UPSC Prelims 2019 CSAT Paper 2 Solution
Passage – 1
Political theorists no doubt have to take history of injustice, for example, untouchability, seriously. The concept of historical injustice takes note of a variety of historical wrongs that continue into the present in some form or the other and tend to resist repair. Two reasons might account for resistance to repair. One, not only are the roots of injustice buried deep in history, injustice itself constitutes economic structures of exploitation, ideologies of discrimination and modes of representation. Two, the category of historical injustice generally extends across a number of wrongs such as economic deprivation, social discrimination and lack of recognition. This category is complex, not only because of the overlap between a number of wrongs, but because one or the other wrong, generally discrimination, tends to acquire partial autonomy from others. This is borne out by the history of repair in India.
1. What is the main idea that we can infer from the passage?
(a) Untouchability in India has not been taken seriously by political theorists.
(b) Historical injustice is inevitable in any society and is always beyond repair.
(c) Social discrimination and deprivation have their roots in bad economies.
(d) It is difficult, if not impossible, to repair every manifestation of historical injustice.
Ans: (d)
The author is concerned about the deep rooted problem of social injustice and deep integration of this injustice with the other spheres of exploitation. Hence, the main idea is expressed by option d.
2. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Removal of economic discrimination leads to removal of social discrimination.
2. Democratic polity is the best way to repair historical wrongs.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
S1: The injustice is manifested in the economic structure of the society but the removal of economic disintegration does not guarantee the removal of social discrimination. S1 is wrong.
S2: No, no such conclusion has been made that democratic polity is the best way to repair historical wrongs. S2 is wrong.
Passage – 2
Education plays a great transformatory role in life, particularly so in this rapidly changing and globalizing world. Universities are the custodians of the intellectual capital and promoters of culture and specialized knowledge. Culture is an activity of thought, and receptiveness to beauty and human feelings. A merely well informed man is only a bore on God’s earth. What we should aim at is producing men who possess both culture and expert knowledge. Their expert knowledge will give them a firm ground to start from and their culture will lead them as deep as philosophy and as high as art. Together it will impart meaning to human existence.
3. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. A society without well educated people cannot be transformed into a modern society.
2. Without acquiring culture, a person’s education is not complete.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
S1: The passage stressed on the need of integrating culture with the education but there is no such mention that the society without well educated people cannot be transformed into a modern society. S1 is incorrect.
S2: This is the main message of the passage. S2 is correct.
Passage – 3
Soil, in which nearly all our food grows, is a living resource that takes years to form. Yet it can vanish in minutes. Each year 75 billion tonnes of fertile soil is lost to erosion. That is alarming – and not just for food producers. Soil can trap huge quantities of carbon dioxide in the form of organic carbon and prevent it from escaping into the atmosphere.
4. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Large scale soil erosion is a major reason for widespread food insecurity in the world.
2. Soil erosion is mainly anthropogenic.
3. Sustainable management of soils helps in combating climate change.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
S1: No, such assumption is not implicit.
S2: No, the cause of soil erosion has not been discussed.
S3: This is correct assumption as the author agrees that the soil has the potential to tap large amount of CO2, an agent of climate change.
Passage – 4
Inequality is visible, even statistically measurable in many instances, but the economic power that drives it is invisible and not measurable… Like the force of gravity, power is the organising principle of inequality, be it of income, or wealth, gender, race, religion and region. Its effects are seen in a pervasive manner in all spheres, but the ways in which economic power pulls and tilts visible economic variables remain invisibly obscure.
5. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Economic power is the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society.
2. Inequality of different kinds, income, wealth, etc, reinforces power.
3. Economic power can be analysed more through its effects than by direct empirical methods.
Which of thy above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
S1: No, Economic power is not the only reason for the existence of inequality in a society.
S2: No, such assumption is not implicit in the passage.
S3: Yes, the last lines of paragraph give this message.
Passage – 5
Climate change may actually benefit some plants by lengthening growing seasons and increasing carbon dioxide. Yet other effects of a warmer world, such as more pests, droughts, and flooding, will be less benign. How will the world adapt? Researchers project that by 2050, suitable croplands for four commodities – maize, potatoes, rice and wheat – will shift, in some cases pushing farmers to plant new crops. Some farmlands may benefit from warming, but others won’t. Climate alone does not dictate yields; political shifts, global “demand, and agricultural practices will influence how farms fare in the future.
6. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from) the above passage?
(a) Farmers who modernize their methods and diversify their fields will be in an advantageous position in future.
(b) Climate change will adversely affect the crop diversity.
(c) Shifting major crops to new croplands will lead to a great increase in the total area under cultivation and thus an increase in overall agricultural production.
(d) Climate change is the most important factor affecting the agricultural economy in the future.
Ans: (a)
The last line of the paragraph says “Climate alone does not dictate yields; political shifts, global “demand, and agricultural practices will influence how farms fare in the future.” This makes option d wrong.
