Licchavi Lyceum


Licchavi Lyceum

OPSC 2015 Solved Paper

Download OPSC 2015 Question Paper Set A

OPSC 2015 Solved Paper (SET A) General Studies

1. Who has been appointed as the First Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog?

(A) Dr. V. K. Saraswat

(B) Kaushik Basu

(C) Arvind Panagariya

(D) K. V. Kamath


Solution: Arvind Panagariya was the first Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog, serving from January 2015 to August 2017. He resigned from his post in August 2017 to return to academia.

Arvind Panagariya
Arvind Panagariya

NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is a policy think tank and a government body of India, established on January 1, 2015, to replace the Planning Commission of India. The primary objective of NITI Aayog is to provide strategic and technical advice to the central and state governments of India regarding various economic and social issues, as well as to facilitate cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of the state governments in the policy-making process.

The NITI Aayog’s functions include formulating a long-term development vision and strategy for the country, promoting reforms in various sectors such as agriculture, health, education, infrastructure, and energy, monitoring and evaluating the implementation of various schemes and programs, and coordinating with relevant stakeholders to achieve sustainable and inclusive growth. The organization has several specialized wings to support its work, such as the Atal Innovation Mission, the National Nutrition Mission, and the National Health Stack.

The governing council of NITI Aayog includes the Prime Minister of India as its chairperson, and chief ministers of all states and union territories as its members. Additionally, the Vice Chairman and Chief Executive Officer of NITI Aayog are appointed by the central government.

2. Where was India’s indigenously built anti-tank missile ‘Nag’ test fired in July 2015?

(A) Pokhran

(B) Chandipur

(C) Jaisalmer

(D) Wheeler Island.

Ans: (A)

Solution: The indigenously built anti-tank missile ‘Nag’ was test-fired in July 2015 at the Pokhran test range in Rajasthan, India.


The missile was developed by India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and is capable of destroying a variety of armored targets at a range of 4-7 km. The Nag missile system has been in development for several years and is intended to replace the older anti-tank missiles used by the Indian Armed Forces.

3. Which NGO is Nobel Laureate: Kailash Satyarthi associated with?

(A) Bachpan Bachao Andolan

(B) Beti Bachao Abhiyan

(C) Jungle Suraksha Andolan

(D) Gana Siksha Abhiyan

Ans: (A)

Solution: Nobel Laureate Kailash Satyarthi is associated with the NGO Bachpan Bachao Andolan (Save the Childhood Movement), which he founded in 1980. The organization works towards the eradication of child labor and the protection of the rights of children in India.

Kailash Satyarthi
Kailash Satyarthi

Satyarthi’s work with Bachpan Bachao Andolan has been recognized internationally and he was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014, along with Malala Yousafzai, for their efforts to promote child rights and education.

4. Which are the fields of the two MOUS signed between India and Egypt for bilateral cooperation on August 24, 2015.?

(A) Education and Culture

(B) Air Connectivity and Tourism

(C) Technology and Training & Research

(D) Tourism and Scientific & Technical Co-operation

Ans: (D)


5. Who is the recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for 2015?

(A) Saina Nehwal

(B) Sania Mirza

(C) Sachin Tendulkar

(D) Abhishek Verma

Ans: (B)

Sania Mirza
Sania Mirza

6. Why was the 50th anniversary of the Indo-Pak War of 1965 observed on August 28, 2015?

(A) The day marks the beginning of the war

(B) The day marks the victory of India

(C) The day marks the Tashkent Declaration

(D) The day marks the first tank battle by Indian soldiers

Ans: (B)

Indo-Pak War of 1965
Indo-Pak War of 1965

7. What has Om Prakash Rawat been appointed as?

(A) Information Commissioner of India

(B) Election Commissioner of India

(C) Vigilance Commissioner of India

(D) Knowledge Commissioner of India

Ans: (B)

8. What is the name of the Indian Coast Guard Ship that has been gifted to Sri Lanka?

(A) Virat

(B) Vikrant

(C) Varaha

(D) Vijay

Ans: (C)

9. What is the “Start-up India, Stand-up India” campaign associated with?

(A) Sports

(B) Scientific Research

(C) Empowerment of Women

(D) Entrepreneurship

Ans: (D)

Solution: The “Start-up India, Stand-up India” campaign is associated with entrepreneurship. It is an initiative launched by the Government of India in January 2016 to promote and support entrepreneurship and innovation in the country.

The campaign aims to create a conducive environment for start-ups to thrive by providing them with access to funding, mentorship, and other resources. The initiative also seeks to create employment opportunities and promote economic growth by encouraging the development of innovative new products and services.

The “Start-up India, Stand-up India” campaign has been instrumental in boosting the start-up ecosystem in India and has helped to position the country as a hub for innovation and entrepreneurship.

10. Who is the Japanese Scientist to have won the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 2015?

(A) Kosmas Prassides

(B) Taakaki Kajita

(C) Satoshi Omura

(D) Tu Youyou

Ans: (C)

11. Where was the first facial recognition ATM unveiled on May 30, 2015?


(B) China

(C) Japan

(D) India

Ans: (B)

facial recognition ATM

12. What has the UN declared the year 2015 as?

(A) International Year of Forests

(B) International Year of Soils

(C) International Year of Relieving the Hunger

(D) International Year of Food

Ans: (B)

13. Which country did top the medals tally at the 15th World Championship in Athletics held in August 2015?

(A) Russia

(B) China


(D) Kenya

Ans: (C)

Solution: The 15th World Championship in Athletics was held in Beijing, China, in August 2015. The United States topped the medals tally with a total of 18 medals, including 6 gold, 6 silver, and 6 bronze.

