UPSC Prelims 2015 Question Paper (Solved)

You are reading SET A of UPSC Prelims 2015 Question Paper.

1. “Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojna’ has been launched for

(a) providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates
(b) promoting women’s Self-Help Groups in backward areas
(c) promoting financial inclusion in the country
(d) providing financial help to the marginalized communities

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana is a financial inclusion program launched by the Government of India in 2014. The primary objective of the scheme is to provide access to financial services like banking savings & deposit accounts, credit, insurance, and pension to the unbanked and underbanked sections of the society. The scheme aims to ensure that every household has at least one bank account and to promote financial literacy among the people.

2. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

Solution: Fourteenth Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India in January 2013 to make recommendations regarding the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.

The commission has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent. However, there is no mention of sector specific grants.

3. The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the news, is related to the affairs of

(a) ASEAN
(b) BRICS
(c) OECD
(d) WTO

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Fortaleza Declaration was signed by the leaders of BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) on 15 July 2014, during the sixth BRICS summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil.

The declaration outlines the agenda and priorities of the BRICS countries and sets the direction for future cooperation among them. The declaration emphasizes the need for increased cooperation and coordination on issues such as global economic governance, financial stability, energy security, sustainable development, and poverty eradication.

4. A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?

1. Slowing economic growth rate
2. Less equitable distribution of national income

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

Solution: A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates a lower tax collection relative to the size of the economy. This can be due to various reasons such as tax cuts, tax evasion, a decrease in economic activity, or a shift towards a more informal economy.

5. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?

(a) Sea surface temperatures are low
(b) Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
(c) Coriolis force is too weak
(d) Absence of land in those regions

Ans: (c)

Solution: Cyclones are low-pressure systems that form over warm tropical oceans with a depth of at least 50 meters. They require the Coriolis force, which is generated by the earth’s rotation, to start rotating. The Coriolis force deflects moving objects to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.

In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate because the Coriolis force is too weak. This is due to the fact that these regions are located near the equator, where the Coriolis force is minimal. As a result, the low-pressure systems that form in these regions do not rotate and do not develop into cyclones.

6. Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?

(a) Assam and Rajasthan
(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) Assam and Gujarat
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

Ans: (d)

Solution: Arunachal Pradesh is the easternmost state of India, located at the northeastern tip of the country, while Gujarat is the westernmost state, located at the western tip of the country.

7. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Solution: S1: Directive Principles of State Policy are a set of guidelines for the government of India to ensure social and economic democracy in the country. They are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution and contain provisions relating to the welfare of the people, social justice, economic growth, international peace, and security. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

S2: The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court, and they are not legally binding on the government. They are only guidelines for the government to follow while formulating policies and laws. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. 

8. In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?

(a) Coal production
(b) Electricity generation
(c) Fertilizer production
(d) Steel production

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Index of Eight Core Industries is a monthly economic indicator that measures the performance of eight core infrastructure industries in India, which are coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilizers, steel, cement, and electricity. The weights assigned to these eight sectors in the index are based on their relative importance in the economy.

Among the eight core industries, electricity is given the highest weight in the Index of Eight Core Industries.

9. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(d) Sultanpur National Park

Ans: (b)

Solution: Keibul Lamjao National Park, located in the Indian state of Manipur, is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation known as phumdis that support a rich biodiversity. It is the only floating national park in the world and is home to the endangered Manipur brow-antlered deer, also known as the sangai. Therefore, option (b) Keibul Lamjao National Park is the correct answer.

Option (a) Bhitarkanika National Park is located in Odisha and is known for its mangrove forests and estuarine crocodiles.

Option (c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park is located in Rajasthan and is known for its diverse birdlife, especially migratory birds.

Option (d) Sultanpur National Park is located in Haryana and is known for its birdlife and wetland habitats.

10. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)?

1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government.
2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

Solution: The National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF) is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government. It was set up in 2000 with the objective of promoting grassroots innovations and providing support to innovators in various domains, including agriculture, healthcare, and the environment. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect as NIF’s focus is on promoting grassroots innovations within India and not on collaborating with foreign scientific institutions for advanced research. The correct answer is (a) 1 only.

11. What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?

1. Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
3. Leaching of nitrate to the ground-water can occur.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution: Excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture can lead to an increase in soil acidity and leaching of nitrate to the ground-water. When nitrogenous fertilizers are added to soil, the excess nitrogen can be converted into nitrates by microorganisms, which can increase the acidity of the soil. Additionally, nitrates are highly soluble and can easily move through the soil to reach groundwater, which can cause contamination of drinking water sources.

While the proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil is a possibility, it is not a direct consequence of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers.

12. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) is not an organ of the United Nations, but rather an independent organization composed of both government and civil society organizations. The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is indeed an international agreement between governments.

Statement 2 is correct. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world aimed at better managing natural environments and promoting conservation efforts.

Statement 3 is also correct. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but it does not take the place of national laws. Rather, it works in conjunction with national laws and regulations to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.

13. The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the

(a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
(b) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(c) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture
(d) Agricultural Produce Market Committee

Ans: (a)

Solution: The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, determines the FRP based on recommendations from various stakeholders, including state governments, farmers’ organizations, and sugar industry representatives. The FRP is the minimum price that sugarcane farmers are legally guaranteed to receive for their produce.

14. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter-current?

(a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis
(b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents
(c) Difference in salinity of water
(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator

Ans: (b)

Solution: The equatorial countercurrents arise from a distinct wind pattern that prevails in the tropics. Generally, the trade winds blow westward, causing surface water to flow westward in most parts of the tropical Atlantic and Pacific Oceans.

However, the winds are significantly weaker several hundred miles (kilometers) north of the equator. Due to this, water is piled up where the winds are weaker, causing the ocean’s surface to be up to 6 inches (15 cm) higher and the thermocline (a layer of water where the temperature changes rapidly with depth) to be up to 328 feet (100 m) deeper than to the north. This excess water flows eastward, driven by the Earth’s rotation, which gives rise to the equatorial countercurrents.

15. Consider the following pairs:

Pace of Pilgrimage : Location
1. Srisailam : Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar : Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar :Mahadeo Hills

Which of the above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution: 

1. Srisailam: Nallamala Hills
2. Omkareshwar: Satmala Hills
3. Pushkar: Not Mahadeo Hills, but the Aravalli Range.

Therefore, only option (a) 1 only is correctly matched.