The opening statement of the paragraph says that climate change may actually benefit some plants by lengthening growing seasons and increasing carbon dioxide. This makes option b incorrect.
Focus on the line “Researchers project that by 2050, suitable croplands for four commodities – maize, potatoes, rice and wheat – will shift, in some cases pushing farmers to plant new crops. Some farmlands may benefit from warming, but others won’t.” hence, there is no guarantee of increase in production.
Option a is the most suitable choice.
Passage – 6
A bat’s wings may look like sheets of skin. But underneath, a bat has the same five fingers as an orangutan or a human, as well as a wrist connected to the same cluster of wrist bones connected to the same long bones of the arm. What can be more curious than that the hand of a man, formed for grasping, that of a mole for digging, the leg of the horse, the-paddle of the porpoise, and the wing of the bat, should all be constructed on the same pattern?
7. Which one of the following is the most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Different species having similar structure of hands is an example of biodiversity.
(b) Limbs being used by different species for different kinds of work is an example of biodiversity.
(c) Man and the aforementioned animals having similar structure of limbs is an example of coincidence in evolution.
(d) Man and the aforementioned animals have a shared evolutionary history.
Ans: (d)
The passage discusses about the similarity in some organs across different species. This shows shared evolution history.
Passage – 7
Around 56 million years ago, the Atlantic Ocean had not fully opened and animals, perhaps including our primate ancestors, could walk from Asia to North America through Europe and across Greenland. Earth was warmer than it is today, but as the Palaeocene epoch gave way to Eocene, it was about to get much warmer still -rapidly and radically. The cause was a massive geologically sudden release of carbon. During this period called Palaeocene – Eocene Thermal Maximum or PETM, the carbon injected into the atmosphere was roughly the amount that Would be injected today if humans burned all the Earth’s reserves of coal, oil and natural gas. The PETM lasted for about 1,50,000 years, until the excess carbon was reabsorbed. It brought on drought, floods, insect plagues and a few extinctions. Life on Earth survived – indeed, it prospered – but it was drastically different.
8. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Global warming has a bearing on the planet’s biological evolution.
2. Separation of land masses causes the release of huge quantities of carbon into the atmosphere.
3. Increased warming of Earth’s atmosphere can change the composition of its flora and fauna.
4. The present man-made global warming will finally lead to conditions similar to those which happened 56 million years ago.
Which of the assumptions given above are valid?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)
Here, four statements have been given so we will adopt the elimination strategy.
Trick: Eliminate the oddest option first.
Take note of the word assumption in the question and the assumption will be an idea and not the facts and figures mentioned in the passage. Cross out S4 at first.
Options b and d are eliminated.
S2 is again the borrowed statement from the passage. Cross it.
You are left with S3 and S1, hence, c is the correct answer.
9. The number of times the digit 5 will appear while writing the integers from 1 to 1000 is
(a) 269
(b) 271
(c) 300
(d) 302
Ans: (c)
| 5 | 0 to 9 (Total 10) | 0 to 9 (Total 10) | Total 100 |
| 0 to 9 (Total 10) | 5 | 0 to 9 (Total 10) | Total 100 |
| 0 to 9 (Total 10) | 0 to 9 (Total 10) | 5 | Total 100 |
Hence, in total the digit 5 will appear 300 times.
10. A solid cube is painted yellow, blue and black such that opposite faces are of same colour. The cube is then cut into 36 cubes of two different sizes such that 32 cubes are small and the other four cubes are Big. None of the faces of the bigger cubes is painted blue. How many cubes have only one face painted?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans: (c)
All sides of the cube must of equal length. Even if you are cutting the cube to extract small and big cube, you have to maintain this rule.
Now imagine a cube of side length 3 meters and you have to cut it into smaller cubes with side length as 1 meter, you will get 27 cubes of smaller size. The number of cubes located in the centre of each face will be 6.
Now, let us come back to our question. Here, we are getting 36 cubes, it means that the cutting has been done even in smaller pieces. Say, one side is being cut 4 times and we are getting 64 smaller cubes (24 cubes located centrally).
But, according to the question, the final number of cubes are 36 only as 4 big cubes have been cut. Now, 4 cubes can be made from the cube only when two faces of the bigger cubes are left intact. Hence, there will be more than one colours on the faces of the bigger cubes. So we don’t have to count it.
Now, we have only two faces of the bigger cubes where the smaller cubes are centrally located.
So, total smaller cubes with only one face painted will be 2*4=8
11. A and B are two heavy steel blocks. If B is placed on the top of A, the weight increases by 60%. How much weight will reduce with respect to the total weight of A and B, if B is removed from the top of A?
(a) 60%
(b) 45.5%
(c) 40%
(d) 37.5%
Ans: (d)
Refer the below image.
B is placed on A,
So, (A+B) =1.6 (A)
Or, 0.6A=B
New weight after B is removed is A
Reduction in weight= B/(A+B)
=0.6A/ (A+0.6A)
=0.6A/(1.6A)
=0.375
Percentage Reduction= 37.5 %
12. Mr ‘X’ has three children. The birthday of the first child falls on the 5th Monday of April, that of the second one falls on the 5th Thursday of November. On which day is the birthday of his third child, which falls on 20th December?
