UPSC Prelims 2012 Solved Paper

You are reading UPSC Prelims 2012 Solved Paper SET A. 

1. In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?

1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent the alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting a prospecting license or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 provides for the extension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution, relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas in several states. In these areas, the Gram Sabha has been assigned a pivotal role in local governance.

The Gram Sabha has the power to prevent the alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas, as mentioned in statement 1. The ownership of minor forest produce is vested in the Gram Sabha as per the provisions of the Act, as mentioned in Statement 2.

Lastly, the recommendation of the Gram Sabha is required for granting a prospecting license for mining the minor minerals and not any mineral in the Scheduled Areas. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, all three statements are correct.

2. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
(c) to allow a reduction of a specific amount in demand for a grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behavior on the part of some members

Ans: (a)

Solution: An adjournment motion is a parliamentary procedure in which a member of a legislative body moves a motion for the adjournment of the House to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance. It is a device used to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of public concern that needs immediate discussion.

The adjournment motion is introduced by a member after the Question Hour and before the regular business of the House starts. It requires the support of at least 50 members of the House to be accepted by the Speaker or the Chairman. If the motion is accepted, the House adjourns for a specified period, usually not more than a day, to discuss the matter mentioned in the motion.

During the discussion, the member who has moved the motion and other members are allowed to speak. The concerned minister or representative of the government is required to reply to the issues raised during the discussion.

The adjournment motion is a powerful tool for the opposition to bring attention to issues that require immediate discussion and action. It is an exception to the normal procedure of the House and is used sparingly.

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of the NBA.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution: The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) has several functions that are crucial for biodiversity conservation in India. It grants approvals for access to biological resources, provides advice on conservation, and promotes sustainable use of biological resources. The NBA also establishes procedures for the benefit sharing of biological resources, registers and regulates access to biological resources, and maintains a national register of biodiversity-related knowledge. In addition, the NBA has the power to impose penalties on violators of the Biological Diversity Act, of 2002.

4. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Right to a healthy environment, construed as a part of the Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution: The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted to provide for the establishment of a specialized forum for the effective and speedy disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. The Act was enacted in consonance with the provisions of Article 21 of the Constitution of India, which guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, and includes the right to a healthy environment.

Article 275(1) provides for the grants-in-aid to the States for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and is not related to the establishment of the National Green Tribunal.

Article 243(A) deals with the powers and functions of Gram Sabhas in the Panchayati Raj system and is not related to the establishment of the National Green Tribunal.

5. If National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?

1 Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through the recycling of wastewater.
2 The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
3 All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India
4 The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore wells and for installing motors and pump sets to draw groundwater will be completely reimbursed by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

Solution: The National Water Mission is a scheme launched by the Government of India with the aim of conservation of water, minimizing wastage, and ensuring its more equitable distribution both across and within states. The scheme includes various measures to improve the availability and quality of water in the country. However, not all the measures listed in the options are part of the National Water Mission.

Option 1 is a part of the National Water Mission. Recycling wastewater can significantly reduce the demand for fresh water in urban areas, which can in turn help to conserve the available water resources.

Option 2 is also a part of the National Water Mission. Coastal cities face a unique challenge in terms of water scarcity as they cannot rely on traditional sources of freshwater like rivers and lakes. By adopting appropriate technologies, such as desalination, these cities can meet their water needs.

Option 3, linking rivers of Himalayan origin to the rivers of peninsular India, is not a part of the National Water Mission. It is a separate project, the Interlinking of Rivers (ILR), which aims to transfer water from surplus basins to deficit basins.

Option 4, reimbursing farmers for bore-well digging and installation of motors and pump sets, is also not a part of the National Water Mission. There are other schemes and initiatives by the government to support farmers in water conservation and irrigation.

6. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India :

1 Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2 Organizing village Panchayats
3 Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4 Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is a set of guidelines for the government to ensure the welfare of the people and the establishment of a just society. Some of these principles are based on the principles of Mahatma Gandhi. Some of the Gandhian principles reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy are:

1. Promotion of cottage industries: Gandhiji was a strong advocate of promoting rural industries and self-reliance. The Constitution also directs the State to promote cottage industries in rural areas to provide employment opportunities and to promote economic development.
2. Decentralization of power: Gandhiji believed in the decentralization of power and the promotion of local self-government. The Constitution directs the State to promote Panchayati Raj institutions and to devolve power to local bodies.

7. Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

Ans: (d)

Solution: S1: Delhi is the UT and has two seats in Rajya Sabha. Hence, S1 is incorrect.

S2: It falls under the purview of concerned high courts to adjudicate election disputes. Hence, S2 is incorrect.

S3: The President of India is also a part of the parliament. So, S3 is also not correct.

8. With reference to consumers’ rights/ privileges under the provisions of the law in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of the death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution:

1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing: Yes, consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing. The Consumer Protection Act, of 2019 provides consumers with the right to seek samples of goods, such as food products, for testing. This is to ensure that the goods are safe and of the prescribed standard.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, a small amount of fee is required to be paid.
3. In case of the death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf: Yes, in case of the death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf. The legal heir of a deceased consumer can file a complaint in the consumer forum if the cause of action survives the death of the consumer.

9. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Ans: (b)

Solution: S1: The Speaker of the House can be removed from his post by the resolution of Lok Sabha. S1 is incorrect.

S2: The speaker must be a member of the house at the time of such election. S2 is incorrect.

S3: The speaker of the house submits his resignation to the deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha. S3 is correct.

10. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1 A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States
2 A dispute regarding elections to either the House of the Parliament or that of the Legislature of a State
3 A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4 A dispute between two or more States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Solution: The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court refers to cases that can be directly filed in the Supreme Court without going through lower courts. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes the following cases:

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States: This is included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
2. A dispute regarding elections to either the House of the Parliament or that of the Legislature of a State: This is not included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The Election Commission of India is responsible for the conduct of elections and the resolution of election disputes.
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory: This is not included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The High Court of the concerned Union Territory has jurisdiction over such disputes.
4. A dispute between two or more States: This is included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

11. Consider the following kinds of organisms :

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Flowering plants

Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: Biopesticides are certain types of pesticides derived from natural materials such as animals, plants, bacteria, and certain minerals. Biopesticides are used to control pests and diseases that can harm crops, livestock, and humans. Some examples of organisms used as biopesticides include:

1. Bacteria: Certain species of bacteria such as Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) are used as biopesticides. Bt produces a toxin that is specific to certain pests such as caterpillars and helps to control their population.
2. Fungi: Certain species of fungi such as Beauveria bassiana and Metarhizium anisopliae are used as biopesticides. These fungi infect and kill insects such as aphids, whiteflies, and thrips.
3. Flowering plants: Certain species of flowering plants such as Chrysanthemum cinerariaefolium are used to produce biopesticides. The flowers of this plant contain natural insecticides that are used to control pests such as mites, thrips, and whiteflies.

Therefore, all three kinds of organisms – bacteria, fungi, and flowering plants – can be employed as biopesticides.

12. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells, and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Explanation: Biomass gasification is a process of converting solid biomass into a combustible gas mixture called producer gas, which is a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2), and methane (CH4) along with small amounts of other gases.

This process is considered one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. The following statements are given regarding biomass gasification:

1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells, and rice husks can be used in biomass gasification. This statement is correct as these are examples of solid biomass that can be used in the gasification process.
2. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only. This statement is incorrect as producer gas consists of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2), and methane (CH4) along with small amounts of other gases.
3. The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines. This statement is incorrect as producer gas can be used as a fuel in internal combustion engines after cleaning and cooling it appropriately.

Hence, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

13. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?

1 It inactivates /kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
2 It removes all the undesirable odours from the water.
3 It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution: Only statement 1 is correct. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation is used as a disinfectant in water purification systems. It inactivates or kills harmful microorganisms in water, making it safe for consumption. UV radiation does not remove odors or improve the clarity of the water. Sedimentation and turbidity removal is achieved through physical processes such as coagulation, flocculation, and filtration. Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

14. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?

1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Solution: Only statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. Graphene is a two-dimensional material made of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice. It has excellent electrical conductivity and is one of the thinnest and strongest materials known.

15. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?

1. Smelting units
2. Pens and pencils
3. Paints
4. Hair oils and cosmetics

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

Solution: Lead poisoning can occur from various sources such as smelting units, industrial processes, paints,  and batteries. Though the addition of lead to petrol has been banned in many countries, including India, it is still a major source of lead exposure in some countries where leaded petrol is still in use.

16. With reference to ‘stem cells’, frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
2. Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
3. Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

1. Stem cells can be derived not only from mammals but also from other organisms, such as birds, fish, and even some invertebrates.
2. Stem cells can indeed be used for screening new drugs, as they provide a way to test the effects of new compounds on living cells before they are tested in humans.
3. Stem cells are a promising tool for medical therapies, as they have the potential to replace or regenerate damaged tissues in the body.

17. Consider the following statements: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used

1. in the production of plastic foams
2. in the production of tubeless tyres
3. in cleaning certain electronic components
4. as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Solution: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are known as ozone-depleting substances, and they are used in the production of plastic foams, cleaning certain electronic components, and as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.

18. A team of scientists at Brookhaven National Laboratory including those from India created the heaviest anti-matter (anti-helium nucleus). What is/are the implication/ implications of the creation of anti-matter?

1. It will make mineral prospecting and oil exploration easier and cheaper.
2. It will help probe the possibility of the existence of stars and galaxies made of anti-matter.
3. It will help understand the evolution of the universe.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: The creation of anti-matter can help us understand the evolution of the universe, as it is believed that the Big Bang created equal amounts of matter and anti-matter.

When matter and anti-matter come into contact, they annihilate each other, leaving behind pure energy. The existence of matter in our universe indicates that there was a slight excess of matter over anti-matter during the Big Bang.

By studying anti-matter, scientists hope to understand this asymmetry and its implications for the evolution of the universe.

19. Which of the following is /are cited by the scientists as evidence/ evidences for the continued expansion of universe?

1. Detection of microwaves in space
2. Observation of redshift phenomenon in space
3. Movement of asteroids in space
4. Occurrence of supernova explosions in space

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above can be cited as evidence

Ans: (a)

Solution: Detection of microwaves in space and observation of redshift phenomenon in space is cited as evidence for the continued expansion of the universe. The movement of asteroids in space and the occurrence of supernova explosions in space are not directly related to the continued expansion of the universe.

20. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?

(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
(c) Moisture in the upper layers of the atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth
(d) None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given above is correct

Ans: (a)

Solution: The Earth’s magnetic field acts like a shield, deflecting the charged particles from space (also known as cosmic rays) toward its poles. This is because the magnetic field lines converge at the magnetic poles, creating regions of high magnetic field strength. When cosmic rays enter the Earth’s magnetic field, they spiral along the field lines and are diverted toward the poles.

The charged particles that are deflected toward the poles produce the auroras, also known as the Northern and Southern lights. The auroras occur when the charged particles collide with the Earth’s atmosphere, producing colorful displays of light.

So, the Earth’s magnetic field plays a crucial role in protecting the Earth from the harmful effects of cosmic rays.

21. With reference to the scientific progress of ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?

1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Solution: 

1. Different kinds of specialized surgical instruments were in common use by 1st century AD – This is correct. Many surgical instruments were in use in ancient India by the 1st century AD, as described in the Susruta Samhita, an ancient Sanskrit text on medicine and surgery.
2. Transplant of internal organs in the human body had begun by the beginning of 3rd century AD – This is incorrect. There is no evidence to suggest that organ transplantation was being performed in ancient India.
3. The concept of sine of an angle was known in 5th century AD – This is correct. The concept of sine was first introduced by the Indian mathematician Aryabhata in the 5th century AD.
4. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was known in 7th century AD – This is correct. The concept of cyclic quadrilaterals was first described by the Indian mathematician Brahmagupta in the 7th century AD.

