1. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931, presided over by Sardar Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Ans: (b)
Solution: One of the key outcomes of the Karachi session was the adoption of the resolution on fundamental rights drafted by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. This resolution outlined the Congress’s vision for an independent India, with emphasis on social justice and economic development. It called for the protection of civil liberties, such as freedom of speech and assembly, and it advocated for the establishment of a socialist economy.
2. Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
(b) Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
Ans: (c)
Solution: Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad were the official Congress negotiators with the Cripps Mission.
During the negotiations, Nehru and Azad demanded a clear statement of intent from the British government regarding India’s independence after the war, which the Cripps Mission failed to provide. The negotiations ultimately broke down, and the Congress rejected the proposals put forward by the mission.
3. Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive process?
(a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
(b) Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O.
(c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen.
(d) Conversion of amino acids into proteins.
Ans: (a)
Solution: The breakdown of proteins into amino acids is a digestive process that occurs in the bodies of living organisms.
Proteins are complex molecules made up of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds. The process of protein digestion involves breaking down these peptide bonds through the action of digestive enzymes, such as pepsin and trypsin, which are secreted by the stomach and pancreas respectively. This process results in the production of individual amino acids that can be absorbed by the body and used for various metabolic processes.
Option (a) is therefore the correct answer as it describes a digestive process that occurs during protein digestion in the body.
Option (b) describes cellular respiration,
option (c) describes glycogenesis,
option (d) describes protein synthesis
4. From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the correct sequence of evolution?
(a) Otter – Tortoise – Shark
(b) Shark – Tortoise – Otter
(c) Tortoise – Shark – Otter
(d) Shark – Otter – Tortoise
Ans: (b)
Solution: Sharks belong to the class Chondrichthyes, which evolved over 400 million years ago and are considered one of the most primitive groups of living jawed vertebrates. Tortoises belong to the order Testudines, which evolved around 200 million years ago and are classified as reptiles. Otters belong to the family Mustelidae, which evolved around 30 million years ago and are classified as mammals.
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV AIDS.
2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Solution: Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS. It is estimated that the hepatitis B virus is 50 to 100 times more infectious than HIV/AIDS. The virus can be transmitted through blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and other body fluids, as well as from mother to child during childbirth.
Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer. Chronic hepatitis B infection can lead to liver inflammation, which in turn can cause liver cirrhosis and liver cancer. According to the World Health Organization, hepatitis B is a leading cause of liver cancer worldwide.
Source: Licchavi Lyceum
6. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO), into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition?
(a) When inhaled into the human body, CO is converted into CO2.
(b) The inhaled CO has much higher affinity for hemoglobin as compared to oxygen.
(c) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of hemoglobin.
(d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain.
Ans: (b)
Solution: When carbon monoxide (CO) is inhaled, it binds to hemoglobin in the red blood cells much more tightly than oxygen does, forming carboxyhemoglobin. This reduces the amount of hemoglobin available for oxygen transport, resulting in a decrease in the amount of oxygen that is carried in the blood. This can lead to a condition called hypoxia, in which the body’s tissues and organs do not receive enough oxygen to function properly.
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu.
2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.
3. To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be
culled.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Solution:
Statement 1: Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flu. This statement is incorrect. While everyone is at risk of getting infected with the swine flu virus, some individuals, such as young children, elderly people, pregnant women, and people with certain health conditions, are at a higher risk of developing severe complications from the infection.
Statement 2: Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu. This statement is correct. Swine flu is caused by a virus, and antibiotics are not effective against viral infections. The primary treatment for swine flu involves antiviral medications, which can help to reduce the severity of the symptoms and the duration of the illness.
Statement 3: To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must all be culled. This statement is incorrect. While swine are known to be carriers of the swine flu virus, culling all of the swine in an area is not an effective method for preventing the spread of the virus. Instead, measures such as improved sanitation and hygiene, vaccination, and quarantine of infected animals can be effective in controlling the spread of the virus.
8. With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to female.
(b) The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually transmitted infections.
(c) An infected mother can transmit the pregnancy, at childbirth and by breast feeding.
(d) The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than an exposure to contaminated needle.
Ans: (a)
Solution: The chances of transmission from male to female and from female to male are generally considered to be about the same. The risk of transmission depends on a variety of factors, such as the viral load of the infected partner, the type of sexual activity, and the use of condoms or other protective measures.
The chances of transmission are higher if a person suffers from other sexually transmitted infections. This is because these infections can cause inflammation and other changes in the genital tract, making it easier for the HIV virus to enter the body.
An infected mother can transmit the virus to her baby during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding. This is called mother-to-child transmission.
The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than the risk of exposure to a contaminated needle.
9. What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at present and in the immediate future?
1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available.
2. India can not invest huge funds in research and development.
3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Solution:
Statement 1 is correct. India still heavily relies on fossil fuels like coal for its energy needs, and appropriate alternate technologies like solar, wind, and hydro power are not yet sufficiently available to replace them. India needs to invest more in research and development to develop and deploy these technologies.
Statement 2 is also correct. India is a developing country with limited financial resources, and it cannot invest huge funds in research and development like many developed countries can. This limits India’s ability to develop and implement effective solutions to mitigate global warming.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While it is true that many developed countries have set up their industries in India, this is not a major limitation for India’s efforts to mitigate global warming. In fact, many of these industries are now subject to strict environmental regulations, which can help reduce their carbon footprint and other forms of pollution.
10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories / countries once under the British empire (jurisdiction / rule / mandate) automatically joined the commonwealth as its members.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Solution:
Statement 1 is correct. The Commonwealth has no written constitution, charter, or treaty that defines its structure, membership, or powers. Instead, its membership is based on common historical, cultural, and political ties.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While many of the countries that are members of the Commonwealth were once part of the British Empire, membership is not automatic. Instead, each member country must apply for membership and be accepted by the other members. Some countries that were never part of the British Empire, such as Mozambique and Rwanda, have also joined the Commonwealth.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.
11. Examine the following statements:
1. All colours are pleasant.
2. Some colours are pleasant.
3. No colours is pleasant.
4. Some colours are not pleasant.
Given that the statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?
(a) 1 and 2 are true
(b) 1 is false
(c) 2 is false
(d) 3 is true
Ans: (b)
12. In the context of bilateral trade negotiations between India and European Union, what is the difference between European Commission and European Council?
1. European Commission represents the EU in trade negotiations whereas European Council
participates in the legislation of matters pertaining to economic policies of the European
Union.
2. European Commission comprises the Heads of State or government of member countries
whereas the European Council comprises of the persons nominated by European
Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
13. The approximate representations of land use classification in India is
(a) Net area sown 25%; forests 33%; other areas 42%.