16. With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’.
2. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League.
3. Demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution:

S1: Correct, the Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the ‘Sedition Committee’. The committee was appointed in 1918 by the British Government to investigate the nature of revolutionary activities in India and make recommendations for dealing with them. The Rowlatt Act was passed in March 1919, based on the recommendations of this committee. The act gave the British government extensive powers to suppress political dissent and allowed them to detain political activists without trial.

S2: Correct, in Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League. The Rowlatt Satyagraha was a movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1919 to protest against the Rowlatt Act.

S3: Incorrect, demonstrations against the arrival of Simon Commission did not coincide with Rowlatt Satyagraha. The Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928 to discuss possible constitutional reforms. The Rowlatt Satyagraha was launched in 1919, almost a decade earlier. There were other protests and movements that coincided with the Simon Commission, such as the Nehru Report and the Lahore Congress, but they were not directly related to the Rowlatt Satyagraha.

17. Among the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently?

(a) Syria and Jordan
(b) Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia
(c) Philippines and Papua New Guinea
(d) Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam

Ans: (b)

18. With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and does not contain any toxic elements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans: (a)

Solution: 

S1: Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction. Fly ash is a by-product of burning pulverized coal in power plants. It is a fine, powdery material that is carried out of the boiler in the flue gas. It can be collected and used as a substitute for Portland cement in the production of bricks for building construction. The use of fly ash in bricks can improve the strength and durability of the bricks, and can also reduce the amount of cement required in the production process.

S2: Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete. Fly ash can also be used as a partial replacement for Portland cement in the production of concrete. The use of fly ash in concrete can improve its workability, durability, and resistance to chemical attack. It can also reduce the amount of cement required, thereby reducing the carbon footprint of the construction industry.

S3: Fly ash is not made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only, and may contain some toxic elements. While fly ash is generally considered to be non-toxic, it may contain small amounts of heavy metals such as arsenic, lead, and mercury, which are present in the coal used as fuel in power plants. However, the levels of these elements are generally very low, and the use of fly ash in construction is considered to be safe when proper precautions are taken.

19. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the, entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans: (c)

Solution:

S1: Dugong is a herbivorous marine animal that feeds on sea grass. It is often called the “sea cow” because of its grazing habits and slow-moving nature.

S2: Dugongs are found in the coastal waters of the Indian Ocean and the western Pacific Ocean. They are found along the coast of India, but their range is limited to certain areas such as the Gulf of Mannar, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the Lakshadweep Islands.

S3: Dugongs are given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This is the highest level of protection afforded to any species under the act. The hunting or killing of dugongs is strictly prohibited, and any violation of the law is punishable by imprisonment and fines.

20. Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India?

1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. G. Subramania Iyer
3. R. C. Dutt

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: Dadabhai Naoroji, G. Subramania Iyer, and R. C. Dutt were all notable economic critics of colonialism in India.

Naoroji, often called the “Grand Old Man of India,” was a prominent nationalist leader who argued that colonialism drained wealth from India to Britain. He coined the phrase “the drain of wealth” to describe this process.

Subramania Iyer was a journalist and political activist who also criticized the economic impact of colonialism on India.

R. C. Dutt was an Indian civil servant, economic historian, and writer who was critical of British policies in India and advocated for Indian economic self-sufficiency.

21. Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically?

(a) The Asian Development Bank
(b) The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(c) The US Federal Reserve Bank
(d) The World Bank

Ans: (d)

Solution: The World Bank periodically issues the “Global Economic Prospects” report. The report provides an in-depth analysis of the global economic outlook, including key economic and social indicators, as well as policy recommendations. The report covers topics such as global economic growth, poverty reduction, trade, and financial market developments, among others. The report is published twice a year, in January and June.

22. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?

(a) India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically
(b) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our country
(c) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates
(d) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking, system

Ans: (c)

Solution: The SLR is the percentage of deposits that banks are required to maintain in the form of liquid assets like cash, gold, or government securities. By reducing the SLR, the RBI allows banks to have a lower proportion of their deposits tied up in liquid assets. This reduction in the SLR gives banks more flexibility in utilizing their funds.

When banks have more flexibility and liquidity, they can potentially lower their lending rates. With reduced SLR requirements, banks have more funds available for lending, and they may choose to lower their lending rates to attract borrowers. This, in turn, can encourage borrowing and stimulate economic activity.

23. With reference to the use of nano-technology in health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology.
2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Solution: Both statements are correct regarding the use of nanotechnology in the health sector:

1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology: Nanotechnology enables the development of nanoparticles and nanocarriers that can be used to encapsulate drugs and deliver them to specific targets in the body. By modifying the surface properties and composition of these nanoparticles, it becomes possible to enhance drug stability, control drug release, and target specific tissues or cells. This allows for more precise and efficient drug delivery, reducing side effects and improving therapeutic outcomes.
2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy: Nanotechnology plays a significant role in advancing gene therapy. Nanoparticles can be designed to deliver therapeutic genes to specific cells, facilitating the treatment of genetic disorders or diseases caused by faulty genes. These nanoparticles can protect the therapeutic genes from degradation, enhance their uptake by target cells, and provide controlled release. Nanotechnology-based delivery systems have the potential to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of gene therapy approaches.

Therefore, both statements are correct, and the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

24. In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the

(a) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
(b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States
(c) Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937
(d) Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act, enacted by various states in India, governs the regulation and management of agricultural markets, also known as mandis. These acts establish the APMC system, which consists of physical marketplaces or yards where farmers can sell their produce through licensed intermediaries such as commission agents or traders.

Under the APMC Acts, the state governments establish Agricultural Produce Market Committees, which are responsible for regulating the buying, selling, and marketing of agricultural commodities within their respective jurisdictions. These committees ensure fair practices, provide infrastructure facilities, and enforce rules related to grading, weighing, and pricing of agricultural produce.

25. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?

(a) Saltwater crocodile

(b) Olive ridley turtle

(c) Gangetic dolphin

(d) Gharial

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Gangetic dolphin, also known as the Ganges river dolphin or the susu, is the national aquatic animal of India. It is a freshwater dolphin species found primarily in the Ganges and Brahmaputra river systems in India, Bangladesh, and Nepal. The Gangetic dolphin is known for its long and slender body, blind eyes, and a distinctive long snout. It is considered an important indicator species for the health of river ecosystems.