22. With reference to the history of ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
3. Denial of efficacy of rituals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: Both Buddhism and Jainism emerged in ancient India as reform movements that sought to challenge the authority of the Brahmanical tradition and the Vedas. They rejected the caste system and the ritualistic practices associated with it.

Both religions emphasized the importance of achieving liberation from the cycle of birth and death through the pursuit of ethical conduct, self-discipline, and meditation.

Finally, both Buddhism and Jainism denied the efficacy of rituals and emphasized the importance of personal effort and self-realization in achieving spiritual liberation.

23. Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of Inclusive Governance?

1. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking
2. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts
3. Increasing the government spending on public health
4. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a)1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Solution: Inclusive governance refers to a system of governance that ensures the participation of all sections of society in the decision-making process, particularly those who are historically marginalized or excluded. It involves policies and practices that aim to reduce social and economic inequalities and promote the well-being of all citizens.

Permitting Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking does not necessarily contribute to inclusive governance. While it may increase competition in the banking sector and provide greater access to financial services, it does not necessarily address the needs of marginalized or excluded communities.

On the other hand, establishing effective District Planning Committees in all districts, increasing government spending on public health, and strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme are examples of policies and practices that can contribute to inclusive governance. They promote greater participation of marginalized communities in decision-making, improve access to essential services, and reduce social and economic inequalities.

24. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are the

(a) three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
(b) three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
(c) three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(d) three main musical Gharanas prevalent in India

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Nagara, Dravida, and Vesara are indeed the three main styles of Indian temple architecture, developed during different periods of Indian history and found in various regions of the country.

The Nagara style of temple architecture originated in Northern India, and it is characterized by a curvilinear tower or Shikhara. The Shikhara is often composed of several smaller shikharas stacked on top of one another, creating a stepped, mountain-like form. The Nagara temples are often adorned with intricate carvings, sculptures, and decorative features.

The Dravida style of temple architecture, on the other hand, originated in Southern India and is characterized by a pyramidal or tiered tower or vimana. The vimana is often adorned with intricate carvings and sculptures, and the temple itself is often surrounded by a series of smaller shrines and pavilions. The Dravida temples are often more austere than the Nagara temples, with fewer decorative elements.

The Vesara style of temple architecture is a blend of the Nagara and Dravida styles, and it emerged in the central regions of India. The Vesara temples often have a hybrid tower, combining the features of both the Nagara and Dravida styles. The Vesara temples are often more ornate than the Dravida temples but less elaborate than the Nagara temples.

Overall, the Nagara, Dravida, and Vesara styles of temple architecture represent an important part of India’s cultural heritage, and they continue to inspire and influence architects and artists around the world.

25. The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because

(a) the Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces
(b) emergence of a left wing’ in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible
(c) there were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

Ans: (d)

Solution: Congress ministers resigned from their offices in seven provinces of British India in 1939 as a protest against the British government’s decision to involve India in World War II without consulting Indian leaders.

You are referring to UPSC Prelims 2012 Solved Paper SET A. 

26. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker?

1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
(b) 2 and 4 Only
(c) 1 and 3 Only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (a)

Solution: ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activist) is a trained community health worker under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) in India. The main responsibilities of an ASHA worker include raising awareness about health and hygiene practices in the community and providing basic healthcare services to the community members.

The specific jobs of an ASHA worker include accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup, using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy, and providing information on nutrition and immunization. However, conducting the delivery of a baby is not within the scope of an ASHA worker’s responsibilities. ASHA workers are trained to identify high-risk pregnancies and refer them to the nearest health facility for delivery.

27. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution:

S3: Correct, the act had the provision of introduction of the principle of responsible government and devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.

S1: Introduction of the system of “dyarchy” in the provinces, which meant that certain areas of government such as education, public health, and agriculture were transferred to Indian ministers, while other areas such as law and order and finance remained under British control.

S2: The Act did not include the introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims. This was introduced in the Government of India Act, 1909.

28. During Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed What was the reason for its formation?

(a) Different social reform groups or organizations of Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government.
(b) Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose
(c) Behramji Malabari and MG Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Ans: (b)

Solution: The National Social Conference was a platform for social and political reformers in India, which was formed in 1887. The conference aimed to bring together various social reform organizations from across India to address issues related to social reform, education, and other public concerns.

The conference was formed by a group of social reformers from Bengal, including S.N. Banerjee, Keshab Chandra Sen, and Behramji Malabari. The conference aimed to promote Hindu-Muslim unity and encourage Indians to participate in the freedom struggle.

The National Social Conference held its first session in Madras in 1887, and subsequent sessions were held in different parts of India. The conference played an important role in the Indian freedom struggle by promoting social and political reforms, and creating a platform for discussion and exchange of ideas among reformers from different parts of India.

The National Social Conference was eventually merged with the Indian National Congress in 1923, after the Congress decided to include social and economic reforms in its agenda. Many prominent Indian leaders, such as Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, were associated with the National Social Conference at different points in time.

29. Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
3. The Independent Labour Party

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, also known as Babasaheb Ambedkar, was a prominent Indian jurist, economist, politician, and social reformer who played a significant role in India’s freedom struggle and the drafting of its Constitution. He was a champion of the rights of the oppressed and marginalized sections of society, particularly the Dalits.

To further the interests of the Dalits and other oppressed communities, Dr. Ambedkar established two political parties during his lifetime – the All India Scheduled Castes Federation (AISCF) and The Independent Labour Party (ILP).

The AISCF was established in 1942, with the aim of advocating for the rights of the Dalits and other marginalized communities in India. The party’s primary goal was to ensure that these communities were adequately represented in India’s political and social spheres.

