69th BPSC Prelims Question Paper [Solved PDF]

69th BPSC Prelims Question Paper [Set D]

1. Consider the following statements:

The arrival of Babur into India led to:

1. The introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent.

2. The introduction of arch and dome in architecture in the region.

3. The establishment of the Timurid dynasty in the region.

4. The introduction of cannons in warfare.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2, and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Only 3 and 4

Explanation:

Statement 1: Incorrect, gunpowder was first introduced to India by the Arabs in the 13th century. However, Babur introduced new and more effective gunpowder weapons, such as the matchlock musket and the cannon. These weapons gave him a significant military advantage over his opponents.

Statement 2: Incorrect, dom and arch architecture was present in India even before the invasion of Babur. A good example is the Buddhist stupa at Sanchi.

Babur was a great admirer of Persian architecture, and he added the use of arches and domes to Indian architecture. This is evident in many of the Mughal buildings, such as the Taj Mahal and the Jama Masjid. Mughal architecture is a unique blend of Persian and Indian elements.

Statement 3: Correct, Babur was a descendant of Timur, the founder of the Timurid dynasty. He established the Mughal dynasty in India after defeating Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526. The Mughal dynasty ruled India for over three centuries, and it is considered to be one of the greatest dynasties in Indian history.

Statement 4: Cannons were used in the warfare by Babur.

2. Which among the following ports was called Babul Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal period?

(A) Surat

(B) Cambay

(D) Calicut

Answer: (A) Surat

Explanation:

Surat was known as Babul Makka (Gate of Makka) during the Mughal period. This name reflected its significance as a major port and trading center, connecting India with the trade routes to Mecca and other parts of the world.

3. ‘Ashta Pradhan’ was a Council of Ministers:

(A) in the Chola administration

(B) in the Maratha administration

(D) in the Gupta administration

Answer: (B) in the Maratha administration

Explanation: ‘Ashta Pradhan’ was a Council of Ministers in the Maratha administration.

4. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani’ is located at:

(A) Ellora

(B) Ajanta

(D) Bagh

Answer: (B) Ajanta

Explanation: The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is located at Ajanta Caves.

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Fa-Hien was a Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the reign of Harsha.

2. Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Both 1 and 2

(B) Only 2

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Fa-Hien visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II (375-415 CE), while Harshavardhana ruled India from 606 to 647 CE.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Hiuen Tsang (also known as Xuanzang) visited India during the reign of Harshavardhana. He was a Chinese Buddhist monk who traveled to India in search of Buddhist scriptures and knowledge. He spent 17 years in India, visiting many Buddhist sites and monasteries. He wrote a detailed account of his travels, which is a valuable source of information about India during the 7th century CE.

6. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
a. Charaka	1. Mathematics
b. Brahmagupta	2. Medicine
c. Varahamihira	3. Playwright
d. Vishakhadatta	4. Astrology

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) a1 b2 c3 d4

(B) a3 b2 c4 d1

(D) a2 b1 c4 d3

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The correct matches are Charaka – Medicine, Brahmagupta – Mathematics, Varahamihira – Astrology, and Vishakhadatta – Playwright.

7. Who among the following introduced the Persian festival Nowruz in India?

(A) Alauddin Khilji

(B) Balban

(D) Firuz Shah Tughlaq

Answer: (B) Balban

Explanation: Balban, the ninth Sultan of Delhi, introduced the Persian festival Nowruz in India.

Nowruz is the Persian New Year, celebrated on the spring equinox. It is a time of renewal and hope and is celebrated by people of many different faiths and cultures. Balban was a Turkic ruler who was influenced by Persian culture, and he introduced Nowruz to India as a way to show his wealth and power.

Nowruz is still celebrated by many people in India today, especially by the Parsi community. It is a time for family and friends to come together and celebrate the new year.

8. Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis made devotional religion popular in:

(A) Southern India

(B) Eastern India

(D) Northern India

Answer: (D) Northern India

Explanation: Nathpanthis, Siddhas, and Yogis made devotional religion popular in Northern India.

9. Consider the following statements regarding Wood’s Dispatch of 1854:

It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies.
It laid stress on female education and vocational training.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Only 2

(B) Both 1 and 2

(D) Only 1

Answer: (B) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and laid stress on female education and vocational training.

10. The Maithili language started to develop during the reign of which of the following?

(A) Oiniwar dynasty

(B) Karnat dynasty

(D) Chero dynasty

Answer: (B) Karnat dynasty

Explanation: The development of the Maithili language is closely associated with the Karnat dynasty. The Karnat dynasty, which ruled over Mithila (the region where Maithili is predominantly spoken), provided a conducive environment for the growth and development of the language. This period saw the rise of Maithili literature and culture, significantly contributing to the establishment and evolution of the language.

11. Which city served as the capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha during the early Vedic period?

(A) Campa

(B) Vaishali

(D) Rajagriha

Answer: (D) Rajagriha

Explanation: Rajagriha served as the capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha during the early Vedic period.

12. Which of the following statements about the Vernacular Press Act is/are correct?

It was enacted by Lord Lytton.
It came to be known as a ‘Gagging Act.’
The Act was repealed by Lord Ripon.

(A) only 2 and 3

(B) Only 1

(D) Only 1 and 2

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The Vernacular Press Act was enacted by Lord Lytton and came to be known as a ‘Gagging Act.’

The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was a law enacted by the British colonial government in India to restrict the freedom of the Indian press and prevent the expression of criticism toward British policies. The act was passed in response to the growing Indian nationalist movement and the increasing criticism of British rule in the Indian press.

13. Which of the following statements about Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 are correct?

It was the first step that bifurcated Central and Provincial finances.
Provincial Governments were empowered to administer certain services.
It attempted to rectify existing imparity.
It focused on the actual needs of the Provinces.

(A) Only 1, 3 and 4

(B) Only 2, 3 and 4

(D) Only 1 and 2

Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation: Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 was a landmark document in the history of Indian administration. It was the first systematic attempt to decentralize power and give provincial governments more autonomy. The resolution had the following objectives:

To bifurcate Central and Provincial finances.
To empower Provincial Governments to administer certain services, such as education, public works, and medical services.
To rectify existing imparity between the different provinces.
To focus on the actual needs of the Provinces.

The resolution was a significant step in the development of local self-government in India. It laid the foundation for the Panchayati Raj system, which was introduced in India in the 1950s.

A brief explanation of each statement:

Statement 1 is correct. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 was the first step that bifurcated Central and Provincial finances. This meant that the provincial governments were given their own budgets and could spend money independently of the central government.
Statement 2 is correct. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 empowered Provincial Governments to administer certain services, such as education, public works, and medical services. This gave the provincial governments more control over the development of their regions.
Statement 3 is correct. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 attempted to rectify existing imparity between the different provinces. The resolution provided for additional grants to the less developed provinces.
Statement 4 is correct. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 focused on the actual needs of the Provinces. The resolution required the provincial governments to prepare budgets based on their own needs, rather than following a uniform pattern.

14. Nitisara, an early book of politics, was written by:

(A) Charaka

(B) Kamandaka

(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Kamandaka

Explanation: Nitisara, an early book of politics, was written by Kamandaka.

Kamandaka was a scholar and statesman who lived during the Gupta period (4th-6th centuries CE). He is believed to have been a disciple of Chanakya, the famous author of Arthashastra.

15. Futuhat-i-Alamgiri was written by:

(A) Haridas

(B) Bhimsen

(D) None of them

Answer: (C) Ishwardas Nagar

Explanation: Futuhat-i-Alamgiri was written by Ishwardas Nagar.

16. According to Chinese sources, Meghavarman, the ruler of Sri Lanka, sent a missionary to which of the following Gupta Kings for permission to build a Buddhist temple at Gaya?

(A) Chandragupta II

(B) Samudragupta

(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Samudragupta

Explanation: According to Chinese sources, Meghavarman, the ruler of Sri Lanka, sent a missionary to Samudragupta, the Gupta emperor, for permission to build a Buddhist temple at Gaya.

Samudragupta was a tolerant and benevolent ruler. He was also a patron of the arts and sciences. He granted permission to Meghavarman to build the temple, which is now known as the Mahabodhi Temple. The Mahabodhi Temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is one of the most important Buddhist pilgrimage sites in the world.

17. When was Bihar first separated from the Bengal Presidency under British-ruled India?

(A) 1947

(B) 1936

(D) None of the above

Explanation: Bihar was first separated from the Bengal Presidency in 1912.

18. In Indian art, the construction of ‘Stupa,’ ‘Chaitya,’ and ‘Vihara’ related to which of the following?

(A) Vaishnava sect

(B) Buddhism

(D) Ajivika sect

Answer: (B) Buddhism

Explanation: The construction of ‘Stupa,’ ‘Chaitya,’ and ‘Vihara’ is related to Buddhism.

19. In the context of Indian handicrafts, what is ‘Sujini’ in Bihar?

(A) A metal craft

(B) A type of embroidery

(D) A type of glassware

Answer: (B) A type of embroidery

Explanation: ‘Sujini’ in Bihar refers to a type of embroidery.