China came second in the tally with 9 medals (1 gold, 6 silver, and 2 bronze), while Kenya came third with a total of 16 medals (7 gold, 6 silver, and 3 bronze).

14. Which country’s First Woman President was sworn into office in February 2015?

(A) Greece

(B) Croatia

(C) Zambia

(D) Thailand

Ans: (B)

K Brabar the First Woman President
K Brabar the First Woman President

15. Where have the remains of a highly advanced water management system of Indus Valley Civilisation been discovered?

(A) Kalibangan

(B) Lothal

(C) Ropar

(D) Dholavira

Ans: (D)

Solution: The remains of a highly advanced water management system of the Indus Valley Civilization have been discovered at Dholavira, which is an archaeological site located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, India. Dholavira is one of the five largest Harappan sites in the Indian subcontinent and is known for its well-planned urban infrastructure and sophisticated water management system.


The water management system at Dholavira includes a network of interconnected reservoirs, channels, and dams that were used for storing and distributing water for various purposes. The discovery of this system provides valuable insights into the water management practices of the Indus Valley Civilization, which is believed to have flourished in the region between 3300 BCE and 1300 BCE.

16. Consider the following statements regarding the Hatigumpha inscription :

(i) It is found in Khandagiri

(ii) It was discovered in 1820

(iii) It is written in the Pali language

(iv) The inscription was deciphered by James Prinsep

Which statement is / statements are correct?

(A) (i), (ii), (iv)

(B) (i), (iii)

(C) (ii), (iv)

(D) All are correct

Ans: None of the statements is entirely correct. The Hatigumpha inscription is actually found in Udayagiri, not Khandagiri. It was discovered in 1837, not 1820. The inscription is written in the ancient Brahmi script, not the Pali language. The inscription was actually deciphered by Christian Lassen, not James Prinsep.

Hatigumpha inscription
Hatigumpha inscription

17. Who was the Court Physician of Kaniska?

(A) Charaka

(B) Susruta

(C) Palakapya

(D) Bhagabatta

Ans: (A)

Solution: Charaka was an ancient Indian physician who is believed to lived during the 3rd century BCE. He is considered one of the principal contributors to Ayurveda, the traditional Indian system of medicine. Charaka is best known for his work, the Charaka Samhita, which is a comprehensive treatise on medicine, health, and disease, and covers various aspects of Ayurveda including diagnosis, treatment, and pharmacology. It is still considered an authoritative text on Ayurveda and has been translated into several languages.

18. Which great Indian astronomer did give the theory that all things fell on the earth by the law of nature as it was earth’s nature to attract and keep things?

(A) Aryabhatta

(B) Varahamihira

(C) Brahmagupta

(D) Chandrasekhara

Ans: (C)

Solution: The great Indian astronomer who gave the theory that all things fell on the earth by the law of nature as it was Earth’s nature to attract and keep things was Brahmagupta.

Brahmagupta was an ancient Indian mathematician and astronomer who lived in the 7th century AD. He is known for many contributions to mathematics and astronomy, including his work on the properties of numbers, algebra, and trigonometry, as well as his observations of the motion of the planets. He is also known for his development of the concept of zero, and his work on the laws of gravity, which included the theory that all things fall to the earth by the law of nature, as it is the earth’s nature to attract and keep things.

19. Which of the following books was not written by Harshavardhana?

(A) Ratnavali

(B) Nagananda

(C) Kadambari

(D) Priyadarsika

Ans: (C)

Solution: Out of the given options, the book “Kadambari” was not written by Harshavardhana. “Kadambari” is a classic Sanskrit novel authored by Banabhatta.

Harshavardhana was a famous Indian emperor and a patron of literature. He himself was a writer and composed three plays: “Ratnavali”, “Nagananda”, and “Priyadarsika”.

20. Who did introduce the system of land measurement in India?

(A) Alauddin Khilji

(B) Sikandar Lodi

(C) Sher Shah Suri

(D) Akbar

Ans: (C)

Solution: Sher Shah Suri introduced the system of land measurement in India known as the “Zabti System” or “Bandobast System” during his rule from 1540 to 1545. This system aimed to establish a uniform land revenue assessment based on an accurate measurement of the land. The measurement was done using a standard unit of length called the “gaz,” which was about 33 inches long. The system was later improved by Akbar during his reign.

21. With reference to the monuments built by the Mughals, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Buland Darwaza – Akbar

(B) Itimud-ud-Daula’s tomb – Jahangir

(C) Fatehabad Mosque – Babar

(D) Agra Fort – Shahjahan

Ans: (D)

Solution: Agra Fort was actually built by the Mughal emperor Akbar, and it was later renovated and expanded by his grandson Shah Jahan. Shah Jahan is better known for building the Taj Mahal, which is located nearby in Agra.

So, the correct pairings are:

(A) Buland Darwaza – Akbar

(B) Itimud-ud-Daula’s tomb – Jahangir

(C) Fatehabad Mosque – Babar

22. Who was the first native ruler of India to accept Subsidiary Alliance?

(A) Nawab of Oudh

(B) Gaikward of Baroda

(C) Scindia of Gwalior

(D) Nizam of Hyderabad

Ans: (D)

23. Which Act did change the designation of Governor General of Bengal to Governor General of India?

(A) Regulating Act of 1773

(B) Charter Act of 1833

(C) Government of India Act of 1858

(D) Government of India Act of 1935

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Regulating Act of 1773 created the office of the Governor-General of Bengal, which was the highest position in the British East India Company’s administration in India. The Charter Act of 1833 changed the name of the Governor-General of Bengal to Governor-General of India, but the Governor-General continued to have authority only over the British possessions in India.