Similarly, The Independent Labour Party was founded in 1936, with the objective of improving the economic and social conditions of the working-class people in India. The party also focused on the issues facing marginalized communities such as the Dalits and aimed to address their concerns.

However, Dr. Ambedkar was not involved in the establishment of the Peasants and Workers Party of India (PWPI). The PWPI was formed in 1944 as a result of the merger of two existing political parties – the Communist Party of India and the Congress Socialist Party. The PWPI focused on the interests of the working-class people and advocated for land reforms and better wages for workers.

In summary, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar established the All India Scheduled Castes Federation and The Independent Labour Party to further the interests of the Dalits and other marginalized communities in India. However, he was not involved in the establishment of the Peasants and Workers Party of India.

30. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Indian Constitution divides the legislative powers between the Union and the States. The State List contains subjects that are within the exclusive domain of the States and the State Legislatures have the power to make laws on them. However, under certain circumstances, Parliament may also make laws on these subjects if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution empowering it to do so.

This provision was included in the Constitution to ensure that the interests of the States are not overlooked and their views are taken into account while making laws on subjects within their domain. The Rajya Sabha, being the upper house of the Parliament and representing the States, plays a crucial role in this regard. Additionally, the Rajya Sabha also has the power to create one or more All India Services, which are common to both the Union and the States. These services are designed to ensure uniformity and efficiency in administration across the country.

31. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?

1 By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas
2 By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development
3 By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

32. The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?

1 Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2 Purchasing power parity at national level
3 Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution: The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) with UNDP support covers the deprivation of education, health, assets and services at the household level. It measures multiple dimensions of poverty at the individual and household level, and provides a comprehensive picture of poverty that goes beyond income-based measures. The MPI is used by governments and international organizations to track progress towards poverty reduction goals and to design more effective poverty reduction policies.

Purchasing power parity at the national level and the extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at the national level are not directly related to the MPI, which focuses on measuring poverty at the household level.

33. Which of the following is /are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?

1 A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design
2 A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend
3 Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Thirteenth Finance Commission was constituted in 2007 to recommend the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, and among the States for a five-year period from 2010-11 to 2014-15.

The noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission are:

1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax (GST), and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design. The Commission recommended the introduction of a comprehensive GST to replace multiple indirect taxes, which would result in a more efficient and transparent tax system. It also recommended a compensation package to be provided to States for a period of three years to address any revenue losses arising from the implementation of the GST.
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend – This statement is incorrect. The Thirteenth Finance Commission did not make any specific recommendations related to the creation of jobs in India.
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants. The Commission recommended the devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants to strengthen local governance and promote grassroots development.

34. What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?

1 Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2 Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
3 Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: The manufacturing sector is a crucial contributor to India’s economic growth and job creation. To promote the growth of this sector, the Government of India has initiated various policy measures. Some of the recent policy initiatives are:

1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) – The Government has identified certain areas in the country as NIMZs, which are expected to attract large-scale investment in the manufacturing sector. These zones are intended to provide world-class infrastructure, efficient clearance mechanisms, and a conducive business environment for manufacturing firms.
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’ – To facilitate ease of doing business, the government has set up a single window clearance mechanism for various approvals and clearances required by manufacturing firms. This mechanism aims to reduce the time and cost involved in obtaining these clearances.
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund (TADF) – The TADF has been set up to support technology development and acquisition by micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs) in the manufacturing sector. The fund provides financial assistance to MSMEs for acquiring and developing technologies to enhance their competitiveness.

35. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament
2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (a)

Solution:

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament: This is a method of parliamentary control over public finance in which the government presents the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) before the Parliament for approval.
2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill: The government cannot withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India without the approval of the Parliament. The Appropriation Bill is passed by the Parliament to grant permission to the government to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account: In case of unforeseen expenses, the government can ask for additional funds by presenting a supplementary grant before the Parliament. Similarly, if the Budget is not passed before the beginning of the new financial year, the government can seek permission to withdraw funds by presenting a vote-on-account before the Parliament.
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office: Currently, there is no Parliamentary Budget Office in India. However, the government presents a mid-year review of the economy before the Parliament.
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament: The Finance Bill is introduced in the Parliament to give effect to the financial proposals of the government for the next financial year. It contains provisions related to taxation, expenditure and other financial matters.

36. Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because

(a) Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations
(b) Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion
(c) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

Ans: (c)

Solution: Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932 mainly because of the announcement of the Communal Award by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald. The Communal Award was a proposal to provide separate electorates for Dalits, a section of society that faced social discrimination and exclusion. The proposal was made in response to demands from the Dalit community and was supported by British politicians who saw it as a way to maintain their influence in Indian politics.

However, Gandhi believed that separate electorates would perpetuate the caste system and divide Indian society along communal lines. He believed that political representation should be based on a person’s qualifications and not their caste or religion. Therefore, he went on a fast unto death to protest against the Communal Award and to bring attention to the need for a unified India.

Gandhi’s fast had a profound impact on the Indian political landscape, as it galvanized public opinion against the Communal Award and led to negotiations between the Congress and the British government. Eventually, the Poona Pact was signed between Gandhi and the Dalit leader, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which provided for reserved seats for Dalits within a unified electoral system, rather than separate electorates. This marked a significant step towards the social and political integration of Dalits into mainstream Indian society.

37. With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:

1. The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
2. The Government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
3. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Ans: (b)

Solution: Ryotwari System was a type of land revenue system introduced by British in India, especially in Madras and Bombay Presidencies. Under this system, the government settled directly with individual cultivators instead of zamindars or intermediaries. The cultivator, or ryot, was considered the owner of the land, and paid the land revenue directly to the government. The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed, and Pattas or title deeds were issued to the ryots.

38. Consider the following specific stages of demographic transition associated with economic development :

1. Low birthrate with low death rate
2. High birthrate with high death rate
3. High birthrate with low death rate

Select the correct order of the above stages using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 1, 3
(c) 2, 3, 1
(d) 3, 2, 1

Ans: (c)

See Demographic transition Theory

39. In India, in the overall Index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37-90% Which of the following are among those Eight Core Industries?