20. Consider the following statements regarding the Vikramshila University in Bihar:

It was located in the present-day Banka district of Bihar.
It was established by King Gopala I of the Pala dynasty.
The Vajrayana sect of Buddhism flourished here.
Other subjects like Astronomy, Logic, Law, Grammar, and Philosophy were also taught here.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 and 4

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation:

The incorrect statements about Vikramshila University are:

It was located in the present-day Banka district of Bihar. Vikramshila University was located in the present-day Bhagalpur district of Bihar.
It was established by King Gopala I of the Pala dynasty. Vikramshila University was established by King Dharmapala of the Pala dynasty.

21. Which of the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries are in Bihar?

Valmiki National Park
Dudhwa National Park
Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary
Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

Answer: (D) 1 and 4

Explanation: The following National Parks are in Bihar:

Valmiki Nagar Tiger Reserve is a tiger reserve in Bihar.
Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary is also in Bihar.

The following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries are not in Bihar:

Dudhwa National Park is located in Uttar Pradesh.
Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Rajasthan.

22. Consider the statements regarding ‘Gangetic Dolphin’:

The Gangetic River Dolphin has been categorized as ‘endangered’ under the IUCN’s Red List.
It does not have a crystalline eye lens, rendering it effectively blind.
Navigation and hunting are carried out using echolocation.
It has been recognized as India’s National Aquatic Animal.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1, 3, and 4

(B) Only 2, 3, and 4

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: All the provided statements about the Gangetic Dolphin are correct.

The Ganges River Dolphin is also known as the susu. It is a freshwater dolphin found in the Ganges and Brahmaputra river systems of India, Nepal, and Bangladesh. It is one of the most endangered cetaceans in the world, with an estimated population of only about 2,500 individuals.

23. The other name of the river Gandak is:

(A) Mahananda

(B) Narayani

(D) Burhi Gandak

Answer: (B) Narayani

Explanation: The other name of the river Gandak is Narayani.

24. Gold is found in which of the following districts of Bihar?

(A) Saran

(B) Siwan

(D) Munger

Answer: (C) Jamui

Explanation: Gold is found in the district of Jamui in Bihar.

The Bihar government has announced plans to develop the gold reserve in Jamui. The government has said that it will invest in the exploration and development of the gold reserve, and it will also provide employment opportunities to the local people.

25. The Triveni Canal has been constructed on which of the following rivers?

(A) Sone

(B) Gandak

(D) Kosi

Answer: (B) Gandak

Explanation: The Triveni Canal has been constructed on the Gandak River. The Gandak River is a transboundary river that flows through Nepal and India. It originates in the Himalayas in Nepal and joins the Ganges River in Bihar, India. The Triveni Canal is a major irrigation canal that provides water to the Champaran district of Bihar.

26. Assertion (A): Rich placer deposits of gold are found on the Ghana coast, and gold-bearing veins are found in Brazil.

Reason (R): At some point in time, these continents were joined together along the Atlantic coast.

Select the correct answer.

(A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(B) A is false, but R is true

(D) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Explanation: Both statements A and R are true, but R does not explain why placer deposits of gold are found in Ghana and gold-bearing veins in Brazil.

27. Bihar’s geographical structure consists of rock systems. Match the rock systems with their descriptions:

Rock System	Description
a. Dharwar rock system	1. Part of the oldest Archaean rock system
b. Vindhyan rock system	2. Can be found in the Champaran district
c. Quaternary rock system	3. Created by the rapid deposition of alluvium by Himalayan and Peninsular rivers
d. Tertiary rock system	4. Sandstone, limestone, dolomite, quartzite shale are the main constituents of this rock system

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) a1, b3, c2, d4

(B) a2, b3, c4, d1

(D) a3, b4, c1, d2

Answer: (D) a3, b4, c1, d2

Explanation: The Tertiary rock system consists of sandstone, limestone, dolomite, quartzite, and shale. It can be found in the Champaran district of Bihar.

The Dharwar rock system is the oldest rock system in India. It is found in the southern part of India, in the states of Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. The Dharwar rock system is made up of a variety of rocks, including schists, gneisses, and granites.

The Vindhyan rock system is a younger rock system than the Dharwar rock system. It is found in the central part of India, in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan. The Vindhyan rock system is made up of a variety of rocks, including sandstone, limestone, and dolomite.

The Quaternary rock system is the youngest rock system in India. It is found all over India. The Quaternary rock system is made up of a variety of rocks, including alluvium, sand, and gravel.

28. Which one of the following is the world’s richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective, comprising twenty-one islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore environment, sea grasses, coral reefs, salt marshes, and mangroves?

(A) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

(B) Sunderbans Reserve Biosphere

(D) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

Answer: (D) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

Explanation: The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is known for its rich marine biodiversity.

29. What is the local time of Thimphu (Bhutan) located at 90° East longitude when the time at Greenwich (0°) is 12:00 noon?

(A) 4:00 p.m.

(B) 7:00 p.m.

(D) 6:00 p.m.

Answer: (D) 6:00 p.m.

Explanation: Thimphu is located 90° East of Greenwich, so its local time would be 6 hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).

30. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Mica is found in Kodarma.

(B) Cuddapah series is famous for diamonds.

(D) Natural gas is found in Dharwar rock formation.

Answer: (A) Mica is found in Kodarma.

Explanation: Kodarma in Jharkhand is known for its mica mines.

31. How many latitudes are there on the globe drawn at 1-degree intervals?

(A) 179

(B) 178

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) 179

Explanation: There are 179 latitudes on the globe drawn at 1-degree intervals. The equator is not counted among these 179 latitudes.

32. The average height of the Kosi plain from mean sea level is

(A) 30 m

(B) 150 m

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation: The average height of the Kosi plain from the mean sea level is 80-100 meters. The Kosi Plain is a fertile alluvial plain in the northeastern state of Bihar, India. It is formed by the Kosi River, which is a major tributary of the Ganges River. The Kosi Plain is a densely populated region, and it is known for its agriculture and livestock production.

If the option would have been 100 m. We could have marked it as the correct option.

33. On which plateau does the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Time Line intersect each other?

(A) Malwa

(B) Baghelkhand

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Baghelkhand

Explanation: The Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Time Line intersect each other on the Baghelkhand plateau.

34. Which district of Uttarakhand is not situated along the Tibet boundary?

(A) Almora

(B) Chamoli

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Almora

Explanation: Almora is not situated along the Tibet boundary in Uttarakhand.

35. Where does the El Niño current flow?

(A) The Bay of Bengal

(B) The Indian Ocean

(D) More than one of the above

Answer: (C) The Pacific Ocean

Explanation: The El Niño current flows in the Pacific Ocean.

36. Consider statements about Lake Victoria:

Lake Victoria is the third-largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area.
It is one of the great lakes of Africa.
It is bordered by four countries: Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda, and Kenya.
The only outflow from Lake Victoria is the Nile River, which exits the lake near Jinja, Uganda.

Which of the following statements are incorrect?

(A) 2 and 4

(B) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 2

Answer: (C) 1 and 3

Explanation: Lake Victoria is bordered by three countries: Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya. Rwanda does not border Lake Victoria.

Lake Victoria is the second-largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area. Statement 3 is incorrect as Lake Victoria is bordered by Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya but not Rwanda.

37. Consider the following statements regarding ‘heatwave’:

Heatwave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30 °C or more for plains.
Heatwave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40 °C or more for hilly regions.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (C) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Both statements have been interchanged.

The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) defines a heat wave as a period of abnormally hot weather that lasts for at least three days and is accompanied by high humidity levels. The WMO also states that a heat wave should be declared if the daily maximum temperature exceeds the average maximum temperature for that location by 5 degrees Celsius (9 degrees Fahrenheit) or more for at least three consecutive days.

38. Match List-I with List-II (Explorer and Birthplace):

Explorer (List-I)	Birthplace (List-II)
a. Christopher Columbus	1. Portugal
b. Jacques Cartier	2. United Kingdom
c. Sir Francis Drake	3. Italy
d. Ferdinand Magellan	4. France

(A) a1, b2, c4, d3

(B) a3, b4, c1, d2

(D) a3, b4, c2, d1

Answer: (D) a3, b4, c2, d1

Explanation: Christopher Columbus was born in Italy, Jacques Cartier in France, Sir Francis Drake in the United Kingdom, and Ferdinand Magellan in Portugal.

Explorer (List-I)	Birthplace (List-II)
Christopher Columbus	Italy
Jacques Cartier	France
Sir Francis Drake	United Kingdom
Ferdinand Magellan	Portugal

39. The emirates of UAE are:

(A) Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Jeddah, Kuwait, Bahrain, Umm Al-Quwain

(B) Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah, Riyadh, Dammam, Taif, Dubai

(D) Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah

Answer: (D) Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah

Explanation: The United Arab Emirates (UAE) consists of seven emirates: Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, and Ras Al-Khaimah.

