Licchavi Lyceum


Licchavi Lyceum

BPSC 53 to 55th Solved Paper

1. In which country is the ‘Takla Makan’ desert situated? 

 (A) Kazakhstan 

 (B) Turkmenistan 

 (C) Uzbekistan 

 (D) China

Ans: (D)

Solution: The Taklamakan Desert is a desert in Southwestern Xinjiang in Northwest China. It is bounded by the Kunlun Mountains to the south, the Pamir Mountains to the west, the Tian Shan range to the north, and the Gobi Desert to the east.

Takla Makaan
Takla Makan

2. Which strait connects the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean?  

 (A) Bab-el-Mandeb 

 (B) Hormuz 

 (C) Bosporus 

 (D) Malacca

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Bab el-Mandeb Strait is a sea route chokepoint between the Horn of Africa and the Middle East, connecting the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden and the Arabian Sea.

Bab el Mandeb
Bab el Mandeb

The Strait of Hormuz is a strait between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. It provides the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean and is one of the world’s most strategically important choke points.

Strait of Hormuz

The Bosporus Strait is a natural strait and an internationally significant waterway located in Istanbul in northwestern Turkey. It forms part of the continental boundary between Asia and Europe.

Bosporus Strait
Bosporus Strait

The Strait of Malacca connects the Andaman Sea (Indian Ocean) and the South China Sea (Pacific Ocean). It runs between the Indonesian island of Sumatra and Malaysia.

Malacca Strait
Malacca Strait 

3. Where is ‘Ninety East Ridge’ situated? 

 (A) Pacific Ocean 

 (B) Indian Ocean 

 (C) Atlantic Ocean 

 (D) Arctic Ocean

Ans: (B)

Solution: This landform is located near the spot where a parallel strike along the 90th meridian at the center of the Eastern Hemisphere. This is one of the important relief features of the Indian Ocean because it divides the Indian Ocean into the West and East Indian Oceans.

Ninety East Ridge
Ninety East Ridge

4. Which of the following is not a capital city? 

 (A) Canberra 

 (B) Sydney 

 (C) Wellington 

 (D) Riyadh

Ans: (B)

Solution: Sydney is one of Australia’s largest cities, but it is not a capital city.

  • Canberra is the capital of Australia.
  • Wellington is the capital of New Zealand.
  • Riyadh is the capital of Saudi Arabia.

5. The highest coal-producing country in the world is 

 (A) India 

 (B) USA 

 (C) China 

 (D) Russia

Ans: (C)

Solution: China, India, USA, Australia, and Indonesia make up the five leading coal-producing countries in the world.

6. Folding is the result of 

 (A) Epeirogenetic force 

 (8) Coriolis force 

 (C) Orogenetic force 

 (D) Exogenetic force

Ans: (C)

Solution: Folding is the result of orogenetic force. Orogeny is a mountain-building process. Orogenic processes involve severe folding and affect long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust.

7. Amritsar and Shimla are almost on the same latitude, but their climate difference is due to 

 (A) the difference in their altitudes 

 (B) their distance from the sea 

 (C) snowfall in Shimla 

 (D) pollution in Amritsar

Ans: (A)

Solution: The factors that are considered to affect the climatic conditions are- Latitude, Altitude, Pressure, Winds, etc. 

Although both Shimla and Amritsar are located at the same latitude, however, Shimla has a higher altitude compared to Amritsar.

8. Coal mines in Jharkhand are located at 

 (A) Jharia 

 (B) Jamshedpur 

 (C) Ranchi 

 (D) Lohardaga

Ans: (A)

Solution: Jharia Coalfield is a large coal field located in the east of India in Jharia, Jharkhand. Jharia is the largest coal reserve in India.

9. The major source of oceanic salinity is 

 (A) rivers 

 (B) land 

 (C) wind 

 (D) ash from volcanoes

Ans: (A)

Solution: Ocean salt primarily comes from the salt of rocks carried by the river.

The two ions that are present most often in seawater are chloride and sodium. These two make up over 90% of all dissolved ions in seawater. The concentration of salt in seawater (its salinity) is about 35 parts per thousand. 

10. The large States of India in the order of area are 

 (A) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra 

 (B) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra 

 (C) Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh 

 (D) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan

Ans: (A)

Solution: Rajasthan (342,239 sq km) is the largest state in India in terms of area. Rajasthan accounts for 10.4 percent of the total country’s area. Rajasthan is followed by Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra having areas of more than 3 lakh sq km. Madhya Pradesh is larger than Maharashtra by a narrow margin of 532 sq km.

11. Bihar is the —– largest State of India according to Census 2001. 

 (A) second 

 (B) third 

 (C) fourth 

 (D) fifth

Ans: (B)

Solution: The most populous states in India are:

  1. Uttar Pradesh: 199,812,341
  2. Maharashtra: 112,374,333
  3. Bihar: 104,099,452
  4. West Bengal: 91,276,115

12. The highest wheat-producing State of India is 

(A) Haryana 

 (B) Punjab 

 (C) Bihar 

 (D) Uttar Pradesh

Ans: (D)

Solution: Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India. Uttar Pradesh contributed 32.42% of the total wheat production in India. 

Wheat Producing Regions of India
Wheat Producing Regions of India

13. TISCO plant is located near 

 (A) Patna 

 (B) Darbhanga 

 (C) Dhanbad 

 (D) Tatanagar

Ans: (D)

Solution: TISCO is located in Jamshedpur, Jharkhand.

14. Which States in India are the largest producers of sugarcane? 

 (A) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh 

 (B) Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan 

 (C) Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir 

 (D) Punjab and Himachal Pradesh

Ans: (A)

Solution: Sugarcane is a tropical crop grown in India along with many other countries. India ranks second in the production of sugarcane. In India, Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of sugarcane.

Note: Brazil is the leading producer of Sugar in the world.

15. Which of the following States has the largest number of people belonging to Scheduled Caste? 

 (A) Bihar 

 (B) West Bengal 

 (C) Uttar Pradesh 

 (D) Punja

Ans: (C)

Solution: Uttar Pradesh has the largest Scheduled Caste population, followed by West Bengal and Bihar.

16. According to the 2001 Census, what is the total population of Bihar? 

 (A) 82998509 

 (B) 76210007 

 (C) 96878627 

 (D) 80176197

Ans: (A)

Solution: According to the census of 2001, the total population of Bihar was 82998509. According to the census of 2011, the total population of Bihar was 103804637. The total population growth in this decade was 25.42 percent. 