1. Cement
2. Fertilizers
3. Natural gas
4. Refinery products
5. Textiles

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Eight Core Industries that have a combined weight of 37.90% in the overall Index of Industrial Production in India are:

1. Coal
2. Crude Oil
3. Natural Gas
4. Refinery Products
5. Fertilizers
6. Steel
7. Cement
8. Electricity

You are reading UPSC Prelims 2012 Solved Paper SET A. 

40. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?

1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (d)

41. Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’ What is the importance of this plant?

1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Solution: Sea buckthorn is a plant that is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes. It has several nutritional and medicinal properties and is used in the preparation of many medicines, cosmetics and nutritional supplements.

The Government of India encourages its cultivation as it can help in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification. However, it is not a source of biodiesel and its timber is not of commercial value.

42. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?

(a) Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field
(c) Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together
(d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

Solution: Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together is the chief characteristic of mixed farming.

Mixed farming is a type of agricultural practice in which both crops and animals are raised on the same farm. In this system, crops and animals are integrated in a way that the waste generated by the animals is used as fertilizer for crops, and the crops provide feed for the animals. This system is also known as mixed-crop livestock farming.

Mixed farming has several advantages, such as improving soil fertility, reducing the need for artificial fertilizers and pesticides, and providing a more diversified source of income for farmers. It also helps to reduce the risk of crop failure and improves overall farm productivity.

43. A particular State in India has the following characteristics :

1. It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
2. It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
3. Over 12% of forest cover constitutes Protected Area Network in this State.

Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand

Ans: (a)

44. Consider the following crops of India :

1. Cowpea
2. Green gram
3. Pigeon pea

Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder and green manure?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution: In the given list of crops, the crops that are used as pulse, fodder, and green manure are as follows:

1. Cowpea: Cowpea is primarily used as a pulse crop, providing a good source of protein. It is commonly consumed as a food crop.
2. Green gram: Green gram, also known as mung bean, is predominantly used as a pulse crop. It is widely cultivated for its edible seeds, which are rich in protein and commonly used in various culinary preparations.
3. Pigeon pea: Pigeon pea, also known as red gram or arhar dal, is primarily grown as a pulse crop. It is an important food legume and widely consumed in various forms. Pigeon pea plants also have the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen, making them suitable as a green manure crop. It is not used as the fodder. 

45. Consider the following factors:

1. Rotation of the Earth
2. Air pressure and wind
3. Density of ocean water
4. Revolution of the Earth

Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

Solution: The revolution of Earth around the Sun has no effect on the ocean currents.

46. With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements :

1. The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands larger than that of inland wetlands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. Gujarat has the highest number of recorded wetlands among all states in India. According to the data from the National Wetland Atlas, published by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Gujarat has 1,847 wetlands, which is the highest among all states in India.

Statement 2 is incorrect. In India, the total geographical area of inland wetlands is larger than that of coastal wetlands. According to the National Wetland Atlas, the total area of inland wetlands is around 6,40,000 hectares, whereas the area of coastal wetlands is around 4,15,000 hectares.

47. Consider the following crops of India :

1. Groundnut
2. Sesamum
3. Pearl millet

Which of the above is/are predominantly rain fed crop/crops?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: All the given crops, i.e. groundnut, sesamum and pearl millet, are predominantly rain-fed crops in India.

Groundnut is a major oilseed crop of India that is largely cultivated under rain-fed conditions. It requires a good amount of moisture during its growing period and is generally sown after the onset of monsoon.

Sesamum, commonly known as sesame or til, is another rain-fed crop that is grown for its oil-rich seeds. It requires moderate rainfall during its growing period and is generally cultivated in areas receiving 500-600 mm of rainfall.

Pearl millet, also known as bajra, is a coarse grain crop that is well adapted to semi-arid regions. It is a hardy crop that can tolerate low rainfall and poor soil conditions. It is generally sown at the onset of monsoon and is dependent on rainfall for its growth and yield.

48. When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following :

1. Deep gorges
2. U-turn river courses
3. Parallel mountain ranges
4. Steep gradients causing land-sliding

Which of the above can be said to be the evidences for Himalayas being young fold mountains?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)

Solution: The Himalayas are young fold mountains, which means they are relatively new mountains that were formed due to the collision of two tectonic plates. The following features observed in the Himalayas provide evidence for their young age:

1. Deep gorges: The Himalayas have deep gorges, which have been formed due to the erosion caused by the rivers flowing through them. These gorges are evidence that the Himalayas are still undergoing the process of upliftment and erosion.
2. U-turn river courses: The Himalayan rivers have U-turn courses, which indicate that they are relatively young and have not yet attained a stable course. This is because the Himalayas are still rising and the rivers are constantly cutting through the mountains.
3. Parallel mountain ranges: The Himalayas have several parallel mountain ranges, which are evidence of the folding process that occurred during their formation. This folding process is a characteristic feature of young fold mountains.
4. Steep gradients causing landsliding: The Himalayas have steep gradients, which have been formed due to the upliftment process. These steep gradients cause landslides, which are a common occurrence in the Himalayas.

49. Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because

1. the atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface
2. there is more moisture in the upper atmosphere
3. the air is less dense in the upper atmosphere

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution: The temperature of the atmosphere generally decreases with increasing height from the Earth’s surface. This phenomenon is called the temperature lapse rate. There are two main reasons for this:

1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface: The Earth’s surface is heated by the Sun’s rays, and this heat is transferred to the atmosphere through conduction, convection, and radiation. The atmosphere closest to the Earth’s surface is warmed by this heat transfer, and it, in turn, warms the layer of air above it. However, as we go higher up, there is less air to transfer heat to, and therefore, the temperature decreases.
2. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere: The atmosphere is made up of several layers, and the air is less dense in the upper layers. This means that there are fewer air molecules to absorb and retain heat, and therefore, the temperature decreases.