24. When did Ranjit Singh sign a treaty of perpetual friendship with the British at Amritsar?

(A) 1799

(B) 1805

(C) 1806

(D) 1809

Ans: (D)

25. Who is associated with the introduction of Local Self Government in India?

(A) Lord Dalhousie

(B) Lord Lytton

(C) Lord Ripon

(D) Lord Curzon

Ans: (C)

Solution: Lord Ripon, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884, is associated with the introduction of Local Self Government in India. In 1882, he passed the Local Self-Government Resolution, which was a landmark decision in the history of Indian administration.

The Local Self-Government Resolution established a system of local self-government in India and paved the way for the establishment of municipal bodies in urban areas. The resolution granted the municipal bodies the power to levy taxes, make regulations for public health and sanitation, and undertake public works. The resolution also provided for the election of municipal representatives by the people.

The introduction of local self-government in India was a significant step towards democratization and decentralization of power in India. It provided an opportunity for the Indian people to participate in the governance of their local communities, and it helped to create a sense of responsibility and accountability among the Indian people towards their local communities

26. Which place did Kunwar Singh, a leader during the Revolt of 1857 belong to?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Bihar

Ans: (D)

Solution: Veer Kunwar Singh, also known as Kunwar Singh, was a prominent leader of the Indian Rebellion of 1857, also known as India’s First War of Independence. He was a zamindar (landlord) and a soldier in the service of the British East India Company, but rose to prominence as a leader of the rebellion in the Bihar.

27. Consider the following events that occurred during India’s Freedom Struggle:

(i) Chauri Chaura Violence

(ii) Morley-Minto Reforms

(iii) Dandi March

(iv) Mont-Ford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their occurrence?

(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

(B) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)

(C) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)

(D) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)

Ans: (B)


  • Morley-Minto Reforms (1909)
  • Chauri Chaura Violence (1922)
  • Mont-Ford Reforms (1919)
  • Dandi March (1930)

The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909 introduced separate electorates for Muslims and the beginning of communal representation in India’s legislative bodies.

The Mont-Ford Reforms of 1919 introduced the system of dyarchy, which divided the powers of government between the British-appointed governor and elected Indian ministers. However, the reforms fell short of Indian aspirations for greater autonomy.

The Chauri Chaura Violence occurred in 1922 when a group of Indian protesters attacked a police station in Chauri Chaura, Uttar Pradesh, resulting in the death of several policemen. Mahatma Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement in response to the incident, as he believed that violence was inconsistent with the principles of nonviolence.

The Dandi March in 1930 was a significant event in India’s freedom struggle, led by Mahatma Gandhi. The march was a peaceful protest against the British Salt Laws and involved the violation of the laws by making salt from seawater. The march was a significant turning point in India’s struggle for independence and marked the beginning of a new phase in the struggle.

28. Where did Netaji Subhash Bose hoist the Indian Flag?

(A) Imphal

(B) Port Blair

(C) Kohima

(D) Delhi

Ans: (B)

Solution: Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose hoisted the Indian National Flag for the first time on Indian soil on December 30, 1943, at Port Blair, the capital of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. 

29. Khajjiar Lake is located in:

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(C) Odisha

(D) J&K

Ans: (B)

Solution: Khajjiar Lake is located in Himachal Pradesh, India. Khajjiar is a hill station located in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. It is known for its natural beauty and is often referred to as the “Mini Switzerland of India” due to its picturesque landscapes. Khajjiar Lake is one of the major tourist attractions in the town, and it is surrounded by cedar trees and lush green meadows.

30. Minicoy and Suheli Islands are separated by:

(A) Six-degree channel

(B) Seven-degree channel

(C) Eight-degree channel

(D) Nine-degree channel

Ans: (D)

Solution: Minicoy and Suheli Islands are separated by the Nine Degree Channel.

9 Degree Channel
9 Degree Channel

The Nine Degree Channel is a narrow strip of water that separates Minicoy Island of Lakshadweep from the Suheli Par Island of the Amindivi subgroup of the Lakshadweep Islands. It is named after the latitude line that passes through it, which is located approximately 9 degrees north of the equator. The Nine Degree Channel is an important shipping lane, and it is used for the passage of vessels between the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.

31. KBR National Park is located at:

(A) Hyderabad

(B) Nainital

(C) Darjeeling

(D) Sunderban

Ans: (A)

Solution: KBR National Park is located in Hyderabad, Telangana, India.

KBR National Park, also known as Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park, is located in the heart of Hyderabad city. It was named after the former Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, Kasu Brahmananda Reddy, and was established in 1998. The park covers an area of 156 hectares and is home to a variety of flora and fauna, including peacocks, wild boars, porcupines, and various species of birds. The park is a popular destination for nature lovers and bird watchers, and it offers a peaceful escape from the hustle and bustle of the city.

32. Where from the Narmada River originates?

(A) North Eastern part of Satpura Range

(B) Eastern Central part of Satpura Range

(C) Southern slopes of Satpura Range

(D) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Narmada River originates from the North Eastern part of the Satpura Range in Madhya Pradesh.

The Narmada River is one of the major rivers in India, and it is considered to be one of the seven sacred rivers in Hinduism. It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Maharashtra before emptying into the Arabian Sea. The river originates at Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh and flows for a distance of 1,312 km before it reaches the sea. The Narmada River is known for its scenic beauty and is home to a variety of flora and fauna.

33. The Sutlej River is a tributary of:

(A) The Indus River

(B) The Beas

(C) The Jhelum

(D) The Chenab

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Sutlej River is a tributary of the Indus River.

The Sutlej River is one of the five rivers that flow through the historic region of Punjab, and it is the easternmost tributary of the Indus River. The river originates from the Himalayas in Tibet and flows through the Indian states of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab before entering Pakistan and eventually emptying into the Arabian Sea. The Sutlej River is approximately 1,450 km long, and it has been an important source of water for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation in the region.