17. The East Central Railway zone headquarters is located at 

 (A) Patna 

 (B) Hajipur 

 (C) Muzaffarpur 

 (D) Katihar

Ans: (B)

Solution: Hajipur is the HQ of the East Central Railway zone.

18. Where is the Industries Commissioner Office of Bihar situated? 

 (A) Patna 

 (B) Gaya 

 (C) Hajipur 

 (D) Muzaffarpur

Ans: (A)

Solution: The office of the Commissioner of Industries of Bihar is located in Patna. 

19. North Bihar is famous for 

 (A) agricultural prosperity 

 (B) heavy industries 

 (C) flood 

 (D) famine

Ans: (C)

Solution: North Bihar districts are vulnerable to at least five major flood-causing rivers during monsoon – Mahananda River, Koshi River, Bagmati River, Burhi Gandak River, and Gandak – which originate in Nepal.

20. Which one is not located on National Highway-2 (NH-2)? 

 (A) Aurangabad 

 (B) Sasaram 

 (C) Mohania 

 (D) Patna

Ans: (D)

Solution: Old National Highway 2 or Old NH 2, was a major National Highway in India, that connected the states of Delhi, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. It constitutes a major portion of the historical Grand Trunk Road along. It does not pass through Patna.

21. Congress passed the ‘Swaraj’ resolution in the year 1905. The purpose of the resolution was 

 (A) right to make a constitution for themselves but it was not done 

 (B) to secure self-rule 

 (C) responsible government 

 (D) self-government

Ans: (D)

Solution: In the Calcutta session of 1906, under the leadership of Dadabhai Naoroji, Congress adopted Swaraj as the Goal of the Indian people. At this session, resolutions on the partition of Bengal, Self-Government (Swaraj), Swadeshi, national education, and boycotts were passed.

22. The Provinces were constituted under the Act of 

 (A) 1935 

 (B) 1932 

 (C) 1936 

 (D) 1947

Ans: (A)

Solution:  The Government of India Act, of 1935 provided for a federal framework for government. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.

23. The Indian Constitution comprises of 

 (A) 395 Articles, 22 Parts, and 12 Schedules 

 (B) 371 Articles, 21 Parts, and 11 Schedules 

 (C) 372 Articles, 20 Parts, and 7 Schedules 

 (D) 381 Articles, 23 Parts, and 8 Schedules

Ans: (A)

Solution: At its enactment, it had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules. At present, the Indian Constitution is divided into 25 parts and 12 schedules.

24. The Rajya Sabha consists of 

 (A) 280 members of which 20 members are nominated by the President of India 

 (B) 275 members of which 18 members are nominated by the President of India 

 (C) 250 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India 

 (D) 252 members of which 12 members are nominated by the President of India

Ans: (C)

Solution: Membership of the Rajya Sabha is limited by the Constitution to a maximum of 250 members, and current laws have provisions for 245 members. 12 members are nominated by the President.

25. January 26 was selected as the date for the inauguration of the Constitution, because  

 (A) the Congress observed it as Independence Day in 1930 

 (B) on that day the Quit India Movement was started in 1942 

 (C) it was considered to be an auspicious day 

 (D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: 26 January was chosen as the date for this occasion because this was the day in 1930 when the Indian National Congress had demanded Complete Independence or Purna Swaraj

26. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to 

 (A) the Comptroller and Auditor General 

 (B) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha 

 (C) the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs 

 (D) the President of India

Ans: (B)

Solution: Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the Lok Sabha Speaker. Public Accounts Committee’s main function is to examine the audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) and submits its report to the parliament.

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India submit the annual audit reports before the President who lays them before each house of the Indian Parliament. These reports are examined by the Public Accounts Committee (PAC)

Who appoints the chairman of the PAC?

The Chairman of the committee is appointed by the speaker. The chairman is chosen from Lok Sabha.

27. Of the following statements, which one is not correct? 

 (A) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in money matter 

 (B) Money Bills originate in the Rajya Sabha 

 (C) The Rajya Sabha has to pass Bills within 14 days after they are passed by the Lok Sabha 

 (D) The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the Money Bill with some recommendations to the Lok Sabha

Ans: (B)

Solution: Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha.

Who decided whether a bill is a Money Bill?

Whether or not a bill is a money bill is finally decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money-related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by 14 days or suggest changes to it.

28. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens? 

 (A) Right to constitutional remedies 

 (B) Freedom of speech 

 (C) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country 

 (D) Freedom to acquire property

Ans: (A)

Solution: Right to constitutional remedies: A person can move to the Supreme Court if he wants to get their fundamental rights protected. This right comes under Article 32 for the Supreme Court and Article 226 for the high court. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.

29. Who is the head of the National Defence Committee? 

 (A) Home Minister 

 (B) Prime Minister 

 (C) President 

 (D) Vice-President

Ans: (A)

Solution: The home Minister is the chairman of the National Defence Committee.

30. ‘National Emergency’ may be declared by the President of India in line with 

 (A) Article 352 

 (B) Article 370 

 (C) Article 371 

 (D) Article 395

Ans: (A)

Solution: Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression, or armed rebellion. 

31. Of the following statements, which one is not correct? 

 (A) Supreme Court was constituted in 1950 

 (B) Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the country 

 (C) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/Tribunal except Court-martial 

 (D) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/ Tribunals as well as from Court-martial

Ans: (D)

Solution: The Supreme Court has held that an order convening a General Court Martial can be challenged before an Armed Forces Tribunal.

Note: Even the Supreme Court cannot sit in appeal over decisions of any court or tribunal related to the armed forces. However, high courts and the Supreme Court have the power of judicial review over court martial proceedings if these have resulted in the denial of fundamental rights.

32. Who is the constitutional head of the State Governments? 

 (A) Chief Minister 

 (B) Governor 

 (C) Speaker 

 (D) High Court Judge

Ans: (B)

Solution: According to the constitution of India, the executive power of the State shall be vested in the Governor and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution of India (Article 154). He is the constitutional head of the state.

33. Commercial sources of energy purely consist of 

 (A) power, coal, oil, gas, hydro-electricity, and uranium 

 (B) coal, oil, firewood, vegetable waste, and agricultural waste 

 (C) power, coal, animal dung, and firewood 

 (D) coal, gas, oil, and firewood

Ans: (A)

Solution: The most commercialized forms of commercial energy sources are electricity, coal, and advanced petroleum products. They are used for electricity generation on the basis of industrial, agricultural, transportation, and commercial development of the different countries of the modern world.