26. With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements:

1. It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
2. It wanted to establish the dictatorship of proletariat.
3. It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Ans: (d)

Solution: None of the statements are correct regarding the Congress Socialist Party. Here’s the clarification for each statement:

1. The Congress Socialist Party did not specifically advocate the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes. Their focus was more on socialist principles and economic reforms rather than direct boycotts or tax evasion.
2. The Congress Socialist Party did not aim to establish the dictatorship of the proletariat. They were a socialist group within the Indian National Congress that sought to promote socialist ideals and economic justice, but they did not advocate for a dictatorship of the proletariat, which is a concept associated with Marxist ideology.
3. The Congress Socialist Party did not advocate for a separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes. The party’s focus was primarily on social and economic reforms, and they emphasized the need for unity and social harmony among different sections of society.

27. Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: As per Article 109 of the Indian Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (the lower house of Parliament) and not in the Rajya Sabha (the upper house). The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on a Money Bill, and it cannot reject or amend it. After the Lok Sabha passes a Money Bill, it is sent to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations.

The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, and the Lok Sabha can either accept or reject these recommendations. However, regardless of the recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha, the final decision lies with the Lok Sabha.

28. The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined

(a) The separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
(b) The jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
(c) The powers of the Secretary of State for India and Viceroy
(d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Government of India Act of 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, did clearly define the jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments in India. It introduced the concept of dyarchy, which divided legislative powers between the central (imperial) government and the provincial governments. The Act assigned certain subjects, such as defense, foreign affairs, and currency, exclusively to the central government, while other subjects were allocated to the provincial governments.

29. Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers?

(a) The Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Department of Economic Affairs
(c) The Labour Bureau
(d) The Department of Personnel and Training

Ans: (c)

Solution: The ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers’ is brought out by the Labour Bureau in India. The Labour Bureau, under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, is responsible for collecting and analyzing data related to labor and employment in the country. One of its key publications is the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers,’ which provides insights into the changes in the cost of living and inflation experienced by industrial workers in different regions of India.

30. In the context of modem scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube’, a particle detector located at South Pole, which was recently in the news:

1. It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometre of ice.
2. It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
3. It is buried deep in the ice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

31. The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the

(a) Food and Agriculture Organization
(b) United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change
(c) World Trade Organization
(d) United Nations Environment Programme

Ans: (c)

Solution: The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’, and ‘Peace Clause’ are frequently mentioned in the context of the affairs of the World Trade Organization (WTO).

1. Agreement on Agriculture: The Agreement on Agriculture is a significant agreement within the WTO framework. It addresses the rules and regulations governing agricultural trade among member countries, aiming to establish fair and market-oriented agricultural trade practices.
2. Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement): The SPS Agreement sets out the rules and guidelines regarding food safety and animal and plant health measures in international trade. It seeks to ensure that sanitary and phytosanitary measures are based on scientific principles and do not create unnecessary barriers to trade.
3. Peace Clause: The Peace Clause is a provision within the Agreement on Agriculture that provides protection to developing countries against legal challenges in the WTO regarding their agricultural subsidies. It offers temporary protection to developing countries for certain types of subsidies that may exceed their prescribed limits, allowing them to support their agricultural sectors without facing trade disputes.

32. With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
2. NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other.
3. NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Near Field Communication (NFC) is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields. NFC enables devices to communicate with each other when they are brought within close proximity, typically a few centimeters.

Statement 2 is incorrect: NFC is designed for short-range communication, usually within a few centimeters. It is not intended for use by devices that are at a distance of even a meter from each other. The range of NFC is relatively limited compared to other wireless communication technologies like Bluetooth or Wi-Fi.

Statement 3 is correct: NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information. This is done to ensure the security and privacy of the data transmitted between NFC-enabled devices. Encryption helps protect sensitive information from unauthorized access and ensures secure communication.

33. The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to

(a) Central Asia
(b) Middle East
(c) South-East Asia
(d) Central Africa

Ans: (b)

Solution: The area known as ‘Golan Heights‘ often appears in the news in the context of events related to the Middle East. The Golan Heights is a region located in the eastern part of the Middle East, specifically in southwestern Syria. It borders Lebanon, Jordan, and Israel. The region has been a subject of geopolitical disputes and conflicts between Syria and Israel.

In 1967, during the Six-Day War, Israel gained control of the Golan Heights from Syria. Since then, the status of the Golan Heights has been a contentious issue between the two countries. Israel effectively annexed the territory in 1981, a move that has not been recognized internationally. The international community, including the United Nations, considers the Golan Heights as occupied Syrian territory.

The Golan Heights is strategically significant due to its location and topography. It overlooks the Sea of Galilee and provides a vantage point for monitoring and controlling the surrounding areas. The region is also known for its water resources and agricultural potential.

34. Convertibility of rupee implies

(a) being able to convert rupee notes into gold
(b) allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces
(c) freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa
(d) developing an international market for currencies in India

Ans: (c)

Solution: Convertibility of rupee refers to the ability to freely convert the Indian rupee into other currencies and vice versa. It means that individuals, businesses, and financial institutions are allowed to exchange rupees for foreign currencies and foreign currencies for rupees without significant restrictions or limitations.

Convertibility of rupee facilitates international trade, investment, and financial transactions by providing a mechanism for converting one currency into another. It allows individuals and businesses to engage in cross-border transactions, such as importing and exporting goods and services, making foreign investments, and conducting international business activities.

Option (a) is incorrect because convertibility of rupee does not imply the ability to convert rupee notes into gold. The gold standard, which allowed the direct convertibility of currency into gold, has been abandoned by most countries, including India.

Option (b) is incorrect because convertibility of rupee does not necessarily mean that the value of the rupee is fixed by market forces. The exchange rate of the rupee can still be influenced by various factors such as supply and demand, economic conditions, and government interventions.

Option (d) is incorrect because convertibility of rupee does not specifically refer to the development of an international market for currencies in India. It pertains to the freedom to convert rupees into other currencies and vice versa, regardless of whether the transactions occur in domestic or international markets.

