cohesion-Tension theory) along with active root pressure.
• In contrast, ink absorption by blotting paper, water dispersion in porous cotton fabrics, and sub-surface moisture movement through fine soil pores are governed mainly by capillary action.
Q107.
Consider the following statements:
I. If a person looks at a coin which is in a bucket of water, the coin will appear to be closer than it really is.
II. If a person under water looks at a coin above the water surface, the coin will appear to be at a higher level than it really is.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
I. If a person looks at a coin which is in a bucket of water, the coin will appear to be closer than it really is.
II. If a person under water looks at a coin above the water surface, the coin will appear to be at a higher level than it really is.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct Option (A):
(a) I and II
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) I and II
• Statement I is correct: When viewing an object inside water from air (denser to rarer medium), light rays bend away from the normal at the surface. The eye traces these rays back to a virtual image at a reduced depth ($\text{Apparent Depth} = \frac{d}{\mu}$), making the coin appear closer/raised.
• Statement II is correct: When viewing an object in air from underwater (rarer to denser medium), light rays bend towards the normal upon entering water. The backward-projected rays meet at a virtual position higher than actual ($\text{Apparent Height} = \mu \times h$), so the coin appears at a higher level than it actually is.
• Statement I is correct: When viewing an object inside water from air (denser to rarer medium), light rays bend away from the normal at the surface. The eye traces these rays back to a virtual image at a reduced depth ($\text{Apparent Depth} = \frac{d}{\mu}$), making the coin appear closer/raised.
• Statement II is correct: When viewing an object in air from underwater (rarer to denser medium), light rays bend towards the normal upon entering water. The backward-projected rays meet at a virtual position higher than actual ($\text{Apparent Height} = \mu \times h$), so the coin appears at a higher level than it actually is.
Q108.
Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of
Correct Option (A):
(a) Kesari dal
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Kesari dal
Neurolathyrism is an irreversible, crippling motor disorder causing spastic paralysis of the lower limbs due to prolonged, heavy consumption of Khesari dal (Lathyrus sativus / grass pea). The legume contains a toxic non-protein neuro-amino acid known as $\beta$-ODAP ($\beta$-N-oxalyl-$\alpha$,$\beta$-diaminopropionic acid), which leads to the selective degeneration of upper motor neurons in the spinal cord.
• Epidemic dropsy is caused by the adulteration of mustard oil with argemone oil.
• Beriberi (Vitamin B1 / thiamine deficiency) is associated with excessive consumption of polished rice.
Neurolathyrism is an irreversible, crippling motor disorder causing spastic paralysis of the lower limbs due to prolonged, heavy consumption of Khesari dal (Lathyrus sativus / grass pea). The legume contains a toxic non-protein neuro-amino acid known as $\beta$-ODAP ($\beta$-N-oxalyl-$\alpha$,$\beta$-diaminopropionic acid), which leads to the selective degeneration of upper motor neurons in the spinal cord.
• Epidemic dropsy is caused by the adulteration of mustard oil with argemone oil.
• Beriberi (Vitamin B1 / thiamine deficiency) is associated with excessive consumption of polished rice.
Q109.
Barium in a suitable form is administered to patients before an X-ray examination of the stomach, because
Correct Option (C):
(c) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and this helps the stomach to appear clearly in contrast with the other regions in the picture
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and this helps the stomach to appear clearly in contrast with the other regions in the picture
Barium has a relatively high atomic number ($Z = 56$), which gives insoluble Barium sulphate ($\text{BaSO}_4$) excellent radiopaque (X-ray absorbing) properties via photoelectric attenuation. When administered as a suspension ('barium meal'), it coats the mucosal walls of the gastrointestinal tract and stomach, preventing X-rays from passing through and casting a crisp, radio-dense shadow that stands out in sharp contrast against surrounding soft tissues on radiographic film.
Barium has a relatively high atomic number ($Z = 56$), which gives insoluble Barium sulphate ($\text{BaSO}_4$) excellent radiopaque (X-ray absorbing) properties via photoelectric attenuation. When administered as a suspension ('barium meal'), it coats the mucosal walls of the gastrointestinal tract and stomach, preventing X-rays from passing through and casting a crisp, radio-dense shadow that stands out in sharp contrast against surrounding soft tissues on radiographic film.
Q110.
Endoscopy, a technique used to explore the stomach or other inner parts of the body is based on the phenomenon of
Correct Option (A):
(a) total internal reflection
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) total internal reflection
Medical endoscopes make use of flexible coherent bundles of optical glass fibers to transmit light into internal organs and relay illuminated visual images back to the physician. Light travels along the denser core of each optical fiber without escaping into the cladding by undergoing continuous Total Internal Reflection (TIR), which occurs because the light strikes the core-cladding boundary at angles greater than the critical angle.
Medical endoscopes make use of flexible coherent bundles of optical glass fibers to transmit light into internal organs and relay illuminated visual images back to the physician. Light travels along the denser core of each optical fiber without escaping into the cladding by undergoing continuous Total Internal Reflection (TIR), which occurs because the light strikes the core-cladding boundary at angles greater than the critical angle.
Q111.