34. In India, per capita consumption of energy in 1994 was:  

 (A) 300 kg of oil equivalent 

 (B) 360 kg of oil equivalent 

 (C) 243 kg of oil equivalent 

 (D) 343 kg of oil equivalent

Ans: (A)

Solution: The energy consumption per capita is when the total energy consumption is divided by the total population.

35. When did the first oil crisis/ energy crisis occur in India? 

 (A) During the 1950s and 1960’s 

 (B) During the 1930s and 1940’s

 (C) During the 1990s and 2000’s 

 (D) During the 1970s and 1980’s

Ans: (D)

Solution: This in fact was responsible for the first oil shock of 1973 as demand soared and supply did not keep up.

36. Consider the following reasons for the financial sickness of State Electricity Boards (SEBs) in India:
I. Sale of Power to agricultural and domestic consumers below the cost of production.
II. Transmission and Distribution Losses are very high
III. Lack of commercial autonomy for SEBs.
IV. State Governments have implemented social subsidy policies through SEBs.

Select the correct statements. 

 (A) I, II and III 

 (B) I, II, III and IV 

 (C) I, III and IV 

 (D) II, III and IV

Ans: (D)

Solution: The key reasons for the losses include Power theft, inefficiency in the collection of payments, leakage in transmission, and lack of investment in upgrading the transmission infrastructure. Due to these problems, most state electricity boards have become unviable and unprofitable.

37. Which type of economy does India have? 

 (A) Socialist 

 (B) Gandhian 

 (C) Mixed 

 (D) Free

Ans: (C)

Solution: India has a mixed economy, therefore, public, as well as private entities co-exist. This is the result of adapting the industrial policies in 1948 and later in 1956.

38. When was ‘Speed Post Service’ launched by the Indian Postal Department as competition to the ‘Courier Service’? 

 (A) 1988 

 (B) 1987 

 (C) 1989 

 (D) 1986

Ans: (D)

Solution: Speed Post is a high-speed postal service provided by India Post. It was started in 1986, it offers fast delivery of parcels, letters, cards, documents, and other important stuff.

39. We witnessed the first telephones in India in which year? 

 (A) 1951 

 (B) 1981 

 (C) 1851 

 (D) 1861

Ans: (*)

Solution: The telephone was first invented in 1876 by Alexander Graham Bell. Within seven years of its invention, i.e. in early1881, Oriental Telephone Company Limited of England opened telephone exchanges at Calcutta (Kolkata), Bombay (Mumbai), Madras (Chennai), and Ahmedabad. On the 28th of January 1882, the first formal telephone service was established with a total of 93 subscribers.

In fact, none of the mentioned options was correct.

40. Consider the following problems being faced by the Indian Coal Industry:
I. Poor quality of coal and bottlenecks in the coal movement.
II. Low utilization capacity of washeries.
III. Growing dependence on the import of cooking coal.
IV. Administered prices

Which of the above is correct? 

 (A) II, III and IV 

 (B) I, II, III and IV 

 (C) I, III and IV 

 (D) I, II and III

Ans: (B)


Statement 1: Correct,  A large part of the Indian coal reserve is similar to Gondwana coal. It is of low calorific value and high ash content. The carbon content is low in India’s coal.

Statement 2: Correct, This poor capacity of coal washeries utilization can be attributed to old plant machinery and obsolete washing circuit in most of the existing washeries.

Statement 3: Correct, India has the world’s 4th largest coal reserves and we are the third top coal producer worldwide.

India imports coal to meet the demand for electricity, cement, and steel production. Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country. Steel companies need large quantities of cooking coal which has to be imported.

Statement 4: Correct, the grading system, based on total energy content per kilogram, remains but the price is also influenced by administrative decisions. 

41. Name the committee which was set up by the NDC in 1957 for the reorganization of CDP and NES, which suggested a three-tier system of rural local government 

 (A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee 

 (B) Ashok Mehta Committee 

 (C) Maharashtra Committee on Democratic Decentralisation 

 (D) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee

Ans: (A)

Solution: Balwant rai Mehta committee suggested the establishment of a democratic decentralized local government which came to be known as the Panchayati Raj. Recommendations by the Committee were to establish a three-tier Panchayati Raj system having Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad.

42. Ashok Mehta recommended 

 (A) three-tier government of Panchayati Raj Committee 

 (B) two-tier government of Panchayati Raj 

 (C) single-tier government of Panchayati Raj 

 (D) multiple-tier government of Panchayati Raj

Ans: (B)

Solution: In December 1977, the Janata party Government appointed a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions under the chairmanship of Ashoka Mehta. The committee submitted its report in August 1978 and made recommendations to revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj system in the country.

It recommended a two-tier system of Panchayati Raj.

43. Consider the following about the Rolling Plan:
I. A plan for the current year which includes the annual budget,
II. A plan for a fixed number of years, say 3, 4, or 5
III. It is revised every year as per the requirements of the economy,
IV. A perspective plan for 10, 15, or 20 years

Which of the above is/are correct? 

 (A) I and II 

 (B) I and III 

 (C) II and III 

 (D) I, II, III and IV

Ans: (D)

Solution: The term “rolling planning” describes a form of planning in which the planning already done is reviewed and, if necessary, updated after certain time intervals throughout the year. In other words, corporate management is adjusted to current conditions during the year.

Rolling Plan was the sixth five-year plan introduced by the Janata Government for the time period 1978-83, after removing the fifth five-year plan in 1977-78.

44. In which year was the ‘Planning Commission’ set up in India? 

 (A) 1950 

 (B) 1947 

 (C) 1948 

 (D) 1951

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Planning Commission was constituted in March 1950 by a Resolution of the Government of India, and works under the overall guidance of the National Development Council till 2014.

In his first Independence Day speech in 2014, Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced his intention to dissolve the Planning Commission.

45. Patna International Airport is directly connected with 

 (A) Kathmandu (Nepal), New Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Lucknow, Varanasi, and Ranchi 

 (B) Bengaluru, Hyderabad, and Dhaka 

 (C) Islamabad, Dhaka, and Bengaluru 

 (D) Washington, Dhaka, and Chennai

Ans: (A)

Solution: There are 7 airlines flying from Patna to 16 airports around the world. New Delhi, Bengaluru, and Mumbai are the 3 most popular routes from Patna.

46. In Bihar, air services are provided by 

 (A) only Indian Airlines 

 (B) only Sahara Airlines 

 (C) only Royal Nepal Airlines 

 (D) Indian Airlines, Sahara Airlines, and Royal Nepal Airlines

Ans: (D)

Solution: Currently there are 7 airlines operating in Bihar.