40. The river Subarnarekha originates near which of the following villages?

(A) Mandar

(B) Hehal

(D) Ormanjhi

Answer: (C) Nagri

Explanation: The river Subarnarekha originates near the village of Nagri, in the Gumla district of Jharkhand, India.

41. The specifications required for a community to be declared as a Scheduled Tribe are indications of primitive traits. Which of the following are correct indications for this purpose?

Indication of Primitive Traits
Distinctive culture
Shyness of contact with the community at large
Backwardness and geographical isolation

Which of the above are correct?

(A) Only 1,3 and 4

(B) Only 2,3 and 4

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: All of the above are correct indications of primitive traits for the purpose of declaring a community as a Scheduled Tribe.

Primitive traits are the characteristics of a community that are considered to be less developed or advanced than those of the mainstream community. These traits can include:

Distinctive culture: Scheduled Tribes have their own unique cultures, which are different from the mainstream culture.
Shyness of contact with the community at large: Scheduled Tribes are often shy of contact with the community at large. This is because they have been marginalized and discriminated against for centuries.
Backwardness and geographical isolation: Scheduled Tribes are often backward and geographically isolated. This is because they have been denied access to education and other resources.

It is important to note that these are just some of the indications of primitive traits. There is no single definition of what constitutes a primitive trait.

The Indian government uses the criteria of primitive traits to identify and declare Scheduled Tribes. Scheduled Tribes are a list of communities that are considered to be socially and economically backward. Scheduled Tribes are entitled to special benefits from the government, such as reservations in education and employment.

42. From which country did the Indian Constitution take reference for the idea of Fundamental Rights?

(A) United States of America

(B) United Kingdom

(D) Ireland

Answer: (A) United States of America

Explanation: The Indian Constitution took reference for the idea of Fundamental Rights from the United States of America.

43. Untouchability is abolished by which Article of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Article 15

(B) Article 17

(D) Article 14

Answer: (B) Article 17

Explanation: Untouchability is abolished by Article 17 of the Indian Constitution.

44. The authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court rests with which of the following entities?

(A) The Chief Minister of the State

(B) The Prime Minister

(D) The President

Answer: (C) The Parliament

Explanation: The authority to determine the number of Judges in a High Court rests with the Parliament.

45. The Fifth Schedule deals with the governance and protection of the interests of which specific group of people?

(A) Religious Minorities

(B) Scheduled Tribes

(D) Scheduled Castes

Answer: (B) Scheduled Tribes

Explanation: The Fifth Schedule deals with the governance and protection of the interests of Scheduled Tribes.

46. In which case(s) did the Supreme Court of India give for the first time the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution?

(A) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab

(B) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (B) Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

Explanation: The Supreme Court of India gave the doctrine of ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution in the Kesavananda Bharati case.

47. Match the following political parties listed in List I with their years of establishment in List II:

Political Party (List-I)	Year of Establishment (List-II)
a. Communist Party of India (Marxist)	1. 1964
b. Communist Party of India	2. 1998
c. Bahujan Samaj Party	3. 1925
d. All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)	4. 1984

Select the correct answer using the code:

(A) a2,b1,c4,d3

(B) a2,b1,c3,d4

(D) a1,b3,c4,d2

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The Communist Party of India (Marxist) was established in 1964, the Communist Party of India in 1925, the Bahujan Samaj Party in 1984, and the All India Trinamool Congress (AITC) in 1998.

48. Under which Article(s), the Speaker can allow any member of the House to speak in his/her mother tongue?

(A) Article 110 (1)

(B) Article 122 (2)

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (C) Article 120 (1)

Explanation: Article 120 (1) of the Constitution of India states that “The business of the Parliament shall be conducted in Hindi or English: Provided that the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, as the case may be, may permit any member who cannot adequately express himself in Hindi or in English to address the House in his mother tongue.”

49. Consider the following statements about the collegium system:

The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body, which is headed by the incumbent Chief Justice of India (CJI) and comprises four other seniormost Judges of the Court at that time.
The Parliament by law has evolved the collegium system.
The Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed only through the collegium system.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3
(D) Only 1

Answer: (C) 1 and 3

Explanation: The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body headed by the CJI and comprises four other senior Judges. The collegium system for the appointment of Judges is not a creation of Parliament, and Judges are indeed appointed through the collegium system.

50. Consider statements regarding the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India:

It added three words to the Preamble: ‘Socialist,’ ‘Secular,’ and ‘Integrity.’
It added eight Fundamental Duties to the Constitution.
It added new Directive Principles, i.e., Article 39A, Article 43A, and Article 47.
It granted power to the President, in consultation with the Election Commission, to disqualify members of the State Legislatures.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(A) 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 2

Answer: (B) 2 and 3

Explanation: The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution added the words ‘Socialist,’ ‘Secular,’ and ‘Integrity’ to the Preamble and granted power to the President to disqualify members of the State Legislatures.

51. Consider the following statements regarding insolvency and bankruptcy:

Bankruptcy refers to a financial state in which an individual or entity is unable to pay off their debts as they become due.
Insolvency refers to a legal process where the assets of the debtor are liquidated or reorganized for the benefit of creditors.
Bankruptcy is a conclusion, whereas insolvency is the state.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is the regulatory body responsible for overseeing insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 2, 3 and 4

(B) Only 4

(D) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2

Explanation:

Insolvency and bankruptcy are two closely related concepts, but they are not the same.

Insolvency is a financial state in which an individual or entity is unable to pay off their debts as they become due. This means that the value of the debtor’s assets is less than the amount of their liabilities.

Bankruptcy is a legal process that is used to resolve insolvency cases. In bankruptcy proceedings, the debtor’s assets are liquidated or reorganized for the benefit of creditors.

52. In which year was the Industrial Policy Resolution adopted?

(A) 1954

(B) 1952

(D) 1956

Answer: (D) 1956

Explanation: The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 was a comprehensive statement of the Indian government’s policy on industrial development. It was the second such statement, after the Industrial Policy Statement of 1948. The 1956 resolution was more detailed and comprehensive than the 1948 statement, and it set out the government’s vision for a mixed economy, with a strong role for the public sector.

53. Consider the following statements about the Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme:

The scheme offers a production-linked incentive to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in mobile phone manufacturing and specified components.
The scheme has two categories of applicants, namely, global companies and domestic companies.
The scheme shall extend an average incentive of around 8% on net incremental sales (over the base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under the target segment, eligible companies, for a period of six years.
The target segment under PLI shall include (i) laptops, (ii) tablets, (iii) all-in-one PCs, (iv) servers, and (v) Ultra-Small Form Factor (USFF).

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

(A) 2 and 4

(B) 1 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

Answer: (C) 2 and 3

Explanation: The PLI scheme includes laptops, tablets, all-in-one PCs, servers, and Ultra-Small Form Factor (USFF) in its target segment. The scheme offers incentives to boost manufacturing.

The average incentive is around 5% on net incremental sales (over the base year) of goods manufactured in India and covered under the target segment, eligible companies, for a period of six years.

54. Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA scheme:

It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Mines.
This scheme seeks to create geopositioning infrastructure like CORS network to benchmark the location and provides five-centimeter level accuracy.
CORS means Cross-Origin Resource Sharing.
The scheme is a reformative step towards the establishment of clear ownership of property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas, by mapping of land parcels using drone technology.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 2 and 4

Answer: (A) 1 and 3

Explanation: The SVAMITVA scheme is not under the Ministry of Mines, and CORS does not mean Cross-Origin Resource Sharing.

55. Which of the following is/are the consequence(s) of invoking Article 360, declaration of a financial emergency?

The President may order the States to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the State affairs.
Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature are not required to be reserved for the consideration of the President.
The President can issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of employees serving in connection with the affairs of the Union, including the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Money Bills or other financial bills are to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the Legislature of the State.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2

(D) All of the above

Answer: (C) Only 1, 3, and 4

Explanation: These are the consequences of invoking Article 360, declaring a financial emergency.

56. Which of the following factors could potentially contribute to stagflation in the Indian economy?

High inflationary pressures due to increased Government spending
Decline in industrial production and sluggish economic growth
Decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending
Appreciation of the domestic currency leading to the reduction of export competitiveness

Select the correct answer:

(A) Only 2 and 3
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Only 1 and 2

Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation: All of these factors can contribute to stagflation in the Indian economy.

57. As per the Economic Survey, 2023, which of the following statements describe(s) the trend of Foreign Direct Investment in India?

It has decreased due to the less participation of the private sector.
It has increased compared to the pre-pandemic levels.
It has increased rapidly without decreasing in any Financial Year after the telecom sector was entirely reformed.
It has decreased due to a weak global economic situation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1, 2, and 3
(C) Only 4
(D) Only 1 and 3

Ans: (A)

Explanation: As per the Economic Survey, 2023, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in India has increased compared to the pre-pandemic levels, and has increased rapidly without decreasing in any Financial Year after the telecom sector was entirely reformed.

The other statements are incorrect. FDI in India has not decreased due to the less participation of the private sector, or due to a weak global economic situation.