34. The length of Gangotri Glacier is :

(A) 90 km

(B) 60 km

(C) 30 km

(D) 10 km

Ans: (C)

Solution: The length of Gangotri Glacier is approximately 30 km.

The Gangotri Glacier is located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, India, and it is one of the primary sources of the Ganges River. The glacier is located at an altitude of over 4,000 meters above sea level and covers an area of approximately 40 square kilometers. The Gangotri Glacier is fed by snowfall and is the source of many streams and rivers in the region. The melting of the glacier contributes significantly to the flow of the Ganges River, which is considered to be one of the most sacred rivers in Hinduism.

35. Which one of the following regions is famous as Sahyadris?

(A) Himalayan region

(B) Plain region

(C) Eastern Ghat region

(D) Western Ghat region

Ans: (D)

36. Eastern most point of the East-West corridor is:

(A) Imphal

(B) Agartala

(C) Silchar

(D) Kohima

Ans: (C)

37. Indira Point is near:

(A) Car Nicobar

(B) Little Nicobar

(C) Great Nicobar

(D) Kamorta

Ans: (C)

Solution: Indira Point is near Great Nicobar Island.

Indira Point is the southernmost point of the Great Nicobar Island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India. It is named after former Indian Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The point was earlier known as Pygmalion Point, but it was renamed after the 1984 assassination of Indira Gandhi. The point is located at the confluence of the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean and is approximately 150 km from Sumatra, Indonesia. The area around Indira Point is prone to natural disasters, such as earthquakes and tsunamis, due to its location in a highly seismic zone.

38. In our country second largest area is occupied by:

(A) Alluvial soil

(B) Red soil

(C) Black soil

(D) Laterite soil

Ans: (B)

Solution: Red soil occupies the second largest area in our country.

Red soil is a type of soil that is found in many parts of India. It is characterized by its reddish color, which is due to the presence of iron oxide. Red soil is formed due to the weathering of ancient crystalline rocks, such as granite, gneiss, and schist. It is well-drained soil and is suitable for dry farming.

Red soil is found in regions that receive low to moderate rainfall, such as the Deccan Plateau, parts of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and eastern Maharashtra. In terms of area, it is the second-largest soil type in India after alluvial soil.

39. Which one of the following states possesses the largest forest area?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Chhattisgarh

(C) Maharashtra

(D) M. P.

Ans: (D)

Solution: Madhya Pradesh possesses the largest forest area in India.

Madhya Pradesh is located in central India and is known for its rich biodiversity and abundant forest cover. According to the India State of Forest Report 2019, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover among all states and union territories in India.

The state is home to several important wildlife sanctuaries and national parks, such as Kanha National Park, Bandhavgarh National Park, and Pench National Park. Other states that have a significant forest cover include Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Maharashtra.

40. The largest producer of Manganese in India is:

(A) Odisha

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Karnataka

Ans: (A)

Solution: The largest producer of Manganese in India is Odisha.

Odisha is one of the leading mineral-producing states in India and is home to several large-scale mineral reserves. The state is the largest producer of manganese ore in India, accounting for around 35% of the country’s total production. The major manganese ore mines in Odisha are located in the districts of Keonjhar, Sundargarh, and Jajpur. Other states that produce significant amounts of manganese ore include Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh.

41. What is the total surface area of Lakshadweep?

(A) 32 sq km

(B) 35 sq km

(C) 39 sq km

(D) 30 sq km

Ans: (A)

42. Karaganda coal basin belongs to :

(A) Russia

(B) Kazakhastan

(C) Ukraine

(D) Mongolia

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Karaganda coal basin is a large coal mining region in Kazakhstan, located in the Karaganda Region in central Kazakhstan. It is one of the largest coal mining regions in the world, with estimated coal reserves of over 6 billion tons. The coal from the Karaganda basin is primarily used for energy production in Kazakhstan and is also exported to other countries.

43. The provision of providing identity cards to voters has been made in:

(A) The Constitution of India

(B) The Representation of the People Act, 1958

(C) The Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 1975

(D) The Criminal and Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 1969

Ans: (C)

44. Who among the following describes the Indian economy as ‘Bullock-cart Capitalism’?

(A) Rajni Kothari

(B) Atul Kohli

(C) Lloyd and Sussane Rudolph

(D) Granville Austin

Ans: (C)

45. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

(A) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

(B) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further

(C) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to Rajya Sabha for reconsideration.

(D) The President may call a joint sitting

Ans: (A)

46. Rajya Sabha is dissolved after every:

(A) Two years

(B) Six years

(C) Five years

(D) is not subjected to dissolution

Ans: (D)

47. A money bill can be introduced only in :

(A) Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha

(C) Both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

48. Panchayati Raj is included in:

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

49. Who among the following has the power to issue ordinances under Article 123?

(A) Chief Justice of India

(B) The President of India

(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Ans: (B)

Solution: Under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, the President of India has the power to issue ordinances when Parliament is not in session. An ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but is temporary in nature and must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of reassembling.

50. The doctrine of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution was pronounced by the Supreme Court of India in which of the following cases?

(A) Minerva Mills Ltd. vs Union of India

(B) Kesavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala

(C) S. R. Bommai vs Union of India

(D) None of the above

Ans: (B)

51. Writs can be issued for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights by:

(A) District Courts

(B) High Courts only

(C) Supreme Court only

(D) Both Supreme Court as well as the High Courts

Ans: (D)

52. Which one of the following was the First State to establish the institution of the Lokayukta in India?

(A) Bihar

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Odisha

Ans: (B)

53. Which one of the following was the first committee to demand constitutional recognition for Panchayats?

(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(B) Ashok Mehta Committee

(C) Santhanam Committee

(D) G. V. K. Rao Committee

Ans: None of the options are correct, the recommendation to give constitutional status to Panchayat was made by the L.M. Singhvi committee.

