UPSC Prelims 2022 Question Paper [Fully Solved]

SET A

1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative

(d) World Bank

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Rapid Credit Facility by IMF is offering concessional loans to help with the balance of payments needs of low-income countries (LICs).

2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicate the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER AND REER.

Which of the statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:(c)

Solution:

What is Nominal Effective Exchange Rate? 

Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) refers to the value of a country’s currency in relation to a basket of foreign currencies, weighted by the importance of each country in the country’s international trade.

Suppose, 1 unit of the basket of currency was equivalent to 100 Indian Rupees. Now India starts to take measures to appreciate its currency like boosting export, attracting more FDI and finally 1 unit of the basket of currency becomes 0.9 Indian Rupee.

Hence. there will be an increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER).

So, S1 is correct. 

What is Real Exchange Rate?

Real Exchange Rate (RER) refers to the value of a country’s currency relative to the value of goods and services produced in that country, in relation to the same basket of foreign currencies. RER takes into account the differences in the prices of goods and services between countries, as well as the exchange rate. It is calculated by dividing the NEER by the ratio of the domestic price level to the foreign price level.

Suppose the inflation in India is high, this will result in higher and higher prices of Goods and services in India. As a result of it, the Rupee will shade its value in domestic market and RER will decrease. But, this will boost the export.

So, S2 is incorrect. 

3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: The RBI buys government bonds from the market and pays back money to the bondholders, thus injecting more money into the economy.

S1: If the Inflation is high, it means that there are more and more cash in the market. In order to bring the inflation under control, RBI will take measures to suck the cash from market.

One of the measures to do it is to sell the government bonds in open market. The economic men will buy the bond and in return RBI will get the cash. Thereby reducing the free cash from market and bringing inflation down. So, S1 in incorrect.  

S2: In order to appreciate the Rupee, RBI needs to restrict the free Rupee in market. So RBI will sell the Dollar and suck extra Rupee, this will lead to appreciation of Rupee. so, S2 is correct. 

#4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Solution: To address the problem of unsustainable debt, the G20 reached on a Common Framework for Debt Treatments. The aim is to deal with insolvency and protracted liquidity problems.

5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation- Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution:

S1: Inflation Indexed bonds are securities to protect investors from inflation. The rate of return matches with inflation. But, the government can reduce coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. So, statement 1 is correct.

S2: Ye, it protects the investors from the uncertainty of inflation. S2 is correct.  

An inflation-indexed bond protects both investors and issuers from the uncertainty of inflation
over the life of the bond. So, statement 2 is correct.

S3: The return is taxable. Incorrect Statement.

6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
3. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

7. Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?

1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (A)

Solution: The real sector of the economy refers to those parts of the economy involved in the production and exchange of goods and services.

S1:  Farmers harvesting their crops is a primary activity in the production of food and raw materials and it is included in real sector of economy.

S2: Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics, which is a secondary activity in the production of finished goods and it is included in real sector of economy.

S3 & S4: Commercial bank lending money to a trading company and a corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas are not real sector of the economy.

8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment.

(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment

(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India.

(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India.

Ans: (D)

9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditures.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (A)

Solution: Capital expenditures refer to the funds that a company spends on acquiring, improving, or maintaining its long-term assets, such as property, buildings, equipment, and technology.

These expenditures are typically investments that the company expects to provide future benefits and generate returns over an extended period, typically more than a year. Hence,

S1: Acquiring new technology is capital expenditures.

Revenue expenditure is the money a company spends on day-to-day expenses necessary to keep the business running, such as salaries, rent, utilities, and supplies. These expenses are essential for a company’s daily operations but do not provide long-term benefits. Revenue expenditures are usually small and recurring, and their benefits are limited to the current accounting period.

A corporate has two options to raise cash.

Either, get the loan from open market, this is debt financing. It is capital expenditure as it creates liability on the company and company has to pay back the loan in future.

Or, Sell the company share, this again leads to shading the capital held by the company. Hence, both debt financing and raising money through selling of equity are part of capital expenditure.

S2 is incorrect.

10. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (C)

11. Consider the following statements:

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of Indian empowers the Supreme Court and the High Court to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 3 only

Ans: (B)

Solution:

S1: Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
This statement is correct. The H.N. Sanyal Committee was appointed by the Government of India in 1961 to examine the law of contempt in India and to suggest reforms. Based on the recommendations of the committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted. This is a correct statement.