In fact, the Economic Survey, 2023 notes that FDI inflows into India have increased by 20% in FY2022-23, compared to the pre-pandemic FY2019-20. The survey also notes that the telecom sector has been a major driver of FDI in India, with the sector accounting for nearly 25% of total FDI inflows in FY2022-23.

The Economic Survey, 2023 also notes that the weak global economic situation is not expected to have a significant impact on FDI inflows into India. The survey states that India is expected to remain a major destination for FDI, due to its strong economic fundamentals and its attractive investment climate.

58. What is the current population of the Gaya district of Bihar?
(A) 320,000
(B) 780,000
(C) 234,000
(D) 598,000

Ans: (D)

Solution: As of 2023, the estimated population of the Gaya district of Bihar is 4,639,278. This is based on a growth rate of 2.608% per annum since the 2011 census.

Gaya is the second most populous district in Bihar, after Patna. It is located in the south-central part of the state and is bordered by the districts of Aurangabad to the north, Jehanabad to the northeast, Arwal to the east, Nawada to the southeast, Jamui to the south, and Lakhisarai to the west.

59. Which of the following statements about non-plan expenditures of the Central Government is correct?
(A) The expenditure is on agriculture.
(B) The expenditure is on science and technology.
(C) The expenditure is on interest payments.
(D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Explanation: Non-plan expenditures of the Central Government refer to the expenditures that are not incurred on the development of new assets or infrastructure. These expenditures are typically incurred on the maintenance of existing assets, the provision of essential services, and the payment of salaries and allowances to government employees.

60: Which of the following is not true about globalization and its impact on India?

(A) Increase in exports is greater than an increase in imports.

(B) It has led to a greater flow of Foreign Direct Investment.

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Increase in exports is greater than an increase in imports.

Explanation: While globalization has led to an increase in both exports and imports for India, imports have grown at a faster rate than exports in recent years. This is due to a number of factors, including the growing demand for foreign goods and services among Indian consumers, the increasing competitiveness of Indian exports, and the appreciation of the Indian rupee.

Further, globalization has led to a greater flow of foreign direct investment (FDI) into the country, which has helped to boost economic growth and create jobs. It has also expanded trade in goods and services, giving Indian consumers and businesses access to a wider range of products and markets.

Summary of the Impact of Globalization on India

Positive impacts:
- Increased economic growth
- Increased FDI
- Expanded trade in goods and services
- Increased employment opportunities
- Improved access to technology and education
Negative impacts:
- Increased competition for domestic businesses
- Widening income inequality
- Increased environmental degradation
- Loss of cultural identity

Overall, globalization has had a positive impact on India, but it is important to be aware of the potential negative impacts as well.

61: Consider the following statements about the latest developments in the Union Government finances:

The fiscal deficit of the Union Government had reached 9.2 percent of GDP during the pandemic FY21.
The fiscal deficit has moderated to 7.7 percent of GDP in FY22.
The revenue collection over the last two years has gone down.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 2

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation:

S1: The fiscal deficit of the Union Government had reached 9.3 percent of GDP during the pandemic FY21. Hence S1 is incorrect.

S2: The fiscal deficit came down to to 6.7 percent of GDP in FY22. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect

Fiscal Deficit in India — Fiscal Deficit of India

Fiscal deficit is the difference between a government’s total revenue and its total expenditure. It is expressed as a percentage of gross domestic product (GDP). A fiscal deficit occurs when a government spends more money than it collects in taxes and other revenue.

S3: The revenue collection in the FY 2022-23 was higher when compared with revenue collection for the FY 2021-22. This makes the Statement 3 incorrect.

62: The Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) of RBI include which of the following?

Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)
Gold
Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Reserve Tranche Position

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1, 2, and 3

(B) Only 2, 3, and 4

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: The Foreign Exchange Reserves (FER) of RBI include:

Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)
Gold
Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Reserve Tranche Position

As of September 8, 2023, India’s total foreign exchange (Forex) reserves amount to approximately US$598.89 billion. This includes the following components: Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) of approximately US$530.691 billion, Gold Reserves valued at around US$44.939 billion, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) with the IMF amounting to about US$18.195 billion, and a Reserve Position in the IMF of approximately US$5.073 billion.

63. Consider the following statements about ‘Rules of Origin’:

Rules of Origin are the criteria needed to determine the national source of a product.
Rules of Origin help the custom agencies to know what regulations and fees apply to a given product.
These are used for the purpose of trade statistics.
Their importance is derived from the fact that duties and restrictions, in several cases, depend upon the sources of imports.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 1, 3, and 4

(B) Only 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (A) Only 1, 3, and 4

Explanation: Rules of Origin are the criteria used to determine the country of origin of a product. This is important for a number of reasons, including:

To determine whether a product is eligible for preferential tariff treatment under a free trade agreement.
To compile trade statistics.
To enforce trade restrictions, such as anti-dumping duties and quotas.

Custom agencies use Rules of Origin to determine what regulations and fees apply to a given product. However, Rules of Origin are not used to determine what regulations and fees apply to a product in general. For example, a product may be subject to safety regulations or environmental regulations regardless of its country of origin.

64: Consider the following statements about the infant mortality rate:

It is the probability of dying between birth and exactly 1 year of age, expressed per 10,000 live births.
The infant mortality rate in the year 1950 was 189.6.
In the year 2019, the infant mortality rate was 30.
As per the Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletin of Registrar General of India (RGI), the State with the highest infant mortality rate in the year 2019 was Uttar Pradesh.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 2, 3, and 4

(B) Only 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (D) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation:

S1: Correct, The infant mortality rate is the probability of dying between birth and exactly 1 year of age, expressed per 10,000 live births. This is the indirect definition of the term infant mortality rate.

Year	Infant Mortality Rate	Growth Rate
2023	26.619	-3.890%
2022	27.695	-3.740%
2021	28.771	-3.610%
2020	29.848	-3.480%
2019	30.924	-3.360%
2018	32.000	-4.240%
2017	33.416	-4.070%
1953	180.954	-1.570%
1952	183.846	-1.550%
1951	186.737	-1.530%
1950	189.629	0.000%

S2: Correct, the infant mortality rate in the year 1950 was 189.6.

S3: Incorrect, In the year 2019, the infant mortality rate was 30.9. This is approx. 31.

S4: Incorrect: The state with the highest mortality rate is Madhya Pradesh.

65. Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process, which enables:

individuals of a country to accumulate more capital
increasing the knowledge
increasing the skill levels
increasing the knowledge, skill levels, and capacities of the people of the country

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3 and 4

(D) Only 4

Answer: (D) Only 4

Explanation: Human capital formation involves increasing the knowledge, skill levels, and capacities of a country’s people, which contributes to economic growth and development.

66: The Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937-1938 was organized by whom?

(A) Jay Prakash Narayan

(B) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

(D) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Answer: (B) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

Explanation: The Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937-1938 was organized by Swami Sahajanand Saraswati, a prominent freedom fighter and social reformer known for his efforts in improving the conditions of peasants and the lower castes.

67. Consider the following events during India’s Freedom Struggle:

Home Rule Movement
Surat Split
Kheda Satyagraha
Minto-Morley Reforms

Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?

(A) 2-4-1-3

(B) 1-4-2-3

(D) 1-3-2-4

Answer: (B) 1-4-2-3

Explanation: The correct chronological order is as follows:
1. Surat Split (1907)
2. Kheda Satyagraha (1918)
3. Home Rule Movement (1916-1917)
4. Minto-Morley Reforms (1909)

68. Lord Lytton is not associated with which of the following?

(A) The Arms Act

(B) The Vernacular Press Act

(D) The Strachey Commission

Answer: (C) The Ilbert Bill

Explanation: Lord Lytton is not directly associated with The Strachey Commission. However, the commission was formed during his tenure. He is known for the controversial measures like the Vernacular Press Act and the Arms Act during his tenure as Viceroy of India.

The Strachey Commission is also known as the Famine Commission. It was a commission appointed by the British government in 1880 to investigate the causes of the 1876-78 famine in India. The commission was chaired by Sir Richard Strachey, a British civil servant. Lord Lytton was the Viceroy of India at the time, but he was not directly associated with the commission.

The commission’s report was published in 1881. It identified a number of factors that contributed to the famine, including:

Natural disasters, such as drought and crop failure.
Government policies, such as the land tax system and the export of grain.
Economic factors, such as the poverty of the Indian people and the lack of investment in agriculture.

The commission made a number of recommendations to prevent future famines, including:

Improving the land tax system.
Investing in agriculture and irrigation.
Developing a system of famine relief.

The Strachey Commission’s report was a landmark document in the history of British India. It led to a number of important reforms, including the creation of the Indian Famine Code. The Famine Code was a set of guidelines for the government to follow in the event of a famine. It helped to ensure that future famines were handled more effectively.

The Strachey Commission’s report was also important for its recognition of the role of government policy in causing famines. The commission’s recommendations led to a shift in British colonial policy, with the government becoming more active in its efforts to prevent and mitigate famines.

The Strachey Commission’s work has been praised by historians for its thoroughness and objectivity. The commission’s report is still considered to be a valuable resource for understanding the causes and prevention of famines.