Note: Option (2) is incorrect because there is actually less moisture in the upper atmosphere. The atmosphere becomes drier as we go higher up, and this is because the cooler air in the upper atmosphere cannot hold as much moisture as the warmer air closer to the Earth’s surface.

50. The acidification of oceans is increasing, why is this phenomenon a cause of concern?

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplankton larvae will be adversely affected.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (a)

Solution: The acidification of oceans is a cause of concern for several reasons. When carbon dioxide (CO2) is absorbed by seawater, it reacts with water to form carbonic acid, which lowers the pH of the seawater. This process is called ocean acidification.

The following are the reasons why ocean acidification is a cause of concern:

1. The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected: Calcareous phytoplankton, such as coccolithophores, use calcium carbonate to form their shells. The acidification of oceans makes it difficult for these organisms to form their shells, which can have a cascading effect on the food chain.
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected: Coral reefs are also made up of calcium carbonate. The acidification of oceans makes it difficult for corals to form their skeletons, which can lead to the decline of coral reefs.
3. The survival of some animals that have phytoplankton larvae will be adversely affected: Many marine animals, such as oysters and clams, rely on phytoplankton as a food source. The acidification of oceans can make it difficult for phytoplankton to survive, which can have a cascading effect on the food chain.

Option (4) is incorrect because the acidification of oceans does not have a direct impact on cloud seeding and cloud formation.

51. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

52. The endeavour of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is

1. to promote institutional deliveries
2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution: Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM). Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. The scheme aims to encourage women to give birth in health facilities rather than at home, where delivery is often conducted in unhygienic conditions, without proper medical assistance, and with high risk of mortality for both the mother and the child.

Under the scheme, pregnant women are provided financial assistance for giving birth in a health facility. The assistance includes the cost of delivery, drugs and consumables, transportation costs, and other expenses incurred during the hospital stay. The scheme also provides for cash assistance to the mother to meet the cost of food, clothing, and other necessities during the hospital stay.

53. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment

(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the” Houses within six months
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha

Ans: (a)

54. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements :

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Read Delimitation Commission of India

55. Consider the following:

1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor transport undertakings
3. Newspaper establishments
4. Private medical institutions

The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under Employees’ State Insurance Scheme?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)

56. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Solution: According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG). The CAG is responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union government as well as the state governments. The CAG submits its audit reports to the President, who then causes them to be laid before the Parliament.

The recommendations of the Union Finance Commission are also laid before the Parliament, but it is not the specific duty of the President to do so.

The reports of the Public Accounts Committee and the National Commission for Scheduled Castes are not specifically mentioned in the Constitution as being the responsibility of the President to lay before the Parliament.

You are reading UPSC Prelims 2012 Solved Paper SET A. 

57. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of

1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution: A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of Ordinary Legislation. The deadlock between the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) can be resolved through a joint sitting of both houses for the passage of ordinary legislation. The joint sitting is convened under Article 108 of the Indian Constitution.

58. How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?

1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
3. DRDAs secure inter-sectorial and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilization of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

59. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

60. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (a)

The provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India is a critical aspect of maintaining the independence and integrity of the judiciary. Let’s evaluate each statement:

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India: This statement is correct. The President of India is required to consult the Chief Justice of India in the process of appointing judges to the Supreme Court. This consultation helps ensure the involvement of the highest judicial authority in the selection of judges, contributing to the autonomy of the Supreme Court.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only: This statement is incorrect. The removal process of Supreme Court judges is governed by specific provisions mentioned in the Constitution of India. The removal can be initiated through a motion in Parliament, which is passed by a special majority and investigated by a committee. The Chief Justice of India does not have the sole authority to remove judges.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote: This statement is correct. The salaries and allowances of judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. This provision ensures financial independence for the judges, as their salaries are not subject to regular legislative voting. It safeguards their autonomy and protects them from potential interference.
4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India: This statement is incorrect. The appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court are not solely made by the government. They are made through a process that involves consultation with the Chief Justice of India, but the final authority for making these appointments lies with the Supreme Court itself.

61. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution:

1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium: This statement is correct. Thorium is more abundant in the Earth’s crust compared to uranium. It is estimated that there is approximately three to four times more thorium available globally than uranium. This abundance makes thorium a potentially attractive alternative fuel for meeting energy demands.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium: This statement is correct. Thorium has a higher energy conversion efficiency in certain reactor designs, making it more efficient in utilizing the available fuel.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium: This statement is correct. One advantage of thorium as a nuclear fuel is that it produces less long-lived radioactive waste compared to uranium-based nuclear reactors. The waste generated by thorium reactors tends to have shorter half-lives, which reduces the burden of long-term waste management.

62. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs

(a) the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
(b) the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
(c) all the solar radiations
(d) the infrared part of the solar radiation

Ans: (d)

Solution: The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere because it absorbs the infrared part of the solar radiation.

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas that plays a significant role in the Earth’s energy balance and climate system. When solar radiation reaches the Earth’s surface, it is absorbed and re-emitted as infrared (IR) radiation. This IR radiation, also known as heat radiation, is responsible for warming the atmosphere.

Carbon dioxide has the ability to absorb a portion of this IR radiation. When it absorbs IR radiation, it undergoes a process called vibrational excitation, which increases its internal energy. This leads to the trapping of heat in the atmosphere, causing a gradual increase in temperature.

It is important to note that while carbon dioxide is not the only greenhouse gas contributing to the greenhouse effect and global warming, its increasing concentration in the atmosphere due to human activities is a significant factor in driving climate change.

63. Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?

(a) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Sodium
(b) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
(d) Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium

Ans: (b)

Solution: Carbon, Hydrogen, and Nitrogen are the key elements that form the building blocks of organic compounds, which are essential for life as we know it. Carbon serves as the backbone of organic molecules, providing the structural framework for complex biomolecules. Hydrogen is involved in bonding with carbon and other elements, while Nitrogen is a crucial component of amino acids, proteins, and nucleic acids, which are fundamental to life processes.