S2: The Constitution of Indian empowers the Supreme Court and the High Court to punish for contempt of themselves. This statement is also correct. Article 129 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to punish for contempt of itself. Similarly, Article 215 empowers the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.

S3: This statement is incorrect. While the Constitution of India provides for punishment for contempt of court, it does not define civil contempt and criminal contempt. The definition of civil and criminal contempt is provided in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

S4: In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
This statement is correct.

12. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Solution: S1: The first statement is partially correct. In India, only a person who has been enrolled as an advocate under the Advocates Act, 1961 is entitled to practice law. The Act defines an advocate as a person who has been enrolled as an advocate on a state bar council’s roll. The Act recognizes government law officers and legal firms as advocates. However, corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are not recognized as advocates unless they have also enrolled as advocates on a state bar council’s roll. Hence the S1 is incorrect. 

S2: The second statement is correct. Bar Councils are statutory bodies created under the Advocates Act, 1961, and they have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. They also have the power to prescribe standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates. The Bar Council of India is the apex body of all state bar councils. S2 is correct.

13. Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.

2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.

3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (B)

Solution: S1: As per Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either House of Parliament. Such bills do not need the prior recommendation of the president of India. Hence S1 is incorrect. 

S2: When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. Once a Constitution Amendment Bill is passed by both Houses of Parliament, it is presented to the President of India for his/her assent. S2 is correct. 

S3: A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. This statement is correct. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority. This means that the bill must be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of each House present and voting. There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill.

14. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four rank viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Solution:

S1: The Council of Ministers includes the three categories of ministers Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Minister. Their size and classification are, however, not mentioned in the constitution. The first statement is incorrect. 

S2: The second statement is correct. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, is not fixed by the Constitution. As per Article 75(1) of the Constitution, the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and other ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The total number of ministers shall not exceed the 15 percent of the total membership of Lok Sabha.

15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
3. To impeach the President of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Lok Sabha (House of the People) is one of the two houses of the Parliament of India, with the other being the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha are as follows:

• To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
• To initiate and pass a money bill.
• To elect the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• To initiate and pass an impeachment motion against the President of India.

The power to ratify the declaration of Emergency and the power to impeach the President of India are not exclusive to the Lok Sabha and require the involvement of both houses of the Parliament.

16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any timeframe within which of the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Solution: The anti-defection law in India was introduced through the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution of India in 1985. It was enacted to address the issue of legislators frequently changing parties for personal gain or other reasons, which could lead to instability in government and undermine democratic processes.

S1: The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party after six months of being appointed to the House. Hence S1 is incorrect. 

S2: The law does not provide any timeframe within which of the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Hence, S2 is correct. 

17. Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither1 nor 2

Ans: (D)

Solution: S1: The attorney general of India has the privilege to attend the proceedings of Parliament of India. The solicitor general of India does not have this kind of facility. S1 is incorrect.

S2: As a general convention, the highest law officer of the government of India, Attorney General of India resigns with the resignation of the government. However no such provisions are mentioned in the Indian constitution. S2 is incorrect. 

18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (C)

Solution: S1: Mandamus is a writ issued by a court to a public authority to perform a public duty. Private organizations are not subject to the writ of Mandamus unless they perform public duties or functions. Hence, it can not be issued against a private organisation. S1 is correct. 

S2: Mandamus is not applicable to private companies but, it can be issued even to a public company. S2 is incorrect. 

S3: A writ can be filed by any public-minded person. S3 is correct. 

19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is a key initiative of the Government of India to transform the healthcare sector by leveraging technology. The following statements about the mission are correct:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it: The mission aims to connect all public and private healthcare providers in India through a digital platform. Hence, both private and public hospitals must adopt it to ensure that patients receive seamless healthcare services.
2. It aims to achieve universal health coverage: The ultimate goal of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is to achieve universal health coverage in India. Hence, every citizen of India should be part of it to avail of the benefits of the digital platform.
3. It has seamless portability across the country: The mission provides seamless portability of health records and services across the country. This means that patients can access their health records and avail of healthcare services from any part of the country, irrespective of where their health records were created.

Therefore, all the given statements are correct.

20. With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of a Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duty seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Ans: (A)

21. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(c) Sugarcane

(d) Wheat

Ans: (b)

Solution: Rice cultivation is a significant anthropogenic source of both methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions. During flooded conditions, rice paddies provide an ideal environment for methane-producing microorganisms to thrive. On the other hand, nitrous oxide is produced during the nitrification and denitrification processes in the soil, which are accelerated under flooded conditions. Hence, rice cultivation is a major contributor to both methane and nitrous oxide emissions.

