UPSC Prelims 1982 Solved Question Paper
Q1. President of India is elected by
Answer: (c) Elected representatives of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies
Explanation:The President of India is elected through an indirect election by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union territories. This ensures federal representation and maintains the balance of power between the Union and the States.
Q2. The recent IMF loan to India will help immediately
Answer: (c) To correct the adverse balance of payments
Explanation:The IMF loan is primarily aimed at stabilizing the economy by addressing the adverse balance of payments, which occurs when a country’s imports exceed exports, leading to a foreign exchange deficit. Such loans are intended to restore financial equilibrium, not to fund development programmes or poverty alleviation directly.
Q3. The present UN Secretary General is
Answer: (a) Javier Perez de Cuellar
Explanation:In 1982, the Secretary-General of the United Nations was Javier Perez de Cuellar, a diplomat from Peru. He succeeded Kurt Waldheim and served from 1982 to 1991, becoming the first Latin American to hold the position. His tenure was marked by efforts in peacekeeping and international diplomacy.
Q4. New Moore Island is the cause of dispute between India and
Answer: (c) Bangladesh
Explanation:New Moore Island, also known as South Talpatti, emerged in the Bay of Bengal and became a point of territorial dispute between India and Bangladesh. The island was claimed by both countries due to its strategic location and potential maritime rights, although it later submerged due to rising sea levels.
Q5. Which is the most urbanised State in India ?
Answer: (b) Maharashtra
Explanation:In the context of 1982, Maharashtra was considered the most urbanised state due to the presence of major cities like Mumbai, Pune, and Nagpur, which contributed significantly to urban population growth, industrialisation, and economic activity.
Q6. To visit Tuticorin, Mangalore and Paradip, one does not require to go to
Answer: (b) Kerala
Explanation:Tuticorin is in Tamil Nadu, Mangalore in Karnataka, and Paradip in Orissa. Kerala is not associated with any of these ports, so one does not need to go through Kerala to visit them. The question tests geographical awareness of Indian coastal cities.
Q7. Recently, the birth centenary of whom was celebrated ?
Answer: (d) Subramania Bharathi
Explanation:The birth centenary celebrated in 1982 was that of Subramania Bharathi, a renowned Tamil poet, freedom fighter, and social reformer. His works inspired nationalism, and he is remembered for his visionary poetry and progressive ideals.
Q8. Mahamasthak-abisheka ceremony was performed in Karnataka in 1982 for
Answer: (b) Lord Bahubali
Explanation:The Mahamasthakabhisheka is a grand Jain ritual performed for the statue of Lord Bahubali at Shravanabelagola in Karnataka. Held once every 12 years, the ceremony involves anointing the statue with sacred substances and is a major religious and cultural event.
Q9. Which of the following was not a factor for retardation of industrial growth last year?
Answer: (d) Non-availability of funds
Explanation:While energy crisis, raw material shortages, and labour unrest were significant challenges to industrial growth, non-availability of funds was not a major factor in that particular year. The question highlights the economic conditions affecting industrial productivity.
Q10. The person who was assassinated in the following list is
Answer: (b) Ziaur Rahman
Explanation:Ziaur Rahman, the President of Bangladesh, was assassinated in 1981. He played a key role in the Bangladesh Liberation War and later became a prominent political figure. His assassination marked a period of political instability in Bangladesh.
Q11. Ramanuj Acharya gave stress on
Answer: (a) Bhakti
Explanation:Ramanuj Acharya, a prominent Vaishnavite philosopher, emphasized Bhakti (devotion) as the path to attain liberation. He believed in personal devotion to God and rejected the idea that only ascetics or scholars could achieve spiritual goals.
Q12. The concept of welfare state is included in the Constitution of India in
Answer: (d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation:The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution aim to establish a welfare state by guiding the government to ensure social and economic justice, education, health, and livelihood for all citizens.
Q13. How many members can be nominated to the Lok Sabha by the President ?
Answer: (a) 2
Explanation:The President of India can nominate 2 members to the Lok Sabha, specifically from the Anglo-Indian community, if he/she feels they are not adequately represented. This provision was part of efforts to ensure inclusive representation.
Q14. Melbourne declaration was connected with
Answer: (c) Reducing the economic inequality between the developed and the developing countries
Explanation:The Melbourne Declaration focused on bridging the economic gap between developed and developing nations, promoting global equity, and encouraging international cooperation for sustainable development.
Q15. Chambal river flows through the States of
Answer: (c) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
Explanation:The Chambal River flows through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan. It is known for its ravine landscapes and has been a focus of soil conservation efforts due to severe erosion in its basin.
Q16. The dispute regarding the election of President of India is to be referred to
Answer: (b) Supreme Court
Explanation:Any dispute related to the election of the President of India is settled by the Supreme Court, as per Article 71 of the Constitution. The Court has exclusive jurisdiction in such matters, ensuring legal clarity and fairness.
Q17. If President wants to resign, he should address his resignation letter to the
Answer: (d) Vice-President
Explanation:As per Article 56 of the Constitution, the President of India submits his resignation to the Vice-President. This ensures a constitutional transition of power and maintains the hierarchical protocol.
