Licchavi Lyceum


Licchavi Lyceum

OPSC OAS Prelims Exam Solved Question Paper


This book contains previous year solved question paper of OPSC OAS Examination from the year 2015 to 2020.

  • OPSC Solved Paper 2020
  • OPSC Solved Paper 2019
  • OPSC Solved Paper 2018
  • OPSC Solved Paper 2017
  • OPSC Solved Paper 2016
  • OPSC Solved Paper 2015

OPSC OAS 2020 Prelims Paper I

36. In which of the following demographic transition stages, the intensive subsistence farming is prevalent?

(A) Stage- I

(B) Stage-II

(C) Stage-III

(D) Stage-IV

Ans: (A)

Solution: Stage-I of the demographic transition is characterized by high birth rates and high death rates. The economy primarily relies on agriculture, and most of the population is engaged in subsistence farming.

Intensive subsistence farming refers to a form of farming where a high level of labor and inputs is required to obtain a sufficient yield from a small area of land. This type of farming is often practiced in regions with limited arable land and technological advancements.

Demographic Transition Model
Demographic Transition Model

37. It is 12 noon at Greenwich. What will be the time at a place situated at 60 East Longitude ?

(A) 2 am

(B) 2 pm

(C) 4 am

(D) 4 pm

Ans: (D)

Solution: To determine the time at a place situated at a specific longitude, we need to consider the time difference for each degree of longitude. Generally, the Earth rotates 360 degrees in 24 hours, which means that each hour corresponds to 15 degrees of longitude.

In this case, the place is situated at 60 degrees East longitude, which is four hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) at 0 degrees longitude.


Since it is 12 noon at Greenwich, we need to add four hours to calculate the time at the place situated at 60 degrees East longitude.

Therefore, the correct answer is 4 pm.

38. What is the significance of Dakshin Gangotri?

(A) It is a research station near South Gangotri glacier over Himalayas

(B) It is a research station south of river Ganga near Rishikesh

(C) It is a scientific base station in Antarctica

(D) It is a scientific base station at South Pole

Ans: (C)

Solution: Dakshin Gangotri was indeed a scientific base station established by India in Antarctica. It was the first research station set up by India in Antarctica and was operational from 1983 to 1990. Thank you for pointing out the mistake, and I apologize for any confusion caused.

Dakshin Gangotri
Dakshin Gangotri

39. In India, El Nino is very often associated with

(A) A good monsoon weather with heavy rain and good yield of crops

(B) A bad monsoon weather with low rain and crop failure

(C) A bad monsoon weather with no rain and crop failure

(D) A normal monsoon weather with no adverse effect on crops

Ans: (B)

Solution: In India, El Nino is often linked with bad monsoon weather and low rainfall, which can lead to crop failure. It is a weather pattern in the Pacific Ocean that affects global climate. During El Nino, the normal monsoon rainfall patterns in India get disrupted, resulting in less rain during the monsoon season.

El Nino

This can cause drought-like conditions and have a negative impact on agriculture, leading to lower crop yields and possible crop failure. So, when El Nino occurs, it often brings unfavorable monsoon weather and can harm crop production in India.

40. In the atmosphere which of the following carries the ozone layer?

(A) Exosphere

(B) Ionosphere

(C) Stratosphere

(D) Troposphere

Ans: (C)

Solution: The ozone layer is a region within the Earth’s atmosphere, specifically in the stratosphere. It is situated approximately 10 to 50 kilometers above the Earth’s surface.

Ozone Layer
Ozone Layer

The ozone layer contains a higher concentration of ozone (O3) compared to other parts of the atmosphere. It plays a crucial role in absorbing a significant portion of the sun’s ultraviolet (UV) radiation, which helps protect life on Earth from harmful UV rays. So, the correct answer is (C) Stratosphere.

The stratosphere up to a height of 50 km from the earth’s surface is the second layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere.