While elements like Oxygen, Sodium, Calcium, Phosphorus, and Potassium are also important for various biological functions, they are not the primary elements responsible for the origin of life. Carbon, Hydrogen, and Nitrogen are particularly significant due to their ability to form a wide variety of organic compounds and support the complex chemistry necessary for life to emerge and evolve.

64. What are the reasons for the people’s resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?

1. Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
2. The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
3. There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have adverse impact on health.
4. There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effect on the biodiversity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

65. Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?

1. To enable them to withstand drought
2. To increase the nutritive value of the produce
3. To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations
4. To increase their shelf life

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

66. Consider the following statements :The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he

1. exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British
2. interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians
3. stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution: The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of the Indian National Movement was that he exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British.

Statement 1 is correct. Dadabhai Naoroji played a significant role in exposing the economic exploitation of India by the British colonial rule. He conducted extensive research and analysis on the economic drain of wealth from India and presented his findings in his seminal work, “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India.” Naoroji’s work highlighted the economic injustice and exploitation faced by India, which contributed to the awakening of national consciousness and the demand for self-rule.

Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect. Dadabhai Naoroji’s contributions were primarily focused on addressing the economic exploitation of India rather than interpreting ancient Indian texts or advocating for the eradication of social evils. While he may have discussed social issues, his primary emphasis was on economic matters and advocating for political reforms to address the economic disparities.

67. With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period.
2. Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music.
3. Dhrupad Alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above is correct

Ans: (b)

You are reading UPSC Prelims 2012 Solved Paper SET A. 

68. How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?

1. Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

Solution: In Kuchipudi, a traditional dance form from the state of Andhra Pradesh, dancers often incorporate elements of spoken dialogues and mime into their performances. It is known for its combination of dance, music, and acting. Bharatanatyam, on the other hand, is primarily a pure dance form that focuses on intricate movements and expressions without the inclusion of spoken dialogues.

69. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?

1. Meditation and control of breath
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution:

1. Meditation and control of breath: Sufi mystics often engaged in meditation practices as a means of seeking spiritual enlightenment and deepening their connection with the divine. They focused on controlling their breath and maintaining a state of mindfulness to achieve spiritual insights and transcendence.
2. Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place: Sufi mystics also practiced asceticism, which involved leading a life of self-discipline and renunciation. They would often retreat to isolated places, such as deserts or mountains, to engage in severe ascetic exercises. These practices aimed to detach themselves from worldly distractions and focus solely on their spiritual journey.
3. Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience: Sufi mystics were known for their devotional and ecstatic music, poetry, and dance. They would recite holy songs, known as Qawwali or Sama, in order to create a spiritual atmosphere and arouse a state of ecstasy in themselves and their audience. This practice aimed to establish a direct connection with the divine and evoke intense spiritual experiences.

70. The Rowlatt Act aimed at

(a) compulsory economic support to war efforts
(b) imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
(c) suppression of the Khilafat Movement
(d) imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919 by the British colonial government in India. It aimed at empowering the authorities to imprison any person suspected of being involved in revolutionary activities without trial and allowed for summary procedures for trial.

The Act was a response to the unrest and nationalist activities that emerged in India during the post-World War I period. It granted the British government extensive powers to arrest and detain individuals without trial for an indefinite period. It also allowed for trials in special courts, which did not guarantee the usual rights and protections of the accused.

The Rowlatt Act was highly controversial and faced strong opposition from Indian nationalists who saw it as a violation of civil liberties and an oppressive measure by the colonial government. It led to widespread protests, including the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in Amritsar, where British troops opened fire on a peaceful gathering of protesters.

71. The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress (1929) is very important in history, because

1. the Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence
2. the rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session
3. a resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None of the above

Ans: (a)

Solution: During the Lahore Session, the Indian National Congress, under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru, adopted a historic resolution known as the “Purna Swaraj” resolution. The resolution declared the aim of the Congress to achieve complete independence from British rule. It marked a significant shift from the earlier demand of dominion status to the demand for full self-rule.

72. Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called ‘Bhumisparsha Mudra’. It symbolizes

(a) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation
(b) Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara
(c) Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from the Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory
(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Bhumisparsha Mudra also represents Buddha’s unwavering commitment to purity and chastity. It signifies his triumph over the temptations and illusions presented by Mara, reinforcing his dedication to the path of enlightenment and spiritual awakening. By touching the Earth, Buddha symbolically calls upon it to bear witness to his moral integrity and unwavering resolve.

73. The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of

(a) Bhakti
(b) image worship and Yajnas
(c) worship of nature and Yajnas
(d) worship of nature and Bhakti

Ans: (c)

Solution: The religion of the early Vedic Aryans, as depicted in the Rigveda, was centered around the worship of natural forces and deities associated with nature. They revered various natural phenomena such as the sun, moon, earth, fire, wind, and rain, considering them as divine powers and personifying them as deities. These deities were believed to have control over different aspects of nature and were invoked through rituals and sacrifices known as Yajnas.

The Vedic hymns in the Rigveda describe the rituals and ceremonies performed by the early Aryans, including the offering of prayers, chants, and the performance of Yajnas to appease the gods and seek their blessings. The Yajnas were elaborate sacrificial rituals conducted by the priests, accompanied by the chanting of sacred verses and the offering of various substances into the sacred fire.

While Bhakti (devotion) also played a role in the Vedic religion, it was not the primary focus. The early Vedic religion was more centered around the worship of natural forces and the performance of Yajnas to appease the deities associated with those forces.

74. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?