47. For Bihar, in 1993-94, the Planning Commission estimated that the percentage of below the poverty line (BPL) was 

 (A) 55 

 (B) 65 

 (C) 45 

 (D) 35

Ans: (D)

Solution: 51.91 percent of the population of Bihar is poor. Whereas Kerala is the least poor state in the country, only 0.71 percent of its population is poor.

48. In Bihar, though ‘Zamindari’ was statutorily abolished In 1952, the social base of land control remained in the grip of 

 (A) Middle Caste Hindus 

 (B) Scheduled Caste Hindus 

 (C) Dominant Caste Hindus 

 (D) Scheduled Tribe Hindus

Ans: (C)

Solution: Being traditional landlords and one of the early literate castes, the Hindu Upper Caste have ownership of a major chunk of land in Bihar.

49. Bihar State (before separation) had how many ‘Industrial Area Development Authorities’? 

 (A) Six, viz., Adityapur, Bokaro, Patna, Ranchi, Darbhanga and Muzaffarpur 

 (B) Five, viz., Adityapur, Bokaro, Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur and Patna 

 (c) Seven, viz., Adityapur, Darbhanga, Ranchi and Bokaro, Patna, Muzaffarpur, Bhojpur 

 (d) Four, viz., Adityapur, Bhojpur and Muzaffarpur, Khagaria

Ans: (A)

Solution: BIADA was constituted under the statutory provisions of the Bihar Industrial Area Development Act, 1974 to provide for the planned development of Industrial Areas, promotion of industries, and matters appurtenant thereto.

50. In Bihar, name the scheme which aims at building up infrastructural facilities of a high standard, required for the establishment of ‘Export oriented Units’ 

 (A) Integrated Infrastructural Development (IID) 

 (B) Export Promotion Industrial Park (EPIP) 

 (C) Concept of Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) 

 (D) Software/Hardware Technology Park (STP /HTP)

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Export Promotion Industrial Park, also known as EPIP, is a multiple-product export processing zone in Bihar and East India developed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the Government of Bihar, and by the administrative body BIADA.

#51. “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.” Who said?


 (A) M. K. Gandhi


 (B) Jawaharlal Nehru


 (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak


 (D) Bhagat Singh

Ans: (C)

Solution: Bal Gangadhar Tilak gave the slogan Swaraj is my birthright in 1916.

#52. The Madras Mahajan Sabha was established in the year


 (A) 1880


 (B) 1881


 (C) 1882


 (D) 1883

Ans: (D)

Solution: Madras Mahajan sabha was formed in 1884. Madras Mahajana Sabha was considered to be a unique organization which has paved the way for India’s national freedom by the South Indians. Thus the Sabha has voiced out the fundamental rights of Indians such as national freedom and other common social issues for the welfare of our fellowmen since 1884.

#53. How many representatives took part in the First Session of the Indian National Congress?


 (A) 52


 (B) 62


 (C) 72


 (D) 82

Ans: (C)

Solution: Womesh Chandra Banerjee was the first president of Congress, the first session was attended by 72 delegates, representing each province of India.

#54. The first Indian Governor General of Independent India was


 (A) Raja Gopalachari


 (B) Surinder Nath


 (C) Rajendra Prasad


 (D) B. R. Ambedkar

Ans: (A)

Solution: Shri Chakravarty Rajagopalachari was the first Indian Governor after independence. He continued till the Indian Constitution had been enacted (1950).

#55. When was the National Council of Education established?


 (A) 15th August, 1903


 (B) 15th August, 1904


 (C) 15th August, 1905


 (D) 15th August, 1906

Ans: (D)

Solution: The National Council of Education was an organization founded by Satish Chandra Mukherjee and other Indian nationalists in Bengal in 1906 to promote science and technology as part of a swadeshi industrialization movement.

#56. The Non-Cooperation Movement was started in


 (A) 1918


 (B) 1920


 (C) 1921


 (D) 1922

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Non-cooperation movement was a political campaign launched on 4 September 1920, by Mahatma Gandhi. The aim was to have Indians revoke their cooperation with the British government, with the aim of inducing the British to grant self-governance.

#57. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of


 (A) the Indian Independence Act, 1947


 (B) the Indian Councils Act, 1909


 (C) the Government of India Act, 1919


 (D) the Government of India Act, 1935

Ans: (C)

Solution: The reforms take their name from Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of State for India from 1917 to 1922, and Lord Chelmsford, the Viceroy of India between 1916 and 1921.

The reforms were outlined in the Montagu-Chelmsford Report, prepared in 1918, and formed the basis of the Government of India Act 1919.

#58. Who is popularly known as ‘Sher-e-Punjab’?


 (A) Rajguru


 (B) Bhagat Singh


 (C) Lala Lajpat Rai


 (D) Udham Singh

Ans: (C)

Solution: Lala Lajpat Rai was popularly known as “Punjab Kesari” or “Sher-e-Punjab”.

#59. Gandhi-Irwin Pact took place in


 (A) 1930


 (B) 1931


 (C) 1932


 (D) 1933

Ans: (B)

Solution: Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on March 5, 1931, between Mohandas K. Gandhi and Lord Irwin. It was signed before the second Round Table Conference in London. 

#60. Which Round Table Conference held in 1932?


 (A) First


 (B) Second


 (C) Third


 (D) Fourth

Ans: (C)

Solution: The three Round Table Conferences of 1930–1932 were a series of peace conferences organized by the British Government and Indian political personalities to discuss constitutional reforms in India. These started in November 1930 and ended in December 1932.

All three round table conferences were attended by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Tej Bahadur Sapru.

#61. Who is associated with ‘Abhinav Bharat’?


 (A) V. D. Savarkar


 (B) C. R. Das


 (C) B. G. Tilak


 (D) S. C. Bose

Ans: (A)

Solution: Abhinav Bharat Society was an Indian Independence secret society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in 1904.

#62. ‘Do or Die’ is associated with the following movement


 (A) Dandi


 (B) Non-Cooperation


 (C) Khilafat


 (D) Quit India

Ans: (D)

Solution: It was the famous ‘Do or Die’ speech that launched the Quit India movement, or the Bharat Chhodo Andolan – the last major civil disobedience movement organized before India became a sovereign nation in 1947.

#63. With whose efforts was Second Bihar Provincial Congress Session held?