Ilbert Bill

The Ilbert Bill was a bill introduced in 1883 by Sir Courtenay Ilbert, the legal member of the Council of the Governor-General of India lord Ripon. The bill sought to allow Indian judges to preside over cases involving British subjects in India.

This was a controversial proposal at the time, as many British people believed that they should not be subject to the jurisdiction of Indian judges. The bill was also opposed by some Indian conservatives, who feared that it would lead to a loss of Hindu and Muslim personal law.

Despite the opposition, the Ilbert Bill was passed by the Legislative Council of India in 1884. However, it was subsequently amended to exclude British subjects from the jurisdiction of Indian judges in criminal cases.

69. Which treaty was signed after the Battle of Buxar?

(A) The Treaty of Sugauli

(B) The Treaty of Bassein

(D) The Treaty of Allahabad

Answer: (D) The Treaty of Allahabad

Explanation: The Treaty of Allahabad was signed after the Battle of Buxar in 1764. It marked a significant turning point in Indian history as it granted the British East India Company significant powers and territories in India.

70. The Dutch East India Company established its factory at Patna in which year?

(A) 1632

(B) 1643

Answer: (A) 1632

Explanation: The Dutch East India Company established its factory at Patna in the year 1632.

71. In which of the following movements did Mahatma Gandhi make the first use of the hunger strike as a weapon?

(A) Bardoli Satyagraha

(B) Ahmedabad Strike

(D) Non-Cooperation Movement

Answer: (B) Ahmedabad Strike

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi made the first use of the hunger strike as a weapon during the Ahmedabad Strike, which was part of the larger textile workers’ movement in Ahmedabad in 1918.

72. The Quit India Movement in 1942 witnessed significant contributions from leaders of Bihar. Which prominent Bihar leader was known as the ‘Bihar Kesari’ and actively participated in the Quit India Movement?

(A) Shri Krishna Singh

(B) Anugrah Narayan Sinha

(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (A) Shri Krishna Singh

Solution: Shri Krishna Singh was a prominent Indian freedom fighter and politician from Bihar. He was known as the ‘Bihar Kesari’ or the ‘Lion of Bihar’ for his courage and leadership. He was one of the key leaders of the Quit India Movement in Bihar.

Singh was born in the Munger district of Bihar in 1887. He was educated at the University of Calcutta and Patna University. After law school, he began practicing law in Munger.

Singh was drawn to politics at a young age. He joined the Indian National Congress in 1911 and quickly rose through the ranks. He was elected to the Bihar Legislative Council in 1925 and served as its president from 1934 to 1937.

Singh was a strong advocate for Indian independence. He was imprisoned several times by the British for his political activities. He was one of the leaders of the Non-Cooperation Movement in the early 1920s and the Civil Disobedience Movement in the early 1930s.

In 1942, Singh was one of the leaders of the Quit India Movement in Bihar. He was arrested by the British and imprisoned for two years. After his release from prison, he continued to work for Indian independence.

After India gained independence in 1947, Singh became the first Chief Minister of Bihar. He served as Chief Minister from 1946 to 1961. He was a popular and respected leader who worked tirelessly for the development of Bihar.

Singh died in office in 1961. He is remembered as one of the greatest leaders of the Indian freedom movement and a pioneer of the development of Bihar.

73. In response to the mass agitation of the Champaran Movement, the British Government took which step to address the issue?

(A) Enforced strict curfew and imposed Martial Law in the region

(B) Instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee

(D) Appointed Mahatma Gandhi the Governor of Champaran

Answer: (B) Instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee

Explanation: In response to the mass agitation of the Champaran Movement, the British Government instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee to address the issues raised by the farmers and tenants.

74. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
a. Servants of India Society	1. Debendranath Tagore
b. Tattwabodhini Sabha	2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
c. Atmiya Sabha	3. Ram Mohan Roy
–	4. Keshab Chandra Sen

(A) a2 b4 c3

(B) a1 b2 c3

(D) a2 b1 c3

Answer: (D) a1 b4 c2

Explanation: The Tattwabodhini Sabha was a group founded in Calcutta on October 6, 1839. The founding member was Debendranath Tagore, father to renowned write Rabindranath Tagore. In 1859, the Tattwabodhini Sabha were dissolved back into the Brahmo Samaj by Debendranath Tagore. The objective of the group was to promote a more rational and humanist form of Hinduism based on the Vedas and the Upanishads. They wanted a religion based on reason and compassion, free from superstition and discrimination.

The Servants of India Society is a non-governmental organization founded in 1905 by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a prominent Indian nationalist leader. It is a secular organization dedicated to social service and the upliftment of the poor and marginalized.

75. Ambabai, a woman freedom fighter, belonged to which of the following States of India?

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Karnataka

(D) Kerala

Answer: (B) Karnataka

Explanation: Ambabai, a woman freedom fighter, belonged to the State of Karnataka in India.

76. Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?

(A) J. Andrew

(B) A. V. Alexander

(D) None of them

Answer: (A) J. Andrew

Explanation: The Cabinet Mission was a three-member mission sent to India in 1946 by the British government to discuss the transfer of power to Indian leaders.

The members of the Cabinet Mission were:

Pethick-Lawrence (Secretary of State for India)
Stafford Cripps (President of the Board of Trade)
A. V. Alexander (First Lord of the Admiralty)

The correct answer is (A) J. Andrew.

J. Andrew was an Indian politician and civil servant who served as the Governor of Bengal from 1943 to 1946. He was not a member of the Cabinet Mission.

77. “The Indian National Congress was founded on the basis of safety valve theory, to protect the British Government from threats.” Which leader said that?

(A) Bipin Chandra Pal

(B) Lala Lajpat Rai

(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation: The “safety valve theory” is a historical concept in the context of the Indian National Congress during the late 19th and early 20th centuries. This theory suggests that the British colonial government allowed the formation and functioning of the Indian National Congress (INC) as a political organization in order to serve as a safety valve for the growing discontent and political unrest in India. The idea was that by providing a peaceful outlet for political expression and grievances, the INC could help prevent more radical and potentially violent forms of resistance against British rule.

78. In which of the following Indian National Congress Sessions were the resolutions related to the Fundamental Rights passed for the first time?

(A) Karachi Session-1931

(B) Gaya Session-1922

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Karachi Session-1931

Explanation: The resolutions related to the Fundamental Rights were passed for the first time in the Karachi Session.

79. Which of the following were the reasons for the failure of the Revolt of 1857?

The military superiority of the British
The rebels did not have a unified programme and ideology
There was a lack of support from all the sections of society

(A) Only 2 and 3
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) All of the above
(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) All of the above

Explanation: The failure of the Revolt of 1857 can be attributed to multiple factors, but one of the key reasons was the military superiority of the British, and the rebels also lacked a unified program and ideology. There was a lack of support from the elite sections of society.

80. The cook from Bihar who saved Mahatma Gandhi’s life from a murder attempt by food poisoning in 1917 was

(A) Mir Bakawal

(B) Batak Mian

(D) None of them

Answer: (B) Batak Mian

Explanation: Batak Mian, a cook from Bihar, is credited with saving Mahatma Gandhi’s life from a murder attempt by food poisoning in 1917.

81. A man ‘Ramesh’, who owns a plot of land of 100 square yards, increases his plot of land by acquiring 10% more from his neighbour ‘Suresh’, who also owns 100 square yards land. After 2 years, he sells back 10% of the total plot to the neighbour. Which of the following is correct?

(A) Suresh’s land is more than Ramesh

(B) Ramesh’s land is more than Suresh

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Suresh’s land is more than Ramesh

82. Find the odd pair among the following options.

(A) Brewery: Alcohol

(B) Stationery: Paper

(D) Millinery: Hats

Answer: (B) Stationery: Paper

83. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

132 156 ? 210 240 272

(A) 182

(B) 199

(D) 196

Answer: (A) 182

84. Select the missing number from the given alternatives :

44	49	37
52	?	41
58	35	53

(A) 77

(B) 66

(D) 56

Answer: (A) 77

85. Read the given statement and conclusions carefully. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statement.

Statement: In a one-day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200, of which 160 runs were made by spinners.

Conclusions:

80% of the team consisted of spinners.
The opening batsmen were spinners.

Select the correct answer.
(A) Only 2 follows the statement
(B) Both 1 and 2 follow the statement
(C) Neither 1 nor 2 follows the statement
(D) Only 1 follows the statement

Answer: (C) Neither 1 nor 2 follows the statement

86. In a code language, if GREAT is written as 718222620 and MONK is written as 13121411, then how will VIGOROUS be written in the same language?

(A) 21177121811619

(B) 22187131813620

(D) 22187121812619

Answer: (D) 22187121812619

87. Find the odd one in the following groups:

Q,W,Z,B H,H,K,M W,C,G,J M,S,V,X

(A) M,S,V,X

(B) W,C,G,J

(D) Q,W,Z,B

Answer: (B) W,C,G,J

88. Four branches of a company are located at M, N, O and P. M is in the North of N at a distance of 4 km; P is in the South of O at a distance of 2 km; N is in the Southeast of O by 1 km. What is the distance between M and P in km?