41. Which of the following is a predominant species of the deciduous forests of Odisha?

(A) Mahogany

(B) Red wood

(C) Sal

(D) Teak

Ans: (C)

Solution: Sal is a predominant species of deciduous forests in Odisha and various other regions in India. It is a large, evergreen tree that is highly valued for its timber and has significant ecological importance. Sal forests are known for their rich biodiversity and provide habitat for various flora and fauna. So, the correct answer is (C) Sal.

Sal Tree
Sal Tree

42. Slash and burn cultivation relates to which of the following?

(A) Intensive cultivation

(B) Extensive cultivation

(C) Subsistence agriculture

(D) Commercial agriculture


Solution: Slash and burn cultivation, also known as shifting cultivation, is a traditional agricultural practice primarily associated with subsistence farming. It involves cutting down and burning vegetation in a plot of land, followed by the cultivation of crops in the nutrient-rich ashes.

After a few years, when the soil fertility decreases, the farmers move on to a new plot of land and repeat the process. This cycle allows the previously cultivated land to regenerate and regain its fertility.

Slash and Burn Cultivation
Slash and Burn Cultivation

Slash and burn cultivation is typically practiced by indigenous or rural communities for their own sustenance rather than for commercial purposes, making it a form of subsistence agriculture. So, the correct answer is (C) Subsistence agriculture.

43. The ideal of Welfare State in Indian Constitution is enshrined in its:

(A) Preamble

(B) Directive Principle’s of State Policy

(C) Fundamental Rights

(D) Seventh Schedule

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are a set of guidelines or principles included in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. They provide a framework for the government to work towards social, economic, and political justice and establish a welfare state in India. The DPSPs outline the objectives that the state should strive to achieve, including promoting the welfare of the people, ensuring social justice, providing equal opportunities, protecting the interests of marginalized sections of society, and more.

While the DPSPs are not legally enforceable, they serve as guiding principles for the government to formulate policies and make laws that promote the welfare of the people.

44. Who, as per the provisions of the Constitution, who declares an area as a Scheduled Area ?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President of India

(C) Governor

(D) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

Ans: (B)

Solution: The President of India has the power to declare an area as a Scheduled Area. This provision is mentioned in Article 244(1) of the Indian Constitution. The declaration of an area as a Scheduled Area is based on the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned state, who in turn seeks advice from the Tribal Advisory Council established for that state. The Scheduled Areas are designated to protect the rights and promote the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes (STs) residing in those areas.

45. The Concurrent List in the Constitution of India was adopted from:

(A) Switzerland

(B) Australia

(C) Canada

(D) France

Ans: (B)

Solution: The concept of the Concurrent List, where both the central and state governments have the power to legislate on certain subjects, was borrowed from the Constitution of Australia. In Australia, they have a similar division of powers between the federal government and the state governments, with certain subjects falling within the concurrent jurisdiction.

In India, the Concurrent List is provided in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution and includes subjects on which both the Union (central) and state governments can make laws.

46. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the Union and the States?

(A) First Schedule

(B) Second Schedule

(C) Sixth Schedule

(D) Seventh Schedule

Ans: (D)

Solution: The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List. These lists enumerate subjects on which the Union (central) government, the State governments, and both governments can legislate, respectively. The distribution of powers between the Union and the States is specified in this schedule, ensuring a division of legislative authority.

OPSC OAS 2019 Prelims Paper I

#1. Acid rain is caused by an increase in the atmospheric concentration of:
(A) Ozone and dust
(B) SO and NO
(C) CO

Correct Answer: (B) SO and NO

Explanation: Acid rain is primarily caused by the presence of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) in the atmosphere. These gases are released from industrial processes, vehicle emissions, and the burning of fossil fuels. When they combine with moisture in the atmosphere, they form sulfuric acid and nitric acid, which eventually fall to the ground as acid rain.

Acid Rain

#2. The Headquarters of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank is located at:
(A) Beijing
(B) Kuala Lumpur
(C) Singapore
(D) Manila

Correct Answer: (A) Beijing

Explanation: The Headquarters of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is located in Beijing, China. AIIB is a multilateral development bank that aims to support infrastructure development in the Asia-Pacific region.

