Licchavi Lyceum

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Licchavi Lyceum

UPSC Prelims 2014 Solved Question Paper

You are reading Set A of the Question Paper.

1. What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this.
3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this.
4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) is a practical approach to sugarcane production that emphasizes using fewer inputs while increasing yields and improving soil health. The following are the significances of SSI:

  1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation: SSI uses fewer seeds and encourages the use of local seed varieties, which are often less expensive than imported seeds.
  2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this: SSI emphasizes the efficient use of water and encourages the use of drip irrigation, which can be more effective in delivering water to the roots of the plants.
  3. While SSI does not completely eliminate the use of fertilizers, it emphasizes the use of organic fertilizers and encourages farmers to use compost, green manure, and other natural sources of nutrients.
  4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation: SSI encourages intercropping, which can help improve soil health and reduce the need for chemical fertilizers and pesticides.

2. If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?

(a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.
(b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilo metres from the edge of the wetland
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed
(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’

Ans: (a)

Solution: If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, it implies that changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.

The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur as a result of human interference. It is maintained as part of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands and serves as an early warning system to identify problems in the management of wetlands and to encourage the international community to help address them before they become more serious.

Being placed on the Montreux Record does not provide any legal protection for the wetland or require any specific action by the country in which it is located. However, it does serve as a warning that action needs to be taken to address the problems facing the wetland. The Ramsar Convention encourages the country to take appropriate measures to address the issues and restore the ecological character of the wetland.

3. Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’?

(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Nicobar and Sumatra
(c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
(d) Sumatra and Java

Ans: (a)

Solution: The Ten Degree Channel is a channel in the Indian Ocean that separates the Andaman from Nicobar Islands.

10 Degree Channel
10 Degree Channel

4. Consider the following pairs :

Programme/ Project

Ministry

1. Drought-Prone Area Programme

Ministry of Agriculture

2. Desert Development Programme

Ministry of Programme Environment and Forests

3.National Watershed Development Project Development for Rain fed Areas

Ministry of Rural Development

Which of the above pairs

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Ans: (d)

5. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements :

1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) is a non-governmental organization (NGO) and is not an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. It was founded in 1883 with the aim of promoting the study of natural history and conservation of wildlife in India. BNHS conducts research, education, and awareness programs to promote the conservation of biodiversity and ecosystems.

Statement 1 is incorrect because BNHS is not under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. It is an independent organization that works closely with government agencies and other organizations to promote conservation efforts.

Statement 2 is correct because BNHS strives to conserve nature through research, education, and public awareness programs. It conducts various projects and initiatives to protect wildlife, habitats, and ecosystems, and raises awareness among the public about the importance of conservation.

Statement 3 is also correct because BNHS organizes nature trails and camps for the general public to create awareness about the environment, wildlife, and conservation. These activities help to promote nature-based tourism and encourage people to appreciate and protect the natural world.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c) 2 and 3 only.

6. With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) It serves as financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aim to protect their environment.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (a)

Solution: The Global Environment Facility (GEF) is an international financial organization that provides funding to developing countries for projects related to biodiversity conservation, climate change mitigation, and sustainable development. It was established in 1991 as a financial mechanism for the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), and the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD).

GEF is funded by contributions from developed countries, including the United States, Japan, Germany, and the United Kingdom, and has provided more than $20 billion in grants and concessional funding for over 4,000 projects in 170 countries. GEF funding is primarily focused on projects related to biodiversity conservation, climate change, land degradation, international waters, chemicals and waste, and sustainable forest management.

GEF operates through a network of implementing agencies, including the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), and the World Bank, which work with recipient countries to design, implement, and monitor GEF-funded projects. GEF also collaborates with other international organizations and stakeholders, such as civil society groups and the private sector, to achieve its objectives.

Overall, the Global Environment Facility plays a critical role in providing financial support for global environmental projects and helping developing countries address environmental challenges.

7. With reference to technologies for solar power production, consider the following statements:

1. ‘Photovoltaics’ is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while ‘Solar Thermal’ is a technology that utilizes the Sun’s rays to generate heat which is further used in electricity generation process.
2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).
3. India has manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology, but not for Photovoltaics.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Ans: (a)

Solution: S1: Photovoltaics is indeed a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity. However, Solar Thermal is a technology that generates electricity by using the Sun’s rays to produce steam, which in turn drives a turbine to generate electricity. Solar Thermal does not directly generate heat that is used in electricity generation. Hence, S1 is correct. 