(b) Net area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%.
(c) Net area sown 43%; forests 29%; other areas 28%.
(d) Net area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 30%.
Ans: (d)
14. With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are routed, consider the following statements:
1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of Finance.
2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.
4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
Ans: (c)
15. In India, which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission?
(a) Currency Futures Trading
(b) Commodities Futures Trading
(c) Equity Futures Trading
(d) Both Commodities Futures and Financial Futures Trading
Ans: (b)
Solution: The Forward Markets Commission (FMC) is a regulatory body in India that oversees and regulates the functioning of the commodity futures markets. The FMC was established in 1953 under the Forward Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1952, which aimed to regulate forward trading in agricultural commodities in the country.
The FMC is responsible for granting licenses to the commodity exchanges in India, monitoring their compliance with regulations, and taking action against any irregularities. It also approves contracts traded on these exchanges and specifies the conditions for delivery of the underlying commodities.
The FMC regulates trading in a wide range of commodities, including agricultural commodities such as wheat, rice, cotton, sugar, and oilseeds, as well as non-agricultural commodities such as metals, energy, and bullion.
In contrast, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates the financial futures markets, which include equity futures trading and currency futures trading. Therefore, the correct option is (b) Commodities Futures Trading.
16. Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm?
(a) Partners should be less than 20.
(b) Partnership and management need not be separate.
(c) Internal governance may be decided by mutual agreement among partners.
(d) It is corporate body with perpetual succession.
Ans: (a)
17. With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which one of the statements is not correct?
(a) The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India.
(b) The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints from Non – Resident Indians having
accounts in India.
(c) The orders passed by the Banking Ombudsman are final and binding on the parties
concerned.
(d) The service provided by the Banking Ombudsman is free of any fee.
Ans: (a)
18. With reference to the India, consider the following:
1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches
Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the “financial inclusion” in India?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Solution: All three options have been taken in India to achieve financial inclusion:
- Nationalization of Banks: In 1969, the Indian government nationalized 14 major commercial banks to increase banking penetration and promote financial inclusion among the rural and semi-urban population.
- Formation of Regional Rural Banks: In 1975, the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established to cater to the banking needs of rural areas and provide credit to small farmers, agricultural laborers, and rural artisans.
- Adoption of villages by Bank Branches: In 2011, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched a scheme for the adoption of villages by bank branches to provide financial services to unbanked areas and achieve financial inclusion.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3.
19. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat?
(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his victory Timur Shah from Lahore.
(b) The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab.
(c) He wanted to punish Mughal administration for non – payment of the revenues of the Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur).
(d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up to the borders of Delhi to his kingdom.
Ans: (a)
Solution: The immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third Battle of Panipat was the invitation of the frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan.
Adina Beg Khan was a former Mughal governor who had been dismissed by the Mughal emperor and was seeking revenge. He invited Abdali to invade India and promised to support him in his campaign. Abdali, who had already invaded India twice before and had clashed with the Marathas, saw this as an opportunity to weaken the Maratha power and expand his own kingdom.
He accepted the invitation and marched towards India with a large army, which led to the Third Battle of Panipat. Although other factors such as territorial expansion, revenue collection, and political rivalry also played a role in Abdali’s decision to invade India, the invitation of Adina Beg Khan was the immediate trigger for the invasion.
20. With reference to the Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements:
1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3.
Ans: (c)
21. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times?
1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became
a part of Vaishnavism.
2. The invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and
persecuted Buddhists.
3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Solution:
Statement 1 is correct, as some sects of Vaishnavism did consider Buddha as an incarnation of Vishnu.
Statement 2: There is no such evidence.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the Gupta kings were actually patrons of Buddhism and several Buddhist structures, such as the Mahabodhi temple at Bodh Gaya, were built during their reign.
22. Consider the following statements:
The functions of commercial banks in India include
1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers.
2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Solution: Commercial banks in India engage in a variety of activities, including accepting deposits, lending money, issuing credit and debit cards, and providing foreign exchange services.
23. In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax
revenue has significantly declined in the last five years?
(a) Service tax
(b) Personal income tax
(c) Excise duty
(d) Corporation tax
Ans: (c)
Solution: Excise duty is a tax levied on the production and manufacture within India. It is a major source of revenue for the government of India. However, in the last five years, the contribution of excise duty to the gross tax revenue has significantly declined.
24. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendations to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that States.
Ans: (b)
Solution: State Finance Commission makes recommendations to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State.
The Commission is constituted under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution and its main function is to review the financial position of Panchayats and make recommendations to the Governor on measures needed to improve their financial position. The Commission is appointed by the Governor and consists of a chairman and other members, who hold office for a period of five years.
25. Consider the following statements:
In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges and Futures Markets are
1. levied by the Union
2. collected by the States
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Solution: Taxes on transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets are levied by the Union government under the Securities Transaction Tax (STT) Act, 2004. STT is levied on the value of taxable securities transactions at the rate specified by the government. The revenue collected from STT is a part of the Union’s tax revenue. Therefore, statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect as taxes on transactions in stock exchanges and futures markets are not collected by the States.
26. In India, during the last decade the total cultivated land for which one of the following crops has remained more or less stagnant?
(a) Rice
(b) Oil Seeds
(c) Pulses
(d) Sugarcane
Ans: (c)
27. Consider the following statements:
1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar
season.
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
28. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10 years.
2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
29. Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere:
1. Soot
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
3. Water vapour
Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Solution: Soot or black carbon absorbs sunlight and warms the atmosphere. It is a product of incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass burning.
Sulphur hexafluoride is a greenhouse gas that is used as an electrical insulator in high-voltage equipment. It has a global warming potential that is 23,500 times greater than carbon dioxide over a 100-year time horizon.
Water vapor is also a greenhouse gas, but its role in warming the atmosphere is considered a feedback mechanism rather than a primary driver of climate change.
30. The International Development Association, a lending agency, is administered by the
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development.
(b) International Fund for Agricultural Development.
(c) United Nations Development Programme.
(d) United Nations Industrialized Development Organization.
Ans: (a)
31. When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main reason for this colours?
(a) Abundance of magnesium
(b) Accumulated humus
(c) Presence of ferric oxides
(d) Abundance of phosphates
Ans: (c)
Solution: Red soil is a type of lateritic soil, which means it is formed by the weathering of basaltic rocks and other igneous rocks that are rich in iron and aluminum. As a result, red soil has a reddish-brown color due to the presence of iron oxide or rust. Red soil is also relatively low in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter, but high in potassium and other minerals.
32. Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the Gondwana rocks as most important of rock systems of India?