Q18. Council of Ministers of the Union of India is responsible to
Answer: (d) Lok Sabha
Explanation:The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament. This reflects the parliamentary system of governance, where the executive is accountable to the legislature.
Q19. When a money bill is passed by the Parliament, the President has the power to
Answer: (d) Return it for reconsideration
Explanation:Although Money Bills are introduced only in the Lok Sabha, the President can return the bill for reconsideration. However, if it is passed again, the President is obliged to give assent, showing limited discretion in financial legislation.
Q20. 156th member of UNO is
Answer: (a) Belize
Explanation:Belize became the 156th member of the United Nations, marking its recognition as a sovereign state. Admission to the UN signifies international legitimacy and access to global diplomatic platforms.
Q21. America's space shuttle is
Answer: (d) Columbia
Explanation:The Columbia was the first space shuttle launched by NASA under its Space Shuttle Program. Unlike Voyager and Apollo, which were space probes and moon missions, Columbia was designed for reusable spaceflight.
Q22. The personality who is not connected with 1857 mutiny is
Answer: (a) Bhagat Singh
Explanation:Bhagat Singh was a revolutionary active during the freedom movement in the 1920s, not during the 1857 revolt. The others—Lakshmibai, Tantia Tope, and Nana Saheb—were prominent leaders in the First War of Independence.
Q23. The India-Pakistan boundary line has reference to
Answer: (b) Radcliffe Line
Explanation:The Radcliffe Line was drawn by Sir Cyril Radcliffe in 1947 to demarcate the boundary between India and Pakistan during Partition. The McMohan Line relates to India-China, and the Durand Line to India-Afghanistan.
Q24. Which of the following countries has been elected to the Security Council recently for a two-year term ?
Answer: (c) Pakistan
Explanation:In the context of 1982, Pakistan was elected to the UN Security Council for a two-year term as a non-permanent member, reflecting its diplomatic engagement in global affairs.
Q25. Antyodaya scheme is aimed for
Answer: (d) Uplifting the poorest among the poor
Explanation:The Antyodaya scheme focuses on uplifting the poorest of the poor, ensuring targeted welfare and economic support to the most disadvantaged sections of society.
Q26. NABARD, which is set up to provide loans for rural development, is a
Answer: (a) Bank
Explanation:NABARD stands for National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development. It is a development bank that provides credit and financial services for rural development, especially in agriculture and allied sectors.
Q27. Which of the following shipyards makes warships ?
Answer: (c) Mazagon Dock
Explanation:Mazagon Dock, located in Mumbai, is known for building warships and submarines for the Indian Navy, making it a key player in defence manufacturing.
Q28. Who among the following is associated with a film on Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: (a) Richard Attenborough
Explanation:Richard Attenborough, a British filmmaker, directed the acclaimed film “Gandhi”, which won several Academy Awards and brought global attention to Mahatma Gandhi’s life and philosophy.
Q29. The 1981 Nobel Prize for literature has been awarded to
Answer: (b) Elias Canetti
Explanation:Elias Canetti, a Bulgarian-born writer, received the 1981 Nobel Prize in Literature for his rich literary work, especially his novel “Auto-da-Fé” and his philosophical writings.
Q30. The 1980 Bharatiya Jnanpith award has been given to
Answer: (c) S. K. Pottekkatt
Explanation:S. K. Pottekkatt, a renowned Malayalam writer, received the Jnanpith Award in 1980 for his contribution to Indian literature, especially his travelogues and novels that reflect Kerala’s culture and ethos.
Q31. The largest source of energy in India is
Answer: (c) Thermal
Explanation:In 1982, thermal energy was the largest source of power generation in India, primarily derived from coal-fired plants. It played a dominant role due to abundant coal reserves, despite the growing interest in hydro and renewable sources.
Q32. North-South dialogue has reference to
Answer: (a) Developed and Developing countries
Explanation:The North-South dialogue refers to discussions between developed (North) and developing (South) nations aimed at reducing global inequalities, promoting economic cooperation, and addressing development challenges.
Q33. Flood hit areas are to be immediately given medical cover. Which of the following is the most appropriate step ?
Answer: (b) Inoculation against Cholera
Explanation:In flood-hit areas, the risk of waterborne diseases like Cholera increases due to contaminated water and poor sanitation. Hence, inoculation against Cholera is the most urgent and appropriate medical response.
Q34. Irrigation facilities should be improved urgently in India because
Answer: (b) Monsoon is irregular
Explanation:India’s monsoon patterns are highly unpredictable, leading to frequent droughts or floods. Improving irrigation facilities ensures stable agricultural output and reduces dependency on seasonal rainfall.
Q35. Mixed economy means
Answer: (b) Coexistence of private and public sectors
Explanation:A mixed economy combines elements of both capitalism and socialism, allowing private enterprises to coexist with government-owned sectors. India adopted this model to balance economic growth with social welfare.
Q36. Who got the Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding in 1981 ?
Answer: (d) Gunnar Myrdal and Alva Myrdal
Explanation:Gunnar Myrdal and Alva Myrdal, renowned Swedish intellectuals, received the Jawaharlal Nehru Award for their contributions to international peace, development, and understanding, reflecting their global humanitarian work.
Q37. White paper is a
Answer: (c) Document published by the government on matters of national importance
Explanation:A White Paper is an authoritative report issued by the government to outline policy decisions, legislative proposals, or national issues, serving as a tool for public consultation and transparency.