(A) 28.5

(B) 6.74

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) 5.34

89. In a certain code language, ‘GAME’ is written as ‘$+*%’ written as and ‘BEAD’ is #%, + x’. How will the word ‘MADE’ be written in that code language?

(A) *+$%

(B) *+x%

(D) $+x%

Answer: (B) *+x%

90. Q travels towards East. M travels towards North. S and T travel in opposite directions. T travels towards right of Q. Which of the following is definitely true?

(A) S travels towards West

(B) T travels towards North

(D) M and S travel in opposite directions

Answer: (C) M and S travel in the same direction

91. Which of the following are computer languages?

Cobra
Python
Squirrel
Java

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3
(B) Only 3 and 4
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: Cobra, Python, Squirrel, and Java are all computer languages.

Cobra is a general-purpose, object-oriented programming language that runs on the .NET Framework.
Python is a general-purpose, interpreted, high-level programming language with a dynamic semantics.
Squirrel is a lightweight, object-oriented programming language that is designed to be easy to learn and use.
Java is a general-purpose, object-oriented programming language that is developed by Oracle and runs on the Java Virtual Machine (JVM).

92. What is the full form of GPT in ChatGPT, recently seen in the news?

(A) GUID Partition Table

(B) Grooved Pegboard Test

(D) Glutamic Pyruvic Transaminase

Answer: (C) Generative Transformer

Explanation: GPT stands for Generative Pre-Trained Transformer.

ChatGPT is a language model developed by OpenAI based on the GPT-3.5 architecture. It’s designed for generating human-like text responses in a conversational context. ChatGPT is part of a family of models that excel at various natural language understanding and generation tasks.

93. Which of the following are not the tastes of the tongue?

Sweet
Bitter
Salty
Spicy
Umami
Sour
Pungent

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 4 and 7
(C) 3 and 6 2, 5
(D) 2, 5 and 7

Answer: (B) 4 and 7

Explanation: Spicy and pungent are not considered basic tastes of the tongue.

94. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Anorexia: Eating disorder
Insomnia: Sleep disorder
Dyspnoea: Shortness of breath
Anosmia: Partial or full loss of smell

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Only 3 and 4
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: All of the following pairs are correctly matched:

Anorexia: Eating disorder, People with anorexia often have an unrealistic view of their own body size and shape, believing that they are fat even when they are dangerously underweight.
Insomnia: Sleep disorder, Insomnia may involve prolonged periods of lying awake in bed, unable to fall asleep even when feeling tired.
Dyspnoea: Dyspnea, also known as shortness of breath, is a feeling of difficulty breathing.
Anosmia: Partial or full loss of smell, Anosmia is a medical term that refers to the loss or complete absence of the sense of smell. It can be temporary or permanent.

95. In the universe, what are pulsars?

(A) Rotating neutron stars

(B) Explosion of a star

(D) A group of stars

Answer: (A) Rotating neutron stars

Explanation: Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars that emit beams of electromagnetic radiation out of their magnetic poles. This radiation can be observed only when a beam of emission is pointing toward Earth (similar to the way a lighthouse can be seen only when the light is pointed in the direction of an observer), and is responsible for the pulsed appearance of emission.

Neutron stars are very dense and have short, regular rotational periods. This produces a very precise interval between pulses that ranges from milliseconds to seconds for an individual pulsar.

96. In the context of lab-grown diamonds (LGDs), what is used as a diamond seed?

(A) Moissanite

(B) Graphite

(D) White sapphire

Answer: (B) Graphite

Explanation: Graphite is used as a diamond seed in the lab-grown diamond (LGD) process. A diamond seed is a small piece of diamond that is used to start the growth process. The graphite seed is placed in a chamber with a carbon-rich gas and exposed to high pressure and temperature. The carbon atoms in the gas attach to the graphite seed and form a new diamond layer by layer.

97. What is the fiber used to make bulletproof jackets?

(A) Terylene

(B) Tweed

(D) Nylon

Answer: (C) Kevlar

Explanation: Kevlar is the fiber used to make bulletproof jackets.

98. What is/are the full form(s) of HMX?

High Melting Explosive
High-Density Monoatomic Xenon
Hedge Monetizing Xeno-currency
Her Majesty’s Explosive

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 2 and 3
(B) Only 1
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 2

Answer: (D) 1 and 2

Explanation: HMX stands for High Melting Explosive and High-Density Monoatomic Xenon.

99. What is the name of Tesla’s humanoid robot launched in October 2022?

(A) Atlas

(B) Pepper

(D) Sophia

Answer: (C) Optimus

Explanation: Tesla’s humanoid robot is named Optimus and was launched in October 2022.

100. What is the ‘Manhattan Project’?

(A) One of the largest art auctions of the world

(B) A real estate project in New York City

(D) A research and development undertaking that produced the first nuclear weapons

Answer: (D) A research and development undertaking that produced the first nuclear weapons

Explanation: The Manhattan Project was a research and development project during World War II that produced the first nuclear weapons.

101. The image formed by concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The position of the object should be

(A) at the centre of curvature

(B) between the focus and centre of curvature

(D) at the focus

Answer: (D) at the focus

Explanation: When an object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, the image formed is real, inverted and is of the same size. Refer the case 4 in the following image.

102. A photoelectric cell is a device which

(A) stores light energy

(B) converts electric energy into light energy

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) converts light energy into electric energy

Explanation: A photoelectric cell is a device that converts light energy into electric energy.

Photoelectric Effect: The photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons from a metal surface when it is exposed to light.

Albert Einstein was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921 for his discovery of the photoelectric effect. The photoelectric effect is a phenomenon in which electrons are emitted from a material when it is exposed to light. This discovery had profound implications for our understanding of the behavior of light and the nature of matter.

103. The amount of solute present per unit volume or per unit mass of the solution/solvent is known as

(A) concentration of solvent

(B) concentration of solute

(D) composition of solute

Answer: (B) concentration of solute

Explanation: The concentration of solute is the amount of solute present per unit volume or per unit mass of the solution or solvent.

104. How do COVID vaccines stimulate an immune response?

(A) By introducing a SARS-CoV-2 virus

(B) By introducing a harmless piece of SARS-CoV-2 virus

(D) By introducing live attenuated virus SARS-CoV-2

Answer: (B) By introducing a harmless piece of SARS-CoV-2 virus

Explanation: COVID vaccines work by introducing a harmless piece of the SARS-CoV-2 virus to stimulate an immune response. COVID vaccines stimulate an immune response by introducing a harmless piece of the SARS-CoV-2 virus into the body. This piece of the virus is called an antigen, and it is usually a protein from the virus’s surface. When the antigen is introduced into the body, the immune system recognizes it as a foreign invader and begins to produce antibodies against it.

105. Which of the following liquids is a bad conductor of electricity?

(A) Lemon juice

(B) Orange juice

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation: None of the following liquids is a bad conductor of electricity:

Lemon juice contains citric acid and other ions, which make it a good conductor of electricity.
Orange juice contains citric acid and other ions, which make it a good conductor of electricity.
Salted water contains salt ions, which make it a good conductor of electricity.

Pure water is a poor conductor of electricity, but the addition of any ions, such as those found in lemon juice, orange juice, and salted water, will make it a good conductor of electricity.

106. The DNA double helix structure was discovered by

(A) Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins

(B) Linus Pauling

(D) James Watson and Francis Crick

Answer: (D) James Watson and Francis Crick

Explanation: DNA double helix structure was discovered by James Watson and Francis Crick in 1953. They were able to deduce the structure based on the X-ray crystallography data of Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.

Watson and Crick’s discovery of the DNA double helix structure was a major breakthrough in biology. It helped scientists to understand how genes are passed on from generation to generation and how they control the development and function of cells.

107. Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the Moon would

(A) undergo a change in their inertia

(B) have the same velocity at any instant

(D) have different accelerations

Answer: (B) have the same velocity at any instant

Explanation: In the absence of air resistance on the Moon, objects of different masses fall at the same rate and have the same velocity at any instant. This is because the accelerating due to the gravitational force of the moon will be the same for both objects.

108. How do vector vaccines work to provide immunity?

(A) By directly attacking and destroying pathogens in the body

(B) By placing the virus in a version of a modified different virus

(D) By introducing a weakened or inactivated virus into the body

Answer: (D) By introducing a weakened or inactivated virus into the body

Explanation: Vector vaccines are a type of vaccine that uses a weakened or inactivated virus to deliver genetic material from the target virus to the body’s cells. This triggers the body’s immune system to produce antibodies against the target virus, which can then protect the body from infection.

109. The process that continually adds new crust is

(A) seafloor spreading

(B) earthquake

(D) Subduction

Answer: (A) seafloor spreading

Explanation: Seafloor spreading is the process that continually adds new crust to the Earth’s surface.