(a) More than 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in them.
(b) More than 90% of India’s coal reserves are found in them.
(c) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them.
(d) None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context.
Ans: (b)
Solution: The appropriate reason for considering the Gondwana rocks as the most important of rock systems of India is that more than 90% of India’s coal reserves are found in them. The Gondwana rocks are a geological formation that dates back to the Permian and Triassic periods and are predominantly found in the central and eastern parts of India.
These rocks are rich in coal deposits. This makes them a significant contributor to India’s energy needs and a crucial component of its industrial development.
33. Which one of the following can one come across if one travels through the Strait of Malacca:
(a) Bali
(b) Brunei
(c) Java
(d) Singapore
Ans: (d)
34. With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It flows into Gulf of Khambhat.
(b) It flows into Gulf of Kuchchh.
(c) It flows into Pakistan and merges with a tributary of Indus.
(d) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchchh.
Ans : (d)
Solution: The Luni River flows for approximately 495 kilometers before it is lost in the marshy lands of the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
35. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
| Dam / Lake | River |
|---|---|
| (a) Govind Sagar | Satluj |
| (b) Kolleru Lake | Krishna |
| (c) Ukai Reservoir | Tapi |
| (d) Wular Lake | Jhelum |
Ans: (b)
Solution: Kolleru Lake is not a man-made dam or reservoir, but a natural freshwater lake situated between the two Indian states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. It is not associated with any river system. The other options are correctly matched as follows:
Govind Sagar – Satluj: The Govind Sagar Dam is located on the Sutlej River in Bilaspur district of Himachal Pradesh, India.
Ukai Reservoir – Tapi: The Ukai Dam is built on the Tapi River near Surat in Gujarat, India. It is one of the largest reservoirs in the state.
Wular Lake – Jhelum: Wular Lake is a freshwater lake located in Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir, India. It is the largest freshwater lake in Asia and is fed by the Jhelum River.
36. A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:
1. Warm and dry climate
2. Mild and wet winter
3. Evergreen oak trees
The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions?
(a) Mediterranean
(b) Eastern China
(c) Central Asia
(d) Atlantic coast of North America
Ans: (a)
Solution:
- Warm and dry climate
- Mild and wet winter
- Evergreen oak trees
The above features are the distinct characteristics of the Mediterranean region.
37. With reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider the following statements:
1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for projects
and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (d)
38. In the context of India’s Five Year Plan, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
(a) Fourth Plan
(b) Sixth Plan
(c) Eighth Plan
(d) Tenth Plan
Ans: (c)
Solution: The shift in the pattern of industrialization with a lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure began in the Eighth Five Year Plan of India. The Eighth Plan was launched in 1992 and aimed to accelerate economic growth with a focus on infrastructure development, including power, telecommunications, transportation, and irrigation. The plan also aimed to promote social justice and reduce poverty.
39. Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women’s development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference between them, consider the following statements:
1. Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult circumstances such as women survivors of
natural disasters or terrorism, women prisoners released from jails, mentally challenged
women etc. whereas Swadhar is meant for holistic empowerment of women through Self
Help Groups.
2. Swayam Siddha is implemented through Local Self Government bodies or reputed
Voluntary Organizations whereas Swadhar is implemented through the ICDS units set up in
the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
40. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the following:
1. The Right to Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
41. Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track of 11 km. Their speeds are 4, 5.5 and 8 kmph respectively. When will they meet at the starting point for the first time?
(a) After 11 hours
(b) After 21 hours
(c) After 22 hours
(d) After 33 hours
Ans: (c)
Solution: Let’s find the time taken by each person to complete one full lap of the circular track:
- The first person’s speed is 4 kmph, so he will complete one lap in 11/4 = 2.75 hours.
- The second person’s speed is 5.5 kmph, so he will complete one lap in 11/5.5 = 2 hours.
- The third person’s speed is 8 kmph, so he will complete one lap in 11/8 = 1.375 hours.
Now, we need to find the LCM of these three times, because they will meet at the starting point only when they all complete an integer number of laps.
LCM(2.75, 2, 1.375) = 11
42. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit.
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not
exceed rupees fifty lakhs.
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be field with a District
Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers in
general.
Ans: ( c)
43. King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?
(a) It is a snake – eater and the nest helps attract other snakes.
(b) It is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to give birth to its offspring.
(c) It is an oviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are
hatched.
(d) It is a large, cold blooded animal and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold season.
Ans: (c)
44. As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic Society and an international polling firm Globe Scan gave India top rank in Greendex 2009 score. What is this score?
(a) It is a measure of efforts made by different countries in adopting technologies for reducing
carbon footprint?
(b) It is a measure of environmentally sustainable consumer behaviour in different countries.
(c) It is an assessment of programmes / schemes undertaken by different countries for
improving the conservation of natural resources.
(d) It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits sold by different countries.
Ans: (b)
45. Consider the following statements:
1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas.
2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book.
3. A drug called ‘taxol’ is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against Parkinson’s disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( d)
46. P, Q, R and S are four men. P is the oldest but not the poorest. R is the richest but not the oldest. Q is older than S but not than P or R. P is richer than Q but not than S. The four men can be ordered (descending) in respect of age and richness, respectively, as:
(a) PQRS, RPSQ
(b) PRQS, RSPQ
(c) PRQS, RSQP
(d) PRSQ, RSPQ
Ans: (b)
47. What causes wind to defect toward left in the Southern hemisphere?
(a) Temperature
(b) Magnetic field
(c) Rotation of the earth
(d) Pressure
Ans: (c)
Solution: The Coriolis Effect is a phenomenon that causes the deflection of moving objects (including wind) to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. This effect is caused by the rotation of the earth on its axis. As the earth rotates, any object moving across the surface of the earth appears to be deflected from its straight-line path.
In the Northern Hemisphere, the Coriolis Effect causes wind to deflect to the right of its intended path. In the Southern Hemisphere, wind is deflected to the left of its intended path.
48. Indiscriminate disposal of used fluorescent electric lamps causes mercury pollution in the environment. Why is mercury used in the manufacture of these lamps?
(a) A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright white.
(b) When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission of ultraviolet
radiations.
(c) When the lamp is switched on, it is the mercury which converts the ultra – violet energy into
visible light.
(d) None of the statement given above is correct about the use of mercury in the manufacture
of fluorescent lamps.
Ans: ( b)
49. If there were no Himalayan ranges, what would have been the most likely geographical impact on India?
1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.
2. Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils.