Strips of two metals A and B are firmly joined together as shown in the figure. On heating, A expands more than B does (coefficient of linear expansion $\alpha_A > \alpha_B$). If this joined strip is heated, then it will appear as
Correct Option (A):
(a) convex towards A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) convex towards A (or bends towards B)
• When a bimetallic strip is heated, metal $A$ expands more in length than metal $B$ because $\alpha_A > \alpha_B$.
• Since the two strips are welded/riveted together along their interface, metal $A$ is forced into forming the longer, outer curved arc, while metal $B$ forms the shorter, inner arc.
• As a result, the strip bends towards side B, making the outer surface convex on the side of A (and concave on the side of B).
• When a bimetallic strip is heated, metal $A$ expands more in length than metal $B$ because $\alpha_A > \alpha_B$.
• Since the two strips are welded/riveted together along their interface, metal $A$ is forced into forming the longer, outer curved arc, while metal $B$ forms the shorter, inner arc.
• As a result, the strip bends towards side B, making the outer surface convex on the side of A (and concave on the side of B).
Q112.
Which one of the following agricultural practices is eco-friendly?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Organic farming
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Organic farming
Organic farming eliminates the use of synthetic chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and growth regulators, relying instead on crop rotation, green manure, compost, and biological pest control to sustain soil health and ecological balance.
• Shifting cultivation (Jhum) accelerates deforestation and soil erosion.
• High-yielding varieties (HYVs) demand intensive irrigation and synthetic chemical inputs.
Organic farming eliminates the use of synthetic chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and growth regulators, relying instead on crop rotation, green manure, compost, and biological pest control to sustain soil health and ecological balance.
• Shifting cultivation (Jhum) accelerates deforestation and soil erosion.
• High-yielding varieties (HYVs) demand intensive irrigation and synthetic chemical inputs.
Q113.
When ants bite, they inject
Correct Option (C):
(c) formic acid
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) formic acid
Ants (and bee/wasp stings) inject Formic acid (Methanoic acid, $\text{HCOOH}$) from their venom sacs during a bite or sting, which causes localized pain, inflammation, and a burning sensation.
Ants (and bee/wasp stings) inject Formic acid (Methanoic acid, $\text{HCOOH}$) from their venom sacs during a bite or sting, which causes localized pain, inflammation, and a burning sensation.
Q114.
Which one of the following is a useful functional association between fungi and the roots of higher plants?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Mycorrhiza
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Mycorrhiza
Mycorrhiza is a mutualistic symbiotic association between a fungus and the roots of higher vascular plants. The fungal hyphae absorb essential minerals (especially phosphorus) and water from the soil for the plant, while the plant supplies carbohydrates/photosynthates to the fungus.
• Lichens: Symbiosis between fungi and algae/cyanobacteria.
• Coralloid roots: Found in Cycas, harbouring nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria (Anabaena/Nostoc).
Mycorrhiza is a mutualistic symbiotic association between a fungus and the roots of higher vascular plants. The fungal hyphae absorb essential minerals (especially phosphorus) and water from the soil for the plant, while the plant supplies carbohydrates/photosynthates to the fungus.
• Lichens: Symbiosis between fungi and algae/cyanobacteria.
• Coralloid roots: Found in Cycas, harbouring nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria (Anabaena/Nostoc).
Q115.
Which one of the following types of coal contains a higher percentage of carbon than the rest?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Anthracite
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Anthracite
Ranking of coal by fixed carbon content and calorific value:
1. Anthracite: Highest rank ($85\% - 95\%$ carbon), hard, lustrous, burns with a smokeless blue flame.
2. Bituminous: $60\% - 80\%$ carbon.
3. Lignite (Brown coal): $40\% - 55\%$ carbon.
4. Peat: Lowest carbon content ($< 40\%$) and highest moisture content.
Ranking of coal by fixed carbon content and calorific value:
1. Anthracite: Highest rank ($85\% - 95\%$ carbon), hard, lustrous, burns with a smokeless blue flame.
2. Bituminous: $60\% - 80\%$ carbon.
3. Lignite (Brown coal): $40\% - 55\%$ carbon.
4. Peat: Lowest carbon content ($< 40\%$) and highest moisture content.
Q116.
Cobalt-60 is commonly used in radiation therapy because it emits
Correct Option (C):
(c) gamma rays
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) gamma rays
Cobalt-60 ($^{60}\text{Co}$) decays by beta decay to excited states of Nickel-60, which de-excite by emitting penetrating, high-energy gamma rays ($\gamma$-rays) ($1.17\text{ MeV}$ and $1.33\text{ MeV}$). These gamma rays are widely utilized in teletherapy machines to target and destroy malignant cancer cells.
Cobalt-60 ($^{60}\text{Co}$) decays by beta decay to excited states of Nickel-60, which de-excite by emitting penetrating, high-energy gamma rays ($\gamma$-rays) ($1.17\text{ MeV}$ and $1.33\text{ MeV}$). These gamma rays are widely utilized in teletherapy machines to target and destroy malignant cancer cells.
Q117.
Low temperatures (Cryogenics) find application in
Correct Option (A):
(a) space travel, surgery and magnetic levitation
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) space travel, surgery and magnetic levitation
Cryogenics (behavior of materials at temperatures below $-150^\circ\text{C} / 123\text{ K}$) is applied in:
• Space Travel: Cryogenic rocket engines utilizing liquid hydrogen ($\text{LH}_2$) as fuel and liquid oxygen ($\text{LOX}$) as oxidizer.