110. The theory that states “pieces of the Earth’s crust are in constant, slow motion driven by movement in the mantle” is called

(A) the theory of Pangaea

(B) the theory of plate tectonics

(D) the theory of continental drift

Answer: (B) the theory of plate tectonics

Explanation: The theory of plate tectonics states that pieces of the Earth’s crust are in constant, slow motion driven by movement in the mantle.

111. What is the expanded form of the term ‘mRNA’ that has been widely discussed since the beginning of the pandemic?

(A) Mutant Ribonucleic Acid

(B) Modified Ribonucleic Acid

(D) Messenger Ribonucleic Acid

Answer: (D) Messenger Ribonucleic Acid

Explanation: mRNA stands for Messenger Ribonucleic Acid.

112. An AC current can be produced by
(A) transformer
(B) dynamo
(C) choke coil
(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Explanation: A dynamo is a machine that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. It produces alternating current (AC) by rotating a coil of wire in a magnetic field. As the coil rotates, the magnetic field induces a voltage in the wire, which causes current to flow.

A transformer is a device that can be used to step up or step down voltage. It does not produce AC current, but it can be used to convert DC current to AC current.

A choke coil is a type of inductor that is used to block high-frequency AC current. It does not produce AC current.

113. Current density is

(A) dimensionless

(B) a vector quantity

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B) a vector quantity

Explanation: Current density is a vector quantity. It is defined as the rate of flow of electric charge per unit area. It is typically measured in amperes per square meter (A/m^2).

Current density is a useful quantity for understanding how electric current flows in a conductor. For example, it can be used to calculate the resistance of a conductor, or to design electrical devices such as transformers and generators.

114. What is the basis of the most useful classification of medications in medical chemistry?

(A) Chemical structure

(B) Molecular targets

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Molecular targets

Explanation: The basis of the most useful classification of medications in medical chemistry is molecular targets.

Molecular targets are the biological molecules that drugs interact with to produce their desired effects. These molecules can be proteins, enzymes, receptors, or other types of molecules.

115. Which of the following slows down the reaction rate?

(A) Heterogeneous catalyst

(B) Homogeneous catalyst

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Heterogeneous catalyst

Explanation: Heterogeneous catalysts are known to slow down the reaction rate compared to the absence of any catalyst or a homogeneous catalyst. This is because heterogeneous catalysts work by adsorbing reactant molecules onto their surfaces and providing an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy.

While they do accelerate the reaction once adsorption occurs, the initial adsorption step can sometimes slow down the overall reaction rate. This slowdown is particularly noticeable in cases where the adsorption of reactant molecules on the catalyst surface is relatively slow or requires more energy.

116. Input and output nerves meet at

(A) heart

(B) central nervous system

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) central nervous system

Explanation: Input and output nerves meet at the central nervous system. The CNS is made up of the brain and spinal cord. It is responsible for processing information from the senses and controlling the body’s responses.

117. Which of the following technologies will be enabled by the 5G mobile communication networks?

1. Internet of Things
2. Edge Computing
3. Network Slicing

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) Only 2 and 3
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 2

Answer: (C) Internet of Things

Explanation: 5G mobile communication networks will enable the following technologies:

Internet of Things (IoT): IoT is a network of physical objects that are embedded with sensors, software, and other technologies for the purpose of connecting and exchanging data with other devices and systems over the internet. 5G will enable the IoT by providing the high bandwidth, low latency, and massive connectivity required to support a large number of connected devices.
Edge computing: Edge computing is a distributed computing paradigm that brings computation and data storage closer to the sources of data, that is, to the “edge” of the network. This can improve performance and reduce latency for applications such as real-time video analytics and augmented reality.
Network slicing: Network slicing is a network virtualization technique that allows operators to create multiple virtual networks on top of a single physical network. This allows operators to customize the network to meet the specific needs of different applications, such as low latency for gaming or high bandwidth for video streaming.

118. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Space Mission)	List-II (Exploration)
a. Cassini-Huygens	1. Jupiter
b. Juno	2. Saturn and its rings
c. Artemis	3. Venus
d. VERITAS	4. Human Space-flight-Moon

(A) a3, b1, c4, d2

(B) a2, b3, c4, d1

(D) a2, b1, c4, d3

Answer: (D) a2, b1, c4, d3

Explanation: Juno mission is to study Jupiter’s gravity, magnetic field, and atmosphere. It is also studying Jupiter’s moon, Ganymede.

Cassini-Huygens was a joint mission of NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA), and the Italian Space Agency (ASI) to study the planet Saturn and its system, including its rings and natural satellites. The mission consisted of two spacecraft: the Cassini orbiter and the Huygens probe.

VERITAS stands for Venus Emissivity, Radio Science, InSAR, Topography, And Spectroscopy. It is an upcoming NASA mission to map the surface of Venus in high resolution using a variety of instruments, including a radar imager, a spectrometer, and a radiometer.

Artemis is a NASA-led program to return humans to the Moon and establish a sustainable presence there. The program also includes plans to explore and utilize lunar resources in preparation for future missions to Mars.

119. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Cloth)	List-II (Origin)
a. Linen	1. Coconut plant
b. Coir	2. Flax plant
c. Mohair	3. Feathers of duck and geese
d. Down	4. Angora goat

(A) a4, b3, c1, d2

(B) a2, b1, c4, d3

(D) a1, b3, c2, d4

Answer: (B) a2, b1, c4, d3

Explanation: The matches are as follows:

Linen – Flax plant
Coir – Coconut plant
Mohair – Angora goat
Down – Feathers of duck and geese

Description of each cloth and its origin:

Linen is a fabric made from the fibers of the flax plant. It is one of the oldest fabrics known to humans and has been used for thousands of years.
Coir is a natural fiber extracted from the husk of the coconut fruit. It is a durable and versatile fiber that is used to make a variety of products, including mats, ropes, and brushes.
Mohair is a type of wool that is obtained from the Angora goat. It is a soft and luxurious fiber that is used to make a variety of products, including sweaters, scarves, and blankets.
Down is a type of feather that is found under the feathers of ducks and geese. It is a very soft and warm fiber that is used to make a variety of products, including jackets, sleeping bags, and pillows.

120. Consider the following statements:

Taeniasis is an intestinal infection caused by three species of tapeworm – Taenia solium, Taenia saginata, and Taenia asiatica.
When cysts develop in the brain, the condition is referred to as neurocysticercosis (NCC).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) Both 1 and 2

(B) Only 2

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Both of the statements are correct.

Taeniasis is an intestinal infection caused by three species of tapeworm: Taenia solium, Taenia saginata, and Taenia asiatica. The tapeworms are acquired by eating undercooked or raw pork beef. Once ingested, the tapeworms attach to the intestinal wall and grow into adult worms. Adult tapeworms can produce thousands of eggs per day, which are passed in the stool.

Neurocysticercosis (NCC) is a condition that occurs when the larval cysts of Taenia solium develop in the brain. NCC can cause a variety of neurological symptoms, including seizures, headaches, and vision problems. NCC is the most common preventable cause of epilepsy worldwide.

121. What is the name of the deep-sea submersible that imploded during an underwater voyage to the Titanic wreckage?

(A) Falcon
(B) Trident
(C) Titan
(D) Alvin

Answer: (C) Titan

Explanation: The name of the deep-sea submersible that imploded during an underwater voyage to the Titanic wreckage is Titan.

The Titan was a submersible operated by American tourism and expeditions company OceanGate. It imploded on June 18, 2023, during an expedition to view the wreck of the Titanic in the North Atlantic Ocean off the coast of Newfoundland, Canada. All five people on board were killed.

122. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Footwear/Fashion Accessory)	List-II (Description)
a. Beret	1. A type of men’s footwear
b. Stilettos	2. A type of sunglasses
c. Aviators	3. A type of hat
d. Chignon	4. A type of women’s footwear
e. Brogue	5. A type of hairstyle

(A) a3, b4, c2, d5, e1

(B) a5, b3, c2, d4, e1

(D) a3, b2, c1, d4, e5

Answer: (A) a3, b4 ,c2, d5, e1

Explanation: The correct matching is as follows:
a. Beret – A type of hat
b. Stilettos – A type of women’s footwear
c. Aviators – A type of sunglasses
d. Chignon – A type of hairstyle
e. Brogue – A type of men’s footwear

123. Where did the former President of the USA give his interview recently?

(A) Sarajevo
(B) Athens
(C) Amsterdam
(D) Rome

Ans: (B) Athens

Explanation: The former President of the USA gave his interview recently in Athens.

124. In the context of sports, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Flushing Meadows: French Open
Venus Rosewater Dish : Wimbledon Trophy (Women)
Roland Garros: US Open
Australian Open (Women) : Daphne Akhurst Memorial Cup

Select the correct answer using the code:

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 2

Answer: (C) 2 and 4

Explanation: Flushing Meadows is the location of the US Open, not the French Open. Roland Garros is the location of the French Open, not the US Open.

125. The Ministry of Home Affairs has completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in field November 2022 with videography of the country’s how many languages?

(A) 233

(B) 576

(D) 40

Answer: (B) 576

Explanation: The Ministry of Home Affairs completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022, covering 576 languages.