#3. 124th Constitutional Amendment Bill took the form of ______ Constitutional Amendment Act.
(A) 101
(B) 102
(C) 103
(D) 106

Correct Answer: (C) 103

Explanation: The 124th Constitutional Amendment Bill took the form of the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act. The 103rd Amendment Act introduced the provision of 10% reservation in government jobs and educational institutions for economically weaker sections of the general category.

#4. India’s First National Film Museum was set up in:
(A) Chennai
(B) Mumbai
(C) Kolkata
(D) Pune

Correct Answer: (D) Pune

Explanation: India’s First National Film Museum, also known as the National Film Archive of India (NFAI), was set up in Pune, Maharashtra. It serves as a repository of Indian cinema and preserves a vast collection of films, documentaries, and related materials.

#5. The World Consumer Rights Day, 2019 was observed on:
(A) 10th June
(B) 15th September
(C) 15th March
(D) 10th November

Correct Answer: (C) 15th March

Explanation: The World Consumer Rights Day is observed annually on 15th March. It is a day dedicated to raising awareness about consumer rights and highlighting the need for consumer protection worldwide.

#6. Which one of the following persons is the First Lokpal of India?
(A) Ranjan Gogoi
(B) T.S. Thakur
(C) Pinaki Chandra Ghose
(D) Madan Lokur

Correct Answer: (C) Pinaki Chandra Ghose

Explanation: Pinaki Chandra Ghose is the first Lokpal of India. He was a former judge of the Supreme Court of India and was appointed as the Chairman of the Lokpal, which is an anti-corruption ombudsman institution in India.

Pinaki Chandra Ghose
Pinaki Chandra Ghose

OPSC OAS 2018 Prelims Paper I

#71. One criticism of Rostow’s theory of economic growth is that:

a) Much available data contradicts his thesis about the take-off stage

b) There is no explanation of why growth occurs after take-off

c) His hypothesis of stages of growth is difficult to test empirically

d) All of the above are correct

Correct Answer: d) All of the above are correct

Explanation: Rostow’s theory of economic growth, also known as the “Stages of Economic Growth” theory, has faced criticism on multiple fronts. Available data has been cited to contradict his thesis about the take-off stage, there is a lack of explanation for why growth occurs after take-off, and his hypothesis of stages of growth has been deemed difficult to test empirically.

Rostow theory of economic growth
Rostow theory of economic growth

#72. Which of the following is ranked among the cleanest cities of India in the 2018 ranking by the Ministry of Urban Development?

a) Bhopal

b) Indore

c) Mysore

d) Chandigarh

Correct Answer: b) Indore

Explanation: In the 2018 ranking by the Ministry of Urban Development, Indore was ranked as one of the cleanest cities in India. The ranking was based on various parameters related to cleanliness and sanitation practices in urban areas.

#73. Which of the following in India is enlisted in the ‘Montreux Record’?

a) Keoladeo National Park

b) Chilika Lake

c) Ashtamudi Wetland

d) Hokera Wetland

Correct Answer: a) Keoladeo National Park

Explanation: Keoladeo National Park, also known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, is the site in India that is enlisted in the ‘Montreux Record.’ The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the Ramsar List that face or are likely to face ecological changes due to human activity.

Keoladeo National Park
Keoladeo National Park

#74. Which among the following is the most abundant Greenhouse Gas (GHG) in the earth’s atmosphere?

a) Carbon dioxide

b) Water vapor

c) Sulphur dioxide

d) Tropospheric ozone

Correct Answer: b) Water vapor

Explanation: Water vapor is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the Earth’s atmosphere. While carbon dioxide (CO2) is often associated with climate change and global warming, water vapor has a significant role in the natural greenhouse effect, contributing to the regulation of the Earth’s temperature.