• Surgery (Cryosurgery): Using liquid nitrogen probes to freeze and destroy diseased or cancerous tissues.
• Magnetic Levitation (Maglev): Cooling superconducting electromagnets (like Nb-Ti alloys) to achieve zero electrical resistance and Meissner effect levitation.
Cryogenics (behavior of materials at temperatures below $-150^\circ\text{C} / 123\text{ K}$) is applied in:
• Space Travel: Cryogenic rocket engines utilizing liquid hydrogen ($\text{LH}_2$) as fuel and liquid oxygen ($\text{LOX}$) as oxidizer.
• Surgery (Cryosurgery): Using liquid nitrogen probes to freeze and destroy diseased or cancerous tissues.
• Magnetic Levitation (Maglev): Cooling superconducting electromagnets (like Nb-Ti alloys) to achieve zero electrical resistance and Meissner effect levitation.
Q118.
Consider the following statements:
Glass can be etched or scratched by
I. diamond
II. hydrofluoric acid
III. aqua regia
IV. concentrated sulphuric acid
Which of these statements are correct?
Glass can be etched or scratched by
I. diamond
II. hydrofluoric acid
III. aqua regia
IV. concentrated sulphuric acid
Which of these statements are correct?
Correct Option (C):
(c) I and II
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) I and II
• I. Diamond: With a Mohs hardness of 10, diamond readily cuts and physically scratches glass.
• II. Hydrofluoric acid ($\text{HF}$): The only common acid that chemically attacks and etches glass by dissolving silica ($\text{SiO}_2 + 4\text{HF} \rightarrow \text{SiF}_4 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$).
• Aqua regia and concentrated sulphuric acid do not etch or dissolve silicate glass.
• I. Diamond: With a Mohs hardness of 10, diamond readily cuts and physically scratches glass.
• II. Hydrofluoric acid ($\text{HF}$): The only common acid that chemically attacks and etches glass by dissolving silica ($\text{SiO}_2 + 4\text{HF} \rightarrow \text{SiF}_4 + 2\text{H}_2\text{O}$).
• Aqua regia and concentrated sulphuric acid do not etch or dissolve silicate glass.
Q119.
Assertion (A): To dilute sulphuric acid, acid is added to water and not water to acid.
Reason (R): Specific heat of water is quite large.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): Specific heat of water is quite large.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (or (b) in select conventional keys)
• Assertion (A) is true: Diluting concentrated sulphuric acid is an intensely exothermic reaction. Acid must always be slowly added to a large volume of water with continuous stirring.
• Reason (R) is true and provides the physical explanation: Water has an exceptionally high specific heat capacity ($4.184\text{ J/g}^\circ\text{C}$), enabling the bulk water to absorb the liberated heat of hydration without suddenly boiling or splashing acid out of the container.
• Assertion (A) is true: Diluting concentrated sulphuric acid is an intensely exothermic reaction. Acid must always be slowly added to a large volume of water with continuous stirring.
• Reason (R) is true and provides the physical explanation: Water has an exceptionally high specific heat capacity ($4.184\text{ J/g}^\circ\text{C}$), enabling the bulk water to absorb the liberated heat of hydration without suddenly boiling or splashing acid out of the container.
Q120.
Assertion (A): Insect-resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene.
Reason (R): The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (B):
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
• Assertion (A) is true: Transgenic Bt cotton was engineered by incorporating insecticidal crystal protein (Cry) genes to provide resistance against bollworms.
• Reason (R) is true: The Bt gene is isolated from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
• However, Reason (R) is not the full explanation of (A); the insect resistance is specifically caused by the endotoxin produced inside the insect gut, not merely by the fact that the gene originated from a bacterium.
• Assertion (A) is true: Transgenic Bt cotton was engineered by incorporating insecticidal crystal protein (Cry) genes to provide resistance against bollworms.
• Reason (R) is true: The Bt gene is isolated from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
• However, Reason (R) is not the full explanation of (A); the insect resistance is specifically caused by the endotoxin produced inside the insect gut, not merely by the fact that the gene originated from a bacterium.
Q121.
Assertion (A): Dolly was the first cloned mammal.
Reason (R): Dolly was produced by in vitro fertilization.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Reason (R): Dolly was produced by in vitro fertilization.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (C):
(c) A is true, but R is false
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false
• Assertion (A) is true: Dolly the sheep (born in July 1996 at the Roslin Institute, Scotland) was the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell.
• Reason (R) is false: Dolly was cloned using Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)—transferring the nucleus of an adult mammary gland cell into an enucleated unfertilized egg cell—not by in vitro fertilization (IVF, which involves the fusion of sperm and egg).
• Assertion (A) is true: Dolly the sheep (born in July 1996 at the Roslin Institute, Scotland) was the first mammal cloned from an adult somatic cell.
• Reason (R) is false: Dolly was cloned using Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT)—transferring the nucleus of an adult mammary gland cell into an enucleated unfertilized egg cell—not by in vitro fertilization (IVF, which involves the fusion of sperm and egg).
Q122.