3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: ( d)
Solution: The Himalayan mountain range plays a significant role in the geography and climate of India. If the Himalayan ranges did not exist, it would have a significant impact on the geography and climate of India. The two most likely impacts would be:
- Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia: The Himalayas act as a natural barrier and protect northern India from the cold Siberian winds. If the Himalayas did not exist, these cold winds would sweep across the northern plains of India, causing much of the country to experience cold waves and extremely low temperatures.
- Indo-Gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvial soils: The Himalayas are responsible for the formation of the Indo-Gangetic plain, which is one of the most fertile agricultural regions in the world. The Himalayan rivers, which flow through the mountain range, carry large amounts of sediment and deposit it on the plains. If the Himalayas did not exist, the Indo-Gangetic plain would not have such extensive alluvial soils.
- The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present: The Himalayas play a significant role in the monsoon system that affects India. They act as a barrier and force the moist air from the Indian Ocean to rise, causing rainfall in the region. If the Himalayas did not exist, the pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
50. In the context of space technology, what is “Bhuvan”, recently in the news?
(a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India.
(b) The name given to the next moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan – II.
(c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3D imaging capabilities of India.
(d) A space telescope developed by India.
Ans: (c)
51. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass through
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Punjab
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans: (a)
52. A man fills a basket with eggs in such a way that the number of eggs added on each successive day is the same as the number already present in the basket. This way the basket gets completely filled in 24 days. After how many days the basket was 1 / 4th full?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 17
(d) 22
Ans: (d)
53. The diameters of two circular coins are in the ratio of 1 : 3. The smaller coin is made to roll around the bigger coin till it returns to the position from where the process of rolling started. How many times the smaller coin rolled around the bigger coin?
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 1.5
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
When a smaller coin rolls around a larger coin without slipping, it completes one extra rotation due to the curvature of the larger coin. The ratio of diameters is 1:3, so the smaller coin rolls 3 times due to the circumference and adds 1 extra rotation per full circle, totaling 4 rotations per cycle. But since the coin returns to the starting point after 1 full revolution around the larger coin, and the ratio is 1:3, the smaller coin rotates 6 times in total.
54. The difference between the simple interest received from two banks on Rs. 500 for two years is Rs. 2.50. What is the difference between their rates?
(a) 0.25%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1%
(d) 2.5%
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Using the formula for Simple Interest = (P × R × T)/100, where P = 500 and T = 2 years, the difference in interest is Rs. 2.50. Solving for rate difference:
(500 × R × 2)/100 = 2.5 → R = 0.25%.
So, the difference in rates is 0.25%.
55. When ten persons shake hands with one another, in how many ways is it possible?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 40
(d) 45
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Each handshake involves two people, and the number of unique handshakes among n people is given by the formula n(n−1)/2.
For 10 people: 10 × 9 / 2 = 45 handshakes.
56. A candidate attempted 12 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% in the test and all questions carried equal marks, then what is the number of questions in the test?
(a) 36
(b) 30
(c) 25
(d) 20
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Let total number of questions be x.
If each question carries equal marks and he scored full marks in 12 questions, then
(12/x) × 100 = 60 → x = 20.
So, the test had 20 questions.
57. In how many ways can four children be made to stand in a line such that two of them, A and B are always together?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Treat A and B as a single unit. So, we have 3 units to arrange: (AB), C, D → 3! = 6 ways.
But A and B can be arranged among themselves in 2 ways → Total = 6 × 2 = 12 ways.
58. In a meeting, the map of a village was placed in such a manner that south-east becomes north, north-east becomes west and so on. What will south become?
(a) North
(b) North-east
(c) North-west
(d) West
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
If south-east becomes north, then the directions are rotated 135° counter-clockwise.
So, south shifts to north-east.
Hence, south becomes north-east.
**59. Consider the following statements:
- The “Bombay Manifesto” signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals.
- It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.**
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Bombay Manifesto of 1936 was a document signed by prominent industrialists and businessmen. It opposed socialist ideologies and supported free enterprise and private ownership. It gained widespread support from the business community, making both statements correct.
60. Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?
(a) Nagarjuna
(b) Tukaram
(c) Tyagaraja
(d) Vallabhacharya
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Nagarjuna was a Buddhist philosopher, known for founding the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism. He was not associated with the Bhakti movement, unlike Tukaram, Tyagaraja, and Vallabhacharya, who were prominent Bhakti saints.
61. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global warming. To what possible reason / reasons is this attributable?
- The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane.
- When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated soil.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Rice cultivation under anaerobic (low oxygen) conditions leads to the production of methane, a potent greenhouse gas. Additionally, the use of nitrogen-based fertilizers results in the emission of nitrous oxide, another strong contributor to global warming. Both processes are significant in agricultural emissions.
62. Sustainable development is described as the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is intertwined with which of the following concepts?
(a) Social justice and empowerment
(b) Inclusive Growth
(c) Globalization
(d) Carrying capacity
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The concept of sustainable development is fundamentally linked to carrying capacity, which refers to the limit of resource use without degrading the environment. It ensures that development does not exceed the ecological threshold, preserving resources for future generations.
63. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for ethanol?
(a) Jatropha
(b) Maize
(c) Pongania
(d) Sunflower
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Maize is widely used for ethanol production due to its high starch content, which can be fermented into alcohol. Unlike Jatropha or Pongamia, which are used for biodiesel, maize is a key crop in bioethanol programs.
**64. Consider the following pairs:
Protected Area — Well Known for
- Bhiterkanika, Orissa — Salt Water Crocodile
- Desert National Park, Rajasthan — Great Indian Bustard
- Eravikulam, Kerala — Hoolock Gibbon**
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Bhiterkanika is famous for Salt Water Crocodiles, and Desert National Park is a habitat for the Great Indian Bustard. However, Eravikulam is known for the Nilgiri Tahr, not the Hoolock Gibbon, making only pairs 1 and 2 correct.
65. Some species of plants are insectivorous. Why?
(a) Their growth in shady and dark places does not allow them to undertake sufficient photosynthesis and thus they depend on insects for nutrition.
(b) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient soils and thus depend on insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition.
(c) They can not synthesize certain vitamins themselves and depend on the insects digested by them.
(d) They have remained in that particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link between autotrophs and heterotrophs.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Insectivorous plants like Nepenthes and Drosera thrive in nitrogen-deficient soils. They trap and digest insects to obtain nitrogen, which is essential for their growth. This adaptation helps them survive in nutrient-poor environments.
66. A person traveled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a part of the distance on foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a bicycle at the rate of 10 km per hour. How much distance did he travel on foot?
(a) 10 km
(b) 20 km
(c) 30 km
(d) 40 km
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Let the distance traveled on foot be x km. Then time taken = x/4.
Distance on bicycle = 50 − x, time = (50 − x)/10.