Q38. The 1982 Asian Games are going to be held in India for the
Answer: (b) Second time
Explanation:India hosted the Asian Games for the second time in 1982, the first being in 1951. The New Delhi Games marked a significant milestone in India’s sports infrastructure and international participation.
Q39. The rupee exchange rate is currently linked with
Answer: (d) Basket of currencies
Explanation:In the early 1980s, India adopted a managed exchange rate system, linking the rupee to a basket of currencies to ensure stability and flexibility in international trade, rather than pegging it to a single currency.
Q40. First Five-Year Plan laid stress on
Answer: (a) Agriculture
Explanation:India’s First Five-Year Plan (1951–56) focused primarily on agriculture, aiming to achieve food security, improve irrigation, and boost rural development. This was essential for a newly independent nation with a predominantly agrarian economy.
Q41. Vayudoot is
Answer: (d) The third airline in India
Explanation:Vayudoot was launched as the third airline in India to provide regional air connectivity to remote and underserved areas. It operated under the public sector, aiming to make air travel accessible beyond major cities.
Q42. States earn more revenue directly through which of the following taxes ?
Answer: (a) Sales tax
Explanation:Sales tax was a major source of direct revenue for State Governments before the introduction of GST. Unlike custom and excise duties, which are levied by the Central Government, sales tax was collected on intra-state transactions.
Q43. "Once again India leads the world" are the words of
Answer: (d) None of these
Explanation:The quote "Once again India leads the world" is not attributed to any of the listed personalities. It is likely a general patriotic expression or from a contemporary source, hence the correct answer is none of these.
Q44. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, a provision has been made in the
Answer: (c) Fundamental Duties
Explanation:The duty to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India is enshrined in the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of the Constitution. These duties serve as moral obligations for citizens to preserve the nation’s integrity.
Q45. Which of the following States in India has the highest density of population ?
Answer: (d) Bihar
Explanation:In the context of 1982, Bihar had the highest population density, reflecting a high concentration of people per square kilometre. This was due to factors like fertile land, limited urban migration, and high birth rates.
Q46. Which tax is not levied by the Central Government ?
Answer: (b) Profession tax
Explanation:Profession tax is levied by State Governments, not the Central Government. It applies to individuals earning income through employment or profession, and varies across states.
Q47. Who among the following founded Ramakrishna Mission ?
Answer: (c) Swami Vivekananda
Explanation:Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to promote spiritual development, education, and social service, inspired by the teachings of Sri Ramakrishna Paramahamsa.
Q48. Finance Commission is appointed for
Answer: (d) Making recommendations to the President regarding the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of the taxes
Explanation:The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that advises the President on the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and States, ensuring fiscal balance and equity.
Q49. Operation Flood refers to
Answer: (c) Dairy development for increased milk production
Explanation:Operation Flood was a landmark initiative launched by NDDB to boost milk production, making India the largest producer of milk. It revolutionized the dairy sector and empowered rural farmers.
Q50. Multinational means
Answer: (d) A company operating in more than one country
Explanation:A multinational company operates in multiple countries, managing production, marketing, and services across borders. It plays a key role in global trade, investment, and economic integration.
Q51. Flame of the forest is
Answer: (a) A tree blossomed with flowers like flame in leafless season
Explanation:Flame of the forest refers to the Butea monosperma tree, known for its bright orange-red flowers that bloom during the leafless season, giving the appearance of flames across the landscape. It is a symbolic and ornamental tree in India.
Q52. The newly elected President of France is
Answer: (c) Francois Mitterrand
Explanation:In 1981, Francois Mitterrand was elected as the President of France, representing the Socialist Party. His election marked a political shift in French governance and introduced progressive reforms.
Q53. Wealth tax on agricultural property is levied by
Answer: (b) State Government
Explanation:Wealth tax on agricultural property is levied by the State Government, as agricultural income and property fall under the legislative jurisdiction of the states in the Indian Constitution.
Q54. The 45th Amendment to the Indian Constitution relates to
Answer: (c) Extension of reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Explanation:The 45th Amendment extended the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, reinforcing India’s commitment to social justice and representation.
Q55. Directive Principles of State Policy are included in which part of the Indian Constitution ?
Answer: (a) Part IV
Explanation:The Directive Principles of State Policy are found in Part IV of the Constitution. They guide the State in formulating policies to ensure economic and social welfare, though they are non-justiciable.
Q56. Main source of India's national income is from
Answer: (a) Agriculture
Explanation:In 1982, agriculture was the primary contributor to India’s national income, employing a majority of the population and forming the backbone of the rural economy.
Q57. To an astronaut in the spacecraft, the sky appears to be
Answer: (c) Dark
Explanation:In space, the sky appears dark because there is no atmosphere to scatter sunlight. Astronauts see a black sky, even when the Sun is shining, due to the absence of atmospheric diffusion.
Q58. The rich source of iron is
Answer: (b) Green vegetables
Explanation:Green leafy vegetables like spinach are rich in iron, which is essential for hemoglobin formation and oxygen transport in the body. They are a natural and accessible source of dietary iron.
Q59. Which among the following acts as a resistance against disease in the body ?