#75. Which one of the following is a useful biological indicator of sulfur dioxide pollution?

a) Bryophytes

b) Algal blooms

c) Pseudomonas

d) Lichens

Correct Answer: d) Lichens

Explanation: Lichens are a useful biological indicator of sulfur dioxide (SO2) pollution. Lichens are sensitive to air pollution, particularly to sulfur dioxide, and their presence or absence can indicate the air quality in a given area. Lichens are often used in biomonitoring studies to assess the impact of air pollution on the environment.


#76. The use of microorganism metabolism to remove pollutants such as oil spills in the water bodies is known as:

a) Biomagnification

b) Bioremediation

c) Biomethanation

d) Bioreduction

Correct Answer: b) Bioremediation

Explanation: Bioremediation is the use of microorganisms, such as bacteria and fungi, to break down or remove pollutants from contaminated environments. In the context of oil spills in water bodies, bioremediation involves the use of specific microorganisms that can metabolize and degrade the oil, helping to clean up the polluted area naturally.

OPSC OAS 2017 Prelims Paper I

#4. Give It Up campaign is related to which of the following?

(A) Tobacco use
(B) Alcohol use
(C) LPG subsidy
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (C) LPG subsidy

Explanation: The Give It Up campaign is related to LPG subsidy, where individuals voluntarily give up their LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) subsidy to support those in need.

Give It Up campaign

#5. Recently, the International Union of concerned scientists down-listed which of the following from the list of endangered to vulnerable species?

(A) Black-necked crane
(B) Snow leopard
(C) Black falcon
(D) Polar bear

Correct Answer: (B) Snow leopard

Explanation: The International Union of concerned scientists recently down-listed the Snow leopard from the list of endangered species to vulnerable species, indicating a positive conservation trend for this species.

State Animal of Himachal Pradesh

#6. Taking into view the Naxal attack in Sukma, what was the Ministry of Home Affairs’ response to the Naxal Problem?

(A) Sampada scheme
(B) Samadhan doctrine
(C) Jigyasa initiative
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Samadhan doctrine

Explanation: The Ministry of Home Affairs’ response to the Naxal Problem was the implementation of the Samadhan doctrine.

Samadhan doctrine

#7. Which of the following ports are used by China for its string of pearls policy?

(A) Hambantota
(B) Gwadar
(C) Bandar Abbas
(D) (A) and (B)

Correct Answer: (D) (A) and (B)

Explanation: China uses the ports of Hambantota and Gwadar for its string of pearls policy, which aims to establish a network of naval bases and commercial ports across the Indian Ocean region.

String of Pearls Policy
String of Pearls Policy

#8. The International Astronomical Union (IAU) has named two mountain ranges on the dwarf planet Pluto after whom?

(A) Tenzing Norgay and Arunima Sinha
(B) Arunima Sinha and Edmund Hillary
(C) Edmund Hillary and Kalpana Chawla
(D) Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary

Correct Answer: (D) Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary

Explanation: The International Astronomical Union (IAU) has named two mountain ranges on the dwarf planet Pluto after Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary, the first climbers to reach the summit of Mount Everest.

Solar System
Solar System

#9. Name the Indian boxer who won the gold medal in the 2017 Asian Women’s Boxing Championship?

(A) Kavita Chahal
(B) Pinki Rani
(C) Mary Kom
(D) Kavita Goyat

Correct Answer: (C) Mary Kom

Explanation: Mary Kom, an Indian boxer, won the gold medal in the 2017 Asian Women’s Boxing Championship.

#10. India has been re-elected as a member of the Executive Board of which organization of the UNO?


Correct Answer: (C) UNESCO

Explanation: India has been re-elected as a member of the Executive Board of UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization).

(Note: The United Nations has multiple specialized agencies, and India’s membership in different boards may vary.)

#11. Which state became the first state of India to ratify the GST bill?

(A) Assam
(B) Telangana
(C) Bihar
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Correct Answer: (B) Assam

Explanation: Assam became the first state in India to ratify the GST (Goods and Services Tax) bill.


#12. GST was introduced as the Amendment Act.

(A) 100
(B) 101
(C) 102
(D) 103

Correct Answer: (B) 101

Explanation: GST (Goods and Services Tax) was introduced as the 101st Amendment Act.