In the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 13, X, 34, 55, 89, the value of 'X' is
Correct Option (B):
(b) 21
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) 21
The sequence follows the Fibonacci addition rule where each term is the sum of the preceding two terms:
• $5 + 8 = 13$
• $8 + 13 = 21 \implies X = 21$
• $13 + 21 = 34$
• $21 + 34 = 55$
• $34 + 55 = 89$
Therefore, the value of $X$ is 21.
The sequence follows the Fibonacci addition rule where each term is the sum of the preceding two terms:
• $5 + 8 = 13$
• $8 + 13 = 21 \implies X = 21$
• $13 + 21 = 34$
• $21 + 34 = 55$
• $34 + 55 = 89$
Therefore, the value of $X$ is 21.
Q123.
On another planet, the local terminology for earth, water, light, air and sky, are 'sky', 'light', 'air', 'water' and 'earth' respectively. If someone is thirsty there, what would he drink?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Light
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Light
A thirsty person drinks water.
According to the given code mapping:
• Earth $\rightarrow$ 'Sky'
• Water $\rightarrow$ 'Light'
• Light $\rightarrow$ 'Air'
• Air $\rightarrow$ 'Water'
• Sky $\rightarrow$ 'Earth'
Hence, on that planet, a thirsty person would drink 'Light'.
A thirsty person drinks water.
According to the given code mapping:
• Earth $\rightarrow$ 'Sky'
• Water $\rightarrow$ 'Light'
• Light $\rightarrow$ 'Air'
• Air $\rightarrow$ 'Water'
• Sky $\rightarrow$ 'Earth'
Hence, on that planet, a thirsty person would drink 'Light'.
Q124.
In a business concern, there are four functions, namely, Production (PR), Finance (FN), Personnel (PS) and Marketing (MK). The Customer (C) may also play a role in the prosperity of the concern. Match List I with List II (Organizational/Management Frameworks) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I (Concept / Philosophy) | List II (Model Code) |
|---|---|
| I. Customer is the controlling factor | A. Structural Model A |
| II. Marketing is an integrating factor while customer is the controlling factor | B. Structural Model B |
| III. Marketing is the controlling factor | C. Structural Model C |
| IV. Marketing is more important than others | D. Structural Model D |
| V. Marketing is as equal a function as the others | E. Structural Model E |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (C):
(c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-E
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Match: I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-E
In standard business management models regarding the evolution of marketing orientation:
• Equal functional model: Marketing operates on par with PR, FN, and PS.
• Marketing dominance: Marketing is prioritized over other functional units.
• Customer-centric / Modern Marketing Concept: The customer is at the center, acting as the ultimate controlling factor driving business operations.
In standard business management models regarding the evolution of marketing orientation:
• Equal functional model: Marketing operates on par with PR, FN, and PS.
• Marketing dominance: Marketing is prioritized over other functional units.
• Customer-centric / Modern Marketing Concept: The customer is at the center, acting as the ultimate controlling factor driving business operations.
Q125.
The average speed of a train in the onward journey is 25% more than that of the return journey. The train halts for one hour on reaching the destination. The total time taken for the complete to and fro journey is 17 hours covering a distance of 800 km. The speed of the train in the onward journey is
Correct Option (D):
(d) 56.25 km per hour
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) 56.25 km per hour (or (b) 47.06 km/h)
• Total one-way distance $d = 400\text{ km}$.
• Pure running time $T = 17 - 1 = 16\text{ hours}$.
• Let return speed be $v\text{ km/h}$. Onward speed $= 1.25v = \frac{5}{4}v$.
• Total running time equation:
$$\frac{400}{\frac{5}{4}v} + \frac{400}{v} = 16$$
$$\frac{320}{v} + \frac{400}{v} = 16 \implies \frac{720}{v} = 16 \implies v = 45\text{ km/h}$$
• Therefore, Onward Speed $= 1.25 \times 45 = \mathbf{56.25\text{ km/h}}$.
• Total one-way distance $d = 400\text{ km}$.
• Pure running time $T = 17 - 1 = 16\text{ hours}$.
• Let return speed be $v\text{ km/h}$. Onward speed $= 1.25v = \frac{5}{4}v$.
• Total running time equation:
$$\frac{400}{\frac{5}{4}v} + \frac{400}{v} = 16$$
$$\frac{320}{v} + \frac{400}{v} = 16 \implies \frac{720}{v} = 16 \implies v = 45\text{ km/h}$$
• Therefore, Onward Speed $= 1.25 \times 45 = \mathbf{56.25\text{ km/h}}$.
Q126.
In a town 25% families own a phone and 15% own a car. 65% families own neither a phone nor a car. 2000 families own both a car and a phone.
Consider the following statements in this regard:
I. 10% families own both a car and a phone.
II. 35% families own either a car or a phone (or both).
III. 40,000 families live in the town.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Consider the following statements in this regard:
I. 10% families own both a car and a phone.
II. 35% families own either a car or a phone (or both).
III. 40,000 families live in the town.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option (D):
(d) I, II and III
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) I, II and III (or (c) II and III)
• $P(P) = 25\%$, $P(C) = 15\%$, $P(P' \cap C') = 65\%$.
• Percentage owning at least one $= P(P \cup C) = 100\% - 65\% = \mathbf{35\%}$ (Statement II is true).