35. Consider the following Pairs :

Medieval Indian : Present Region/State
1. Champaka : Central India
2. Durgara : Jammu
3. Kuluta : Malabar

Which of the above pairs is/ are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Ans: (b)

36. Consider the following rivers:

1. Vamsadhara
2. Indravati
3. Pranahita
4. Pennar

Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans: (d)

Solution:

1. Vamsadhara: Vamsadhara is not a tributary of the Godavari. It is a river that originates in Odisha and flows through the state before emptying into the Bay of Bengal independently.
2. Indravati: Indravati is a tributary of the Godavari. It originates in the state of Chhattisgarh and flows through Odisha before joining the Godavari River in Telangana.
3. Pranahita: Pranahita is a tributary of the Godavari. It is one of the major tributaries and merges with the Godavari River in Telangana.
4. Pennar: Pennar is not a tributary of the Godavari. It is a river that originates in the state of Karnataka and flows through Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal independently.

37. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses

Ans: (a)

38. Which one of the following regions of Indian has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?

(a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
(b) South-West Bengal
(c) Southern Saurashtra
(d) Andaman and Nicober Islands

Ans: (d)

Solution: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, located in the Bay of Bengal, have a combination of mangrove forests, evergreen forests, and deciduous forests. These islands are known for their rich biodiversity and are home to diverse ecosystems. The mangrove forests thrive in coastal areas, while evergreen forests are found in areas with high rainfall and moisture, and deciduous forests are present in areas with seasonal variations in rainfall. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands provide a habitat for numerous plant and animal species, making them ecologically significant.

39. Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only

Ans: (d)

Solution: The kingdoms associated with the life of the Buddha are Kosala and Magadha. The Buddha, also known as Siddhartha Gautama, was born in Lumbini, which was a part of the Kosala kingdom. He attained enlightenment and gave his first sermon at Sarnath, which was also within the Kosala kingdom. Later, he spent a significant part of his life in Magadha, which was a powerful kingdom during that time.

40. Which one the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?

(a) Bretton Woods Conference
(b) Montreal Protocol
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(d) Nagoya Protocol

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Montreal Protocol is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances. It is an international environmental treaty that was agreed upon in 1987. The protocol’s main objective is to protect the ozone layer by taking measures to reduce and eventually eliminate the production and consumption of substances that deplete it, such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs). The Montreal Protocol has been successful in its goals and has been widely recognized as an effective international environmental agreement. It has contributed to the recovery of the ozone layer and continues to be a crucial instrument in addressing ozone depletion.

41. Consider the following: The arrival of Babur into Indian led to the

1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
2. introduction of the arch and dome in the region’s architecture
3. establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region

Select the correct answer using the code give below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: Babur was a descendant of Timur and established the Timurid dynasty in India. The Mughal Empire, founded by Babur, became one of the most influential dynasties in Indian history.

42. The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the

(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission

Ans: (d)

43. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?

(a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
(b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
(c) It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change
(d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity

Ans: (a)

44. Consider the following statements:

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

Solution:

1. According to the Constitution of India, the executive power is vested in the President of India, who exercises it either directly or through officers subordinate to them. While the Prime Minister is the head of the government and exercises significant executive authority, the ultimate executive power rests with the President.
2. The Civil Services Board is responsible for the appointment, promotion, and disciplinary matters related to the civil servants in India. The Cabinet Secretary is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board, not the Prime Minister.

45. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of

(a) the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth
(b) region inside the Earth where shale gas is available
(c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
(d) search for meteorites containing precious metals

Ans: (c)

Solution: The term “Goldilocks Zone,” also known as the “habitable zone,” is often seen in the news in the context of the search for Earth-like planets in outer space. The Goldilocks Zone refers to the region around a star where conditions are neither too hot nor too cold, but just right to support the presence of liquid water on the surface of a planet.

Liquid water is considered a key ingredient for the development and sustenance of life as we know it. Scientists search for exoplanets within the Goldilocks Zone as they have the potential to harbor conditions suitable for life. This concept has gained significant attention in the field of astronomy and the search for potentially habitable planets beyond our solar system.

46. Who of the following organized a March on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?

(a) V. O. Chidambaram Pillai
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) K. Kamaraj
(d) Annie Besant

Ans: (b)

47. Who of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed to belong?

(a) Amoghavarsha I
(b) Ballala II
(c) Harihara I
(d) Prataparudra II

Ans: (c)

Solution: Harihara I was a 14th-century ruler and one of the founders of the Vijayanagara Empire in South India. He reigned from 1336 to 1356 CE.

Harihara I was born into the Hoysala Kannada-speaking family and was initially a commander in the service of the Kakatiya dynasty. However, after the decline of the Kakatiya kingdom, he took advantage of the political vacuum and established the Vijayanagara Empire along with his brother, Bukka Raya I.

48. Consider the following statements:

1. The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
2. The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Solution: The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Annie Besant. Annie Besant, a prominent British socialist, women’s rights activist, and theosophist, served as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1917. She was an influential figure in the Indian independence movement and made significant contributions to various social and political causes in India.

Annie Besant played a pivotal role in mobilizing public opinion and advocating for India’s independence from British colonial rule. Her presidency marked a milestone in the history of the Indian National Congress, as she became the first woman to hold this position.

The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji. Badruddin Tyabji, a lawyer by profession, served as the President of the Indian National Congress in 1887. He was a prominent leader and played a crucial role in the Indian independence movement during the late 19th century.

As the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress, Tyabji made significant contributions to the organization’s efforts for freedom and social reform. His presidency helped promote the inclusion of diverse communities in the Indian National Congress and fostered unity among different religious groups in the struggle against British colonial rule.

49. Which of the statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?

1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaption and mitigation practices to counter climate change.

2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

Solution: The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is indeed intended to assist developing countries in both adaptation and mitigation practices to counter the impacts of climate change. It aims to support projects and programs that contribute to climate change mitigation (reducing greenhouse gas emissions) and adaptation (building resilience to climate impacts).

50. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which one of the following?

(a) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(b) Indian Institute of Science
(c) Indian Space Research Organization
(d) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).

The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development is an annual award that recognizes individuals or organizations that have made significant contributions to promoting peace, disarmament, and development. It is named after the former Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi.