The other crops mentioned in the options, such as cotton, sugarcane, and wheat, are not significant anthropogenic sources of methane and nitrous oxide emissions. However, all crops can contribute to greenhouse gas emissions in various ways, such as through fertilizer application, land-use change, and agricultural practices.

22. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields are practiced, results in:

1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) is a method of rice cultivation that involves a combination of several techniques, including reduced water use, improved soil health, and the use of younger seedlings. One of the key features of SRI is the practice of alternate wetting and drying (AWD) of rice fields. AWD involves intentionally drying the soil between irrigations, which can reduce methane production, save water, and reduce electricity consumption. The following statements about the benefits of SRI are correct:

1. Reduced seed requirement: SRI promotes the use of younger seedlings, which can result in reduced seed requirements.
2. Reduced methane production: AWD can significantly reduce methane production from rice fields, as it creates an aerobic environment that is less favorable for methane-producing microorganisms.
3. Reduced electricity consumption: AWD can also reduce electricity consumption by reducing the need for continuous irrigation.

23. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

(a) Lake Victoria

(b) Lake Faguibine

(c) Lake Oguta

(d) Lake Volta

Ans: (b)

Solution: Lake Faguibine is a shallow lake located in the Sahel region of West Africa, in the country of Mali. The lake has been drying up since the 1970s due to a combination of factors, including reduced rainfall, increased water consumption for irrigation, and the construction of dams upstream. As a result, the lake has largely disappeared, leaving behind a vast expanse of desert.

Lake Victoria, on the other hand, is a large freshwater lake located in East Africa, shared by Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya. Lake Oguta is a freshwater lake located in southeastern Nigeria, while Lake Volta is a large reservoir located in Ghana. None of these lakes have become dry and turned into a desert.

24. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

(a) Cauvery

(b) Manjira

(c) Pennar

(d) Tungabhadra

Ans: (C)

Solution: The Gandikota Canyon is a natural gorge located in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh, in South India. The gorge was formed by the Pennar River, which flows through the rocky terrain and has carved out the stunning landscape over millions of years. The Pennar River is a major river in southern India that flows through Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

#36. Consider the following communication technologies:

Closed-circuit Television

 

 

2. Radio Frequency Identification

 

 

3. Wireless Local Area Network

 

 

Which of the above arte considered ShortRange devices/technologies?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (D)

 

#37. Consider the following statements :

 

 

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues

 

 

2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.

 

 

3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (D)

 

#38. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:

 

 

1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.

 

 

2. The organisms in probiotics are found in food we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.

 

 

3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

 

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 only

 

(b) 2 only

 

(c) 1 and 3

 

(d) 2 and 3

 

Ans= (C)

 

#39. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.

 

 

2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.

 

 

3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (B)

 

#40. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

 

 

1. GPS and navigation system could fail.

 

 

2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.

 

 

3. Power grids could be damaged.

 

 

4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth

 

 

5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.

 

 

6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.

 

 

7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

 

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

 

(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only

 

(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only

 

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

 

Ans= (C)

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

#41. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

 

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations

 

(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”

 

(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”

 

(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

 

Ans= (A)

 

#42. Consider the following statements :

 

 

1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.

 

 

2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.

 

 

3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.

 

 

4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.

 

 

5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

 

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

 

(c) 2, 3 and 5 only

 

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

 

Ans= (B)

 

#43. “If rainforests and tropical forests are lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statements?

 

(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.

 

(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals, thrive.

 

(c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.

 

(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

 

Ans= (D)

 

#44. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3.

 

 

2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the period of inclement weather.

 

 

3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.

 

 

4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1, 3 and 4

 

(b) 1 and 4 only

 

(c) 2, 3 and 4

 

(d) 1 and 2 only

 

Ans= (B)

 

#45. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. It is a fungus.

 

 

2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.

 

 

3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

 

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 only

 

(b) 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 2

 

(d) 2 and 3

 

Ans= (C)

 

#46. . With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.

 

 

2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.

 

 

3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.

 

 

4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 3

 

(b) 2 and 4

 

(c) 1 and 4

 

(d) 2 and 3

 

Ans= (A)

 

#47. Which of the following is not a bird?