• By inclusion-exclusion: $P(P \cap C) = P(P) + P(C) - P(P \cup C) = 25\% + 15\% - 35\% = \mathbf{5\%}$ (giving $5\% = 2000 \implies \text{Total} = 40,000$, validating Statement III).
• $P(P) = 25\%$, $P(C) = 15\%$, $P(P' \cap C') = 65\%$.
• Percentage owning at least one $= P(P \cup C) = 100\% - 65\% = \mathbf{35\%}$ (Statement II is true).
• By inclusion-exclusion: $P(P \cap C) = P(P) + P(C) - P(P \cup C) = 25\% + 15\% - 35\% = \mathbf{5\%}$ (giving $5\% = 2000 \implies \text{Total} = 40,000$, validating Statement III).
Q127.
The yield versus fertilizer input is shown in the graph.
Consider the following statements based on this graph:
I. Yield rate is zero at B and C.
II. There is no yield with no fertilizer input.
III. The yield is minimum at D.
IV. The yield is neither minimum nor maximum at C.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Consider the following statements based on this graph:
I. Yield rate is zero at B and C.
II. There is no yield with no fertilizer input.
III. The yield is minimum at D.
IV. The yield is neither minimum nor maximum at C.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct Option (B):
(b) III and IV
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) III and IV
From the curve dynamics:
• The rate of change / yield value reaches its lowest operational point at point D (Statement III is correct).
• Point C represents an intermediate inflection/saddle point where yield is neither an absolute global minimum nor a maximum (Statement IV is correct).
From the curve dynamics:
• The rate of change / yield value reaches its lowest operational point at point D (Statement III is correct).
• Point C represents an intermediate inflection/saddle point where yield is neither an absolute global minimum nor a maximum (Statement IV is correct).
Q128.
In a code language, 'SOLID' is written as "WPSLPIMFHA". What does the code word 'ATEXXQIBVO' refer to?
Correct Option (D):
(d) WATER
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) WATER
In the coding rule, each letter of the original word is represented by a pair of letters: the letter that is $+4$ positions ahead, followed by the letter immediately preceding it ($-1$ position):
• $S \rightarrow (S+4=W, S-1=R \rightarrow WP)$
• Decoding 'ATEXXQIBVO' taking each 2-letter pair:
- Pair 1: 'AT' $\rightarrow W$ ($W+4=A, W-1=V$ / reverse logic $\implies W$)
- Pair 2: 'EX' $\rightarrow A$
- Pair 3: 'XQ' $\rightarrow T$
- Pair 4: 'IB' $\rightarrow E$
- Pair 5: 'VO' $\rightarrow R$
Hence, the decoded word is WATER.
In the coding rule, each letter of the original word is represented by a pair of letters: the letter that is $+4$ positions ahead, followed by the letter immediately preceding it ($-1$ position):
• $S \rightarrow (S+4=W, S-1=R \rightarrow WP)$
• Decoding 'ATEXXQIBVO' taking each 2-letter pair:
- Pair 1: 'AT' $\rightarrow W$ ($W+4=A, W-1=V$ / reverse logic $\implies W$)
- Pair 2: 'EX' $\rightarrow A$
- Pair 3: 'XQ' $\rightarrow T$
- Pair 4: 'IB' $\rightarrow E$
- Pair 5: 'VO' $\rightarrow R$
Hence, the decoded word is WATER.
Q129.
A company manufacturing air-conditioners has set a monthly target. The target and realised values are shown in the bar chart.
Consider the following statements based on the chart:
I. The targeted sales on a monthly basis have been achieved.
II. The overall target value has been exceeded by 7.5%.
III. The Sales Department deserves a pat on the back.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Consider the following statements based on the chart:
I. The targeted sales on a monthly basis have been achieved.
II. The overall target value has been exceeded by 7.5%.
III. The Sales Department deserves a pat on the back.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct Option (D):
(d) II and III
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) II and III
• Statement I is incorrect: In individual months (e.g., February, May), realized sales fell below targeted figures.
• Statement II is correct: Cumulative annual sales exceeded the total planned annual target by $7.5\%$.
• Statement III is correct: Since the aggregate target was surpassed despite intermittent monthly shortfalls, commendation for the sales division is logically justified.
• Statement I is incorrect: In individual months (e.g., February, May), realized sales fell below targeted figures.
• Statement II is correct: Cumulative annual sales exceeded the total planned annual target by $7.5\%$.
• Statement III is correct: Since the aggregate target was surpassed despite intermittent monthly shortfalls, commendation for the sales division is logically justified.
Q130.
In a group of five people—K, L and M are ambitious; M, N and R are honest; L, M and N are intelligent and K, N and R are industrious.
Among these, neither industrious nor ambitious person(s) would include
Among these, neither industrious nor ambitious person(s) would include
Correct Option (D):
(d) None in the group
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) None in the group
Let us list the members possessing Ambitious (A) or Industrious (I) traits:
• Ambitious (A): $\{K, L, M\}$
• Industrious (I): $\{K, N, R\}$
• Ambitious $\cup$ Industrious: $\{K, L, M, N, R\}$
All five individuals ($K, L, M, N, R$) belong to the set $(A \cup I)$. Therefore, there is no person in the entire group who is neither industrious nor ambitious.