Total time = x/4 + (50 − x)/10 = 8 hours.
Solving gives x = 20 km. So, he walked 20 km.
**67. In the context of governance, consider the following:
- Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows.
- Privatization of higher educational Institutions.
- Down-sizing of bureaucracy.
- Selling / offloading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings.**
Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Down-sizing bureaucracy reduces government expenditure, and offloading PSU shares generates non-tax revenue, both helping to control fiscal deficit. The other options may have long-term effects but are not direct fiscal tools.
68. As per the UN-Habitat’s Global Report on Human Settlement 2009, which one among the following regions has shown the fastest growth rate of urbanization in the last three decades?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Latin America and Caribbean
(d) North America
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Asia has experienced the fastest urbanization due to rapid economic growth, migration, and population expansion. Countries like China and India have seen massive urban development, leading the global trend.
69. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?
(a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
(b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
(d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests cover the largest area in India. These forests are found in regions with moderate rainfall and are rich in timber species like teak and sal, making them ecologically and economically significant.
70. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of the following:
(a) Reduction of poverty
(b) Extension of employment opportunities
(c) Strengthening of capital market
(d) Reduction of gender inequality
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Inclusive growth focuses on poverty reduction, employment generation, and social equity, including gender equality. Strengthening capital markets is more aligned with financial sector reforms, not directly with inclusiveness.
71. How many numbers from 0 to 999 are not divisible by either 5 or 7?
(a) 313
(b) 341
(c) 686
(d) 786
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Total numbers from 0 to 999 = 1000.
Numbers divisible by 5 = 1000 ÷ 5 = 200
Numbers divisible by 7 = 1000 ÷ 7 ≈ 142
Numbers divisible by both 5 and 7 = 1000 ÷ 35 ≈ 28
Using inclusion-exclusion:
Total divisible by 5 or 7 = 200 + 142 − 28 = 314
Not divisible by either = 1000 − 314 = 686
72. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-made cotton yarn in the country. What could be the reason?
- Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the State.
- Rich pool of skilled labour is available.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Tamil Nadu’s dominance in cotton yarn production is due to its skilled labour force and industrial infrastructure, not black cotton soil. Black cotton soil is more common in central India, not Tamil Nadu.
73. Consider the following statements:
- On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1% of the total water found.
- Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth, 95% is bound up in polar ice caps and glaciers.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Only less than 1% of Earth’s water is accessible fresh water.
About 95% of fresh water is locked in ice caps and glaciers, making both statements correct.
74. Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to other three?
(a) Sand desert
(b) Paddy crop land
(c) Land covered with fresh snow
(d) Prairie land
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Fresh snow has high albedo, meaning it reflects a large portion of sunlight. This makes it more reflective than sand, crops, or grasslands.
75. Which of the following rivers flows through Himachal Pradesh?
(a) Beas only
(b) Beas and Ravi only
(c) Beas, Chenab, Ravi and Satluj only
(d) Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj and Yamuna
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Beas, Chenab, Ravi, and Satluj all flow through Himachal Pradesh.
Yamuna originates in Uttarakhand and does not pass through Himachal.
76. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
As per Article 281 of the Constitution, the President of India is responsible for laying Finance Commission recommendations before Parliament.
77. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Department of Economic Affairs, under the Ministry of Finance, prepares and presents the Union Budget to Parliament.
78. In a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E, there is a professor, a doctor and lawyer. A and D are unmarried ladies, and do not work. Of the married couple in the group, E is the husband. B is the brother of A and is neither a doctor nor a lawyer. Who is the professor?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) Cannot be determined with the available data
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A and D are unemployed, E is married, B is not a doctor or lawyer, so he must be the professor.
C is likely the doctor or lawyer, but B fits the professor role.
79. Consider the following actions by the Government:
- Cutting the tax rates
- Increasing the government spending
- Abolishing the subsidies
In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part of the “fiscal stimulus” package?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Fiscal stimulus involves tax cuts and increased government spending to boost demand.
Abolishing subsidies is a contractionary measure, not part of stimulus.
80. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are below twenty five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true?
(a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate.
(b) Some villagers under twenty five are literate.
(c) A quarter of the villagers who have their own houses cultivate paddy.
(d) Half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Since four-fifth are below 25 and one-third are literate, there must be some overlap.
So, some villagers under 25 are literate is certainly true.
81. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio, what does it mean?
(a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend.
(b) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend.
(c) The Union Government will have less money to lend.
(d) The commercial banks will have more money to lend.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
An increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) means commercial banks must keep more funds with the RBI, reducing the amount available for lending to customers. This is a tool used to control liquidity in the economy.
82. Who among the following Governor General created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Wellesley
(c) Cornwallis
(d) William Bentinck
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Lord Cornwallis is credited with creating the Covenanted Civil Service, laying the foundation for the Indian Civil Service (ICS). He introduced merit-based recruitment and formalized administrative roles.
83. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi movement?
(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon.
(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak.
(c) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh, and passing of the Punjab Colonization Bill.
(d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Swadeshi Movement was triggered by the partition of Bengal in 1905 by Lord Curzon, which was seen as an attempt to divide and rule. It led to widespread protests and promotion of indigenous goods.
**84. Consider the following statements:
- Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come in Champaran to investigate the problem of peasants.
- Acharya J. B. Kriplani was one of the Mahatma Gandhi’s colleagues in his Champaran investigation.**
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Acharya J. B. Kripalani was indeed part of Gandhi’s team during the Champaran Satyagraha. However, it was Raj Kumar Shukla, not Dr. Rajendra Prasad, who persuaded Gandhi to visit Champaran. So only statement 2 is correct.
85. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?
(a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector’s efficiency of revenue collection would enormously increase without the burden of other work.
(b) Lord Cornwallis felt that Judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the districts.
(c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person.
(d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and Lord Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be only a revenue collector.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Lord Cornwallis introduced reforms to separate revenue and judicial functions, fearing that concentrating too much power in the hands of the District Collector was unhealthy for governance. This led to the 1793 regulation.
**86. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
- As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW)), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.**
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
WPI is released weekly, not monthly, and it gives less weight to food items compared to CPI(IW), which focuses more on consumer goods and services. So only statement 2 is correct.
87. Each person’s performance compared with all other persons is to be done to rank them subjectively. How many comparisons are needed in total, if there are 11 persons?
(a) 66
(b) 55
(c) 54
(d) 45
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The number of comparisons among n persons is given by the formula n(n−1)/2.
For 11 persons: 11 × 10 / 2 = 55 comparisons.