126. Which State launched the Government Committee for State-Level Vulture Conservation (SLCVC), proposed by the national action for the protection of vultures in India?

(A) Sikkim

(B) Assam

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (D) Tamil Nadu

Explanation: The Tamil Nadu government launched the State-Level Committee for Vulture Conservation (SLCVC) in October 2022. The committee was formed in line with the national action for the protection of vultures in India, which was proposed after vulture populations declined by 96% between 1993 and 2003.

127. Ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoises (Manouria emys), one of the largest tortoise species in mainland Asia, were recently released into which National Park of India?

(A) Periyar National Park

(B) Pench National Park

(D) Ntangki National Park

Answer: (D) Ntangki National Park

Explanation: Ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoises (Manouria emys) were recently released into Intanki National Park in Nagaland, India. The release was part of a joint initiative by the Nagaland Forest Department, the Turtle Survival Alliance, and the Wildlife Conservation Society India.

128. Which country has recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India?

(A) Australia

(B) Germany

(D) USA

Answer: (D) USA

Explanation: The United States has recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India.

In July 2023, the US Senate Foreign Relations Committee passed a resolution that reaffirms US recognition of Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India. The resolution also condemns China’s attempts to change the status quo in the region.

129. India’s Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil won which medal in Men’s 10 m Air Rifle at the ISSF World Championship in Cairo?

(A) Bronze

(B) Silver

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Gold

Explanation: Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil of India won the Gold medal in Men’s 10 m Air Rifle at the ISSF World Championship in Cairo.

130. The National Education Policy, 2020 emphasizes the integration of vocational education into mainstream education from which grade onwards?

(A) Grade 8

(B) Grade 10

(D) Grade 6

Answer: (D) Grade 6

Explanation: The National Education Policy, 2020 emphasizes the integration of vocational education into mainstream education from Grade 6 onwards.

The NEP 2020 aims to create a holistic education system that prepares students for the future. It envisions a system where students have the opportunity to learn both academic and vocational skills.

131. India signed the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) with which country?

(A) Australia

(B) USA

(D) UAE

Answer: (A) Australia

Explanation: India signed the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) with Australia on April 2, 2022. The agreement came into force on December 29, 2022.

The ECTA is a comprehensive trade agreement that covers a wide range of goods and services. It is expected to boost bilateral trade between India and Australia by up to 30% in the next five years.

The ECTA is a significant development in the India-Australia relationship. It is a sign of the growing economic ties between the two countries and their shared commitment to free trade.

The ECTA is also a positive development for the global economy. It is a sign that countries are committed to working together to promote trade and economic growth.

132. The Plain Language Act was passed by which of the following countries recently, which requires Government officials to use simple and easily understandable English language in official documents and websites?

(A) Ireland

(B) New Zealand

(D) Australia

Answer: (B) New Zealand

Explanation: The Plain Language Act was passed by New Zealand in 2022. The Act requires government officials to use simple and easily understandable English language in official documents and websites.

The Act is intended to make government information more accessible to the public, especially those with limited English language proficiency. The Act also aims to improve the quality of government communication and to reduce the cost of government services.

133. Tillyardembi Fossils, the world’s first plant pollinators, called Tillyardembiids, were discovered recently in which country?

(A) India

(B) Russia

(D) Greece

Answer: (B) Russia

134. The ‘Lisbon Declaration,’ which made headlines, is associated with the conservation of which entity?

(A) Mountains

(B) Oceans

(D) Air

Answer: (B) Oceans

Explanation: The ‘Lisbon Declaration’ is associated with the conservation of oceans.

135. Which of the following animals was not known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilization?

(A) Elephant

(B) Horse

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Horse

Explanation: Horses were not known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilization.

136. Which of the following is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

(A) India Gate

(B) Red Fort

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) India Gate

Explanation: India Gate is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

137. The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of which country?

(A) Ireland

(B) Switzerland

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Ireland

Explanation: The concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland.

138. Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Union of India in

(A) 1976

(B) 1975

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) 1975

Explanation: Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Union of India in 1975.

139. Which among the following currencies is the costliest?

(A) US Dollar

(B) Pound Sterling

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Pound Sterling

Explanation: Pound Sterling is one of the costliest currencies.

140. Bihar Government has plans to make Bihar State ‘pollution-free’ by reducing carbon emissions by which year?

(A) 2024

(B) 2030

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation: The Bihar Government has plans to make Bihar State pollution-free by reducing carbon emissions by 2070.

141. In the context of ‘Shipwreck Tourism’, shipwrecks in Indian waters have been explored at Sunchi Reef, Amee Shoals, and Grande Island. Where are these locations?

(A) Off the coast of Lakshadweep

(B) Off the coast of Tamil Nadu

(D) Off the coast of Goa

Answer: (D) Off the coast of Goa

Explanation: These shipwrecks are located off the coast of Goa.

142. The G20 members represent

1. Around 85% of the global GDP

2. About 50% of the global trade

3. About two-thirds of the world population

Which of the above statistics is/are correct?

(A) Only 1 and 3

(B) 1, 2, and 3

(D) Only 1

Answer: (A) Only 1 and 3

Explanation: The G20 members represent around 85% of the global GDP, about two-thirds of the world population, and about 75% of the global trade.

Therefore, only statistics 1 and 3 are correct.

The G20 is a forum of the world’s major developed and emerging economies. It was founded in 1999 in response to the Asian financial crisis. The G20 plays an important role in shaping and strengthening the global architecture and governance on all major international economic issues.

143. Who is the Head of Russia’s Wagner Mercenary Group?

(A) Yevgeny Prigozhin

(B) Aleksandr Lukashenko

(D) Sergei Shoigu

Answer: (A) Yevgeny Prigozhin

Explanation: Yevgeny Prigozhin is the head of Russia’s Wagner Mercenary Group.

144. The Global Gender Gap Report is released by

(A) the UN Women

(B) the World Economic Forum

(D) the World Bank

Answer: (B) the World Economic Forum

Explanation: The Global Gender Gap Report is released by the World Economic Forum.

145. Which one of the following statements regarding Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom is correct?

(A) She reigned for 68 years and died at the age of 94 years.

(B) She reigned for 72 years and died at the age of 92 years.

(D) She reigned for 70 years and died at the age of 96 years.

Answer: (D) She reigned for 70 years and died at the age of 96 years.

Explanation: Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom reigned for 70 years and died at the age of 96 years.

She was born on April 21, 1926, and ascended to the throne on February 6, 1952, following the death of her father, King George VI. She was the longest-reigning British monarch and the longest-reigning verified female head of state in history.

Queen Elizabeth II died on September 8, 2022, at Balmoral Castle in Scotland. She was succeeded by her son, Charles III.

146. What was the theme of DefExpo-2022, held in Gujarat?

(A) Path to Pride

(B) Synergy for Defence

(D) India: The Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub

Answer: (A) Path to Pride

Explanation: The theme of DefExpo-2022, held in Gujarat, was Path to Pride.

The theme was chosen to reflect India’s commitment to achieving self-reliance in defence production and to becoming a global leader in the defence sector.

147. The three-day celebration of Thadingyut Festival is celebrated in which country?

(A) Nepal

(B) Germany

(D) Chile

Answer: (C) Myanmar

Explanation: Thadingyut Festival is celebrated in Myanmar. It is the second most popular festival in Myanmar, after the Thingyan Festival (New Year Water Festival). Thadingyut is celebrated on the full moon day of the Burmese lunar month of Thadingyut, which usually falls in October. The festival marks the end of the Buddhist sabbath (Vassa) and the return of the Buddha from heaven.

148. Consider the following statements regarding the White House:

1. The address of the White House is 1800 Pennsylvania Avenue.

2. It is the official residence and workplace of the President of USA.

3. On November 1, 1800, John Adams became the first President to take residence in the building.

4. It is a symbol of American Democracy.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) Only 2 and 3

(B) Only 3 and 4

(D) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: The White House is located at 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW in Washington, D.C., and has been the residence of every U.S. president since John Adams in 1800 when the national capital was moved from Philadelphia to Washington, D.C. The term “White House” is often used as metonymy for the president and his advisers.

149. ‘Net Metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting

(A) the installation of water meters in urban households

(B) a billing mechanism for solar energy by consumers for the electricity they add to the grid

(D) the installation of CNG kits in motorcars

Answer: (B) a billing mechanism for solar energy by consumers for the electricity they add to the grid

Explanation: Net metering allows consumers with solar panels to earn credits on their electricity bills for the excess electricity they generate and feed back into the grid.

150. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Colour)	List-II (Combination)
a. Magenta	1. Green and blue
b. Teal	2. Red and blue
c. Mauve	3. Blue, green, and white
d. Cyan	4. Blue, red, and white

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) a2 b4 c3 d1

(B) a4 b2 c1 d3

(D) a2 b3 c4 d1

Answer: (D) a2 b3 c4 d1

Explanation:

Magenta: Red and blue
Teal: Green and blue
Mauve: Blue, green, and white
Cyan: Blue and Green

BPSC 69th Exam Answer Key

Licchavi Lyceum