54. In India, Collegium System was first introduced in relation to:

(A) Executive

(B) Legislature

(C) Judiciary

(D) Union State Relations

Ans: (C)

55. Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendations of:

(A) First Administrative Reforms Commission

(B) Gorwala Committee Report

(C) Kriplani Committee Report

(D) Santhanam Committee Report

Ans: (D)

56. Which constitutional amendment provided for the setting up of Administrative Tribunals in India?

(A) 24th Amendment

(B) 42nd Amendment

(C) 44th A Amendment

(D) 59th Amendment

Ans: (B)

Solution: The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India, passed in 1976, provided for the setting up of Administrative Tribunals in India. The amendment added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution, which deals with the tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or any State.

The Administrative Tribunals Act, of 1985 was enacted to give effect to this provision and to establish the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) and the State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) for this purpose.

The 24th Amendment to the Constitution, passed in 1971, related to the issue of the election of the President and the Vice-President of India.

The 44th Amendment, passed in 1978, made several changes to the Constitution, including the restoration of certain fundamental rights that had been suspended during the Emergency.

57. Which of the following committee voiced concern about the Criminalization of Politics and the Politicization of Criminals’?

(A) Tarakunde Committee

(B) Sachar Committee

(C) Vohra Committee

(D) Indrajeet Gupta Committee

Ans: (C)

Solution: The Vohra Committee was a high-level committee appointed by the Government of India in 1993 to examine the problem of the criminalization of politics in India. The committee was headed by former Home Secretary N.N. Vohra and included representatives from various law enforcement agencies and intelligence services.

The committee’s report, submitted in 1995, highlighted the links between organized crime and politics in India and called for urgent measures to address this problem. The report stated that “the criminalization of politics and the politicization of criminals” was a serious threat to India’s democracy and recommended several measures to tackle the problem, including the creation of a national database of criminals and the disqualification of politicians with criminal backgrounds.

The Tarakunde Committee was appointed in 1977 to examine the functioning of the Indian Police Service. The Sachar Committee was appointed in 2005 to study the social, economic, and educational status of Muslims in India. The Indrajeet Gupta Committee was appointed in 1992 to examine the problem of electoral reforms in India.

58. Under whose auspices, the concept ‘sustainable development’ was coined

(A) UN Conference on the Human Environment

(B) UN World Commission on Environment and Development

(C) UN General Assembly Special Session on the Environment

(D) UN Conference on Sustainable Development

Ans: (B)

59. What is the goal of sustainable development?

(A) To ensure the quality of life to present and future generations

(B) To meet the day-to-day consumption needs of the people

(C) To shift the rural population to urban areas

(D) To increase the pace of industrialization

Ans: (A)

60. Per capita consumption expenditure as a measure of poverty in India was used for the first time by:

(A) Jagdish Bhagwati and Arvind Panagariya

(B) Amartya Sen and Jean Dreze

(C) T. N. Srinivasan and Suresh Tendulkar

(D) V. M. Dandekar and N. Rath

Ans: (D)

61. Name the economist who related ‘poverty’ with the concept of ‘entitlement’:

(A) Amartya Sen

(B) C. Rangarajan

(C) Elinor Ostrom

(D) Partha Dasgupta

Ans: (A)

Solution: The economist who related ‘poverty’ with the concept of ‘entitlement’ is Amartya Sen. In his book “Poverty and Famines: An Essay on Entitlement and Deprivation,” Sen argued that poverty is not just a lack of income, but rather a deprivation of the basic capabilities and freedoms necessary for a decent life.

He introduced the concept of ‘entitlement’ as a way to describe the set of resources and opportunities that a person has access to, including food, shelter, healthcare, education, and employment. Sen’s work has been influential in shaping our understanding of poverty and development, and he was awarded the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 for his contributions to welfare economics.

62. Economic growth is said to be inclusive when :

(A) It generates more foreign exchange from exports

(B) It creates economic opportunities along with ensuring equal access to it

(C) It causes the largest segment of the people to remain outside the mainstream economy

(D) It earns the highest share of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) from the service sector

Ans: (B)

63. Which one of the following can be considered a step towards achieving financial inclusion in India?

(A) Privatisation of all the nationalized commercial banks

(B) Opening of branches of all commercial banks in megacities

(C) Discontinuation of the practice of opening accounts by commercial banks with zero balance

(D) Adoption of villages by bank branches

Ans: (D)

64. A great demographic divide in India occurred in the year:

(A) 1901

(B) 1911

(C) 1921

(D) 1931

Ans: (C)

65. Which one of the following is the correct definition of Dependency Ratio?

(A) Ratio of population non-working to the working population

(B) Ratio of the aging population to the total population

(C) Ratio of the female population to the male population

(D) Ratio of the non-working population to the total population

Ans: (A)

Solution: Ratio of the non-working population (aged under 15 and over 65) to the working-age population (aged 15-65). It is an important demographic indicator used to measure the economic burden of dependents on the working population. A high dependency ratio can indicate a greater need for social welfare programs, while a low dependency ratio can indicate a demographic dividend, where a large working-age population can potentially drive economic growth.

66. Which one of the following was launched in India in 2014 with the aim of covering children against seven vaccine-preventable diseases which include diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles, and hepatitis B?