Statement 2 is incorrect. Photovoltaics generates Direct Current (DC), while Solar Thermal generates steam that drives a turbine to generate Alternating Current (AC).

Statement 3 is incorrect. India has a manufacturing base for both Photovoltaics and Solar Thermal technologies.

8. Consider the following languages :

1. Gujatati
2. Kannada
3. Telugu

Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Government?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Government of India has declared Kannada and Telugu as ‘Classical Languages’ based on their rich heritage and long literary traditions. However, Gujarati has not been declared as a classical language.

9. Consider the following pairs

1. Dampa Tiger Reserve : Mizoram
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary : Sikkim
3. Saramati Peak : Nagaland

Which of the above pairs is /are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Solution: 

S1: Dampa Tiger Reserve is located in western Mizoram. S2 is correct.

S2: Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary is a Wildlife Sanctuary in Tripura. S2 is incorrect.

S3: Saramati Peak is a mountain located in the eastern Indian state of Nagaland, near the border with Myanmar. So, S3 is correct.

10. With reference to a conservation organization called Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the countries which are signatories to Ramsar Convention.
2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilize knowledge, and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Solution: Wetlands International is a global non-profit organization that has been working for over 65 years to protect, restore, and sustainably manage wetlands worldwide. Their vision is to safeguard wetlands for people and nature, recognizing the essential services these ecosystems provide. The organization operates through a network of experts, scientists, and local partners, working collaboratively to conserve wetlands on a global scale.

11. With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Solution: South Africa was the last country to join the BRICS grouping. Initially, the grouping was known as “BRIC” with Brazil, Russia, India, and China as its founding members. South Africa joined the group in 2010, expanding it to BRICS. South Africa’s inclusion was based on its economic potential, regional influence, and contribution to the African continent.

12. Consider the following diseases

1. Diphtheria
2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Ans: (b)

Solution:

  1. Diphtheria: Diphtheria is a bacterial infection that can cause severe respiratory problems. While efforts have been made to control and prevent diphtheria through immunization programs, it has not been eradicated in India. Cases of diphtheria still occur in the country, although the numbers have significantly reduced due to vaccination efforts.
  2. Chickenpox: Chickenpox, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, is a common childhood infection characterized by a blister-like rash. Chickenpox has not been eradicated in India. It continues to occur, although vaccination against chickenpox is available and recommended.
  3. Smallpox: Smallpox is the only disease among the given options that has been eradicated globally, including in India. It was a highly contagious and deadly viral disease caused by the variola virus. Due to an extensive global vaccination campaign led by the World Health Organization (WHO), smallpox was declared eradicated in 1980. This achievement marked the first successful eradication of a human infectious disease.

13. Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

1. Continental drift
2. Glacial cycles

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Solution:

  1. Continental drift: Continental drift refers to the movement of Earth’s continents over geologic time. The shifting of continents has had a significant impact on the distribution of species and the formation of new habitats. As continents move, they carry species with them, leading to geographic isolation and the evolution of distinct populations. This isolation can result in speciation, where new species arise due to genetic divergence and adaptation to different environments. Additionally, changes in landmass configurations can affect climate patterns, ocean currents, and the formation of barriers, influencing migration patterns and the evolution of organisms.
  2. Glacial cycles: Glacial cycles, also known as ice ages, are periods of repeated glaciations (advancing and retreating ice sheets) that have occurred throughout Earth’s history. These cycles have had a profound impact on the evolution of organisms. As glaciers advance, they can cause habitat fragmentation, isolating populations and leading to genetic differentiation. Organisms in different regions may undergo divergent evolution, adapting to the specific conditions of their respective environments. When the glaciers retreat, populations may come into contact again, allowing for gene flow and potential hybridization. Glacial cycles have driven adaptations in various species, influencing their morphology, physiology, and behavior.

14. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?