In 2014, the prize was awarded to the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) for its outstanding achievements in space technology and its contributions to societal development. ISRO has played a crucial role in advancing India’s space program, launching satellites, conducting space missions, and utilizing space technology for various applications, including communication, remote sensing, weather forecasting, and disaster management.

51. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It recommended a federal government.
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
3. It provided for more Indians in the ICS.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

Ans: (a)

Solution: The Cabinet Mission proposed the formation of a federal government for India, which would consist of a central government and provincial governments.

52. Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?

(a) Khangchendzonga National Park
(b) Nandadevi National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Namdapha National Park

Ans: (d)

53. Amnesty International is

(a) an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars
(b) a global Human Rights Movement
(c) a non-governmental voluntary organization to help very poor people
(d) an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical emergencies in war-ravaged regions

Ans: (b)

Solution: Amnesty International is a global Human Rights Movement that works to protect and promote human rights around the world. It is a non-governmental organization (NGO) that operates independently from any government, political ideology, or economic interest.

Amnesty International conducts research, advocacy, and campaigning to address human rights violations and seeks to hold governments accountable for their actions. The organization works to protect individuals and communities who are at risk or have been affected by human rights abuses, including issues such as freedom of expression, torture, discrimination, gender equality, and more.

54. With reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?

(a) Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
(b) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
(c) Rock-cut Monuments at Mahabalipuram
(d) Varaha Image at Udayagiri

Ans: (b)

55. With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential element/elements of the feudal system?

1. A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority
2. Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land
3. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: The feudal system, which existed in various parts of medieval India, was characterized by the following essential elements:

1. Emergence of administrative structure based on control and possession of land: Land was a crucial aspect of the feudal system. The system revolved around the ownership and control of land, which formed the basis of economic and social relationships. Feudal lords held land, and their power and authority stemmed from their control over it. The distribution and ownership of land played a significant role in shaping the feudal hierarchy.
2. Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord: The feudal system was characterized by a hierarchical structure based on the relationships between lords and vassals. Feudal lords, also known as landlords or zamindars, held large tracts of land and exercised control over them. They granted portions of their land to vassals, who, in turn, provided military service, labor, or other forms of allegiance to the lord. This lord-vassal relationship formed the basis of the feudal social and political order.

Note: Feudalism often involved a decentralized political structure with power distributed among various feudal lords rather than a strong central authority.

56. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the

(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Environment Programme
(d) World Bank

Ans: (d)

Solution: The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is managed by the World Bank. The BioCarbon Fund is a component of the Climate Investment Funds, which were established by the World Bank in collaboration with other multilateral development banks to provide financial resources for climate change mitigation and adaptation projects.

The ISFL, under the BioCarbon Fund, supports activities aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+).

It promotes sustainable land use practices, forest conservation, and restoration efforts in developing countries. The fund aims to create incentives for developing countries to pursue climate-friendly and sustainable development pathways by valuing the carbon stored in forests.

57. India is a member of which among the following?

1. Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations
3. East Asia Summit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) India is a member of none of them

Ans: (b)

Solution: India is a member of the East Asia Summit (EAS). The East Asia Summit is a regional forum held annually and consists of 18 member countries, including ASEAN member states (Association of Southeast Asian Nations), Australia, China, India, Japan, New Zealand, South Korea, Russia, and the United States. The EAS serves as a platform for dialogue and cooperation on political, security, and economic issues in the Asia-Pacific region.

India is not a member of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) or the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). APEC is a forum for promoting free trade and economic cooperation among 21 Pacific Rim member economies, including countries from both Asia and the Americas. ASEAN is a regional organization consisting of ten Southeast Asian countries that work together to promote political, economic, and social cooperation in the region.

58. In India, the steel production industry requires the import of

(a) saltpetre
(b) rock phosphate
(c) coking coal
(d) All of the above

Ans: (c)

Solution: In India, the steel production industry requires the import of coking coal. Coking coal is a specific type of coal that is used in the production of coke, which is a key ingredient in the steelmaking process. Coking coal has specific properties that make it suitable for the creation of high-quality coke, which is essential for the production of steel.

India has limited reserves of high-quality coking coal, and therefore, the steel industry heavily relies on the import of coking coal to meet its requirements. Countries like Australia, Indonesia, and South Africa are among the major exporters of coking coal to India.

59. The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States

Ans: (a)

Solution: The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in various states. It provides safeguards for the protection of the rights and interests of Scheduled Tribes, including the regulation of land and forest resources, protection from exploitation, and promotion of their social, economic, and educational development.

The Sixth Schedule applies to the tribal areas of the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. It provides for the establishment of autonomous district councils (ADCs) to administer these areas. The ADCs have legislative, executive, and financial powers to govern and manage the affairs of the tribal areas, preserving their customs, traditions, and social practices.

60. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

61. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India

Ans: (d)

62. Consider the following statements:

1. The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
2. The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

63. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The GEAC is a statutory body responsible for the regulation and approval of activities involving the release of genetically engineered organisms (GMOs) and products derived from GMOs into the environment.

The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is a comprehensive legislation in India that provides for the protection and improvement of the environment. It empowers the central government to take measures for the prevention, control, and abatement of environmental pollution. Under this act, the government has the authority to establish committees and regulatory bodies, such as the GEAC, to assess and regulate activities that may have an impact on the environment.

The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 deals with issues related to food safety, quality, and standards in India. The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 is focused on the registration and protection of geographical indications for goods. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 is concerned with the conservation and protection of wildlife in India.

64. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants?

1. Bangladesh
2. Cambodia
3. China
4. Myanmar
5. Thailand

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 5

Ans: (c)

65. ‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’, often seen in the news, seeks to

(a) develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity
(b) improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management
(c) reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries
(d) transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals

Ans: (b)

Solution: Basel III Accord, also known as Basel III, is an international regulatory framework for banks and financial institutions developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS). It was introduced in response to the global financial crisis of 2008-2009 to strengthen the banking system, enhance its resilience, and improve risk management practices.

The primary objective of Basel III is to improve the ability of banks to deal with financial and economic stress. It introduces stricter capital requirements, liquidity standards, and leverage ratios to ensure that banks have sufficient capital buffers to absorb losses during times of financial turmoil. The framework also focuses on enhancing risk management practices, including better risk assessment, governance, and transparency.