 (A) G. K. Gokhale


 (B) Shri Deepnarayan Singh


 (C) Shri Krishna


 (D) Surendranath Banerjee

Ans: (B)

Solution: The efforts of Deepnarayan Singh led to the second session of the Bihar Provincial Congress. He was an Indian politician, a Participant in the Indian Independence Movement, and a former Chief Minister of Bihar.

#64. At which place was the 27th Session of the Indian National Congress held?


 (A) Bhagalpur


 (B) Patna


 (C) Ranchi


 (D) Bankipur

Ans: (B)

Solution: The 27th session of the Indian National Congress was held at Bankipore (Patna) in 1912. This session was presided over by Shri Raghunath Narasinha Mudholkar.

#65. The 16th Session of Bihari Students’ Conference at Hazaribag took place in


 (A) 1921


 (B) 1922


 (C) 1923


 (D) 1924

Ans: (A)

Solution: The 16th session of the Bihar Students Conference was held at Hazaribag in 1921.

#66. The editor of ‘Bihari’, a leading newspaper of Bihar, was


 (A) Babu G. Prasad


 (B) Babu Ram Prasad


 (C) Babu Gopal Prasad


 (D) Babu Maheshwar Prasad

Ans: (D)

Solution: In the year 1906, Bihar Times was renamed Bihari. Babu Maheshwar Prasad was the editor of Bihari.

#67. Raj Kumar Shukla was resident of the village


 (A) Murli Bharhawa


 (B) Murli Bheet


 (C) Murli Dheer


 (D) Murli Kher

Ans: (A)

Solution: Rajkumar Shukla was a resident of Murali Bharwaha village in Champaran, Bihar.

Raj Kumar Shukla was the person who convinced Mahatma Gandhi to visit Champaran which later led to the Champaran Satyagraha.

#68. Shri Nivaranchandra Dasgupta belonged to


 (A) Patna


 (B) Purulia


 (C) Hazipur


 (D) Meenapur

Ans: (B)

Solution: Nibaran Chandra Dasgupta was the Head Master of Purulia Zilla (District) School. He was also the honorary District Magistrate of Purulia.

#69. Kunwar Singh was the King of


 (A) Hamirpur


 (B) Dheerpur


 (C) Jagdishpur


 (D) Rampur

Ans: (C)

Solution: Kunwar Singh was the organizer of the fight against the British in Bihar. He led the Indian Rebellion of 1857 in Jagdishpur, Bihar.

#70. Lord Sinha had resigned in 1921 from the post of Governor of


 (A) Bihar-Orissa


 (B) Bengal


 (C) Punjab


 (D) Madras

Ans: (A)

Solution: Lord Sinha was the first Indian to be appointed Governor of Bihar and Orissa province in 1920AD. In 1921, he resigned because of poor health.

#71. The value of x – [y – {z – (x – Complement (y) – Complement (z))}j is


 (A) x+ y+z


 (B) x – y – z


 (C) 1


 (D) 0

#72. If the function f(x) = log x then the value of f(x) + f(y) is


 (A) f (xy)


 (B) f (x+ y)


 (C) f (x/y)


 (d) f (y/x)

Ans: (A)

#73. The median of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16 is


 (A) 8


 (B) 9


 (C) 10


 (D) 11

Ans: (B)

#74. The inverse of the matrix is









Ans: (C)

#75. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 12 cm. Then the area swept by the minute hand in one minute will be


 (A) 22.12 cm2


 (B) 23.10 cm2


 (C) 24.12 cm2


 (D) None of the above

Ans: (D)

#76. A player completes 2200-metre race in any circular path with 7 revolutions. Then the radius of the circular path is


 (A) 30 metres


 (B) 40 metres


 (C) 50 metres


 (D) 60 metres

#77. The coordinates of the mid- point on joining the points P (4, 6) and Q (- 4, 8) will be


 (A) (2, 7)


 (B) (7, 2)


 (C) (7, 0)


 (D) (0, 7)

Ans: (D)

#78. The solution of the differential equation


  1. A) y = C eX + C e2x + ~e5x 1 2 12


  1. B) Y = C e-x + C e2x + ~e5X 1 2 12


  1. C) y = C eX + C e-2x + ~ e5x 1 2 12

Ans: (A)

#79. In triangle PQR if angle P = 120 Degree and PQ = PR, then angle Q and angle R will be respectively


 (A) 60°, 30°


 (B) 30°, 40°


 (C) 30°, 30°


 (D) 20°, 40°

Ans: (C)

#80. The value of









Ans: (B)

#81. The visible range of solar radiation is


 (A) 100-400 nm


 (B) 400-700 nm


 (C) 740-10000 nm


 (D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The visible range of spectrum is 400 to 700 nm.

#82. Plants which grow on saline soils are


 (A) xerophytes


 (B) hydrophytes


 (C) halophytes


 (D) succulents

Ans: (C)

Solution: Plants growing in saline soil/high concentration of salts are halophytes.

#83. Environment is a composite state of


 (A) biotic factors


 (B) physiographic factors


 (C) abiotic factors


 (D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Environment is composed by three factors namely biotic, abiotic and physical factors.  

#84. Water is conducted in vascular plants by


 (A) phloem tissue


 (B) parenchyma tissue


 (C) meristems


 (D) xylem tissue

Ans: (D)

Solution: xylem, plant vascular tissue that conveys water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant and also provides physical support. Xylem tissue consists of a variety of specialized, water-conducting cells known as tracheary elements.


#85. Which component of plants receives stimulus for flowering?


 (A) Stems


 (B) Branches


 (C) Leaves


 (D) Roots

Ans: (C)

Solution: Leaves are component of plants receives stimulus for flowering.

#86. Minerals are


 (A) liquids


 (B) inorganic solids


 (C) gases


 (D) All of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: A mineral is a naturally occurring inorganic substance which has a definite chemical composition. Most minerals are solid, but some ‘minerals’ such as native mercury are normally liquid in their natural state. 

#87. Development of the natural systems is described as


 (A) function of the systems


 (B) evolution of the systems


 (C) self-sustained process of the systems


 (D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Development of the natural systems is self-sustained process , in which organism nourishes itself rather than relying on another organism.

#88. Genetics deals with


 (A) Mendel’s laws


 (B) organic evolution


 (C) DNA structure


 (D) heredity and variations

Ans: (C)

Solution: Genetics is a branch of biology concerned with the study of genes, genetic variation, and heredity in organisms.