(a) Monday
(b) Thursday
(c) Saturday
(d) Sunday
Ans: (b)
First Birthday: 5th Monday of April.
Fifth Monday of April may be on 29th or 30th of April. (7X4=28 and 2 additional days)
again, fifth Thursday of November can be possible only on 29th or 30th November only.
Case 1: Consider 29th April as Monday.
No. of odd days between 29th April and 29th November will be: 1+31+30+31+31+30+31+29
= 1+3+2+3+3+2+3+1 (odd days)
= 18 (odd days)
=4 odd days
Hence, 29th November will be Friday and 30th November will be Saturday. (but according to the question, 29th or 30th November should be Thursday)
Hence, this assumption is not valid.
So just consider the other option i.e. 30th April as Monday, so 30th November will be Friday.
So, 20th December will be Thursday (6 odd days from 30th November).
13. Consider the following Statements and Conclusions:
Statements:
1. Some rats are cats.
2. Some cats are dogs.
3. No dog is a cow.
Conclusions:
I. No cow is a cat.
II. No dog is a rat.
III. Some cats are rats.
Which of the above conclusions is/are drawn from the statements?
(a) I, II and III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only III
(d) Only II and III
Ans: (c)
You don’t have to refer the Venn diagram for the solution of this question. Just see all the three statements, two of with are with the word some and one of them is with the word No, hence combined conclusion will be with the word some. Hence, only S3 is correct.
Alternate Method:
Refer the venn diagram given below.
S1: Incorrect, as no relation has been mapped.
S2: Incorrect, as no relation has been mapped.
S3: Correct, there is a common area.
14. The number of parallelograms that can be formed from a set of four parallel lines intersecting another set of four parallel lines, is
(a) 18
(b) 24
(c) 32
(d) 36
Ans: (d)
Refer the figure below.
Smallest Parallelograms (Side Length 1X1 unit): 9
Parallelograms (Side Length 2X1 units): 12
Parallelograms (Side Length 2X2 units): 4
Parallelograms (Side Length 3X1 units): 6
Parallelograms (Side Length 3X2 units): 4
Parallelograms (Side Length 3X3 units): 1
Total: 36
15. In a school every student is assigned a unique identification number. A student is a football player if and only if the identification number is divisible by 4, whereas a student is a cricketer if and only if the identification number is divisible by 6. If every number from 1 to 100 is assigned to a student, then how many of them play cricket as well as football?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Ans: (b)
A number will be divisible by both 4 and 6 if the number is divisible by the LCM of both numbers 4 and 6.
Hence, the number must be divisible by 12.
From 1 to 100, there are 8 numbers divisible by 12. Hence, the answer is 8.
16. When a runner was crossing the 12 km mark, she was informed that she had completed only 80% of the race. How many kilometres was the runner supposed to run in this event?
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 16.5
Ans: (b)
12 Km corresponds to 80 Percent.
Or, 80 Percent corresponds to 12 Km.
Or, 1 Percent corresponds to 12/80
Or, 100 Percent corresponds to 12/80X100= 15 Km.
17. Raju has Rs. 9000 with him and he wants to buy a mobile handset; but he finds that he has only 75% of the amount required to buy the handset. Therefore, he borrows 2000 from a friend. Then
(a) Raju still does not have enough amount to buy the handset.
(b) Raju has exactly the same amount as required to buy the handset.
(c) Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have 500 with him after buying the handset.
(d) Raju has enough amount to buy the handset and he will have 1000 with him after buying the handset.
Ans: (a)
75% corresponds to 9K
Or, 1% corresponds to 9K/75
Or, 100 Percent corresponds to (9K/75) X100
So, 100 percent is 12000
So, even if he borrowed 2000, Raju still does not have enough amount to buy the handset.
18. In 2002, Meenu’s age was one-third of the age of Meera, whereas in 2010, Meenu’s age was half the age of Meera. What is Meenu’s year of birth?
(a) 1992
(b) 1994
(c) 1996
(d) 1998
Ans: (b)
Let the age of Meeu in 2002 is a year.
Let the age of Merra in 2002 is b years.
So, a= (1/3) b
Again, (a+8) = (b+8)/2
Or, (b/3) +8=b/2+4
Or, b/6=4
Or, b=24 years., a=8 years.
10 years back from 2002 is 1994.
19. Rakesh and Rajesh together bought 10 balls and 10 rackets. Rakesh spent 1300 and Rajesh spent 1500. If each racket costs three times a ball does, then what is the price of a racket?
(a) Rs. 70
(b) Rs. 90
(c) Rs. 210
(d) Rs. 240
Ans: (c)
2800 rupees corresponds to 10 Balls and 10 rackets
Or, 1 racket and 1 ball corresponds to 280 Rupees.
Or, 3 balls and 1 ball corresponds to 280 Rs.