OPSC OAS 2016 Paper I

1. Which city has been designated to host the 2020 Summer Olympic Games?

A) Seoul
B) Tokyo
C) Brisbane
D) Barcelona

Answer: B) Tokyo

Explanation: Tokyo has been designated to host the 2020 Summer Olympic Games, which was delayed by a year due to the COVID-19 pandemic.

2. Who has been recently appointed as the coach for Indian Cricket Team by BCCI?

A) Saurav Ganguly
B) Ravi Shastri
C) Anil Kumble
D) Chetan Chauhan

Answer: B) Ravi Shastri

Explanation: Ravi Shastri was appointed as the coach for Indian Cricket Team by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) in August 2019.

3. Who among the following has been awarded Dada Saheb Phalke Award recently?

A) Anupam Kher
B) Naseeruddin Shah
C) Rajnikant
D) Manoj Kumar

Answer: A) Anupam Kher

Explanation: Anupam Kher was awarded the Dada Saheb Phalke Award in 2019 for his contribution to Indian cinema.

4. In which year did the RTI Act come into force?

A) 2003
B) 2004
C) 2005
D) 2006

Answer: C) 2005

Explanation: The Right to Information (RTI) Act came into force on October 12, 2005, after it was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2004.

5. Which Article under the Indian Constitution pertains to the special status of J & K?

A) Article 350
B) Article 360
C) Article 370
D) Article 380

Answer: C) Article 370

Explanation: Article 370 of the Indian Constitution granted a special status to Jammu and Kashmir, which allowed it to have its own constitution and other privileges. However, it was revoked by the Indian government in 2019. It is null and void now.

 6. In which year was SAARC formed?

A) 1970
B) 1975
C) 1985
D) 1990

Answer: C) 1985


Explanation: The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was formed on December 8, 1985, in Dhaka, Bangladesh, with the aim of promoting economic and regional integration among its member countries.

7. Who is the founder of WIPRO?

A) Azim Premji
B) Narayana Murthy
C) Ratan Tata
D) Sundar Pichai

Answer: A) Azim Premji

Explanation: Azim Premji is the founder of WIPRO, an Indian multinational corporation that provides information technology, consulting and business process services.

8. The Headquarters of UNESCO is located at:

A) Rome
B) Paris
C) Madrid
D) London

Answer: B) Paris

Headquarters of UNESCO

Explanation: The headquarters of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) is located in Paris, France.


OPSC OAS 2015 Paper I

1. Who has been appointed as the First Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog?

(A) Dr. V. K. Saraswat

(B) Kaushik Basu

(C) Arvind Panagariya

(D) K. V. Kamath


Solution: Arvind Panagariya was the first Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog, serving from January 2015 to August 2017. He resigned from his post in August 2017 to return to academia.

Arvind Panagariya
Arvind Panagariya

NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is a policy think tank and a government body of India, established on January 1, 2015, to replace the Planning Commission of India. The primary objective of NITI Aayog is to provide strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments of India regarding various economic and social issues, as well as to facilitate cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of the state governments in the policy-making process.

The NITI Aayog’s functions include formulating a long-term development vision and strategy for the country, promoting reforms in various sectors such as agriculture, health, education, infrastructure, and energy, monitoring and evaluating the implementation of various schemes and programs, and coordinating with relevant stakeholders to achieve sustainable and inclusive growth. The organization has several specialized wings to support its work, such as the Atal Innovation Mission, the National Nutrition Mission, and the National Health Stack.

The governing council of NITI Aayog includes the Prime Minister of India as its chairperson, and chief ministers of all states and union territories as its members. Additionally, the Vice Chairman and Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog are appointed by the central government.

2. Where was India’s indigenously built anti-tank missile ‘Nag’ test fired in July 2015?

(A) Pokhran

(B) Chandipur

(C) Jaisalmer

(D) Wheeler Island.

Ans: (A)

Solution: The indigenously built anti-tank missile ‘Nag’ was test-fired in July 2015 at the Pokhran test range in Rajasthan, India.