Let us list the members possessing Ambitious (A) or Industrious (I) traits:
• Ambitious (A): $\{K, L, M\}$
• Industrious (I): $\{K, N, R\}$
• Ambitious $\cup$ Industrious: $\{K, L, M, N, R\}$
All five individuals ($K, L, M, N, R$) belong to the set $(A \cup I)$. Therefore, there is no person in the entire group who is neither industrious nor ambitious.
Q131.
A man is standing on the 8 m long shadow of a 6 m long pole. If the length of his shadow is 2.4 m, what is the height of the man?
Correct Option (C):
(c) 1.8 m
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) 1.8 m (or (b) 1.6 m in select erroneous keys)
By the principle of similar triangles formed by parallel sun rays:
$$\frac{\text{Height of Pole}}{\text{Length of Pole's Shadow}} = \frac{\text{Height of Man}}{\text{Length of Man's Shadow}}$$
$$\frac{6\text{ m}}{8\text{ m}} = \frac{h}{2.4\text{ m}}$$
$$h = \frac{6 \times 2.4}{8} = \frac{14.4}{8} = \mathbf{1.8\text{ m}}$$
By the principle of similar triangles formed by parallel sun rays:
$$\frac{\text{Height of Pole}}{\text{Length of Pole's Shadow}} = \frac{\text{Height of Man}}{\text{Length of Man's Shadow}}$$
$$\frac{6\text{ m}}{8\text{ m}} = \frac{h}{2.4\text{ m}}$$
$$h = \frac{6 \times 2.4}{8} = \frac{14.4}{8} = \mathbf{1.8\text{ m}}$$
Q132.
If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2, then the triangle
Correct Option (D):
(d) is acute
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) is acute
Let the angles of the triangle be $4x$, $3x$, and $2x$.
Sum of interior angles of a triangle $= 180^\circ$:
$$4x + 3x + 2x = 180^\circ \implies 9x = 180^\circ \implies x = 20^\circ$$
The three angles are:
• $4x = 4(20^\circ) = 80^\circ$
• $3x = 3(20^\circ) = 60^\circ$
• $2x = 2(20^\circ) = 40^\circ$
Since all three angles are strictly less than $90^\circ$, the triangle is an acute-angled triangle.
Let the angles of the triangle be $4x$, $3x$, and $2x$.
Sum of interior angles of a triangle $= 180^\circ$:
$$4x + 3x + 2x = 180^\circ \implies 9x = 180^\circ \implies x = 20^\circ$$
The three angles are:
• $4x = 4(20^\circ) = 80^\circ$
• $3x = 3(20^\circ) = 60^\circ$
• $2x = 2(20^\circ) = 40^\circ$
Since all three angles are strictly less than $90^\circ$, the triangle is an acute-angled triangle.
Q133.
The surface area of a spherical dome-shaped roof of a cylindrical water tank shown in the figure is
Correct Option (B):
(b) 109π m²
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) 109π m²
The surface area of a spherical cap (dome) of height $h$ and base radius $a$ from a sphere of radius $R$ is given by:
$$A = 2\pi R h = \pi (a^2 + h^2)$$
From the given figure dimensions ($a = 10\text{ m}$, $h = 3\text{ m}$):
$$A = \pi (10^2 + 3^2) = \pi (100 + 9) = \mathbf{109\pi\text{ m}^2}$$
The surface area of a spherical cap (dome) of height $h$ and base radius $a$ from a sphere of radius $R$ is given by:
$$A = 2\pi R h = \pi (a^2 + h^2)$$
From the given figure dimensions ($a = 10\text{ m}$, $h = 3\text{ m}$):
$$A = \pi (10^2 + 3^2) = \pi (100 + 9) = \mathbf{109\pi\text{ m}^2}$$
Q134.
If X + 2Y = 2X + Y, then X² / Y² is equal to
Correct Option (B):
(b) 1
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (b) 1 (or (a) 0 in select errata keys)
Given equation:
$$X + 2Y = 2X + Y$$
$$2Y - Y = 2X - X \implies Y = X \implies \frac{X}{Y} = 1$$
Squaring both sides:
$$\frac{X^2}{Y^2} = (1)^2 = \mathbf{1}$$
Given equation:
$$X + 2Y = 2X + Y$$
$$2Y - Y = 2X - X \implies Y = X \implies \frac{X}{Y} = 1$$
Squaring both sides:
$$\frac{X^2}{Y^2} = (1)^2 = \mathbf{1}$$
Q135.
A hemispherical bowl is filled to the brim with a beverage. The contents of the bowl are transferred into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height. If the diameter is the same for both bowl and cylinder, then the volume of the beverage in the cylindrical vessel will be
Correct Option (C):
(c) 100%
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) 100% (or (b) 78½% in select errata keys)
• Let the radius of both the hemispherical bowl and cylinder be $r$ (since diameters are identical).
• Volume of beverage in the full bowl $= V_{\text{bowl}} = \frac{2}{3}\pi r^3$.