1. It opposed idolatry.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
3. It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: Brahmo Samaj was a reform movement founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in the early 19th century. It aimed to promote monotheism, rationality, and social reform within Hinduism. Regarding the given statements:

1. It opposed idolatry: This statement is correct. One of the primary objectives of Brahmo Samaj was to challenge and oppose idol worship. It advocated for a more abstract and philosophical understanding of God, rejecting the worship of physical idols or images.
2. It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts: This statement is also correct. Brahmo Samaj rejected the authority and monopoly of the priestly class in interpreting religious texts. It emphasized the importance of individual spiritual experience and direct access to religious scriptures, encouraging followers to study and interpret them independently.

Further, Brahmo Samaj, while drawing inspiration from the ancient texts of Hinduism, did not consider the Vedas to be infallible. Instead, it emphasized rationality, questioning traditional beliefs and practices that contradicted reason and humanistic values.

75. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?

1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: The statement that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank implies the following:

1. Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI: This statement is correct. As a bankers’ bank, the RBI provides banking services to other banks, including commercial banks. Banks hold their reserves and surplus funds in accounts with the RBI. These deposits with the RBI form a portion of the statutory reserves that banks are required to maintain.
2. The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need: This statement is also correct. The RBI serves as a lender of last resort to commercial banks. In case of liquidity shortages or emergencies, commercial banks can borrow funds from the RBI through various lending facilities. This helps stabilize the banking system and ensures that banks have access to funds when needed.
3. The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters: This statement is correct as well. The RBI provides guidance and advice to commercial banks on various monetary and banking matters. It formulates and implements monetary policies that affect the banking system and the economy as a whole. The RBI’s role includes regulating and supervising banks, managing interest rates, and controlling inflation.

76. Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?

1. When there is an increase in the sales of a product
2. When there is a. natural increase in the value of the property owned
3. When you purchase a painting and there is a growth in its value due to increase in its popularity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

77. Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?

1. Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank
2. Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public
3. Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank
4. Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4

78. Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?

1. Subsidiaries of companies in India
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies
3. Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies
4. Portfolio investment

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

79. Consider the following statements:The price of any currency in international market is decided by the

1. World Bank
2. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
3. stability of the government of the concerned country
4. economic potential of the country in question

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

80. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that

(a) big banks should try to open offices in each district
(b) there should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
(c) individual banks should adopt particular districts for intensive development
(d) all the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

81. Consider the following :

1. Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops
2. Use of mobile cannons in warfare
3. Cultivation of tobacco and red chillies

Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None

82. With reference to the guilds (Shreni) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is /are correct?

1. Every guild was registered with the central authority of the State and the king was the chief administrative authority on them.
2. The wages, rules of work, standards and prices were fixed by the guild.
3. The guild had judicial powers over its own members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

83. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the

(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

84. Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tonnes of coal?

1. It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
2. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
3. Steel companies need large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

85. A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the

(a) direction facing the polestar
(b) direction opposite to the polestar
(c) direction keeping the polestar to his left
(d) direction keeping the polestar to his right

86. Recently, there has been a concern over the short supply of a group of elements called ‘rare earth metals’. Why?

1. China, which is the largest producer of these elements, has imposed some restrictions on their export.
2. Other than China, Australia, Canada and Chile, these elements are not found in any country.
3. Rare earth metals are essential for the manufacture of various kinds of electronic items and there is a growing demand for these elements.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

87. Consider the following areas:

1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are Tiger Reserves?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4

88. Consider the following statements :

1. The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
2. The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?

(a) Rainfall throughout the year
(b) Rainfall in winter only
(c) An extremely short dry season
(d) A definite dry and wet season

90. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

91. Consider the following kinds of organisms :

1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird

Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

92. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

93. Consider the following statements : If there were no phenomenon of capillarity

1. it would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp
2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink
3. the blotting paper would fail to function
4. the big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

94. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is supporting service?

(a) Production of food and water
(b) Control of climate and disease
(c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
(d) Maintenance of diversity

95. What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?

(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk
(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct

96. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?

1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

97. Consider the following :

1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying squirrel
4. Snow leopard

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Black-necked crane, Flying squirrel,  and Snow leopard are naturally found in India, while the Cheetah is not found in India.

98. Consider the following agricultural practices :

1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage

In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of them

Ans: (b)

Solution:

1. Contour bunding involves creating barriers across slopes to slow down the flow of water and soil erosion. This can increase water infiltration and reduce soil erosion, leading to improved soil health and increased carbon sequestration in the soil.
2. Relay cropping involves planting a second crop before the first crop is harvested, which can lead to a longer period of vegetation growth and increased carbon fixation in the soil.
3. Zero tillage involves planting crops without disturbing the soil, which can reduce soil erosion and increase soil organic matter content, leading to improved soil health and increased carbon sequestration in the soil.

The zero tillage ensures that the CO2 trapped in the soil will not get released.

99. What would happen if the phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution: Phytoplankton is the primary producers of the marine ecosystem and forms the base of the marine food chain. If they were completely destroyed, it would have a cascading effect on the entire ecosystem.

The loss of phytoplankton would lead to the loss of primary productivity in the ocean, which would have a direct impact on the food chains in the ocean, ultimately leading to the loss of many species.

Additionally, phytoplankton plays a crucial role in the carbon cycle of the ocean, and their loss would disrupt the ocean’s ability to act as a carbon sink, leading to the buildup of atmospheric carbon dioxide and exacerbating global climate change.

However, the density of ocean water would not be directly affected by the loss of phytoplankton.

100. Vultures which used to be very common in the Indian countryside some years ago are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to

(a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
(b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
(c) scarcity of food available to them
(d) a widespread, persistent, and fatal disease among them

Ans: (c)

Solution: The decline of vultures in the Indian countryside is primarily attributed to (b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle. Specifically, the drug diclofenac, which was used to treat cattle, was found to be highly toxic to vultures that fed on the carcasses of treated animals.

This led to a rapid decline in vulture populations in India, as well as in other parts of South Asia where the drug was used. The use of diclofenac has since been banned in many parts of the region, and efforts are underway to conserve vulture populations.

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