88. What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works?
(a) Conduction only
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation only
(d) Both conduction and radiation
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A radiator in a car works primarily on convection, where heat is transferred from the engine coolant to the surrounding air. Convection currents help dissipate heat efficiently.
89. Which among the following do/does not belong to the GSM family of wireless technologies?
(a) EDGE
(b) LTE
(c) DSL
(d) Both EDGE and LTE
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is a wired broadband technology, not part of the GSM family.
EDGE and LTE are mobile communication standards under GSM evolution.
90. With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumors, a tool called cyber knife has been making the news. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) It is a robotic image guided system.
(b) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation.
(c) It has the capability of achieving sub-millimeter accuracy.
(d) It can be used for surgically removing the tumor.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The CyberKnife is a non-invasive robotic radiosurgery system that uses targeted radiation, not surgical removal. It delivers precise doses to tumors with sub-millimeter accuracy, minimizing damage to surrounding tissue.
91. Six books, A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side. B, C and E have blue cover and the other books have red cover. Only D and F are new books and the rest are old. A, C and D are law reports and other are Gazetteers. What book is a new law report with a red colour?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
We need a book that is new, a law report, and has a red cover.
From the data:
- D and F are new
- A, C, D are law reports
- B, C, E have blue covers, so D has red cover
Thus, D satisfies all three conditions.
**92. Following are the characteristics of an area in India:
- Hot and humid climate.
- Annual rainfall 200 cm.
- Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres.
- Annual range of temperature 15°C to 30°C.**
Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described above?
(a) Mustard
(b) Cotton
(c) Pepper
(d) Virginia tobacco
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Pepper thrives in hot, humid climates with high rainfall and moderate altitudes. The described conditions match the ideal environment for pepper cultivation, especially in regions like Kerala and Western Ghats.
93. Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1.5 km long tunnel in two minutes. What is the length of the train?
(a) 250 m
(b) 500 m
(c) 1000 m
(d) 1500 m
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Speed = 60 km/h = 1 km/min
Time = 2 min → Distance = Speed × Time = 2 km
Tunnel length = 1.5 km → Train length = 2 − 1.5 = 0.5 km = 500 m
**94. India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega science project under the 11th Five Year Plan. In this context, consider the following statements:
- Neutrinos are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
- Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
- Neutrinos have a negligible, but non-zero mass.
- Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second.**
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
All four statements are scientifically accurate.
Neutrinos are neutral, travel near light speed, are produced in beta decay, have tiny mass, and billions pass through us constantly without interaction.
95. The “Instrument of Instructions” contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the form of
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Emergency Provisions
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Instrument of Instructions in the 1935 Act served as guidelines to the executive, similar to the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution, which guide governance without being enforceable by law.
96. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as “exhaust”:
(a) NH₃
(b) CH₄
(c) H₂O
(d) H₂O₂
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Hydrogen fuel cells combine hydrogen and oxygen to produce electricity, and the only by-product is water (H₂O), making it an eco-friendly technology.
97. Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made popular for vision correction. Which one of the following statements in this context is not correct?
(a) LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye.
(b) It is a procedure that permanently changes the shape of the cornea.
(c) It reduces a person’s dependence on glasses or contact lenses.
(d) It is a procedure that can be done on the person of any age.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
LASIK is not suitable for all age groups, especially children or elderly with certain eye conditions. It is typically recommended for adults with stable vision. Other statements are correct.
**98. Consider the following:
- Oxides of Hydrogen
- Oxides of Nitrogen
- Oxides of Sulphur**
Which of the above are components of acid rain?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx) and Oxides of Sulphur (SOx) react with water to form nitric and sulphuric acids, causing acid rain. Oxides of Hydrogen do not contribute to acid rain.
99. Six persons M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each. Q is not at the end of any row. P is second to the left of R. O is the neighbour of Q and is sitting diagonally opposite to P. N is the neighbour of R. On the basis of above information, who is facing N?
(a) R
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) M
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Using logical placement and constraints, Q ends up facing N. The clues about diagonal positions and adjacency help deduce the correct arrangement.
100. A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2, 5 and 10 denomination. The number of different sums of money she can form from them is
(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 8
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Each note can be included or excluded, giving 2⁴ = 16 combinations.
But one combination is no note selected, i.e., sum = 0, which is not a valid sum.
So, valid sums = 16 − 1 = 15.
101. Consider the following countries:
- Brazil
- Mexico
- South Africa
According to UNCTAD, which of the above is/are categorized as “Emerging Economies”?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
UNCTAD classifies Brazil, Mexico, and South Africa as emerging economies due to their growing industrial base, expanding markets, and increasing global influence. These countries are part of various global economic forums and exhibit characteristics of transitioning from developing to developed status.
102. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?
(a) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(b) International Finance Corporation
(c) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
(d) Bank for International Settlements
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is an international financial institution that fosters cooperation among central banks. It is not affiliated with the United Nations, unlike the other three which are part of the World Bank Group, a UN-related body.
103. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Term — Most appropriate description
- Melt down — Fall in stock prices
- Recession — Fall in growth rate
- Slow down — Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A melt down refers to a sharp fall in stock prices.
Recession is defined by a fall in GDP, not just growth rate.
Slow down indicates reduced growth, not necessarily a fall in GDP.
So, only pair 1 is correctly matched.
104. With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements:
- At present, China’s GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other countries.
- China’s population is more than the combined population of any two other countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
China’s GDP surpasses the combined GDP of Brazil, Russia, and India.
Its population also exceeds the combined population of any two BRIC nations, making both statements correct.
105. Which one of the following is not a member of the World Bank Group?
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(b) International Finance Corporation
(c) International Development Association
(d) Bank for International Settlements
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Bank for International Settlements is not part of the World Bank Group.
The other three—IBRD, IFC, and IDA—are core institutions of the World Bank Group, focused on development finance.
106. Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General Assembly was in the international news. The commission was supposed to deal with
(a) The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a road map.
(b) The workings of the global financial systems and to explore ways and means to secure a more sustainable global order.
(c) Global terrorism and prepare a global action plan for the mitigation of terrorism.
(d) Expansion of the United Nations Security Council in the present global scenario.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Stiglitz Commission, led by economist Joseph Stiglitz, was formed to review global financial systems and recommend reforms for a more stable and equitable global economy, especially post the 2008 financial crisis.
107. With reference to the mineral sources of India, consider the following pairs:
Mineral — 90% National Sources in
- Copper — Jharkhand
- Nickel — Orissa
- Tungsten — Kerala
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Nickel is primarily found in Orissa.
Copper is mostly found in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, not Jharkhand.
Tungsten is found in Rajasthan, not Kerala.
So, only pair 2 is correct.
108. As regards the use of international food safety standards as reference point for the dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborate with?