Or. 1 ball corresponds to 70 rupees.
Hence, Racket corresponds to 210 rupees.
20. In a conference, out of a total 100 participants, 70 are Indians. If 60 of the total participants are vegetarian, then which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. At least 30 Indian participants are vegetarian.
2. At least 10 Indian participants are nonvegetarian.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
S1: There are 30 non-Indian participants in the conference, let all of them be vegetarian, then also you will have to make 30 Indians vegetarian to make 60 total. Hence, S1 is correct.
S2: Correct, we can’t make all the Indian vegetarian as the upper cap is 60 only, so we must have to consider 10 Indians in the non veg category.
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage -1
Low-end IoT (Internet of Things) devices are cheap commodity items: addressing security would add to the cost. This class of items is proliferating with new applications; many home appliances, thermostats, security and monitoring devices and personal convenience devices are part of the IoT. So are fitness trackers, certain medical implants and computer like devices in automobiles. The IoT is expected to expand exponentially – but new security challenges are daunting.
21. Which one of the following statements is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Development of enabling technologies in India can be a big boost to its manufacturing sector.
(b) India is not yet fully ready to adopt IoT in view of the imminent security challenges.
(c) Life becomes more comfortable with the development of cheap low-end IoT devices.
(d) As we go digital, we must recognise the huge threat to Internet security from some IoT devices.
Ans: (d)
Here, the inference has been asked.
Can you just name a title for this passage?
I would title it as ‘Expanding use of IOT and rising threats associated with its rise’. Hence, the conclusion or the inference will be a circle around this title.
If you read all the options, option is close to it.
Passage – 2
With the digital phenomenon restructuring most social sectors, it is little surprise that global trade negotiations are now eyeing the digital area in an attempt to preemptively colonise it. Big Data is freely collected or mined from developing countries, and converted into digital intelligence in developed countries. This intelligence begins to control different sectors and extract monopoly rents. A large foreign company providing cab service, for instance, is not a work of cars and drivers, it is digital intelligence about commuting, public transport, roads, traffic, city events, presonal behavioural characteristics of commuters and driver and so on.
22. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational corollary to the above passage?
(a) Globalization is not in the interests of India as it undermines its socio-economic structures.
(b) India should be careful to protect its digital sovereignty in global trade talks.
(c) India should charge monopoly rents from multinational companies in exchange for Big Data.
(d) The loss of Big Data from India is proportional to the degree/value of its foreign trade.
Ans: (b)
Here, the passage warns about the how the big data analysis is controlling and monopolising different sectors of economy. The key concern of the author is mining of big data from the developing countries for being used in the developing country. So, b is the right choice.
23. Which of the following is most definitively implied by the above passage?
(a) Big Data is the key resource in the digital space.
(b) Big economies create Big Data.
(c) Access to Big Data is the prerogative of developed countries.
(d) Access to and possession of Big Data is a characteristic of developed countries
Ans: (a)
The passage talks about the importance of big data in digital space. Note the word implied in the passage. This means the message that the author intends to says although not stated directly.
Passage – 3
The rural poor across the world, including India, have contributed little to human-induced climate change, yet they are on the frontline in coping with its effects. Farmers can no longer rely on historical averages for rainfall and temperature, and the more frequent and extreme weather events, such as droughts and floods, can spell disaster. And there are new threats, such as sea level rise and the impact of melting glaciers on water supply. How significant are small farms? As many as two billion people worldwide depend on them for their food and livelihood. Small-holder farmers in India produce 41 percent of the country’s food grains, and other food items that contribute to local and national food security.
24. What is the most logical and rational Corollary to the above passage?
(a) Supporting small farmers is an important part of any agenda regarding environmentally sustainable development.
(b) Poor countries have little role to play in the mitigation of global warming.
(c) Due to a large number of farmer households, India will not have food security problem in the foreseeable future.
(d) Only small-holder farmers in India can ensure food security.
Ans: (a)
What is heading of the passage?
It is like “Effects of climate change on small farmers”. Hence, the corollary will be centred around it.
The best option close to it is option a.
25. The above passage implies that
1. There is a potential problem of food insecurity in India.
2. India will have to strengthen its disaster management capabilities.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Both statements are implied in the passage.
Refer the second line of the passage “Farmers can no longer rely on historical averages for rainfall and temperature………” This imply S1.
Refer the statement “As many as two billion people worldwide depend on them for their food and livelihood….”. This statement implies S2.
Passage – 4
A changing climate, and the eventual efforts of governments (however reluctant) to deal with it, could have a big impact on investors’ returns. Companies that produce or use large amounts of fossil fuels will face higher taxes and regulatory burdens. Some energy producers may find it impossible to exploit their known reserves, and be left with “stranded assets” – deposits of oil and coal that have to be left in the ground. Other industries could be affected by the economic damage caused by more extreme weather – storms, floods, heat waves and droughts.
26. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Governments and companies need to be adequately prepared to face the climate change.