#89. Mendel’s principles of inheritance are based on


 (A) vegetative reproduction


 (B) asexual reproduction


 (C) sexual reproduction


 (D) All of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The key principles of Mendelian inheritance are summed up by Mendel’s three laws: the Law of Independent Assortment, Law of Dominance, and Law of Segregation. The basis is sexual reproduction. 

#90. Embryo is found in


 (A) flowers


 (B) leaves


 (C) seeds


 (D) buds

Ans: (C)

Solution: Most seeds consist of three parts: embryo, endosperm, and seed coat.

#91. What soil particles are present in loamy soils?


 (A) Sand particles


 (B) Clay particles


 (C) Silt particles


 (D) All types of particles

Ans: (D)

Solution: A loamy soil is one that combines all three of these types of particles in relatively equal amounts viz Silt, sand and Clay. 

#92. A single type of atom is found in


 (A) compounds of minerals


 (B) mixture of minerals


 (C) native elements


 (D) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: A single type of atom is found in native element. An element is made up of one type of atom only and cannot be split further. A compound has the combined properties of the elements from which it is made.

#93. Soil water available to plants is maximum in


 (A) clayey soil


 (B) silty soil


 (C) sandy soil


 (D) loamy soil

Ans: (A)

Solution:  clay soils have the largest pore space, hence the greatest total water holding capacity.

Sand has the lowest water holding capacity because they have coarse particles that leave a huge gap between the particles. Thus, a large amount of water and nutrients easily escape from the soil and cannot be retained within the sand.

#94. Capillaries are most effective in


 (A) clayey soil


 (8) silty soil


 (C) sandy soil


 (D) loamy soil

Ans: (A)

Solution: Capillarity depends on the size of the spaces between soil particles. The smaller the spaces, the higher the water rises in the soil. This means that clay soil allows water to rise highest compared to Sand soil and Loam soil.

#95. Photosynthesis occurs in


 (A) nucleus


 (B) mitochondria


 (C) chloroplast


 (D) peroxisome

Ans: (C)

Solution: In plants and algae, photosynthesis occurs in chloroplast. Chloroplasts perform photosynthesis during the daylight hours.

#96. Continents have drifted apart because of


 (A) volcanic eruptions


 (B) tectonic activities


 (C) folding and faulting of rocks


 (D) All of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The movement of continents resulted from the motion of tectonic plates.

#97. Which of the following do not belong to solar system?


 (A) Asteroids


 (B) Comets


 (C) Planets


 (D) Nebulae

Ans: (D)

Solution: A nebula is an enormous cloud of dust and gas occupying the space between stars and acting as a nursery for new stars. This sis not a part of solar system.

#98. Table salt (NaCI) is a product of


 (A) weak acid and weak base


 (B) strong acid and strong base


 (C) weak acid and strong base


 (D) strong acid and weak base

Ans: (B)

Solution: Common ‘table salt’ is sodium chloride (NaCl), it is made by by the reaction of Strong acid and strong base.

#99. Sexual reproduction causes genetic variation because of


 (A) blending of genes


 (B) chromosomal changes


 (C) Shuffling of genes


 (D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Sexual reproduction has the potential to produce tremendous genetic variation in offspring. This variation is due to independent assortment and crossing-over during meiosis, and random union of gametes during fertilization.

#100. Average salinity of water of Arabian Sea is


 (A) 25 ppt


 (B) 35 ppt


 (C) 45 ppt


 (D) 55 ppt

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Arabian Sea has high salinity of 37 parts per thousand. The salinity Arabian Sea is much higher than in the Bay of Bengal because evaporation over the Arabian Sea is much greater and it receives relatively less river runoff.

The salinity of Indian Ocean surface waters varies between 32 and 37 parts per thousand, with large local differences.

The Atlantic has the highest salinity, higher than 37 parts per thousand in some areas. This is because, on average, there is more evaporation than combined rainfall and river runoff into the Atlantic Ocean.

#101. Who among the following is the winner of the Mahatma Gandhi International Award for Peace and Reconciliation, 2009?


 (A) Yukia Amano


 (B) Aung San Suu Kyi


 (C) Bill Gates


 (D) Hillary Clinton

Ans: (B)

Solution: Mahatma Gandhi International Award for Peace and Reconciliation, 2009 was awarded to Aung San Suu Kyi.

#102. ‘Durand Cup’ is associated with the game of


 (A) football


 (B) polo


 (C) cricket


 (D) hockey

Ans: (A)

Solution: Durand Cup is a football competition in India.

#103. For which word, the letter ‘G’ has been used in ‘2G Spectrum’?


 (A) Global


 (B) Government


 (C) Generation


 (D) Google

Ans: (C)

Solution: 2G  is short for second-generation wireless telephone technology.

#104. Former Central Minister for Communication and Information Technology, Mr. A. Raja belongs to which of the following parties?


 (A) Congress


 (B) BJP


 (C) Communist Party of India


 (D) DMK

Ans: (D)

Solution: Former Central Minister for Communication and Information Technology, Mr. A. Raja belongs to DMK.

#105. Which one of the following numbered Rajdhani trains covers the longest distance?


 (A) 12429 Bangalore City Junction


 (B) 12431 Trivandrum Central


 (C) 12433 Chennai Central


 (D) 12435 Dibrugarh Town

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Trivandrum-Nizamuddin Rajdhani Express covers the longest distance in India.

#106. What is the minimum age of a person whose photographing, fingerprinting and iris mapping will be done for the Census of 2011?


 (A) 12 years


 (B) 15 years


 (C) 18 years


 (D) 21 years

Ans: (B)

Solution: 15 years is the minimum age of a person whose photographing, fingerprinting and iris mapping will be done for the Census of 2011.

#107. The Union Cabinet, on August 2010, decided to form institutes like the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in which six States?


 (A) Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand


 (B) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Kerala, Gujarat


 (C) Bihar, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra


 (D) Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Assam

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Union Cabinet, on August 2010, decided to form institutes like the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) in which six States: Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand.

#108. Which was reported the richest party according to the ‘National Election Watch’ on August 2010?


 (A) BSP


 (B) BJP


 (C) Socialist Party


 (D) Congress

Ans: (D)

Solution: Congress was the richest party according to the ‘National Election Watch’ on August 2010.

#109. Which party-wise performance is correct for Bihar Assembly Elections, 2010 in comparison to the elections of 2005? JDU BJP RJD WP CONG OTHERS


 (A) +40 +25 -30 -10 -7 -19


 (B) +25 +34 -20 -5 -3 -11


 (C) +27 +36 -32 -7 -5 -19


 (D) + 17 +46 -15 -10 -10 -10

Ans: (C)

#110. Till 2010, which State Governments have provided 50 percent reservation for women in local bodies?