(A) Mission Indradhanush

(B) National Health Mission

(C) Swachh Bharat Mission

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission

Ans: (A)

67. Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (SSA) aims to provide useful and relevant education to all children in the age group:

(A) 5-10 years

(B) 4-10 years

(C) 4-14 years

(D) 6-14 years

Ans: (D)

68. The MRTP Act of 1969 has been:

(A) Replaced by the Competition Act of 2002

(B) Merged in the Industrial Policy Act of 1978

(C) Replaced by Trade Unions (Amendment) Act, 2001

(D) Merged in the Industrial Policy Act of 1991

Ans: (A)

69. If interest payments are subtracted from a gross fiscal deficit, the remainder will be:

(A) Revenue deficit

(B) Gross primary deficit

(C) Capital deficit

(D) Budgetary deficit

Ans: (B)

Solution: If interest payments are subtracted from a gross fiscal deficit, the remainder will be the Gross Primary Deficit.

The Gross Fiscal Deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total revenue, while the Gross Primary Deficit is the fiscal deficit minus interest payments on previous debt.

The Revenue Deficit is the difference between the government’s revenue expenditure and its revenue receipts.

The Capital Deficit is the difference between the government’s capital expenditure and its capital receipts.

The Budgetary Deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts (including borrowings).

70. The act of simultaneously buying in one market and selling in another market is called:

(A) Speculating

(B) Spotting

(C) Forwarding

(D) Arbitrage

Ans: (D)

Solution: Arbitrage is the act of simultaneously buying and selling the same or equivalent asset in different markets to take advantage of price differences. The goal of arbitrage is to earn a profit from the difference in prices of the same asset in different markets.

Speculating is taking a position in a financial market with the intention of making a profit from price movements, without necessarily involving buying and selling in different markets.

Spotting and forwarding are not terms typically used in financial markets.

71. The first (and current) President of the BRIC New Development Bank, headquartered in Shanghai, China is: 

(A) K. V. Kamath

(B) Arun Maira

(C) Arun Shourie

(D) Nachiket Mor

Ans: (A)

72. Halophytes are the types of plants that prefer to grow on :

(A) Dry soil

(B) Sandy soil

(C) Saline soil

(D) Waterlogged soil

Ans: (A)

73. Thick vegetation of mangroves is present in :

(A) Western Ghats

(B) Sunderban

(C) Gir forest

(D) Himalayas

Ans: (B)

74. Broad-leaved deciduous forests are typical of:

(A) Monsoon region

(B) Mediterranean region

(C) Temperate region

(D) Alpine region

Ans: (C)

Solution: Broad-leaved deciduous forests are characterized by trees that shed their leaves annually in response to seasonal changes. They are typically found in regions with moderate to high rainfall and moderate temperatures, such as temperate regions. Examples of temperate regions with broad-leaved deciduous forests include the eastern United States, parts of Europe and Asia, and parts of South America.

Monsoon regions typically have tropical and subtropical forests, while Mediterranean regions have Mediterranean forests, woodlands, and scrub. Alpine regions have alpine tundra and coniferous forests.

75. Which of the following is mutually beneficial to the organisms in an association?

(A) Parasitism

(B) Antagonism

(C) Neutralism

(D) Symbiosis

Ans: (D)

Solution: Symbiosis refers to a close and prolonged association between two or more different species. In a symbiotic relationship, the organisms involved may benefit from each other, be unaffected by each other, or harm each other to some extent. However, at least one of the organisms in the relationship benefits.

For example, in mutualism, a type of symbiosis, both species benefit from the association. An example of mutualism is the relationship between bees and flowers. The bee collects nectar from the flower as a food source, and in the process, it helps the flower pollinate, leading to the production of seeds.

In parasitism, one species benefits at the expense of the other species. In antagonism, both species harm each other. In neutralism, the two species are neither harmed nor helped by each other.

76. A thick and fleshy stem covered with a thick cuticle stores water in:

(A) Hydrilla

(B) Opuntia

(C) Tecoma

(D) Magnolia

Ans: (B)

Solution: Opuntia is a genus of cactus that is commonly known as the prickly pear cactus. It has a thick and fleshy stem covered with a thick cuticle that helps to reduce water loss through transpiration. The stem is capable of storing large amounts of water, which allows the plant to survive in arid and semi-arid environments.

Hydrilla is an aquatic plant that grows underwater and does not have a thick and fleshy stem. Tecoma is a genus of flowering shrubs or small trees, and Magnolia is a genus of trees and shrubs that do not have a thick and fleshy stem for water storage.

77. The largest amount of freshwater on our planet is present in:

(A) Lakes and rivers

(B) Ground water

(C) Pond and wells

(D) Polar ice and glaciers

Ans: (D)

78. A habitat of long severe winters and few months of summer constituting the only growing season for plants are 

(A) Savannah ecosystem

(B) Tundra ecosystem

(C) Coniferous ecosystem

(D) Taiga ecosystem

Ans: (D)

Solution: Taiga, also known as boreal forest, is a biome characterized by long and severe winters and short summers. The growing season for plants in the taiga is limited to a few months, as the soil is frozen for most of the year. The vegetation in the taiga consists mainly of coniferous trees such as spruce, pine, and fir, and the understory is typically dominated by shrubs, mosses, and lichens.

Savannah ecosystem is a biome characterized by grasslands and scattered trees, with a dry and hot climate. Tundra ecosystem is a biome characterized by cold and dry conditions, with a short growing season, and dominated by low-growing vegetation such as grasses, mosses, and lichens. Coniferous ecosystem is a forest biome dominated by cone-bearing trees, and can include both temperate and boreal forests.