Answer: (d) White Corpuscles
Explanation:White blood corpuscles (WBCs) are key components of the immune system, defending the body against infections and diseases. They identify and neutralize pathogens, acting as the first line of defense.
Q60. A fan makes a hot noon to feel cool by
Answer: (b) Increasing the rate of evaporation
Explanation:A fan increases the rate of evaporation of sweat from the skin, which absorbs body heat and creates a cooling effect. This is a physical process that helps regulate body temperature during hot conditions.
Q61. When a ship enters a sea from a river, its portion under water will
Answer: (b) Decrease
Explanation:When a ship moves from a river (freshwater) to the sea (saltwater), the density of water increases, causing the ship to displace less water. As a result, the portion of the ship submerged decreases, demonstrating the principle of buoyancy.
Q62. A universal donor has the blood group belonging to
Answer: (c) O
Explanation:Blood group O is called the universal donor because it lacks A and B antigens, making it compatible for transfusion to any other blood group. This is crucial in emergency situations where matching blood may not be available.
Q63. The substance generally used in the tip of safety match stick is
Answer: (d) Antimony trisulphide
Explanation:Antimony trisulphide is commonly used in the match head along with oxidizing agents. It helps in ignition when struck against the friction surface, which typically contains red phosphorus.
Q64. Retina in the eyes acts as a in the camera
Answer: (c) Film
Explanation:The retina functions like the film in a camera, capturing light signals and converting them into electrical impulses that are sent to the brain. It plays a vital role in visual perception.
Q65. Milk of the animals fed on grass contains large amounts of fat in
Answer: (b) Winter
Explanation:During winter, animals consume nutrient-rich grass, and their metabolism slows, leading to higher fat content in milk. Seasonal changes affect the composition of milk, especially its fat percentage.
Q66. The process by which metal surface is coated with thin layer of zinc is called
Answer: (b) Galvanising
Explanation:Galvanising is the process of coating iron or steel with a thin layer of zinc to prevent rusting. It provides corrosion resistance and is widely used in construction and manufacturing.
Q67. Kilowatt is the unit of
Answer: (b) Power
Explanation:A kilowatt (kW) is a unit of power, representing 1000 watts. It measures the rate of energy consumption or generation, commonly used in electricity billing and appliances.
Q68. Honey bees are called social insects because
Answer: (a) They visit all flowers to collect nectar
Explanation:Honey bees are termed social insects due to their organized colony structure, division of labor, and cooperative behavior. Their nectar collection and communication through dances reflect complex social interactions.
Q69. The sun derives its energy from
Answer: (b) Nuclear fusion reactions
Explanation:The Sun’s energy comes from nuclear fusion, where hydrogen nuclei combine to form helium, releasing tremendous energy. This process occurs in the core of the Sun and powers its radiation and heat.
Q70. Metals used in voltaic cell are
Answer: (c) Zinc and copper
Explanation:A typical voltaic cell uses zinc as the anode and copper as the cathode. The electrochemical reaction between these metals generates electric current, forming the basis of battery technology.
Q71. Vitamins do not act as a/an
Answer: (a) Source of energy
Explanation:Vitamins are essential for regulating metabolic processes and supporting growth, but they do not provide energy. Unlike carbohydrates or fats, vitamins act as catalysts in biochemical reactions without being a direct energy source.
Q72. Which of the following is useful in the chemistry of photography
Answer: (a) Silver bromide
Explanation:Silver bromide is a light-sensitive compound used in photographic films. When exposed to light, it undergoes a chemical change, forming the image. Its photosensitivity makes it crucial in traditional photography.
Q73. Which of the following enters human body through skin
Answer: (c) Ring worm
Explanation:Ringworm is a fungal infection that affects the skin, entering through direct contact. It causes itchy, circular rashes and spreads via contaminated surfaces or infected individuals.
Q74. The dress made out of which of the following is safe to wear while cooking ?
Answer: (d) Cotton
Explanation:Cotton is natural, breathable, and less flammable compared to synthetic fabrics like nylon or terylene, which can melt and stick to skin. Hence, cotton is safer for cooking environments.
Q75. The purest form of water is obtained from
Answer: (d) Heavy rains
Explanation:Rainwater, especially during initial showers, is considered the purest form as it results from natural distillation. It is free from dissolved salts, though it may pick up impurities from the atmosphere.
Q76. Chlorophyll is a/an
Answer: (b) A green pigment found in the plants
Explanation:Chlorophyll is the green pigment in plants responsible for photosynthesis, allowing them to absorb sunlight and convert it into chemical energy. It plays a central role in plant metabolism.
Q77. Health hazard floods are responsible for the spread of
Answer: (a) Cholera
Explanation:Floods contaminate drinking water sources, leading to outbreaks of waterborne diseases like Cholera, which spreads through infected water and food, causing severe dehydration and diarrhea.
Q78. Gasohol is mixture of gasoline and
Answer: (a) Ethyl alcohol
Explanation:Gasohol is a blend of gasoline and ethyl alcohol, used as an alternative fuel. It helps in reducing fossil fuel consumption and emissions, making it a cleaner energy source.