(a) Codex Alimentarius Commission
(b) International Federation of Standards Users
(c) International Organization for Standardization
(d) World Standards Cooperation
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The WTO uses standards set by the Codex Alimentarius Commission for resolving food safety disputes. This body is jointly run by FAO and WHO, and sets global benchmarks for food quality and safety.
109. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops?
(a) Rice and Wheat only
(b) Rice, wheat and pulses only
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only
(d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) focuses on increasing production of rice, wheat, and pulses through area expansion and productivity enhancement, especially in low-yield districts.
110. In India, the interest rate on savings account in all the nationalized commercial banks is fixed by
(a) Union Ministry of Finance
(b) Union Finance Commission
(c) Indian Banks’ Association
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates the interest rate policy for savings accounts in nationalized banks, ensuring consistency and alignment with monetary policy objectives.
111. With reference to the Simon Commission’s recommendations, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the province.
(b) It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department.
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre.
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Simon Commission (1927) recommended the abolition of diarchy and introduction of responsible government in provinces, laying groundwork for the Government of India Act, 1935. It did not propose changes to the central legislature or police service structure.
112. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in 1906. The question of either retention or rejection of these four resolutions became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions?
(a) Annulment of partition of Bengal
(b) Boycott
(c) National education
(d) Swadeshi
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Surat Split (1907) was triggered by differences over four resolutions: Swadeshi, Boycott, National Education, and Self-Government. While annulment of Bengal’s partition was a demand, it was not one of the four resolutions that caused the split.
113. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X?
(a) 8%
(b) 9%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Let Z = 100.
Then X = 80, Y = 72.
Difference = 8 → (8/80) × 100 = 10%.
So, Y is 10% less than X.
114. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “The Way Out”. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet?
(a) The establishment of a “War Advisory Council” composed of representatives of British India and the Indian States.
(b) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except the Governor General and the Commander-in-Chief should be Indian leaders.
(c) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible.
(d) A solution for the constitutional deadlock.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
C. Rajagopalachari’s pamphlet “The Way Out” proposed a compromise formula to resolve the constitutional deadlock between the Congress and the Muslim League, advocating acceptance of Pakistan in principle followed by a plebiscite.
115. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta Caves. Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings?
(a) Bagh Caves
(b) Ellora Caves
(c) Lomas Rishi Caves
(d) Nasik Caves
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh contain Gupta period paintings, similar in style to those at Ajanta, showcasing Buddhist themes and artistic excellence of the era.
116. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at:
(a) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972
(b) UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
(c) World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002
(d) UN Climate Change Conference, Copenhagen, 2009
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The UNFCCC was adopted at the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, aiming to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations and guide global efforts on climate change mitigation.
117. Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can be used for treating oil spills?
(a) Agrobacterium
(b) Clostridium
(c) Nitrosomonas
(d) Pseudomonas
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Pseudomonas strains are genetically engineered to degrade hydrocarbons, making them effective in bioremediation of oil spills due to their metabolic versatility.
118. Which feature of some species of blue-green algae helps promote them as bio-fertilizers?
(a) They convert atmospheric methane into ammonia which the crop plants can absorb readily.
(b) They induce the crop plants to produce the enzymes which help convert atmospheric nitrogen to nitrates.
(c) They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop plants can absorb readily.
(d) They induce the roots of the crop plants to absorb the soil nitrates in larger quantities.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Blue-green algae (cyanobacteria) like Anabaena and Nostoc possess nitrogen-fixing ability, converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia, which is readily absorbed by plants, enhancing soil fertility.
119. India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites. Which of the following statements best describes how we should maintain these sites in the context of this Convention?
(a) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man so that they will not be exploited.
(b) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and permit tourism and recreation only.
(c) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach for a period without any exploitation, with specific criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow sustainable use of them by future generations.
(d) Sustainable use.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Ramsar Convention promotes wise use of wetlands, which means sustainable utilization for the benefit of present and future generations, balancing conservation and human activity.
120. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option for the production of bio-diesel in India?
- Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.
- The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half is oleic acid.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Pongamia pinnata is a drought-resistant tree that grows in arid regions and its seeds contain high lipid content, especially oleic acid, making it suitable for bio-diesel production.
121. A geographical area with an altitude of 400 metres has following characteristics:
Month-wise average maximum temperature: 28–31°C
Month-wise average minimum temperature: 20–21°C
Rainfall: 51 mm to 221 mm throughout the year
If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would it most likely be?
(a) Moist temperate coniferous forest
(b) Montane subtropical forest
(c) Temperate forest
(d) Tropical rain forest
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The area shows high rainfall and consistently warm temperatures, which are ideal for tropical rain forests. These forests thrive in low-altitude, humid zones with dense vegetation and year-round precipitation.
122. If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because:
(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose.
(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves.
(c) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water.
(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas paper is a dead organic material.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Microwaves heat food by exciting water molecules. Potatoes contain water, so they absorb microwave energy and heat up. Paper plates lack water, so they remain unaffected by the microwaves.
123. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
- Fundamental Rights
- Fundamental Duties
- Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provision of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The National Social Assistance Programme aligns with the Directive Principles of State Policy, especially Article 41, which directs the state to provide public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disability.
124. A new type of El Niño called El Niño Modoki appeared in the news. In this context, consider the following statements:
- Normal El Niño forms in the Central Pacific Ocean whereas El Niño Modoki forms in Eastern Pacific Ocean.
- Normal El Niño results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean but El Niño Modoki results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
El Niño Modoki forms in the central Pacific, while normal El Niño originates in the eastern Pacific. Modoki is associated with increased hurricane activity in the Atlantic, unlike the traditional El Niño which suppresses it.
125. MON 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason:
(a) It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought.
(b) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant.
(c) It is a genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular maize crop.
(d) It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for bio-fuel production.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
MON 863 is a genetically modified maize developed to be resistant to pests, specifically the corn rootworm, through the expression of Bt toxin.
126. A cuboid has six sides of different colours. The red side is opposite to black. The blue side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is face down. Which one of the following would be the opposite to brown?
(a) Red
(b) Black
(c) White
(d) Blue
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Given the spatial relationships:
- Red is opposite Black
- Blue is adjacent to White and Brown
- Red is face down
From this, White must be opposite Brown, based on adjacency and cube orientation.
127. Consider the following statements. The satellite Oceansat-2 launched by India helps in:
- Estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere
- Predicting the onset of monsoons
- Monitoring the pollution of coastal waters
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Oceansat-2 is designed for oceanographic and atmospheric studies, including water vapour estimation, monsoon prediction, and coastal pollution monitoring, making all three statements correct.