 

(a) Golden Mahseer

 

(b) Indian Nightjar

 

(c) Spoonbill

 

(d) White Ibis

 

Ans= (A)

 

#48. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

 

 

1. Alfalfa

 

 

2. Amaranth

 

 

3. Chickpea

 

 

4. Clover

 

 

5. Purslane (Kulfa)

 

 

6. Spinach

 

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

 

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

 

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

 

(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

 

Ans= (A)

 

#49. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

 

(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

 

(b) Development of building materials using plant residues

 

(c) Identification of areas for exploration / extraction of shale gas

 

(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

 

Ans= (A)

 

#50. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

 

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas

 

(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora

 

(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas

 

(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces.

 

Ans= (C)

 

#51. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?

 

 

1. Administration of Justice

 

 

2. Local self-Government

 

 

3. Land Revenue

 

 

4. Police

 

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 

(a) 1, 2 and 3

 

(b) 2, 3 and 4

 

(c) 1, 3 and 4

 

(d) 1, 2 and 4

 

Ans= (C)

 

#52. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:

 

(a) Clothing

 

(b) Coins

 

(c) Ornaments

 

(d) Weapons

 

Ans= (B)

 

#53. Consider the following freedom fighters:

 

 

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh

 

 

2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee

 

 

3. Rash Behari Bose

 

 

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

 

(a) 1 and 2

 

(b) 2 only

 

(c) 1 and 3

 

(d) 3 only

 

Ans= (D)

 

#54. With reference to the proposals of Crippa Mission, consider the following statements: 1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States. 2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 only

 

(b) 2 only

 

(c) Both 1 and 2

 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Ans= (B)

 

#55. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:

 

 

1. Nettipakarana

 

 

2. Parishishtaparvan

 

 

3. Avadanashataka

 

 

4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

 

 

Which of the above are Jaina texts?

 

(a) 1, 2 and 3

 

(b) 2 and 4 only

 

(c) 1, 3 and 4

 

(d) 2, 3 and 4

 

Ans= (B)

 

#56. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

 

 

 

List- 1

 

(Historical person)

 

 

 

List- 2

 

(Known as)

 

 

 

 

1. Aryadeva

 

 

 

Jaina scholar

 

 

 

 

2. Dignaga

 

 

 

Buddhist scholar

 

 

 

 

3. Nathamuni

 

 

 

Vaishnava scholar

 

 

 

 

 

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

 

(a) None of the pairs

 

(b) Only one pair

 

(c) Only two pairs

 

(d) All three pairs

 

Ans= (C)

 

#57. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalalud-din Khalji.

 

 

2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.

 

 

3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

 

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2

 

(b) 2 only

 

(c) 1 and 3

 

(d) 3 only

 

Ans= (B)

 

#58. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?

 

(a) Arab merchants

 

(b) Qalandars

 

(c) Persian calligraphists

 

(d) Sayyids

 

Ans= (D)

 

#59. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. The Dutch established their factories/ warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.

 

 

2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.

 

 

3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (B)

 

#60. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?

 

 

1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.

 

 

2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.

 

 

3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (A)

 

#61. Consider the following statements:

 

 

1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.

 

 

2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).

 

 

3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (A)

 

#62. Consider the following States :

 

 

1. Andhra Pradesh

 

 

2. Kerala

 

 

3. Himachal Pradesh

 

 

4. Tripura

 

 

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?

 

(a) Only one State

 

(b) Only two States

 

(c) Only three States

 

(d) All four States

 

Ans= (B)

 

#63. Consider the following statements:

 

 

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.

 

 

2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company,

 

 

3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (B)

 

#64. With reference to the Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct?

 

 

1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.

 

 

2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.

 

 

3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

 

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (B)

 

#65. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.

 

 

2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

 

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 only

 

(b) 2 only

 

(c) Both 1 and 2

 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Ans= (C)

 

#66. Consider the following :

 

 

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

 

 

2. Missile Technology Control Regime

 

 

3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

 

 

India is a member of which of the above?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 3 only

 

(c) 2 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (D)

 

#67. Consider the following statements :

 

 

1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.

 

 

2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.

 

 

3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.

 

 

4. For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.

 

 

5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 2 and 4

 

(b) 3 and 5

 

(c) 1, 3 and 4

 

(d) 1 and 2

 

Ans= (C)

 

#68. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

 

(a) Department of Consumer Affairs

 

(b) Expenditure Management Commission

 

(c) Financial Stability and Development Council

 

(d) Reserve Bank of India

 

Ans= (D)

 

#69. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:

 

 

1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.

 

 

2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.