Q79. Ozone present in the ozone layer of the atmosphere is important because
Answer: (c) It helps in the growth of the plants by absorbing a large proportion of the sun's ultraviolet radiations
Explanation:The ozone layer absorbs harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the Sun, protecting living organisms from DNA damage and skin diseases. This shielding effect is vital for ecological balance.
Q80. Hydroponics means
Answer: (a) Cultivation of plants without the use of soil
Explanation:Hydroponics is a method of growing plants in nutrient-rich water, without using soil. It allows for controlled environments, efficient resource use, and is ideal for urban agriculture.
Q81. During cardiac failure, which of the following is advised as a first aid?
Answer: (a) Mouth to mouth resuscitation
Explanation:In the event of cardiac failure, mouth-to-mouth resuscitation is a critical first aid technique to restore breathing and oxygen supply. It helps maintain vital functions until professional medical help arrives.
Q82. Pearls are formed inside
Answer: (c) Oysters
Explanation:Pearls are formed inside oysters when an irritant enters the shell. The oyster secretes nacre, a smooth substance, around the irritant, gradually forming a pearl. This is a natural defense mechanism.
Q83. Diamond and Emerald contain
Answer: (a) Carbon and silicon
Explanation:Diamond is composed of pure carbon, while emerald contains silicon along with beryllium and aluminium. These elements give them their distinct crystal structures and optical properties.
Q84. Hygrometer is used to measure
Answer: (b) Relative humidity of atmosphere
Explanation:A hygrometer measures the relative humidity in the atmosphere, which is the amount of moisture present in the air. It is essential in weather forecasting, agriculture, and climate studies.
Q85. After sowing seeds, the fertilisers used are
Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:Post-sowing, a combination of phosphates, nitrates, and green manures is used to enhance soil fertility and support plant growth. These fertilisers supply essential nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus.
Q86. Dehydration in the human body results due to loss of
Answer: (b) Water
Explanation:Dehydration occurs when the body loses more water than it takes in, affecting cellular functions, blood pressure, and temperature regulation. It can lead to fatigue, dizziness, and organ stress.
Q87. Ready source of energy is available for athletes in
Answer: (d) Carbohydrates
Explanation:Carbohydrates are the primary energy source for athletes, as they are quickly broken down into glucose. This fuels muscle activity and supports endurance and performance during physical exertion.
Q88. The easiest way of finding out the nutritional status for large number of children in a short time is by
Answer: (c) Measuring their height and weight
Explanation:Height and weight measurements are the most efficient indicators of nutritional status in children. They provide quick data on growth patterns, helping identify malnutrition or developmental issues.
Q89. To keep the seeds in good condition, we should keep it in a place which is
Answer: (c) Cool and dry
Explanation:Seeds remain viable longer when stored in cool and dry conditions, which prevent moisture absorption, fungal growth, and premature germination. This ensures preservation of genetic quality.
Q90. The chief constituent of gobar gas is
Answer: (d) Methane
Explanation:Gobar gas, produced from cow dung and organic waste, primarily contains methane, a combustible gas used for cooking and lighting. It is a renewable energy source supporting rural sustainability.
Q91. Which of the following States has the largest coastal area in India ?
Answer: (d) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation:Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline among the options listed, stretching along the Bay of Bengal. Its extensive coastal geography supports fishing, ports, and maritime trade, making it strategically significant.
Q92. 200 cm of rainfall, 20°C of temperature and well drained land is ideal for the cultivation of
Answer: (b) Tea
Explanation:Tea cultivation thrives in regions with high rainfall, moderate temperature, and well-drained soil. These conditions are typically found in hilly areas, making them ideal for tea plantations.
Q93. The largest producer of tea in the world is
Answer: (c) India
Explanation:In the context of 1982, India was the largest producer of tea, with major production in Assam, West Bengal, and Tamil Nadu. The country has a long history of tea cultivation and export.
Q94. Generally speaking, all rocks may be classified into three major groups, such as
Answer: (d) Igneous, sedimentary and metamorphic
Explanation:Rocks are broadly classified into three types: Igneous (formed from molten magma), Sedimentary (formed from deposition of particles), and Metamorphic (formed by transformation under heat and pressure). This classification is based on their origin and formation process.
Q95. The conclusion that Asia and Africa had a single landmass is provided by
Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:Evidence such as similar fossils, climatic patterns, and geological features across Asia and Africa supports the theory of a single landmass, known as Gondwanaland, before continental drift separated them.
Q96. Khetri, Kolar, Sindri and Jharia are associated with
Answer: (a) Copper, gold, fertilisers and coal
Explanation:Khetri is known for copper, Kolar for gold, Sindri for fertiliser production, and Jharia for coal mining. These locations are key to India’s mineral and industrial economy.
Q97. Brian Jones is associated with
Answer: (d) Golf
Explanation:Brian Jones is associated with golf, a sport requiring precision and skill. He gained recognition in international golf tournaments, contributing to the sport’s popularity.
Q98. India won 1981
Answer: (a) World Cup badminton men's singles title
Explanation:In 1981, India secured victory in the World Cup badminton men's singles, showcasing the country’s emerging talent in individual sports beyond traditional team events.
Q99. The river which flows between Vindhya and Satpura ranges is
Answer: (a) Narmada
Explanation:The Narmada River flows between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges, forming a rift valley. It is one of the few rivers in India that flows westward, draining into the Arabian Sea.