128. Genetically modified “golden rice” has been engineered to meet human nutritional requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice?
(a) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per acre than other high yielding varieties.
(b) Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the human body.
(c) Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids.
(d) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Golden rice is genetically engineered to produce beta-carotene (pro-vitamin A) in its grains, which the human body converts into vitamin A, helping combat vitamin A deficiency.
129. In a tournament 14 teams play league matches. If each team plays against every other team once only then how many matches are played?
(a) 105
(b) 91
(c) 85
(d) 78
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Number of matches = n(n−1)/2
For 14 teams: 14 × 13 / 2 = 91 matches
130. The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact:
- On its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest)
- If he seeks such an advice
- Only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Under Article 143, the President may seek advisory opinion from the Supreme Court, but the Court cannot initiate advice on its own. The advice is not limited to Fundamental Rights, making only statement 2 correct.
131. Chlorination is a process used for water purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is mainly due to
(a) The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to water.
(b) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water.
(c) The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water.
(d) The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
When chlorine is added to water, it forms hypochlorous acid, which then releases nascent oxygen. This nascent oxygen is highly reactive and responsible for the disinfection by killing pathogens and microbes.
132. With reference to the Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigation stage and not those matters pending before any court.
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Lok Adalats can settle pre-litigation and pending cases, including civil and compoundable criminal matters. They comprise judicial officers and other persons as prescribed. Hence, none of the given statements is fully correct.
133. Consider the following:
- Bluetooth device
- Cordless phone
- Microwave oven
- Wi-Fi device
Which of the above can operate between 2.4 and 2.5 GHz range of radio frequency band?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
All listed devices—Bluetooth, cordless phones, microwave ovens, and Wi-Fi—can operate in the 2.4 to 2.5 GHz frequency band, which is a common ISM band used for wireless communication and household appliances.
134. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following statements:
- Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
- Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Coffee thrives in hot and humid tropical climates and is generally propagated by seeds.
Tea grows in tropical and subtropical regions and is usually propagated by stem cuttings, making both statements correct.
135. In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase “Special Safeguard Mechanisms” mentioned in the news frequently?
(a) United Nations Environment Programme
(b) World Trade Organization
(c) ASEAN–India Free Trade Agreement
(d) G-20 Summits
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Special Safeguard Mechanisms (SSM) are trade tools under the World Trade Organization (WTO) that allow developing countries to temporarily increase tariffs to protect domestic farmers from import surges or price drops.
136. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for providing credit to the government?
(a) Cash Credit Ratio
(b) Debt Service Obligation
(c) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is a tool used by the RBI to manage liquidity in the banking system. Through repo and reverse repo operations, banks can lend to or borrow from the government, influencing credit availability.
137. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a “Trade Mark” and a Geographical Indication is/are:
- A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right.
- A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
- A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Trade Marks are individual/company rights and can be licensed.
Geographical Indications (GIs) are community rights and cannot be licensed.
However, GIs can apply to manufactured goods too, not just agriculture or handicrafts, making statement 3 incorrect.
138. The SEZ Act, 2005, which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following:
- Development of infrastructure facilities.
- Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
- Promotion of exports of services only.
Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The SEZ Act, 2005 aims to promote infrastructure development and foreign investment to boost exports of goods and services, not just services. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
139. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?
(a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies.
(b) It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy.
(c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services.
(d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Deflation refers to a sustained decrease in the general price level of goods and services, often leading to reduced consumer spending, lower profits, and economic slowdown.
140. Consider the following statements:
- Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.
- India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e. Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Biodiversity hotspots are found in both tropical and temperate regions, and India has three recognized hotspots: Western Ghats, Indo-Burma (including Eastern Himalayas), and Himalaya, with Andaman & Nicobar included within Indo-Burma.
So, both statements are incorrect.
141. Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an effective malaria vaccine?
(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium.
(b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection.
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria.
(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Malaria is caused by multiple species of Plasmodium, such as P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. ovale, each with distinct antigens. This diversity makes it challenging to develop a universal vaccine, as immunity against one species may not protect against others.
142. Consider the following statements:
- The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation.
- A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna.
- In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
National Parks have legally defined boundaries and stricter protection.
Biosphere Reserves aim to conserve entire ecosystems, not just specific species.
Wildlife Sanctuaries allow regulated human activity, making statements 1 and 3 correct.
143. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: Food crop → Rat → Snake → Hawk. In this food chain the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?
(a) Food crop
(b) Rat
(c) Snake
(d) Hawk
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
This is an example of biomagnification, where toxic substances like chlorinated hydrocarbons accumulate in higher concentrations at each trophic level. The hawk, being at the top, accumulates the highest concentration.
144. With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices:
- Crop rotation
- Sand fences
- Terracing
- Wind breaks
Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Crop rotation, terracing, and wind breaks are widely used in India for soil conservation.
Sand fences are more relevant in desert environments, making 1, 3, and 4 the most applicable.
145. With reference to the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider the following statements:
- They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
- They cannot accept demand deposits like saving accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
NBFCs are not allowed to accept demand deposits, such as savings or current accounts.
However, they can invest in government securities, making statement 1 incorrect and statement 2 correct.
146. Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003?
(a) Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007–2008.
(b) Non-borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except under certain circumstances.
(c) Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008–2009.
(d) Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The FRBM Act focused on eliminating revenue deficit, limiting borrowings, and capping guarantees, but it did not specifically mandate elimination of primary deficit, making option (c) incorrect.
147. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart?
(a) 3/2
(b) 4/3
(c) 3/4
(d) 15/2
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Relative speed = 60 + 40 = 100 kmph
Time = Distance / Speed = 150 / 100 = 1.5 hours = 3/2
148. A question paper had ten questions. Each question could only be answered as True (T) or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions. Yet, no two candidates wrote the answers in an identical sequence. How many different sequences of answers are possible?
(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 512
(d) 1024
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Each question has 2 options (T or F) → Total combinations = 2¹⁰ = 1024
149. In the parlance of financial investments, the term ‘bear’ denotes:
(a) An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall.
(b) An investor who expects the price of a particular share to rise.
(c) An investor who is indifferent to market fluctuations.
(d) An investor who is interested in diversified portfolios.
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A bear is an investor who expects prices to fall and may sell securities in anticipation of a decline, often engaging in short selling.
150. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why?
(a) India has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI.
(b) India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius.
(c) Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India.
(d) Impending dangers of global climate change prompt Mauritius to make huge investment in India.
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
India’s Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) with Mauritius allows investors to avoid paying capital gains tax in India, making Mauritius a preferred route for FDI, especially in portfolio investments.