 (A) Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan


 (B) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh


 (C) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala


 (D) Bihar, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh

Ans: (B)

#111. ‘AVAHAN’, the Indian segment of ‘Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation’, is engaged in the prevention of


 (A) dengue


 (B) polio




 (D) filariasis

Ans: (C)

Solution: Avahan is an initiative of the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation that supports programs working to prevent the spread of HIV in India.

#112. A recently held underwater meeting has drawn attention world over. The meeting was held by


 (A) Some Somali pirates to make a new strategy for capturing ships for ransom


 (B) Some environmental scientists for promoting awareness for saving water


 (C) some activists environmental awareness for promoting against air pollution


 (D) The cabinet of a country to highlight the threat of rising sea level for any country

Ans: (D)

#113. Which one of the following cities is not located on the bank of river Ganga?


 (A) Fatehpur


 (B) Bhagalpur


 (C) Uttarkashi


 (D) Kanpur

Ans: (C)

Solution: Uttarkashi is situated on the banks of river Bhagirathi. 

#114. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India?


 (A) Right to Information


 (B) Right to Work


 (C) Right to Education


 (D) Right to Housing

Ans: (C)

Solution: In India, the right to education is a fundamental right and it is also considered to be a human right.

#115. The time at Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich. Hence, it is located at


 (A) 30°W longitude


 (B) 30° E longitude


 (C) 28° E longitude


 (D) 28°W longitude

Ans: (B)

solution: 1 hour corresponds to 15 Degrees, so 2 hours will correspond to 30 degrees. As the time is ahead of Greenwich so, it will be located east of the reference point.

#116. The headquarters of International Court of Justice is at


 (A) Hague


 (B) New York


 (C) Geneva


 (D) Paris

Ans: (A)

Solution: The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN). It was established in June 1945 by the Charter of the United Nations and began work in April 1946. The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).

#117. In the world’s best countries’ list, compiled by the reputed ‘News Week’ magazine in 2010, the first position went to Finland. What was the rank of India?









Ans: (D)

#118. Which university was ranked first in the list of ‘2010 Academic Rankings of the World Universities’?


 (A) Jawaharlal Nehru University, India


 (B) Cambridge University, Britain


 (C) Harvard University, USA


 (D) Massachusetts Institute of Technology, USA

Ans: (C)

#119. Which date is known as ‘Diabetes Day’?


 (A) 14th February


 (B) 14th May


 (C) 14th September


 (D) 14th November

Ans: (D)

Solution: It is marked every year on 14 November, the birthday of Sir Frederick Banting, who co-discovered insulin along with Charles Best in 1922.

#120. In which country, Ms. Julia Gillard was made the first woman Prime Minister in the year 2010?


 (A) Australia


 (B) Canada


 (B) Canada


 (D) Poland

Ans: (A)

#121. Which country’s parliament has banned ‘Burqa’ by passing a law on 14th September, 2010?


 (A) USA


 (B) France


 (C) Italy


 (D) Holland

Ans: (B)

#122. Mr. Arjun Munda was on September 11, 2010 sworn in as the Chief Minister of Jharkhand. How many MLAs in the 81- member Assembly supported him?


 (A) 41


 (B) 50


 (C) 45


 (D) 55

Ans: (B)

#123. Mr. P. J. Thomas has been appointed as the Central Vigilance Commissioner on September 7,2010. He is an IAS Officer of the following State’s cadre


 (A) Assam


 (B) Karnataka


 (C) Kerala


 (D) Tamil Nadu

Ans: (C)

#124. What was the maximum amount which has been provided as financialautonomy by the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises of Union Government to the ‘Mini Ratna’, category I?


 (A) Rs 250 crore


 (B) Rs 350 crore


 (C) Rs 400 crore


 (D) Rs 500 crore

Ans: (D)

#125. When was the Right to Education added through the amendment in the Constitution of India?


 (A) 1st April, 2010


 (B) 1st August, 2010


 (C) 1st October, 2010


 (D) 1st December, 2010

Ans: (A)

#126. Match the achievements of India in the XVI Asian Games, 2010


 (A.) 1 2 3 4 – Q R P S


 (B) 1 2 3 4 – R P S Q


 (C) 1 2 3 4 – P Q R S


 (D) 1 2 3 4 – S R P Q

Ans: (C)

#127. To which institute, Shubha Tole, the first woman awardee of prestigious Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize, 2010 in the field of Science, belongs?


 (A) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai


 (B) Indian Institute of Science Education and Research, Pune


 (C) Indian Institute of Technology, Kanpur


 (D) Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru

Ans: (A)

#128. Which Indian was honoured by the ‘World Statesman Award, 2010’?


 (A) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi


 (B) Atal Bihari Vajpayee


 (C) Dr. Manmohan Singh


 (D) Lal Krishna Advani

Ans: (C)

#129. India’s Third Research Centre at Antarctica is name as


 (A) Bharti


 (B) Swagatam


 (C) Hindustan


 (D) Maitri

Ans: (A)

#130. In Commonwealth Games, 2010, India won 101 medals. Out of them, how many medals have been received by team events, women and men respectively?


 (A) 0, 37, 64


 (B) 2, 35, 64


 (C) 1, 37, 63


 (D) 1, 36, 64

Ans: (B)

#131. Which of the following is a Harappan port?


 (A) Alexandria


 (B) Lothal


 (C) Mahasthangarh


 (D) Nagapattanam

Ans: (B)

Solution: Lothal was one of the seaports of the Indus Valley Civilisation

#132. The Gupta emperor who defeated the ‘Hunas’ was


 (A) Samudragupta


 (B) Chandragupta II


 (C) Skandagupta


 (D) Ramgupta

Ans: (C)

Solution: The Bhitari pillar inscription states that Skandagupta defeated the Hunas.

#133. What is the name of Kalhana’s book?


 (A) Arthashastra


 (B) Indica


 (C) Purana


 (D) Rajtarangini

Ans: (D)

Solution: Rajatarangini was written in Sanskrit by the Kashmiri Brahman Kalhana in 1148.

#134. Which inscription tells about the various achievements of Rudradaman I?


 (A) Junagarh


 (B) Bhitari


 (C) Nasik


 (D) Sanchi

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Sanskrit Junagadh inscription dated 150 CE credits Rudradāman I with supporting the cultural arts and Sanskrit literature and repairing the dam built by the Mauryans.

#135. Who was the first ruler of the Slave dynasty?