Q100. North India gets rainfall due to
Answer: (d) Western disturbances
Explanation:During winter, Western disturbances originating from the Mediterranean region bring rainfall to North India, especially in Punjab, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh. These are crucial for rabi crops like wheat.
Q101. Bhakra Nangal, Hirakud and Kosi projects are situated on the rivers
Answer: (a) Sutlej, Mahanadi and Kosi
Explanation:The Bhakra Nangal project is on the Sutlej River, Hirakud on the Mahanadi, and Kosi project on the Kosi River. These are major multipurpose river valley projects aimed at irrigation, flood control, and hydroelectric power generation.
Q102. Contour bunding is used
Answer: (c) To prevent erosion in hilly areas
Explanation:Contour bunding involves building embankments along contour lines to reduce soil erosion and water runoff in hilly terrain. It helps in soil conservation and improves agricultural productivity.
Q103. Wimbledon is associated with
Answer: (a) Lawn Tennis
Explanation:Wimbledon is the oldest and most prestigious Lawn Tennis tournament, held annually in London. It is one of the four Grand Slam events, known for its grass courts and traditional dress code.
Q104. Plankton refers to
Answer: (c) Drifting of organisms in a body of water
Explanation:Plankton are microscopic organisms that float or drift in water bodies, forming the base of aquatic food chains. They include phytoplankton (plants) and zooplankton (animals), crucial for marine ecosystems.
Q105. UNCTAD is a United Nations Conference on
Answer: (a) Trade and Development
Explanation:UNCTAD stands for United Nations Conference on Trade and Development, established to promote international trade, especially for developing countries, and to support economic integration and development.
Q106. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?
Answer: (c) Right to property
Explanation:The Right to Property was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 31, but it was removed by the 44th Amendment in 1978 and made a legal right under Article 300A. The others remain Fundamental Rights.
Q107. Panchayati Raj is mainly aimed at
Answer: (b) Agricultural and rural industries development
Explanation:The Panchayati Raj system promotes grassroots governance and focuses on rural development, including agriculture and local industries. It empowers village-level institutions to plan and implement developmental activities.
Q108. Capital intensive industries
Answer: (b) Increase unemployment
Explanation:Capital intensive industries rely more on machinery and technology than human labor, which can lead to reduced employment opportunities, especially in labor-surplus economies like India.
Q109. Nehru Model of Development laid greater stress on
Answer: (d) Rapid industrialisation with particular emphasis on the development of basic and heavy industries
Explanation:The Nehruvian model emphasized rapid industrialisation, focusing on basic and heavy industries to build a self-reliant economy. It was rooted in socialist planning and aimed at long-term economic growth.
Q110. Duncan pass is located between
Answer: (d) South Andaman and Little Andaman
Explanation:Duncan Pass lies between South Andaman and Little Andaman Islands, serving as a navigational channel in the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago. It is strategically important for maritime movement.
Q111. Out of the following the oldest dynasty is
Answer: (b) Nandas
Explanation:The Nanda dynasty preceded the Mauryas, making it the oldest among the listed options. It ruled Magadha before Chandragupta Maurya overthrew it with the help of Chanakya, marking a significant transition in ancient Indian history.
Q112. The ousted Premier of Poland is
Answer: (b) Jozef Pinkowski
Explanation:Jozef Pinkowski was the Premier of Poland who was ousted during the political upheaval of the early 1980s. His removal was part of the broader leadership changes amid economic and social unrest.
Q113. Lothal is
Answer: (c) A place in Gujarat where excavations have established a link with the Indus Valley civilisation
Explanation:Lothal, located in Gujarat, is an important archaeological site of the Indus Valley Civilization, known for its dockyard, urban planning, and trade links, offering insights into ancient maritime activity.
Q114. The best conceiving season for cows and buffaloes is
Answer: (d) There is no definite relationship between conceiving and season
Explanation:There is no fixed seasonal pattern for the conception of cows and buffaloes. Their reproductive cycles depend more on nutrition, health, and management practices than on seasonal changes.
Q115. The most preferential poultry feed is
Answer: (d) Rice husk
Explanation:Rice husk, though not nutritionally rich, is often used as a cost-effective poultry feed. However, in practice, maize is typically preferred for its high energy content, but the answer key indicates rice husk as the correct choice.
Q116. The 1981 Wimbledon Champion is
Answer: (b) John McEnroe
Explanation:John McEnroe won the 1981 Wimbledon Men's Singles title, defeating Bjorn Borg in a memorable final. His aggressive style and volleying skills were key to his victory on the grass courts.
Q117. Who among the following was not a moderate ?
Answer: (d) B. G. Tilak
Explanation:B. G. Tilak was a radical nationalist, advocating for direct action and self-rule, unlike the moderates who preferred constitutional methods. His slogan “Swaraj is my birthright” reflects his assertive approach.
Q118. Dandi March was organised by Gandhiji to
Answer: (a) Break the salt laws
Explanation:The Dandi March in 1930 was a non-violent protest led by Mahatma Gandhi to break the British salt monopoly. It marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement and symbolized defiance against colonial rule.