2. Extreme weather events will reduce the economic growth of governments and companies in future.
3. Ignoring climate change is a huge risk for investors.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
Here, the assumption has been asked. So, focus on WHY the passage has been written?
The passage has been written to inform the reader about the possible consequences of the climate change on industries.
S1: Correct, this is the main recommendation implied in the passage.
S2: Incorrect, as it will affect the economy but it is not guaranteed that the economic growth will slow down.
S3: Correct, ignoring climate change will affect the investor’s returns
Hence, S1 and S3 are correct.
Passage – 5
Access to schooling for those coming of school age is close to universal, but access to quality exhibits a sharp gradient with socio-economic status. Quotas for the weaker sections in private schools is a provision introduced by the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009. The quotas have imposed a debate on issues of social integration and equity in education that private actors had escaped by and large, The idea of egalitarian education system with equality of opportunity as its primary goal appears to be outside the space that private school principals inhabit. Therefore, the imposition of the quotas has led to resistance, sometimes justified,
27. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Making equality of opportunity a reality is the fundamental goal of the Indian education system.
2. The present Indian school system is unable to provide egalitarian education.
3. Abolition of private schools and establishment of more government schools is the only way to ensure egalitarian education.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
Here, assumption has been asked. Just cross out S3 as no such comparison between private and public school has been made. So options c and d are gone.
Now, 2 must be true as it is present in both the options. Let’s check S1.
S1 is partially correct as the this is only one of the goals, other being access to quality education as mentioned in the passage. S1 is incorrect.
Passage – 6
A majority of the TB infected in India are poor and lack sufficient nutrition, suitable housing and have little understanding of prevention. TB then devastates families, makes the poor poorer, particularly affects women and children, and leads to ostracisation and loss of employment. The truth is that even if TB does not kill them, hunger and poverty will. Another truth is that deep-seated stigma, lack of counselling, expensive treatment and lack of adequate support from providers and family, coupled with torturous side-effects demotivate patients to continue treatment – with disastrous health consequences.
28. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) TB is not a curable disease in Indian circumstances.
(b) Curing TB requires more than diagnosis and medical treatment.
(c) Government’s surveillance mechanism is deficient; and poor people have no access to treatment.
(d) India will be free from diseases like TB only when its poverty alleviation programmes are effectively and successfully implemented.
Ans: (b)
There are multiple challenges to TV eradication like challenges to access treatment, Poverty, Stigma attached etc. Hence, the correct answer is b.
29. A five-storeyed building with floors from I to V is painted using four different colours and only one colour is used to paint a floor.
Consider the following statements:
1. The middle three floors are painted in different colours.
2. The second (II) and the fourth (IV) floors are painted in different colours.
3. The first (I) and the fifth (V) floors are painted red.
To ensure that any two consecutive floors have different colours
(a) Only statement 2 is sufficient
(b) Only statement 3 is sufficient
(c) Statement 1 is not sufficient, but statement 1 along with statement 2 is sufficient
(d) Statement 3 is not sufficient, but statement 3 along with statement 2 is sufficient
Ans: (b)
If all the colors of Floors 2,3,4 are different, ultimately, consecutive floor colors will be different.
30. P, Q and R, are three towns. The distance between P and Q is 60 km, whereas the distance between P and R is 80 km. Q is in the West of P and R is in the South of P. What is the distance between Q and R?
(a) 140 km
(b) 130 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 100 km
Ans: (d)
Required Distance= Square Root (3600+6400)
=Square Root (10000)
=100
31. All members of a club went to Mumbai and stayed in a hotel. On the first day, 80% went for shopping and 50% went for sightseeing, whereas 10% took rest in the hotel. Which of the following conclusion(s) can be drawn from the above data?
1. 40% members went for shopping as well as sightseeing.
2. 20% members went for only shopping.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
S1: Correct, superimpose both the images and find the minimum common area, it is 40%.
S2: Incorrect, it should be between 30 and 40 percent.
32. In a school, 60% students play cricket. A student who does not play cricket, plays football. Every football player has got a two-wheeler.
Which of the following conclusions cannot be drawn from the above data?
1. 60% of the students do not have two-wheelers.
2. No cricketer has a two-wheeler.
3. Cricket players do not play football.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
All statements are correct in the context of the above diagram.
33. The ratio of a two-digit natural number to a number formed by reversing its digits is 4: 7. The number of such pairs is
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Ans: (b)
Let the number be ab
The numerical value of the number will be 10a+b
After reversing the number, the numerical value becomes 10b+a
So, (10a+b)/(10b+a) =4/7
Or, 70a+7b=40b+4a
Or, 66a=33b
Or, b=2a
Now, check it,
If a=1, b=2
Number will be 12 and 21
The ratio will be 12/21=4/7
If, a=2, b=4
The number is 24 and 42 (two digit numbers)
If a=3, b=6, (numbers are 36 and 63)
If, a=4, b=8 (Numbers are 48 and 84)
If a=5, b=10 (numbers are 510 and 105) Not valid as this is three-digit number.