 

 

3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (A)

 

#70. Consider the following pairs:

 

 

 

List- 1

 

(Reservoirs)

 

 

 

List- 2

 

(Status)

 

 

 

 

1. Ghataprabha

 

 

 

Telangana

 

 

 

 

2. Gandhi Sagar

 

 

 

Madhya Pradesh

 

 

 

 

3. Indira Sagar

 

 

 

Andhra Pradesh

 

 

 

 

4. Maithon

 

 

 

Chhattisgarh

 

 

 

 

 

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

 

(a) Only one pair

 

(b) Only two pairs

 

(c) Only three pairs

 

(d) All four pairs

 

Ans= (C)

 

#71. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and layoffs in factories employing workers?

 

(a) Central Statistics Office

 

(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

 

(c) Labour Bureau

 

(d) National Technical Manpower Information System

 

Ans= (C)

 

#72. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

 

 

1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.

 

 

2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.

 

 

3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.

 

 

4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

 

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

(a) 1, 2 and 3

 

(b) 3 and 4 only

 

(c) 1 and 2 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 4

 

Ans= (A)

 

#73. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

 

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

 

(b) This would create a local selfgoverning body in that area.

 

(c) This would convert that area into the Union Territory.

 

(d) The State having such areas would be declared of Special Category State.

 

Ans= (A)

 

#74. Consider the following statements:

 

 

1. The Indian Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.

 

 

2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

 

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 only

 

(b) 2 only

 

(c) Both 1 and 2

 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Ans= (B)

 

#75. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

 

(a) Central Water Commission

 

(b) Central Ground Water Board

 

(c) Central Ground Water Authority

 

(d) National Water Development Agency

 

Ans= (C)

 

#76. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. It is committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.

 

 

2. Its traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.

 

 

3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

 

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 3 only

 

(b) 1 and 3

 

(c) 2 and 3

 

(d) 1 and 2

 

Ans= (A)

 

#77. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

 

(a) It is a international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

 

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

 

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

 

(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Article Council.

 

Ans= (A)

 

#78. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.

 

 

2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.

 

 

3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

 

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (D)

 

#79. Withe reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.

 

 

2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

 

 

3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

 

 

4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 3

 

(b) 2 and 4

 

(c) 3 and 4

 

(d) 1 and 4

 

Ans= (D)

 

#80. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

 

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

 

(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country

 

(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development

 

(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

 

Ans= (A)

 

#81. Consider the following statements:

 

 

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.

 

 

2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

 

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 only

 

(b) 2 only

 

(c) Both 1 and 2

 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Ans= (D)

 

#82. Consider the following statements:

 

 

1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.

 

 

2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.

 

 

3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

 

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2

 

(b) 2 only

 

(c) 2 and 3

 

(d) 3 only

 

Ans= (C)

 

#83. Consider the following countries:

 

 

1. Armenia

 

 

2. Azerbaijan

 

 

3. Croatia

 

 

4. Romania

 

 

5. Uzbekistan

 

 

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?

 

(a) 1, 2 and 4

 

(b) 1 and 3

 

(c) 2 and 5

 

(d) 3, 4 and 5

 

Ans= (C)

 

#84. Consider the following statements:

 

 

1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.

 

 

2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.

 

 

3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

 

 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2

 

(b) 2 only

 

(c) 1 and 3

 

(d) 3 only

 

Ans= (B)

 

#85. Which reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

 

 

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.

 

 

2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

 

 

3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

 

 

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

(a) 1 and 2 only

 

(b) 2 and 3 only

 

(c) 1 and 3 only

 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Ans= (D)

 

#86. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

 

(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.

 

(b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.

 

(c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.

 

(d) Through International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian Countries claim them.

 

Ans= (B)

 

#87. Consider the following pairs:

 

 

 

List- 1

 

(Country)

 

 

 

List- 2

 

(Important reason for being in the news recently)

 

 

 

 

1. Chad

 

 

 

Setting up of permanent military base by China

 

 

 

 

2. Guinea

 

 

 

Suspension of Constitution and Government by military

 

 

 

 

3. Lebanon

 

 

 

Severe and prolonged economic depression

 

 

 

 

4. Tunisia

 

 

 

Suspension of Parliament by President

 

 

 

 

 

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

 

(a) Only one pair

 

(b) Only two pairs

 

(c) Only three pairs

 

(d) All four pairs

 

Ans= (C)

 

#88. Consider the following pairs:

 

 

 

List- 1

 

(Region often mentioned in the news)

 

 

 

List- 2

 

(Country)

 

 

 

 

1. Anatolia

 

 

 

Turkey

 

 

 

 

2. Amhara

 

 

 

Ethiopia

 

 

 

 

3. Cabo Delgado

 

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