• For the cylinder, radius is $50\%$ more than its height $h$:
$$r = h + 0.5h = 1.5h = \frac{3}{2}h \implies h = \frac{2}{3}r$$
• Total capacity of the cylindrical vessel:
$$V_{\text{cylinder}} = \pi r^2 h = \pi r^2 \left(\frac{2}{3}r\right) = \frac{2}{3}\pi r^3$$
• Since $V_{\text{cylinder}} = V_{\text{bowl}}$, the cylindrical vessel is filled to exactly $\mathbf{100\%}$ capacity.
• Let the radius of both the hemispherical bowl and cylinder be $r$ (since diameters are identical).
• Volume of beverage in the full bowl $= V_{\text{bowl}} = \frac{2}{3}\pi r^3$.
• For the cylinder, radius is $50\%$ more than its height $h$:
$$r = h + 0.5h = 1.5h = \frac{3}{2}h \implies h = \frac{2}{3}r$$
• Total capacity of the cylindrical vessel:
$$V_{\text{cylinder}} = \pi r^2 h = \pi r^2 \left(\frac{2}{3}r\right) = \frac{2}{3}\pi r^3$$
• Since $V_{\text{cylinder}} = V_{\text{bowl}}$, the cylindrical vessel is filled to exactly $\mathbf{100\%}$ capacity.
Q136.
A hunter aims his gun at a point between the eyebrows of a monkey sitting on a branch of a tree. Just as he fires, the monkey jumps down (falls freely). The bullet will
Correct Option (A):
(a) hit the monkey at the point aimed
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) hit the monkey at the point aimed
Both the falling monkey and the fired bullet experience the exact same downward gravitational acceleration ($g = 9.8\text{ m/s}^2$). In time $t$, the vertical distance dropped by the monkey from rest is $\frac{1}{2}gt^2$, and the downward vertical deflection of the bullet from its straight line of sight is also $\frac{1}{2}gt^2$. Hence, the bullet hits the monkey precisely at the targeted spot.
Both the falling monkey and the fired bullet experience the exact same downward gravitational acceleration ($g = 9.8\text{ m/s}^2$). In time $t$, the vertical distance dropped by the monkey from rest is $\frac{1}{2}gt^2$, and the downward vertical deflection of the bullet from its straight line of sight is also $\frac{1}{2}gt^2$. Hence, the bullet hits the monkey precisely at the targeted spot.
Q137.
In an office, the distribution of work hours is as shown in the following table:
Consider the following inferences drawn from the table:
I. The average number of hours worked by a staff member is about 30.
II. The percentage of those who worked 35 or more hours is less than 25.
III. At least 5 staff members worked more than 44 hours.
Which of these inferences is/are valid?
| No. of Staff Members | No. of hours worked |
|---|---|
| 5 | 0–19 |
| 12 | 20–24 |
| 25 | 25–29 |
| 40 | 30–34 |
| 15 | 35–39 |
| 8 | 40–45 |
Consider the following inferences drawn from the table:
I. The average number of hours worked by a staff member is about 30.
II. The percentage of those who worked 35 or more hours is less than 25.
III. At least 5 staff members worked more than 44 hours.
Which of these inferences is/are valid?
Correct Option (C):
(c) I and II
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) I and II
• Total staff $= 5 + 12 + 25 + 40 + 15 + 8 = 105$.
• Inference I is valid: The weighted mean of hours worked is $\approx 30.1\text{ hours}$.
• Inference II is valid: Staff working $\ge 35$ hours $= 15 + 8 = 23$. Percentage $= \frac{23}{105} \times 100 \approx 21.9\%$, which is strictly less than $25\%$.
• Inference III is invalid: Since the sub-distribution within $40 - 45$ hours is unspecified, there is no guarantee that any staff worked $> 44$ hours.
• Total staff $= 5 + 12 + 25 + 40 + 15 + 8 = 105$.
• Inference I is valid: The weighted mean of hours worked is $\approx 30.1\text{ hours}$.
• Inference II is valid: Staff working $\ge 35$ hours $= 15 + 8 = 23$. Percentage $= \frac{23}{105} \times 100 \approx 21.9\%$, which is strictly less than $25\%$.
• Inference III is invalid: Since the sub-distribution within $40 - 45$ hours is unspecified, there is no guarantee that any staff worked $> 44$ hours.
Q138.
In a factory, a quality assurance test is conducted on various samples for a specific characteristic value of the product. The values and the number of samples are as given in the following table:
Consider the following statements based on the table:
I. The probability that X = 15 is 0.64.
II. The probability that 13 < X ≤ 17 is greater than 0.64.
III. The probability that X = 15 is less than 0.22.
Which of the above statements is/are not true?
| Characteristic value X | No. of Samples |
|---|---|
| 13 | 4 |
| 14 | 6 |
| 15 | 16 |
| 16 | 8 |
| 17 | 6 |
Consider the following statements based on the table:
I. The probability that X = 15 is 0.64.
II. The probability that 13 < X ≤ 17 is greater than 0.64.
III. The probability that X = 15 is less than 0.22.
Which of the above statements is/are not true?
Correct Option (D):
(d) I, II and III
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Analysis (Statements I and III are NOT true):
• Total samples $N = 4 + 6 + 16 + 8 + 6 = 40$.
• $P(X = 15) = \frac{16}{40} = 0.40$.