Hence, Pairs are (12,21), (24,42), (36,63), (48,84)
34. In an examination, A has scored 20 marks more than B. If B has scored 5% less marks than A, how much has B scored?
(a) 360
(b) 380
(c) 400
(d) 420
Ans: (b)
The difference in marks in 20
The difference in percentage is 5 Percent (when compared with A)
So, 5 percent is 20, hence 100 percent will be 20X20=400 (marks of A)
Marks of B= 400-20= 380
35. Seeta and Geeta go for a swim after a gap of every 2 days and every 3 days respectively. If on 1st January both of them went for a swim together, when will they go together next?
(a) 7th January
(b) 8th January
(c) 12th January
(d) 13th January
Ans: (d)
LCM based question as common things have been asked.
1 January (common day)
Seeta: 1,4,7,10,13,16,19,22
Geeta: 1,5,9,13,17,21,25
Hence, common day is 13 Jan.
36. X, Y and Z are three contestants in a race of 1000 m. Assume that all run with different uniform speeds. X gives Y a start of 40 m and X gives Z a start of 64 m. If Y and Z were to compete in a race of 1000 m, how many metres start will Y give to Z?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35
Ans: (b)
When X runs 1000 m, Y runs (1000 – 40) m and Z runs (1000 – 64) m
Y runs 960 m and Z runs 936 m.
So, when Y runs 1000 m, Z runs
= 936/960 × 1000 = 975 m
So, start Y gives to Z = 1000 – 975 = 25 m
37. If x is greater than or equal to 25 and y is less than or equal to 40, then which one of the following is always correct?
(a) x is greater than y
(b) (y – x) is’greater than 15
(c) (y – x) is less than or equal to 15
(d) (x – y) is greater than or equal to 65
Ans: (c)
x≥25 and y≤40
Value x=25, y=26 is valid, hence option (a) is incorrect.
Value x=30, y=31 is valid, hence, option (b) is incorrect.
Option (c) is correct as the maximum difference between x and y can be 40-25=15
38. Ena was born 4 years after her parents’ marriage. Her mother is three years younger than her father and 24 years older than Ena, who is 13 years old. At what age did Ena’s father get married?
(a) 22 years
(b) 23 years
(c) 24 years
(d) 25 years
Ans: (b)
The present age of Ena is 13 years.
Mother: 24+13=37 (at present)
Father: 37+3=40 (at present)
Required age will be 40-13-4=23 Years.
39. Rakesh had money to buy 8 mobile handsets of a specific company. But the retailer offered very good discount on that particular handset. Rakesh could buy 10 mobile handsets with the amount he had. What was the discount the retailer offered?
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 25%
(d) 30%
Ans (b)
2 Handsets more due to discount.
Hence, Discount Percentage= (Discount/ Price) X100
= (2/10) X100
=20 %
40. The average marks of 100 students are given to be 40. It was found later that marks of one student were 53 which were misread as 83. The corrected mean marks are
(a) 39
(b) 39.7
(c) 40
(d) 40.3
Ans: (b)
Difference in marks: 83-53=30
30/100=0.3
Hence, new average marks will be 40-0.3=39.7
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
What stands in the way of the widespread and careful adoption of ‘Genetic Modification (GM)’ technology is an `Intellectual Property Rights’ regime that seeks to create private monopolies for such technologies. If GM technology is largely corporate driven, it seeks to maximize profits and that too in the short run. That is why corporations make major investments for herbicide-tolerant and pest-resistant crops. Such properties have only a short window, as soon enough, pests and weeds will evolve to overcome such resistance. This suits the corporations. The National Farmers Commission pointed out that priority must be given in genetic modification to the incorporation of genes that can help impart resistance to drought, salinity and other stresses.
41. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
(a) Public research institutions should take the lead in GM technology and prioritise the technology agenda.
(b) Developing countries should raise this issue in WTO and ensure the abolition of Intellectual Property Rights.
(c) Private corporations should not be allowed to do agribusiness in India, particularly the seed business.
(d) Present Indian circumstances do not favour the cultivation of genetically modified crops.
Ans: (a)
If you ask me, what is the heading of the passage, I will quote “Challenges in corporatization of GM technology”.
So, the crucial message must be framed around this message. Option (a) resonates the same. Option b can be easily eliminated. Hence, correct answer is a.
42. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. The issue of effects of natural calamities on agriculture is not given due consideration by GM technology companies.
2. In the long run, GM technology will not be able to solve agricultural problems arising due to global warming.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
S1: The last line of the passage says “priority must be given in genetic modification to the incorporation of genes that can help impart resistance to drought, salinity and other stresses.” Hence, S1 is correct as till now the focus has been on developing seeds having weed resistance.
S2: Incorrect, such assertion has not been made.
Passage – 2
Most invasive species are neither terribly successful nor very harmful. Britain’s invasive plants are not widespread, not spreading especially quickly, and often less of a nuisance than vigorous natives such as bracken. The arrival of new species almost always increases biological diversity in a region; in many cases, a flood of newcomers drives no native species to extinction. One reason is that invaders tend to colonise disturbed habitats like polluted lakes and post-industrial wasteland, where little else lives. They are nature’s opportunists.
43. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) Invasive species should be used to rehabilitate desert areas and wastelands of a country.
(b) Laws against the introduction of foreign plants are unnecessary.
(c) Sometimes, the campaigns against foreign plants are pointless.
(d) Foreign plants should be used to increase the biodiversity of a country.
Ans: (c)
So, what is the heading of the passage?
It may be like “Effects of Invasive Species on regional biodiversity: Myths and Reality”.
So, our inference will also be centred around it and the most suitable answer is (c).
Passage – 3
Diarrhoeal deaths among Indian children are mostly due to food and water contamination. Use of contaminated groundwater and unsafe chemicals in agriculture, poor hygiene in storage and handling of food items to food cooked and distributed in unhygienic surroundings; there are myriad factors that need regulation and monitoring. People need to have awareness of adulteration and ways of complaining to the relevant authorities. Surveillance of food-borne diseases involves a number of government agencies and entails good training of inspection staff. Considering the proportion of the urban population that depends on street food for its daily meals, investing in training and education of street vendors is of great significance.
44. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Food safety is a complex issue that calls for a multipronged solution.
2. Great investments need to be made in developing the manpower for surveillance and training.
3. India needs to make sufficient legislation for governing food processing industry.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
What is the title of the passage?
It may be “Causes, Effects and remedies of Diarrhoeal deaths among India children”.
The assumption will be centred around this title and we have to focus on WHY the passage has been drafted.
S1: Correct, yes it is a complex issue and needs multidimensional solution.
S2: Correct, this has been explicitly mentioned in the passage.
S3: Incorrect, the passage does not mention the role of food processing industries.
Passage – 4
The interests of working and poor people have historically been neglected in the planning of our cities. Our cities are increasingly intolerant,’, unsafe and unlivable places for large numbers of citizens and yet we continue to plan via the old ways – the static Development Plan – that draws exclusively from technical expertise, distanced from people’s live experiences and needs, and actively excluding large number of people, places, activities and practices that are an integral part of the city.
45. The passage seems to argue
(a) against the monopoly of builders and the interests of elite groups.
(b) against the need for global and smart cities.
(c) in favour of planning cities mainly for working class and poor people.
(d) in favour of participation of peoples’ groups in city planning.
Ans: (d)
Title: Making cities liveable for common men through their participation in city planning.
The argument of the author will be centred around this title and the best option is option d.
Passage – 5
A vast majority of Indians are poor, with barely 10 percent employed in the organised sector. We are being convinced that vigorous economic growth is generating substantial employment. But this is not so. When our economy was growing at 3 percent per year, employment in the organised sector was growing at 2 percent per year. As the economy began to grow at 7 – 8 percent per year, the rate of growth of employment in the organised sector actually declined to 1 percent per year.
46. The above passage seems to imply that
1. most of modern economic growth is based on technological progress.
2. much of modern Indian economy does not nurture sufficient symbiotic relationship with labour-intensive, natural resourcebased livelihoods.
3. service sector in India is not very labourintensive.
4. literate rural population is not willing to enter organised sector.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
What is the title of the passage?
It may be “Decoupled employment generation growth with the economic growth”. So the key message will be centred around this title.
Now, just cross out option 4, this is way apart from the context of the passage. Hence, b and d are gone. Now, we need not check S1 and S2 as both are available in the remaining options.
S3: Correct, a difficult choice, Although the term service sector has not been written anywhere in the passage but it is implicit that the author is referring the service sector growth only.
Hence, the correct answer is (c).
Passage – 6
India has banking correspondents, who help bring people in the hinterland into the banking fold. For them to succeed, banks cannot crimp on costs. They also cannot afford to ignore investing in financial education and literacy. Banking correspondents are way too small to be viewed as a systemic risk. Yet India’s banking regulator has restricted them to serving only one bank, perhaps to prevent arbitrage.’ Efforts at banking outreach may succeed only if there are better incentives at work for such last-mile workers and also those providers who ensure not just basic bank accounts but also products such as accident and life insurance and micro pension schemes.
47. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?
(a) Efforts to bring people in India’s hinterland into the banking system are not successful.
(b) For meaningful financial inclusion, India’s banking system needs more number of banking correspondents and other such last-mile workers.
(c) Meaningful financial inclusion in India requires that banking correspondents have diverse skills
(d) Better banking outreach would be impossible unless each banking correspondent is allowed to serve a number of banks
Ans: (c)
What is the title of the passage?
It may be “Challenges faced by Banking Correspondents and its solution”.
So the inference will be centred around this title. The most suitable one is c.