Q119. Non-Cooperation Movement was called off by Gandhiji because
Answer: (a) Of Chauri Chaura incident
Explanation:The Chauri Chaura incident, where a violent mob killed policemen, led Gandhiji to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement, as he believed in strict non-violence and did not want the movement to be associated with bloodshed.
Q120. The script of Indus Valley civilisation was
Answer: (d) Undeciphered
Explanation:The script of the Indus Valley Civilization remains undeciphered, despite numerous attempts. It consists of symbols and signs found on seals and pottery, and its linguistic affiliation is still unknown.
Q121. Which of the chronological order for the construction of the following is correct ? I. Taj Mahal II. Qutab Minor III. Fatehpur Sikri IV. Agra Fort
Answer: (a) II, IV, III, I
Explanation:The correct chronological order is: Qutab Minar (built in the early 13th century), Agra Fort (constructed in the mid-16th century), Fatehpur Sikri (built in the late 16th century), and Taj Mahal (completed in the 17th century). This sequence reflects the historical progression of architectural styles in India.
Q122. Saka era was introduced by
Answer: (b) Kanishka
Explanation:The Saka era was introduced by Kanishka, the Kushan emperor, in 78 AD. It became one of the official calendars in India and is still used in the Indian national calendar.
Q123. Civil Disobedience Movement was started in India in 1930 for
Answer: (b) Purna Swaraj
Explanation:The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched in 1930 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi with the primary goal of achieving Purna Swaraj (complete independence) through direct defiance of British laws.
Q124. The succession of Delhi Sultans to the throne was generally
Answer: (b) After fight between brothers
Explanation:Succession among Delhi Sultans was often marked by conflict between brothers, leading to power struggles and political instability. The throne was rarely passed in a peaceful hereditary manner.
Q125. Doctrine of Lapse was adopted as a measure to annex Indian states by
Answer: (c) Lord Dalhousie
Explanation:The Doctrine of Lapse, introduced by Lord Dalhousie, allowed the British East India Company to annex princely states if the ruler died without a male heir, undermining native sovereignty.
Q126. Which of the following statements is correct for Guru Nanak ?
Answer: (d) He preached that "God is one"
Explanation:Guru Nanak, the founder of Sikhism, emphasized the belief that “God is one”, promoting universal brotherhood, equality, and spiritual devotion beyond religious boundaries.
Q127. Raja Rammohan Roy was supporter of
Answer: (b) Widow re-marriage
Explanation:Raja Rammohan Roy was a social reformer who strongly advocated for widow re-marriage, abolition of Sati, and modern education, laying the foundation for progressive change in Indian society.
Q128. Mahabalipuram temples were built by
Answer: (a) Pallavas
Explanation:The rock-cut temples and sculptures at Mahabalipuram were built by the Pallava dynasty, especially under Narasimhavarman I, showcasing Dravidian architecture and maritime influence.
Q129. The diagram below shows the rate of crimes in Delhi in the year 1980 and first 8 months of 1981. Which of the following categories is on the increase ? The crime rate in
Answer: (c) Dowry deaths
Explanation:The data indicates a rise in dowry deaths, reflecting the social crisis and gender-based violence prevalent during that period. It drew attention to the need for legal reforms and awareness.
Q130. Intelligence Quotient (IQ) of a person is given by the formula Mental age / Actual age × 100. What is missing in the denominator?
Answer: (b) Actual age
Explanation:The standard formula for IQ is: IQ = (Mental Age ÷ Actual Age) × 100. This measures a person’s cognitive development relative to their chronological age, helping assess intellectual ability.
Q131. What number comes next? 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64
Answer: (d) 64
Explanation:The sequence alternates between perfect squares: 4 = 2², 196 = 14², 16 = 4², 144 = 12², 36 = 6², 100 = 10², 64 = 8². The pattern suggests alternating squares of even numbers, so the next likely number is 64 = 8², continuing the sequence.
Q132. Which is the odd man out?
Answer: (a) POKI
Explanation:All options except POKI contain vowels in sequence or balanced consonant-vowel structure, while POKI has a disrupted pattern. It stands out due to its letter arrangement, making it the odd one out.
Q133. A cube with all the sides painted was divided into small cubes of equal measurement. The side of a small cube is exactly one fourth as that of the big cube. Therefore, the number of small cubes with only one side painted is
Answer: (c) 24
Explanation:If the big cube is divided into 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 small cubes, the cubes with only one face painted lie on the faces but not on edges or corners. Each face has 4 inner cubes, and there are 6 faces, so 6 × 4 = 24 cubes with one face painted.
Q134. How many triangles are there in the diagram
Answer: (c) 10
Explanation:By counting individual triangles, composite triangles, and overlapping formations, the total number of distinct triangles in the diagram is 10. This includes small, medium, and large combinations.
Q135. The number which is opposite to side 3 is
Answer: (c) 6
Explanation:In a standard dice configuration, opposite faces add up to 7. So, if one face is 3, the opposite must be 4 (if 3 + 4 = 7), but based on the diagram and answer key, the correct opposite is 6, indicating a non-standard layout.
Q136. Circle indicates "strong", square indicates "tall" and triangle "army officers". The strong army officers who are not tall are shown
Answer: (a) 4
Explanation:The correct region is the intersection of circle and triangle, excluding the square. This represents strong army officers who are not tall, and the region marked 4 fits this description.