1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (c)

Solution:

  1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers: The construction of dams and barrages on rivers can significantly impact the habitat and population of Ganges River Dolphins. These structures can alter the flow of rivers, disrupt natural water flow patterns, and fragment habitats. Dolphins require free-flowing rivers with suitable depths and clear water for their survival. The construction of dams and barrages can lead to habitat degradation, reduced prey availability, and increased mortality due to collisions with these structures.
  2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers: The increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers is not a reason for the decline in Ganges River Dolphin populations. While crocodiles may compete with dolphins for resources, they are part of the natural ecosystem and do not directly cause the decline in dolphin populations.
  3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally: Accidental entanglement in fishing nets is a significant threat to Ganges River Dolphins. Dolphins can become trapped in gillnets and other fishing gear, leading to injuries, suffocation, or drowning. Fishing activities, especially those using unsustainable or illegal practices, can result in incidental capture and mortality of dolphins.
  4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers: The use of synthetic fertilizers and agricultural chemicals in crop-fields near rivers can contribute to water pollution. Runoff from agricultural areas can carry pollutants such as fertilizers, pesticides, and herbicides into rivers, leading to water contamination. Polluted water can negatively impact the health of Ganges River Dolphins and their prey, affecting their reproductive success, immune system, and overall survival.

15. The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to

(a) solve the problem of minorities in India
(b) give effect to the Independence Bill
(c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
(d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Radcliffe Committee, officially known as the “Boundary Commission for the Partition of India,” was appointed to delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan during the partition of British India in 1947. The committee, led by Sir Cyril Radcliffe, was tasked with determining the division of territories based on religious demographics and other factors.

The committee’s main responsibility was to draw the Radcliffe Line, which demarcated the borders between the newly formed independent nations of India and Pakistan. The Radcliffe Line divided the provinces and regions of Punjab and Bengal between the two countries. The committee faced immense challenges in its work due to the limited time frame and the complexity of the situation, leading to controversial border demarcations and subsequent conflicts.

16. Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?

1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

17. Consider the following :

1. Bats
2. Bears
3. Rodents

The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above

18. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The Committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The Committee on Petitions.

19. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

1. Volcanic action
2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. Decay of organic matter

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

20. If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects, disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which of the following is/are such bird/birds?

1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

21. In medieval India, the designations ‘Mahattara’ and ‘Pattakila’ were used for

(a) military officers
(b) village headmen
(e) specialists in Vedic rituals
(d) chiefs of craft guilds

22. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological suecession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of

(a) algae and bacteria
(b) algae and fungi
(c) bacteria and fungi
(d) fungi and mosses

23. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants naturally growing there?

1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Sandalwood

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

24. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?

1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(e) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

25. Which of the following Kingdoms were associated With the life of the Buddha?

1. Avanti
2. Gandhara
3. Kosala
4. Magadha

Select the correct nswer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

26. Every year, a month long ecologically important campaign/festival is held during which certain communities/ tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the following are such communities/tribes?

(a) Bhutia and Lepcha
(b) Gond and Korku
(e) lrula and Toda
(d) Sahariya and Agariya

27. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a

(a) tax imposed by the Central Government
(b) tax tmposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government
(c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government
(d) tax imposed and collected by the State Government

28. What does venture capital mean?

(a) A short-term capital provided to industries
(b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
(c) Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses
(d) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries

29. The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is

(a) inclusive growth and poverty reductions
(b) inclusive and sustainable growth
(c) sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment
(d) faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth.

30. With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?

1. Balance of trade
2. Foreign assets
3. Balance of invisibles
4. Special Drawing Rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4

31. The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to

(a) banking operations
(b) communication networking
(e) military strategies
(d) supply and demand of agricultural products

32. What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. In the context of Indian economy; which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?

1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create
2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid
3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits
4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

34. Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as ‘Arab Spring’ originally started from

(a) Egypt
(b) Lebanono
(c) Syria
(d) Tunisia

35. Consider the following countries :

1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America

Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council ‘?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5

36. Consider the following pairs :

Region

Country in news

1. Chechnya

Russian Federation

2. Darfur

Mali

3. Swat Valley

Iraq

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

37. Which reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

38. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called ‘coalbed methane’ and ‘shale gas’, consider the following ‘statements:

1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
2. In India abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

39. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statement :

1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.
3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

40. In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

(a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas
(c) The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of anti-histamines
(d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel

41. Which of the following have coral reefs?

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

42. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

1. Terrace cultivation
2. Deforestation
3. Tropical climate’

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

43. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of

(a) Equatorial climate
(b) Mediterranean climate
(c) Monsoon climate
(d) All of the above climates

44. With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Panchayatan’ refers to

(a) an assembly of village elders
(b) a religious sect
(c) a style of temple construction
(d) an administrative functionary

45. Consider the following rivers:

1. Barak
2. Lohit
3. Subansiri

Which of the above flows / flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

46. Consider the following pairs :

Wetlands

Confluence of rivers

1. Harike Wetlands

Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej

2. Keoladeo Ghana

Confluence of Banas National Park and Chambal

3. Kolleru Lake

Confluence of Musi and Krishna

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(e) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

47. Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

(a) Mimamsa and Vedanta
(b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
(c) Lokayata and Kapalika
(d) Sankhya and Yoga

48. Consider the following pairs :

Hills

Region

1. Cardamom Hills

Coromandel Coast

2. Kaimur Hills

Konkan Coast

3. Mahadeo Hills

Central India

4. Mikir Hills

North-East India

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

49. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(e) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

50. The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

(a) biosphere reserves
(b) botanical gardens
(e) national parks
(d) wildlife sanctuaries

51. Turkey is located between

(a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
(d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea

52. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 4-2-1-3
(b) 3-2-4-1
(c) 3-4-1-2
(d) 4-3-2-1

53. The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 °C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 °C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?

1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source
2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

54. The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from

(a) Katha Upanishad
(b) Chandogya Upanishad
(c) Aitareya Upanishad
(d) Mundaka Upanishad

55. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule

56. What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’?

1. Prevention of soil runoff
2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table
4. Regeneration of natural vegetation

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

57. Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

58. Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

59. Consider the following statements : A Constitutional Government is one which

1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only.
(b) 1 and 3 only.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

61. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

(a) decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy
(b) increase the tax collection of the Government
(c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy
(d) increase the total savings in the economy

62. Consider the following statements :

1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:

1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
3. Neem oil has applications in pharmaceutical industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

65. Which one of the. following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

(a) Potential energy is released to form free energy
(b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
(c) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
(d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out

66. In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

1. Iris scanning
2. Retinal scanning
3. Voice recognition

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

67. Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

1. Vegetative propagation produces clonal population.
2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.
3. Vegetative propagation can be practiced most of the year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

68. Which of the following pair is/are correctly matched?

Spacecraft

Purpose

1. Cassini-Huygens

Orbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth

2. Messenger

Mapping and investigating the Mercury

3. Voyager 1 and 2

Exploring the outer solar system

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

69. Consider the following pairs :

Region

Well-known for the production of

1. Kinnaur

Areca nut

2. Mewat

Mango

3. Coromandel

Soya bean

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

70. Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
2. Melting of ice
3. Souring of milk

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

71. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction.
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction

72. Consider the following techniques/phenomena:

1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
3. Gene silencing

Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None

73. Consider the following statements :

1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

74. Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of other three?

(a) Crab
(b) Mite
(c) Scorpion
(d) Spider

75. The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

(a) the President of India
(b) the Parliament
(c) the Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission

76. Consider the following towns of India :

1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram
4. Kamal

Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees / fabric?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

77. Consider the following pairs :

National Highway

Cities connected

1. NH 4

Chennai and Hyderabad

2. NH 6

Mumbai and Kolkata

3. NH 15

Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

78. Consider the following international agreements:

1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture
2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has / have a bearing on the biodiversity?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only,
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

79. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’ :

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about the climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

80. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

(a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
(b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
(c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
(d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms

81. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until

(a) the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.
(b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Darbar in Delhi in 1911
(c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) the Partition of India, in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan

82. The 1929 Session of Indian, National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

(a) attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
(b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj Was adopted as the goal of the Congress
(c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
(d) decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken

83. With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements :

1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

84. Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

(a) 22 March (or 21st March)
(b) 15th May (or 16th May)
(c) 31st March (or 30th March)
(d) 21st April (or 20th April

85. With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:

Famous work of sculpture

Site

1. A grand image of Buddha’s

Ajanta Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers below

2. A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters,

Mount Abu sculpted on rock

3. “Arjuna’s Penance”