79. The pyramid that always remains erect in a stable ecosystem with homeostasis is :

(A) Pyramid of biomass

(B) Pyramid of number

(C) Pyramid of energy

(D) Pyramid of population

Ans: (C)

80. The role of bacteria in an ecosystem is to :

(A) Recycle nutrients

(B) Immobilize nutrients

(C) Fix carbon for secondary production

(D) Supply organic carbon

Ans: A

Solution: The role of bacteria in an ecosystem is to recycle nutrients. Bacteria play a significant role in breaking down dead organic matter, such as dead animals or plants, and returning the nutrients to the soil. This process, known as decomposition, is essential for the cycling of nutrients in an ecosystem. Bacteria also play a role in the nitrogen cycle, where they convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use. Some bacteria are also involved in the process of bioremediation, where they are used to break down pollutants in the environment, such as oil spills or toxic waste. Overall, bacteria are essential to the functioning of an ecosystem, as they play a crucial role in the recycling of nutrients and the maintenance of soil health.

81. The biochemical oxygen demand in water is enhanced by:

(A) Increase in a load of organic matter

(B) Increase in dissolved nitrogen

(C) Increase in heavy metal content

(D) Dense population of phytoplankton

Ans: (A)

Solution: Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a measure of the amount of dissolved oxygen used by microorganisms in the biological breakdown of organic matter in water. Organic matter includes plant and animal waste, sewage, food processing waste, and other pollutants. When these substances enter water bodies, microorganisms in the water consume them as food, and this process consumes oxygen from the water. The more organic matter present in the water, the more oxygen the microorganisms require to break it down.

Therefore, an increase in the load of organic matter in the water enhances the biochemical oxygen demand, as more microorganisms will be consuming the organic matter, thereby consuming more oxygen from the water. This increase in BOD can lead to a decrease in dissolved oxygen in the water, which can negatively impact aquatic life, as fish and other organisms require dissolved oxygen to survive.

82. Green plants commonly:

(A) Releases CO₂ in the day time and O₂ at night time and is no

(B) Releases O₂ in day time and CO₂ in night time

(C) Releases both O and CO₂ in the day as well as at night

(D) Releases both O₂ and CO₂ in day and only O₂ in night

Ans: (B)

Solution: Green plants release oxygen in the daytime and carbon dioxide at night. During photosynthesis, which occurs during the day when there is light, plants absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen.

At night, the process of respiration takes place, during which plants take in oxygen and release carbon dioxide. However, the amount of oxygen produced during photosynthesis is much greater than the amount of carbon dioxide released during respiration, so the net result is oxygen production.

83. A fuse is the most important safety device used for protecting the circuits due to the:

(A) Short-circuiting

(B) Overload

(C) Both of the above

(D) Leakage of the current

Ans: (C)

84. Which is not a hardware of a computer?


(B) Monitor

(C) Mouse

(D) Microsoft Windows

Ans: (D)

85. At the time of the short circuit, the current in the circuit :

(A) Reduces substantially

(B) Does not change

(C) Increases heavily

(D) Vary continuously

Ans: (C)

86. Which is not the function of the CPU?

(A) Storage

(B) Processing

(C) Displaying

(D) Communication

Ans: (C)

Solution: The CPU or Central Processing Unit is the primary component of a computer system that performs most of the processing tasks. It is responsible for executing instructions and processing data. Among the given options, the function that is not performed by the CPU is: (C) Displaying.

The CPU is not responsible for displaying information on the screen. It processes data and sends the processed information to the display unit, which is responsible for displaying the information on the screen.

Option (A) is incorrect because the CPU can perform storage-related tasks such as reading and writing data to and from the computer’s memory.

Option (B) is incorrect because processing data is one of the primary functions of the CPU.

Option (D) is incorrect because the CPU can perform communication-related tasks such as sending and receiving data over a network.

Therefore, the correct option is:

(C) Displaying.

87. Myopia, also known as near-sightedness, can be corrected by use of:

(A) Convex lens

(B) Concave lens

(C) Plane lens

(D) Magnifying lens

Ans: (B)

Solution: Myopia or nearsightedness is a refractive error of the eye in which distant objects appear blurred, but near objects can be seen clearly. It can be corrected by using a concave lens, which is a diverging lens that causes light rays to spread out and focus correctly on the retina.

88. Microsoft Excel is used for:

(A) Writing a letter

(B) Multimedia presentation

(C) Spreadsheet

(D) All of the above

Ans: (C)

89. Non-conventional source of energy is:

(A) Fossil fuel

(B) Nuclear energy

(C) Biomass energy

(D) All of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Non-conventional sources of energy are those sources of energy that are alternative to conventional sources of energy such as fossil fuels. Among the given options, the only non-conventional source of energy is (C) Biomass energy.

Biomass energy is obtained from organic matter such as plant and animal waste, agricultural residues, and forest residues. It is considered a renewable source of energy because it can be replenished naturally over time.

Option (A) is incorrect because fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and natural gas are conventional sources of energy.

Option (B) is incorrect because nuclear energy is a conventional source of energy that is generated by nuclear power plants.

90. Which of the following constitutes a food chain?

(A) Grass, Pulses, Mango

(B) Grass, Goat, Human

(C) Grass, Goat, Cow

(D) Grass, Fish, Goat

Ans: (B)

Solution: A food chain is a sequence of organisms in which each organism serves as a source of food for the next organism in the chain. Among the given options, the only one that represents a food chain is (B) Grass, Goat, and Human.

91. Which of the following is a plant hormone?

(A) Melatonin

(B) Gastrin

(C) Cytokinin

(D) Cholecystokinin

Ans: (C)

Solution: Plant hormones are chemical substances that regulate plant growth and development. Among the given options, only cytokinin is a plant hormone.

Melatonin is a hormone found in animals, including humans, that helps regulate sleep-wake cycles.