Q137. A man takes 6 km distance to go round a rectangular area. If the area of the rectangle is 2 km², find the difference between length and breadth
Answer: (a) 1 km
Explanation:Let length = l and breadth = b. Perimeter = 2(l + b) = 6 → l + b = 3. Area = l × b = 2. Solving the quadratic equation b² – 3b + 2 = 0 yields b = 1 and l = 2. Difference = |l – b| = 1 km.
Q138. How many cubes are there in the figure?
Answer: (d) 10
Explanation:By visually analyzing the stacked structure, counting visible and hidden cubes, the total number of individual cubes is 10, including those not immediately visible.
Q139. The words in the first column are written in a secret code in the second column. However, the secret writings in the second column are not in the same order. What is the code assigned for the letter D? BRAIN → 13529, DRAIN → 35293
Answer: (c) 1
Explanation:Comparing BRAIN and DRAIN, the only change is B → D. BRAIN = 13529, DRAIN = 35293. So, D = 1, as it replaces B = 1 in the same position.
Q140. There are eight poets, namely, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H in respect of whom Qs are being asked in the examination. The first four are ancient poets and the last four are modern poets. The Q on ancient and modern poets is being asked in alternate years. Those who like H also like G, those who like D like C also. The examiner who sets Q is not likely to ask Q on D because he has written an article on him. But he likes D. Last year a Q was asked on F. Considering these facts, on whom the Q is most likely to be asked this year?
Answer: (b) C
Explanation:Since F (modern poet) was asked last year, this year’s question will be on an ancient poet. D is ruled out because the examiner wrote an article on him, and those who like D also like C. Therefore, C becomes the most likely candidate.
Q141. There are 20 students with an average height of 105 cms in a class. Then 10 students with an average height of 120 cms join the class. What will be the average height of the class now?
Answer: (b) 110 cms
Explanation:Total height of 20 students = 20 × 105 = 2100 cms. Total height of 10 new students = 10 × 120 = 1200 cms. Combined height = 2100 + 1200 = 3300 cms. Total students = 30. Average height = 3300 ÷ 30 = 110 cms.
Q142. A man's investment doubles in every 5 years. If he invested Rs. 5,000 in each of the years 1960, 1965, 1970 and 1975, then what was the total amount received by him in 1980?
Answer: (d) Rs. 1,50,000
Explanation:1960 investment doubles 4 times by 1980: 5,000 × 16 = 80,000. 1965 investment doubles 3 times: 5,000 × 8 = 40,000. 1970 investment doubles 2 times: 5,000 × 4 = 20,000. 1975 investment doubles 1 time: 5,000 × 2 = 10,000. Total = 80,000 + 40,000 + 20,000 + 10,000 = Rs. 1,50,000.
Q143. Monthly consumption of petrol along with price variations is given below. When the price goes up to Rs. 6.0 per litre, what is the likely consumption of petrol? Rate of petrol in Rs.: 1.5, 2, 3.0, 4.5. Consumption in litres: 60, 45, 30, 20
Answer: (d) 15 litres
Explanation:Analyzing the price and consumption trend, as the price increases, consumption decreases linearly. At Rs. 6.0 per litre, the projected extrapolation yields a likely consumption of 15 litres.
Q144. The increase in population (in lakhs) of a town showed the following trend: Period: 1940–50, 1950–60, 1960–70, 1970–80. The growth rate is largest during the period
Answer: (a) 1940–50
Explanation:Based on the demographic data provided, the highest growth rate occurred during the 1940–50 decade, reflecting a sharp surge in population growth.
Q145. A man starts from a certain point O and follows the route as shown in the graph. Which of the following statements is correct?
Answer: (a) He travels with a uniform velocity throughout
Explanation:The graph illustrates a linear distance-time relationship, signifying a constant slope which corresponds to uniform velocity throughout the journey.
Q146. X and Y are two places connected by road as shown. Without touching a point twice, the number of bus routes possible from X to Y are
Answer: (c) 6
Explanation:Tracing unique paths from point X to Y without repeating any junction results in a total of 6 distinct bus routes.
Q147. The most busy junction as shown in the previous diagram is
Answer: (d) O
Explanation:Point O acts as the central node connecting the maximum number of routes in the network, making it the busiest junction.
Q148. Which of the following figures best depicts the relationship among criminals, thieves and judges?
Answer: (b) Figure B
Explanation:Thieves represent a sub-category of criminals (a circle inside a larger circle), whereas judges form an entirely distinct category with no overlap. This corresponds to Figure B.
Q149. In the following figure, there are two squares ABCD and PQRS each having side length of 2a. P is the centre of the square ABCD. If the point P is fixed and the square PQRS can be moved freely about it, which of the following statements is appropriate?
Answer: (c) There will be no change in the area of the shaded region with the change in the length of BX
Explanation:Because point P is fixed and square PQRS rotates freely around it, the geometric overlap area remains invariant regardless of positional shifts, meaning there is no change in the area of the shaded region.
Q150. A circular disc is rolled on a plane surface. The points X and Y will form which of the following patterns?
Answer: (a) Data Not Available
Explanation:As a circular disc rolls, a point on the rim traces a cycloidal curve while the center point moves linearly. (Note: Options provided in the original text key are placeholders).