Mamallapuram”Descent of Ganga” sculpted on the surface of huge boulders

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only,
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

86. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a

(a) revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco.
(b) nationalist organization operating from Singapore
(c) militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
(d) communist movement for India’s freedom with head-quarters at Tashkent

87. With reference to India’s culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu’?

(a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India
(b) It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area
(c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar
(d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India

88. Consider the following pairs :

1. Garba : Gujarat
2. Mohiniattam : Odisha
3. Yakshagana : Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

89. With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs :

Famous shrine

Location

1. Tabo monastery

Spiti Valley and temple complex

2. Lhotsava Lhakhang

Zanskar Valley temple, Nako

3. Alchi temple complex

Ladakh

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

90. Consider the following statements:

1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
2. The Philosophy of Pushti Marg was propounded by Madhvacharya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

91. A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their

(a) martial arts in North-East India
(b) musical tradition in North-West India
(c) classical vocal music in South India
(d) pietra dura tradition in Central India

92. What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?

1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States
2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown
3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

93. Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

(a) the mosque for the use of Royal Family
(b) Akbar’s private chamber prayer
(c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions.
(d) the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs

94. In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the ‘Seed Replacement Rates’ of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraint/ constraints in its wider / greater implementation?

1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high volume crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None

95. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 .
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities, in those zones except agriculture.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

96. Consider the following statements:

1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect. The Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) was established in 1962 under the provisions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, and not under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Statement 2 is correct. The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. It was established in 2005 for strengthening tiger conservation in the country.

Statement 3 is correct. The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) was established in 2009 under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India and is responsible for the conservation, protection, and management of the Ganga river basin.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 2 and 3 only.

97. Consider the following pairs :

Vitamin Deficiency

Disease

1. Vitamin C

Scurvy

2. Vitamin D

Rickets

3. Vitamin E

Night Blindness

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Ans: (a)

Solution: Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by bleeding gums, joint pain, and fatigue. Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets, which is a disease that affects bone development in children, leading to deformities of the legs and other bones. Vitamin E deficiency is not associated with night blindness, but with neurological disorders and muscle weakness.

98. There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?

1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: Nanoparticles are extremely small particles with dimensions in the nanometer range. They have unique physical and chemical properties that make them useful in a wide range of applications, including electronics, medicine, and manufacturing. However, there are concerns that the nanoparticles of some chemical elements may pose a risk to human health and the environment. The reasons for this are:

  1. They can accumulate in the environment, and contaminate water and soil. Nanoparticles are very small, and as a result, they can be transported long distances by air or water. This can lead to the accumulation of nanoparticles in the environment, where they may persist for a long time and cause harm to plants and animals.
  2. They can enter the food chains. Nanoparticles can be taken up by plants and animals, and may be transferred up the food chain. This can lead to the accumulation of nanoparticles in the tissues of animals, including humans, which may have harmful effects.
  3. They can trigger the production of free radicals. Some nanoparticles can cause oxidative stress, which can lead to the production of free radicals. Free radicals are highly reactive molecules that can damage cells and DNA, and may be associated with a range of diseases, including cancer.

99. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

(a) The International Monetary Fund
(b) The United Nations Development Programme
(c) The World Economic Forum
(d) The World Bank

Ans: (a)

Solution: The World Economic Outlook is a publication that is produced twice a year by the International Monetary Fund. It provides an assessment of the global economic situation and prospects for the future.

The report covers a wide range of topics, including macroeconomic developments, international trade, financial markets, and policy issues. The World Economic Outlook is an important resource for policymakers, investors, and academics around the world, and is widely regarded as one of the most authoritative sources of information on the global economy.

100. With reference to Union Budget, which of the following, is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

1. Defence expenditure
2. Interest payments
3. Salaries and pensions
4. Subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 nd 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None

Ans: (c)

Solution: The terms “Plan” and “Non-Plan” expenditure were used in the Indian budget prior to 2017-18. However, these terms have been discontinued, and the Union Budget now classifies expenditure as “Revenue” or “Capital” expenditure.

Under the previous classification, Non-Plan expenditure included regular and recurring expenditure, while Plan expenditure was for specific development schemes and programmes. The items covered under Non-Plan expenditure included:

  1. Defence expenditure
  2. Interest payments
  3. Salaries and pensions

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