By implementing Basel III, regulators aim to promote a more stable and resilient banking system, minimize the risk of banking failures, and enhance the overall confidence in the financial sector. The framework has been adopted by many countries around the world, and banks are required to comply with its guidelines and standards to strengthen their financial positions.

66. Consider the following statements:

1. The winds which blow between 30° N and 60° S latitudes through-out the year are known as westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Solution: During the winter season, a weather phenomenon known as the Western Disturbance affects the northwestern parts of India. Western disturbances are extra-tropical storm systems that originate in the Mediterranean region and travel eastward. These systems bring moisture-laden air masses from the westerlies and result in winter rains, snowfall, and associated weather conditions in regions such as Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand. The western disturbances are nothing but the shifted westerlies.

Geographically it lies between 30 degree to 60 degree in both hemispheres.

67. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC)’, consider the following statements :

1. It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
2. It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

Solution: Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC), now known as the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), is an international organization established in 1997. It was formed with the objective of promoting regional cooperation and sustainable development among the Indian Ocean Rim countries.

Statement 1 is incorrect. IOR-ARC was not established recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills. Its establishment predates these incidents. The primary focus of IOR-ARC/IORA is to enhance economic cooperation, trade facilitation, and people-to-people connections among its member countries.

Statement 2 is also incorrect. IOR-ARC/IORA is not solely focused on maritime security. While maritime security is one of the areas of cooperation, the organization’s scope extends beyond security to various sectors such as trade, investment, fisheries, tourism, disaster management, academic and scientific cooperation, and more.

68. Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?

(a) Swadeshi Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement

Ans: (a)

Solution: The Swadeshi Movement was a significant movement during the Indian independence struggle that took place from 1905 to 1908. It was a part of the larger anti-colonial movement and was primarily focused on promoting indigenous industries and boycotting British goods.

The Swadeshi Movement was triggered by the partition of Bengal in 1905 by the British colonial government. The partition was seen as a divisive tactic aimed at weakening the nationalist movement in Bengal. In response, Indian nationalists launched the Swadeshi Movement to protest against the partition and to promote self-reliance and economic empowerment.

The Surat Split was a significant event in the history of the Indian National Congress that occurred during the Surat session of the Congress in December 1907. The split led to a division within the Congress and marked a significant ideological and strategic divergence among its members. The main reason for the split was the expansion of the Swadeshi Movement outside Bengal region.

Key features of the Swadeshi Movement included:

1. Boycott of British Goods: The movement called for the boycott of British goods and the promotion of Indian-made products. People were encouraged to purchase and use locally made goods and to reject foreign products, thereby hitting at the economic foundation of British colonial rule.
2. Promotion of Indigenous Industries: The movement emphasized the development of indigenous industries and the revival of traditional Indian craftsmanship. People were encouraged to establish and support Swadeshi industries, which would create employment opportunities and contribute to the growth of the Indian economy.
3. Nationalist Mobilization: The Swadeshi Movement played a crucial role in mobilizing people across different sections of society, including students, intellectuals, and the general public. It became a platform for expressing nationalist sentiments and fostering a sense of unity and pride in Indian culture and heritage.
4. Cultural Revival: Alongside economic aspects, the Swadeshi Movement also promoted the revival of Indian culture and traditions. Efforts were made to revive traditional arts, crafts, and educational institutions that reflected Indian values and traditions.

69. In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes, these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘living root bridges’ are found in

(a) Meghalaya
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans: (a)

Solution: Meghalaya, a state located in northeastern India, is known for its abundant rainfall and dense forests. In the southern slopes of the Khasi and Jaintia hills in Meghalaya, a remarkable traditional practice has been developed by the local indigenous people called the Khasi and Jaintia tribes. They have mastered the art of growing living root bridges.

These living root bridges are created by training the roots of the Ficus elastica tree, also known as the Indian rubber tree or the rubber fig tree. The process involves guiding the roots of the trees to grow and intertwine to form strong, natural bridges over streams and rivers.

The local people carefully nurture these bridges over many years, allowing the roots to grow and strengthen. As time passes, the living root bridges become stronger and can support the weight of multiple people. Some of these bridges have been estimated to be over a hundred feet long and can last for several centuries.

The living root bridges are a testament to the traditional ecological knowledge and sustainable practices of the local communities in Meghalaya. They provide vital and reliable transportation infrastructure, allowing people to cross rivers and streams even during the monsoon season when the water levels are high.

These living root bridges have gained international recognition for their unique and eco-friendly construction. They attract tourists from around the world who come to witness this exceptional example of nature and human ingenuity working together.

70. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following?

1. Gravitational force of the Sun
2. Gravitational force of the Moon
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

71. In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?

1. Assessment of crop productivity
2. Locating groundwater resources
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications
5. Traffic studies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (a)

Solution: Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites are used in the following activities:

1. Assessment of crop productivity: IRS satellites are used for monitoring and assessing crop health, estimating crop yields, and identifying areas of potential agricultural productivity. This information is valuable for agricultural planning, resource allocation, and food security.
2. Locating groundwater resources: IRS satellites can assist in mapping and monitoring groundwater resources by identifying geological features, mapping water bodies, and monitoring changes in water levels. This information helps in managing water resources effectively and planning sustainable water usage.
3. Mineral exploration: IRS satellites provide valuable data for mineral exploration and mapping. They can detect geological structures, identify mineral deposits, and assess the potential for mineral resources in specific areas. This aids in mineral exploration activities and resource planning.

72. Consider the following States:

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram

In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution: Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests, also known as Tropical Rainforests, are a type of forest that occurs in regions with high rainfall and constant high temperatures throughout the year. These forests are characterized by their dense vegetation, diverse species composition, and high levels of biodiversity. Here’s an explanation of the occurrence of Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests in the given states:

1. Arunachal Pradesh: Arunachal Pradesh is a northeastern state of India known for its rich biodiversity. While the state is home to various types of forests, including subtropical forests and temperate forests, it does not have extensive areas of Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests. The predominant forest types in Arunachal Pradesh are subtropical broadleaf forests and temperate forests due to the region’s higher elevations and cooler climate.
2. Himachal Pradesh: Himachal Pradesh is a northern state of India that primarily experiences a temperate climate with a mix of sub-tropical and alpine regions. The state is not known for having significant areas of Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests. The forest types found in Himachal Pradesh include temperate forests, pine forests, and alpine meadows.
3. Mizoram: Mizoram is a northeastern state of India that falls within the region known as the Eastern Himalayas, which is characterized by its high rainfall and diverse ecosystems. Mizoram is known for its extensive coverage of Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests. The state’s location in the subtropical belt and its high rainfall provide favorable conditions for the growth of these forests. Mizoram’s forests are known for their rich biodiversity, with a wide range of flora and fauna.