 (A) Qutubuddin Aibak


 (B) Iltutmish


 (C) Razia


 (D) Balban

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Slave dynasty was founded by Quṭb al-Din Aibak, a favourite slave of the Muslim general and later sultan Muḥammad of Gori.

#136. Who was the ruler of Devgiri at the time of Alauddin Khalji’s invasion?


 (A) Prataprudra bev


 (B) Ramchandra Dev


 (C) Malik Kafoor


 (D) Rana Ratan Singh

Ans: (B)

Solution: Ramchandra Dev was the ruler of Devagiri at the time of Alauddin Khilji’s invasion. In 1294, Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate captured Devagiri.

#137. Who of the following Muslim rulers abolished the pilgrimage tax?


 (A) Bahalol Lodi


 (B) Sher Shah


 (C) Humayun


 (D) Akbar

Ans: (D)

Solution: Akbar abolished the Jizya Tax in 1564.

Which Mughal ruler reimposed jizya?

Aurangzeb reimposed jizya in 1679.

#138. What was ‘Dar-ul-Shafa’ established by Firoz Tughlaq?


 (A) An alms house

 (B) A free hospital


(C) A library


 (D) A guesthouse for pilgrims

Ans: (B)

Solution: Firoz Shah Tughlaq established hospitals (Dar-ul-Shafa).

#139. The ‘Permanent Settlement’ was made with


 (A) Zamindars


 (B) village communities


 (C) Muqaddamas


 (D) peasants

Ans: (A)

Solution: To permanently fix the revenue and secure property rights, the permanent system was adopted.

The Permanent Settlement of Bengal was brought into effect by the East India Company headed by the Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in 1793.

It was an agreement between the East India Company and Bengali landlords.

#140. Who was the founder of ‘Prarthana Samaj’?


 (A) Atmaram Panduranga


 (B) Tilak


 (C) Annie Besant


 (D) Rasbihari Ghosh

Ans: (A)

Solution: Atmaram Pandurang was founder of ‘Prarthana Samaj’. He was one of the two Indian co-founders of the Bombay Natural History Society.

#141. Who was the father of Indian Renaissance?


 (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak


 (B) Dayananda Saraswati


 (C) Shraddhananda


 (D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Ans: (D)

Solution: Raja Ram Mohan Roy is known as the father of Indian renaissance. He is called the father of the modern Indian Renaissance as he introduced remarkable changes in 18th and 19th century in India like the abolition of Sati Pratha. 

#142. ‘Swaraj Dal’ was founded by


 (A) Tilak and Chittaranjan Das


 (B) Gandhi and Motilal Nehru


 (C) Gandhi and Tilak


 (D) Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru

Ans: (D)

Solution: The Swaraj Party was formed in 1923 by Chittaranjan Das and Motilal Nehru. It sought for greater self-government and political freedom for the Indian people from the British Raj.

#143. Who founded the ‘Theosophical Society’?


 (A) Madame H. P. Blavatsky


 (B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy


 (C) Mahatma Gandhi


 (D) Swami Vivekananda

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Theosophical Society was founded by Madame Blavatsky and Col. Olcott in 1875 in New York, USA. The main objective of the Theosophical Society was to do a comparative study of various religions, philosophies, and sciences.

This movement was popularized by Annie Besant in India.

#144. Which one of the following books was written by Tilak?


 (A) India in Transition


 (B) Gita Rahasya


 (C) Gokhale-My Political Guru


 (D) Discovery of India

Ans: (B)

Solution: Gita Rahasya was authored by Indian social reformer and independence activist Bal Gangadhar Tilak while he was in prison at Mandalay, Burma in 1915.

#145. Where was Mahaveer Swami born?


 (A) Kundagram


 (B) Pataliputra


 (C) Magadh


 (D) Vaishali

Ans: (D)

Solution: Vardhamana Mahavira was born at Kundagrama near Vaishali in Bihar.

#146. Where did Mahatma Buddha’s ‘Mahaparinirvan’ take place?


 (A) Lumbini


 (B) Bodh Gaya


 (C) Kushinara


 (D) Kapilavastu

Ans: (C)

Solution: Kushinagar is where the Buddha attained Parinirvana after his passing. Emperor Ashoka had built a stupa, and a pilgrimage site here to mark this important event for Buddhism. Buddha must have been around the age of 80 when he attained Parinirvana.

#147. At which place did Mahatma Buddha give his first ‘Dharmachakrapravartan’?


 (A) Lumbini


 (B) Sarnath


 (C) Pataliputra


 (D) Vaishali

Ans: (B)

Solution: Buddha gave his first sermon in the sixth century B.C. to the first five men at Sarnath.

#148. What was the early capital of Magadh?


 (A) Pataliputra


 (B) Vaishali


 (C) Rajagriha (Girivraja)


 (D) Champa

Ans: (C)

Solution: The core of the Magadh kingdom was the area of Bihar south of the Ganges. It’s first capital was Rajagriha (modern day Rajgir), then Pataliputra (modern Patna).

#149. What was the name of the dynasty of Ajatshatru?


 (A) Maurya


 (B) Haryanka


 (C) Nanda


 (D) Gupta

Ans: (B)

Solution: Ajatashatru was one of the most important kings of the Haryanka dynasty of Magadha. 

Who was the father of Ajatashatru?

Bimbisara was the father of Ajatashatru and founder of Haryanka dynasty.

Note: Udayin was the son and successor of the Haryanka king Ajatashatru. Udayin laid the foundation of the city of Pataliputra at the confluence of two rivers, the Son and the Ganges.


#150. The Third Buddhist Council was convented at


 (A) Takshashila


 (B) Sarnath


 (C) Bodh Gaya


 (D) Pataliputra

Ans: (D)

Solution: The third council was held during the reign of the emperor Ashoka at his capital Pataliputra in 247 BC.

  • Where was the first Buddhist council held?

The first Buddhist Council was held in regime of Ajatashatru in 483 BCE with the president Mahakasyapa. This council was held at Rajagriha.

  • Who held second Buddhist Council?

The second Buddhist Council was conducted under the patronage of King Kalasoka of Sisunaga dynasty in the year 383 BC i.e. hundred years after the death of Buddha. It was held at Vaishali in Bihar. Sabakami presided over this council.

  • Where was the fourth Buddhist council held?

The fourth Buddhist Council was held under the patronage of Kanishka in Kashmir in 72 AD.


BPSC Prelims Exam Solved Paper in Hindi Medium


BPSC Solved Paper 1

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