Gastrin and cholecystokinin are hormones found in the digestive system of animals, including humans, that regulate the secretion of digestive enzymes and the movement of food through the digestive tract.

Therefore, the correct option is: (C) Cytokinin

92. The roots of a plant always grow downwards while shoots usually grow upwards and away from the earth. It is known as:

(A) Hydrotropism

(B) Geotropism

(C) Chemotropism

(D) All of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The tendency of plant roots to grow downwards and shoots to grow upwards is known as geotropism or gravitropism. Geotropism is a plant’s response to gravity, which is essential for plant growth and development. The roots of a plant grow downwards due to positive geotropism, while the shoots grow upwards due to negative geotropism.

Hydrotropism is a plant’s response to water, and it involves the growth of plant roots toward a water source. Chemotropism is a plant’s response to chemicals, such as nutrients or toxins, in the environment.

Therefore, the correct option is:

(B) Geotropism

93. Type Il diabetes is characterized by

(A) Hyperglycemia

(B) Polyuria

(C) Both of the above

(D) None of the above

And: (D)

Solution: Type II diabetes is characterized by hyperglycemia, which means high blood sugar levels. Hyperglycemia occurs when the body does not produce enough insulin or when the insulin produced is not used effectively. Insulin is a hormone that helps to regulate blood sugar levels by allowing glucose to enter the cells for energy. In Type II diabetes, the cells become resistant to insulin, and glucose builds up in the bloodstream.

Polyuria, which is excessive urination, can also be a symptom of Type II diabetes, as the kidneys try to remove the excess glucose from the bloodstream through urine. Therefore, the correct option is: (C) Both of the above

94. Artificial kidney helps :

(A) Remove nitrogenous waste products from the blood

(B) Reabsorbs useful substances from tubules to blood

(C) Secretes wasteful substances from the blood to the tub

(D) All of the above

Ans: (A)

95. Coal should be used judiciously because it causes:

(A) Air pollution

(B) Acid rain

(C) Global warming

(D) All of the above

Ans: (D)

96. Which of the following should be avoided in biological marriage?

(A) A+ boy and A- girl

(B) A+ boy and A+ girl

(C) O+ boy and O- girl

(D) AB- boy and AB+ girl

Ans: (A)

Solution: In biological marriage, it is recommended to avoid a match between an Rh-positive boy and an Rh-negative girl, as it can lead to a condition known as Rh incompatibility. Rh incompatibility occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, and her immune system produces antibodies against the Rh factor. This can cause hemolytic disease in the newborn, a serious condition that can lead to jaundice, anemia, brain damage, and even death in severe cases.

Therefore, out of the given options, option (A) A+ boy and A- a girl should be avoided in biological marriage as it does not involve Rh incompatibility but involves a potential risk of hemolytic disease due to ABO incompatibility.

In ABO incompatibility, a person with blood type A produces antibodies against type B and vice versa. If an A+ boy marries an A- girl, there is a risk that the child may inherit an A- blood type from the mother, and the antibodies from the A+ father may attack the fetus’s blood cells. The other options do not involve ABO or Rh incompatibility and can be considered biological matches.

97. Which instrument is used for measuring the altitude, direction, and velocity of clouds?

(A) Pyrgeometer

(B) Nephoscope

(C) Nephelumeter

(D) Venturimeter

Ans: (B)

Solution: The instrument used for measuring the altitude, direction, and velocity of clouds is called a Nephoscope. A nephoscope is a meteorological instrument used for studying clouds’ motion and estimating the height and direction of their movement.

It works based on the reflection of light from the clouds, which is observed through a telescope. The direction and velocity of the clouds are calculated by measuring the angle and speed of the cloud’s movement relative to the instrument’s orientation.

Nephoscopes are essential tools for weather forecasting and atmospheric research, as they provide valuable information about the movement and behavior of clouds.

Pyrgeometers are used for measuring the infrared radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface and atmosphere, Nephelometers is used for measuring the concentration and size distribution of atmospheric particles, and Venturimeters are used for measuring the flow rate of fluids in pipes.

98. Which of the following instruments is used for measuring very high temperatures?

(A) Photometer

(B) Pyrgeometer

(C) Solarimeter

(D) Pyrometer

Ans: (D)

Solution: Pyrometers are commonly used in industrial applications to measure the temperature of furnaces, kilns, and other high-temperature processes. They are also used in scientific research, engineering, and manufacturing processes where accurate temperature measurement is critical.

99. Low pressure turning to the cyclone results if the temperature of water at the sea level rises above:

(A) 26.5°C

(B) 20.5°C

(C) 15.5°C.

(D) 10.5°C

Ans: (A)

Solution: Low pressure turning to the cyclone results if the temperature of water at the sea level rises above 26.5°C. When the temperature of the ocean’s surface water rises above this threshold, it causes the evaporation of large amounts of water, which in turn leads to the formation of low-pressure systems in the atmosphere above.

These low-pressure systems can then develop into tropical cyclones, which are also known as hurricanes or typhoons depending on the region in which they occur. The warmer the ocean water, the greater the potential for the development and intensification of tropical cyclones.

100. Insulin is secreted from which gland or organ of the human body?

(A) Kidney

(B) Liver

(C) Pancreas

(D) Small Intestine

Ans: (C)

Solution: Insulin is secreted from the Pancreas gland in the human body. The pancreas is a glandular organ located in the abdominal cavity, which plays an important role in the regulation of glucose metabolism.

The beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans, which are clusters of cells located in the pancreas, secrete insulin in response to the increase in blood glucose levels. Insulin helps to regulate glucose metabolism by promoting the uptake of glucose by cells and tissues in the body, such as muscle and fat cells, and promoting the storage of glucose as glycogen in the liver and muscle tissues.

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