73. The term ‘IndARC’, sometimes seen in the news, is the name of

(a) an indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defence
(b) India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of Indian Ocean Rim
(c) a scientific establishment set up by India in Antarctic region
(d) India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region

Ans: (d)

74. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management.
3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution:

1. The first statement is correct. The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is indeed a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society, and indigenous peoples. It was established in 2007 and operates under the World Bank Group’s umbrella.
2. The second statement is incorrect. The FCPF does not provide financial aid specifically to universities, individual scientists, or institutions involved in scientific forestry research. Its primary focus is on supporting countries in their efforts to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation.
3. The third statement is correct. The main objective of the Forest Carbon Partnership Facility is to assist countries in their REDD+ efforts. REDD+ stands for Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation, and it involves the conservation and sustainable management of forests, as well as the enhancement of forest carbon stocks. The FCPF provides financial and technical assistance to countries implementing REDD+ programs.

75. Which one of the following was given classical language status recently?

(a) Odia
(b) Konkani
(c) Bhojpuri
(d) Assamese

Ans: (a)

Solution: In India, a classical language refers to a language that has a rich heritage and a long literary tradition. The status of a language as a classical language is determined by certain criteria set by the government.

In 2004, the Government of India declared Tamil as the first classical language in the country. It was recognized for its antiquity, rich literature spanning over two millennia, and its significant influence on other languages and cultures. Tamil’s classical status was granted based on recommendations from the Sahitya Akademi, the National Academy of Letters.

Following the recognition of Tamil, other languages have also been granted classical language status. In 2008, Sanskrit was declared as the second classical language in India. Sanskrit is an ancient Indo-Aryan language and is considered the language of the Vedas, ancient Hindu scriptures.

In addition to Tamil and Sanskrit, other languages such as Kannada, Telugu, Malayalam, and Odia have also been considered for classical language status. These languages have a rich literary history, ancient texts, and significant contributions to Indian culture and literature.

The status of a language as a classical language is not merely based on age or antiquity but also takes into account its contribution to literature, the presence of ancient texts, and its influence on other languages and cultures. The recognition of a language as a classical language helps promote its preservation, study, and appreciation.

76. With reference to an organization known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution:

1. BirdLife International is indeed a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations. It is a worldwide alliance of organizations working together to conserve birds and their habitats. These organizations collaborate to promote the conservation of birds and biodiversity globally.
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ was not originated by BirdLife International. It was developed by Norman Myers, a conservation biologist, in the late 1980s. Biodiversity hotspots are regions with exceptionally high levels of plant and animal species diversity and are under significant threat.
3. BirdLife International plays a crucial role in identifying and designating sites known as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’ (IBAs). These sites are recognized for their significance in supporting bird populations and conserving biodiversity. IBAs are identified based on scientific criteria, including the presence of threatened bird species, endemic species, and critical habitats.

77. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

(a) Syria
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Israel

Ans: (b)

Solution: Among the given countries of South-West Asia, Jordan is the country that does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea. Syria, Lebanon, and Israel have coastlines along the eastern edge of the Mediterranean Sea. However, Jordan is located inland and does not have a direct border with the Mediterranean Sea.

78. In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?

(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest
(b) Tropical rain forest
(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest
(d) Temperate forest with grasslands

Ans: (a)

Solution: Teak is a valuable timber tree species and is well-known for its quality wood. It is predominantly found in the tropical moist deciduous forests of India. These forests are characterized by a moderate to high annual rainfall and a mix of both deciduous and evergreen tree species. Teak thrives in these moist and warm conditions and forms a significant part of the forest composition in such regions. The tropical moist deciduous forests of India are found in various parts of the country, including central and southern regions.

79. ‘Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action’, often seen in the news, is

(a) a strategy to tackle, the regional terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(b) a plan of action for sustainable economic growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, an outcome of the deliberations of the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum
(c) an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations
(d) a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration of the East Asia Summit

Ans: (c)

80. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But rain is soon over.” Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?

(a) Savannah
(b) Equatorial
(c) Monsoon
(d) Mediterranean

Ans: (b)

81. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in the Indian economy has not steadily increased in the last decade. India has experienced fluctuations in GDP growth rate over the years, with periods of high growth followed by a slowdown. It is not accurate to say that the growth rate has steadily increased.

Statement 2 is correct. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade. This statement refers to the nominal GDP, which is the value of goods and services produced in the economy at current market prices. Over time, due to inflation and economic expansion, the nominal GDP tends to increase.

82. Consider the following statements:

1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

83. “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties

Ans: (d)

Solution: The provision “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is one of the Fundamental Duties of citizens of India. Fundamental Duties are a set of moral obligations and responsibilities that are enshrined in Part IV-A of the Constitution of India, added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. The Fundamental Duties serve as a reminder to citizens to be mindful of their responsibilities towards the nation.

The Preamble of the Constitution outlines the basic ideals and objectives of the Constitution, including justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.

Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are a set of guidelines given to the government to promote social justice, economic welfare, and the overall development of the country.

Fundamental Rights are the basic rights guaranteed to the citizens of India to ensure individual freedom and protection from discrimination.

Therefore, the provision “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is included in the Fundamental Duties.

84. Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’?

(a) A community of organisms interacting with one another
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
(c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area

Ans: (c)

85. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

1. People’s participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

86. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following:

1. Bank rate
2. Open market operations
3. Public debt
4. Public revenue

Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary Policy?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Solution: The components of Monetary Policy in the Indian economy are:

1. Bank rate: The bank rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks. It is one of the tools used by the central bank to control the money supply and influence interest rates.
2. Open market operations: Open market operations refer to the buying and selling of government securities by the central bank in the open market. By conducting open market operations, the central bank influences the liquidity in the banking system and thereby affects interest rates.

87. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
(b) The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
(c) Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
(d) Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation

Ans: (c)

Solution: Inflation is a situation characterized by a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services over a period of time. Controlling inflation is a shared responsibility between the Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

While the government formulates and implements fiscal policies to manage inflation, the RBI plays a crucial role in controlling inflation through its monetary policy tools. The RBI uses measures such as adjusting interest rates, managing money supply, and regulating credit to influence the level of inflation in the economy.

Decreased money circulation, also known as tightening monetary policy, is one of the measures used by the RBI to control inflation. When there is less money available in the economy, it reduces aggregate demand, which can help in curbing inflationary pressures.

88. Consider the following countries:

1. China
2. France
3. India
4. Israel
5. Pakistan

Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (a)

89. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are a set of guidelines or principles in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. They outline the social and economic goals that the State should strive to achieve in order to establish a just and equitable society. The DPSPs include provisions for promoting the welfare of the people, ensuring social justice, improving the standard of living, and protecting the rights of marginalized sections of society.

The concept of a ‘Welfare State’ implies a state that actively promotes the well-being and welfare of its citizens. It emphasizes providing social and economic security, equal opportunities, and access to basic necessities such as education, healthcare, and employment. The DPSPs in the Indian Constitution reflect this idea of a Welfare State by laying down principles and policies for the progressive realization of social and economic justice.

90. The Substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of

(a) labour-augmenting technological progress
(b) capital-augmenting technological progress
(c) capital-reducing technological progress
(d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

91. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

Ans: (d)

Solution: India has a Parliamentary System of Government, and one of the key characteristics of this system is the principle of executive responsibility to the legislature. In India, the Council of Ministers, also known as the Cabinet, is responsible to the Lok Sabha, which is the lower house of Parliament. The Council of Ministers is formed by the political party or coalition of parties that has the majority in the Lok Sabha.

92. HINI virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?

(a) AIDS
(b) Bird flu
(c) Dengue
(d) Swine flu

Ans: (d)

Solution: Swine flu, also known as H1N1 influenza, is a respiratory disease caused by the H1N1 strain of the influenza A virus. It is called “swine flu” because the virus was originally found in pigs, but it can be transmitted from pigs to humans and also from human to human. The H1N1 virus caused a global pandemic in 2009, and it continues to circulate as a seasonal flu virus.

93. With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements:

1. The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal inoculums.
2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

94. The problem of international liquidity is related to the non-availability of

(a) goods and services
(b) gold and silver
(c) dollars and other hard currencies
(d) exportable surplus

Ans: (c)

Solution: International liquidity refers to the availability of liquid assets, such as currencies, that can be readily used for international trade and financial transactions. It is crucial for facilitating smooth international economic transactions, including trade, investments, and debt repayments between countries.

The non-availability of dollars and other hard currencies can lead to a shortage of international liquidity. Dollars, being the most widely used currency for international transactions, play a central role in global trade and finance. When there is a scarcity of dollars and other hard currencies, it can create difficulties for countries to conduct international transactions, particularly in situations where their own currencies may not be widely accepted or convertible.

Countries often strive to maintain adequate international reserves of dollars and other hard currencies to ensure smooth functioning of their external transactions. They can acquire these reserves through various means, including exports, foreign investments, and borrowings. Insufficient availability of dollars and other hard currencies can result in liquidity problems, affecting a country’s ability to meet its international obligations and engage in international trade.

95. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements:

1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by products.
2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution:

1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as byproducts. This statement is correct. When pure hydrogen is used as the fuel in a fuel cell, the process of electrochemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen produces electricity, heat, and water vapor as byproducts. This is one of the advantages of fuel cells as they are considered relatively clean and environmentally friendly.
2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers. This statement is incorrect. Fuel cells can be used for both large-scale applications, such as powering buildings or vehicles, as well as smaller devices like laptops and mobile phones. In fact, there are portable fuel cells available that can provide power to electronic devices in remote or off-grid locations.
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC). This statement is incorrect. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Direct Current (DC), not Alternating Current (AC). However, the DC output from fuel cells can be converted to AC using an inverter if AC power is required for certain applications.

96. Kalamkari painting refers to

(a) a hand-painted cotton textile in South India
(b) a handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in North-East India
(c) a block-painted woollen cloth in Western Himalayan region of India
(d) a hand-painted decorative silk cloth in North-Western India

Ans: (a)

Solution: Kalamkari painting is the painting done with the pen.  These paintings are done in Andhra Pradesh. Vegetable dyes are used for color in Kalamkari painting.  The painting flourished during the Vijayanagar Empire.  The painting was used for decorating the interior of the temple. The subject of the Kalamkari is Hindu mythology. The legacy of this art is transferred from father to son.  The boundary of the paining is decorated with floral decorative pattern. These paintings are made on the cloth.

97. Which one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village Concept’?

(a) Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from others
(b) Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost
(c) Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds
(d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in villages and providing them technology and finance to set up seed companies

Ans: (b)

98. There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?

1. Reducing revenue expenditure
2. Introducing new welfare schemes
3. Rationalizing subsidies
4. Expanding industries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (a)

Solution: To reduce a persistent budget deficit, the government can take the following actions:

1. Reducing revenue expenditure: By reducing unnecessary or non-productive expenses, such as cutting down on administrative costs or non-essential programs, the government can decrease its overall expenditure. This can help in narrowing the budget deficit.
2. Rationalizing subsidies: Subsidies can be a significant burden on the government’s finances. By carefully reviewing and restructuring subsidies, the government can reduce excessive expenditure and make them more targeted and efficient.

99. Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status?

1. Banaras Brocades and Sarees
2. Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
3. Tirupathi Laddu

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

100. With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
2. It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Solution: The correct statement is (c) Both 1 and 2.

1. Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA) is a Public Limited Government Company. This means that it is a company incorporated under the Companies Act and is owned and controlled by the Indian government. It operates as a public entity, with the government holding a majority stake in its ownership.
2. IREDA is also a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC). An NBFC is a financial institution that provides financial services similar to banks but does not have a banking license. IREDA primarily focuses on financing and promoting renewable energy projects in India. It offers various financial products and services, such as project financing, refinancing, and consultancy, to support the development of renewable energy infrastructure in the country.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct, and the correct option is (c) Both 1 and 2.

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