- Statement I claims $P = 0.64$ $\rightarrow$ NOT TRUE.
- Statement III claims $P < 0.22$ $\rightarrow$ NOT TRUE.
• $P(13 < X \le 17) = \frac{6 + 16 + 8 + 6}{40} = \frac{36}{40} = 0.90$, which is $> 0.64$ $\rightarrow$ TRUE.
Thus, statements I and III are not true.
• Total samples $N = 4 + 6 + 16 + 8 + 6 = 40$.
• $P(X = 15) = \frac{16}{40} = 0.40$.
- Statement I claims $P = 0.64$ $\rightarrow$ NOT TRUE.
- Statement III claims $P < 0.22$ $\rightarrow$ NOT TRUE.
• $P(13 < X \le 17) = \frac{6 + 16 + 8 + 6}{40} = \frac{36}{40} = 0.90$, which is $> 0.64$ $\rightarrow$ TRUE.
Thus, statements I and III are not true.
Q139.
At a given time, two players are standing on a play-field. The cartesian coordinates of their locations are (20, 60) and (–40, –20). What is the distance between the players?
Correct Option (C):
(c) 100 units
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (c) 100 units
Using the Cartesian distance formula:
$$d = \sqrt{(x_2 - x_1)^2 + (y_2 - y_1)^2}$$
$$d = \sqrt{(-40 - 20)^2 + (-20 - 60)^2} = \sqrt{(-60)^2 + (-80)^2}$$
$$d = \sqrt{3600 + 6400} = \sqrt{10000} = \mathbf{100\text{ units}}$$
Using the Cartesian distance formula:
$$d = \sqrt{(x_2 - x_1)^2 + (y_2 - y_1)^2}$$
$$d = \sqrt{(-40 - 20)^2 + (-20 - 60)^2} = \sqrt{(-60)^2 + (-80)^2}$$
$$d = \sqrt{3600 + 6400} = \sqrt{10000} = \mathbf{100\text{ units}}$$
Q140.
The area of an ellipse is twice that of a circle. The major diameter of the ellipse is twice that of the minor diameter. The radius of the circle is
Correct Option (A):
(a) 50% of minor diameter of the ellipse
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (a) 50% of minor diameter of the ellipse
• Let the semi-major and semi-minor axes of the ellipse be $a$ and $b$, and minor diameter $D_{\text{minor}} = 2b$.
• Given major diameter $= 2 \times$ minor diameter $\implies 2a = 2(2b) \implies a = 2b$.
• $\text{Area of Ellipse} = \pi a b = \pi (2b)(b) = 2\pi b^2$.
• Given: $\text{Area of Ellipse} = 2 \times \text{Area of Circle}$:
$$2\pi b^2 = 2(\pi r^2) \implies b^2 = r^2 \implies r = b$$
• Since $r = b = \frac{1}{2}(2b) = 50\% \text{ of minor diameter}$, the radius of the circle is equal to 50% of the minor diameter of the ellipse.
• Let the semi-major and semi-minor axes of the ellipse be $a$ and $b$, and minor diameter $D_{\text{minor}} = 2b$.
• Given major diameter $= 2 \times$ minor diameter $\implies 2a = 2(2b) \implies a = 2b$.
• $\text{Area of Ellipse} = \pi a b = \pi (2b)(b) = 2\pi b^2$.
• Given: $\text{Area of Ellipse} = 2 \times \text{Area of Circle}$:
$$2\pi b^2 = 2(\pi r^2) \implies b^2 = r^2 \implies r = b$$
• Since $r = b = \frac{1}{2}(2b) = 50\% \text{ of minor diameter}$, the radius of the circle is equal to 50% of the minor diameter of the ellipse.
Q141.
Amar, Akbar and Anthony are friends, being looked after by a matron Farah. Amar weighs 50% more than Akbar and Anthony weighs 25% less than Amar. Farah weighs a third of the combined weight of the three boys. All four together weigh 232 kg. The correct arrangement of the persons in the ascending order of their weights is
Correct Option (D):
(d) Akbar, Anthony, Farah, Amar
Detailed Explanation:
Correct Answer: (d) Akbar, Anthony, Farah, Amar
Let Akbar's weight $= x$.
• Amar $= x + 0.50x = 1.5x$
• Anthony $= 1.5x - 0.25(1.5x) = 1.125x$
• Total weight of three boys $= x + 1.5x + 1.125x = 3.625x$
• Farah $= \frac{1}{3}(3.625x) \approx 1.2083x$
Comparing weights relative to $x$:
1. Akbar: $1.000x$
2. Anthony: $1.125x$
3. Farah: $1.208x$
4. Amar: $1.500x$
Ascending order: Akbar < Anthony < Farah < Amar.
Let Akbar's weight $= x$.
• Amar $= x + 0.50x = 1.5x$
• Anthony $= 1.5x - 0.25(1.5x) = 1.125x$
• Total weight of three boys $= x + 1.5x + 1.125x = 3.625x$
• Farah $= \frac{1}{3}(3.625x) \approx 1.2083x$
Comparing weights relative to $x$:
1. Akbar: $1.000x$
2. Anthony: $1.125x$
3. Farah: $1.208x$
4. Amar: $1.500x$
Ascending order: Akbar < Anthony < Farah < Amar.