The missile was developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and is capable of destroying a variety of armored targets at a range of 4-7 km. The Nag missile system has been in development for several years and is intended to replace the older anti-tank missiles used by the Indian Armed Forces.

3. Which NGO is Nobel Laureate: Kailash Satyarthi associated with?

(A) Bachpan Bachao Andolan

(B) Beti Bachao Abhiyan

(C) Jungle Suraksha Andolan

(D) Gana Siksha Abhiyan

Ans: (A)

Solution: Nobel Laureate Kailash Satyarthi is associated with the NGO Bachpan Bachao Andolan (Save the Childhood Movement), which he founded in 1980. The organization works towards the eradication of child labor and the protection of the rights of children in India.

Kailash Satyarthi
Kailash Satyarthi

Satyarthi’s work with Bachpan Bachao Andolan has been recognized internationally and he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014, along with Malala Yousafzai, for their efforts to promote child rights and education.

4. Which are the fields of the two MOUS signed between India and Egypt for bilateral cooperation on August 24, 2015.?

(A) Education and Culture

(B) Air Connectivity and Tourism

(C) Technology and Training & Research

(D) Tourism and Scientific & Technical Co-operation

Ans: (D)


5. Who is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for 2015?

(A) Saina Nehwal

(B) Sania Mirza

(C) Sachin Tendulkar

(D) Abhishek Verma

Ans: (B)

Sania Mirza
Sania Mirza

6. Why was the 50th anniversary of the Indo-Pak War of 1965 observed on August 28, 2015?

(A) The day marks the beginning of the war

(B) The day marks the victory of India

(C) The day marks the Tashkent Declaration

(D) The day marks the first tank battle by Indian soldiers

Ans: (B)

Indo-Pak War of 1965
Indo-Pak War of 1965

7. What has Om Prakash Rawat been appointed as?

(A) Information Commissioner of India

(B) Election Commissioner of India

(C) Vigilance Commissioner of India

(D) Knowledge Commissioner of India

Ans: (B)

8. What is the name of the Indian Coast Guard Ship that has been gifted to Sri Lanka?

(A) Virat

(B) Vikrant

(C) Varaha

(D) Vijay

Ans: (C)

9. What is the “Start-up India, Stand-up India” campaign associated with?

(A) Sports

(B) Scientific Research

(C) Empowerment of Women

(D) Entrepreneurship

Ans: (D)

Solution: The “Start-up India, Stand-up India” campaign is associated with entrepreneurship. It is an initiative launched by the Government of India in January 2016 to promote and support entrepreneurship and innovation in the country.

The campaign aims to create a conducive environment for start-ups to thrive by providing them with access to funding, mentorship, and other resources. The initiative also seeks to create employment opportunities and promote economic growth by encouraging the development of innovative new products and services.

The “Start-up India, Stand-up India” campaign has been instrumental in boosting the start-up ecosystem in India and has helped to position the country as a hub for innovation and entrepreneurship.

10. Who is the Japanese Scientist to have won the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 2015?

(A) Kosmas Prassides

(B) Taakaki Kajita

(C) Satoshi Omura

(D) Tu Youyou

Ans: (C)

11. Where was the first facial recognition ATM unveiled on May 30, 2015?


(B) China

(C) Japan

(D) India

Ans: (B)

facial recognition ATM

12. What has the UN declared the year 2015 as?

(A) International Year of Forests

(B) International Year of Soils

(C) International Year of Relieving the Hunger

(D) International Year of Food

Ans: (B)

13. Which country did top the medals tally at the 15th World Championship in Athletics held in August 2015?

(A) Russia

(B) China


(D) Kenya

Ans: (C)

Solution: The 15th World Championship in Athletics was held in Beijing, China, in August 2015. The United States topped the medals tally with a total of 18 medals, including 6 gold, 6 silver, and 6 bronze.

China came second in the tally with 9 medals (1 gold, 6 silver, and 2 bronze), while Kenya came third with a total of 16 medals (7 gold, 6 silver, and 3 bronze).