48. What is X in the sequence 132, 129, 124, 117, 106, 93, X?
(a) 74
(b) 75
(c) 76
(d) 77
Ans: (c)
132, 129, 124, 117, 106, 93, X
3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17 (Difference is continuous prime numbers)
93-17= 76
49. A wall clock moves 10 minutes fast in every 24 hours. The clock was set right to show the correct time at 8:00 a.m. on Monday. When the clock shows the time 6:00 p.m. on Wednesday, what is the correct time?
(a) 5:36 p.m.
(b) 5:30 p.m.
(c) 5:24 p.m.
(d) 5:18 p.m.
Ans: (a)
10 Minutes lead in 24 hours
or, 5 minutes lead in 12 hours.
Or, 1 hour corresponds to 5/12 minutes’ lead.
So, at 8 am on Wednesday, this will show the time 8:20 AM
At 6 PM on Wednesday, the clock will lead (20+ 8X5/12)
= 20+8X5/12
=20+10/3
=70/3
=24 minutes (approx.)
Hence the correct time will be 60-24= 36 minutes back.
So, time will be 5:36 PM.
50. If the numerator and denominator of a proper fraction are increased by the same positive quantity which is greater than zero, the resulting fraction is
(a) always less than the original fraction
(b) always greater than the original fraction
(c) always equal to the original fraction
(d) such that nothing can .be claimed definitely
Ans: (b)
Let the number be p/q, now the new number will be (p+x)/(q+x)
This new fraction will always be greater than the original fraction.
Example: ½ (equal to 0.5)
Increase the numerator and enumerator by 100, it will become 101/102 (close to 1)
51. What is X in the sequence 4, 196, 16, 144, 36, 100, 64, X?
(a) 48
(b) 64
(c) 125
(d) 256
Ans: (b)
The series is of composite type, with square of the number, check alternate one, you will get Square of 8. i.e. 64.
52. In a group of 15 people; 7 can read French, 8 can read English while 3 of them can read neither of these two languages. The number of people who can read exactly one language is
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 5
(d) 4
Ans: (b)
This a very common type of question asked almost every year in UPSC CSAT Paper.
Now,
a+b+c+d=15 ——-(1)
b+c=7 ————–(2)
a+c= 8 ————-(3)
d=3 —————-(4)
From, 1 and 4,
Or, a+b+c=12
From, 2 and 3
Or, a+b+c+c=15
Hence, c=3, hence a+b= 9
53. A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3089 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?
(a) 1040
(b) 1048
(c) 1049
(d) 1050
Ans: (c)
Pages 1 to 9 (Single digits): total digits used 9
Pages 10 to 99 (Double Digits): Total 90 Pages used, Digits 90X2= 180
Pages 100 to 999 (three digits): Total 900 Pages used, Digits 900X3=2700
So total digits are: 9+180+ 2700= 2889
Remaining digits are 3089-2889= 200
So, remaining pages will be 200/4= 50
Total Pages are: 9+90+900+50= 1049
54. Consider the following sequence that follows some arrangement :
c_accaa_aa_bc_b
The letters that appear in the gaps are
(a) abba
(b) cbbb
(c) bbbb
(d) cccc
Ans: (b)
The first step is to grab the largest chunk of data.
So, here it is accaa
But we are not able to get any concrete pattern from this data in the series.
So, the second step will be to count the places available in the series. It is 15.
The number 15 is divisible by 3,5 so divide the series in the group of 3.
c_a/ cca/ a_a/ a_b/ c_b
Again we are not getting any fixed pattern repeated.
So, Divide the series in the group of 5.
c_acc/aa_aa/_bc_b
ccacc/ aabaa/ bbcbb
Code is: cbbb
55. A family has two children along with their parents. The average of the weights of the children and their mother is 50 kg. The average of the weights of the children and their father is 52 kg. If the weight of the father is 60 kg, then what is the weight of the mother?
(a) 48 kg
(b) 50 kg
(c) 52 kg
(d) 54 kg
Ans: (d)
C1+C2+M= 150 Kg.
C1+C2+ F= 156 Kg.
F= 60 Kg, C1+C2= 96 Kg.
M= 150-96= 54 Kg.
56. Suppose you have sufficient amount of rupee currency in three denominations : Rs. 1, Rs. 10 and Rs. 50. In how many different ways can you pay a bill of Rs. 107?
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19
Ans: (c)
Currency denominations are of Rs. 1, Rs. 10 and Rs. 50 be x, y and z respectively.
Let x currency of Rs. 1, y currency of Rs. 10 and z currency of Rs. 50 are used.
Hence,
So, x + 10y + 50z = 107
If, Z=0, x+10y=107
Here, y will be 0 to 10
Hence, there are 11 ways.
Again, If, z=1, x+10y= 57
Here, y will be from 0 to 5
Hence there are 6 ways.
Again, if z=2, x+10y=7
Here, there will be only one value of y (i.e. 0)
Hence only one way.
The correct option is (c).
57. ‘A’ started from his house and walked 20 m towards East, where his friend ‘B’ joined him. They together walked 10 m in the same direction. Then ‘A’ turned left while ‘B’ turned right and travelled 2 m and 8 m respectively. Again ‘B’ turned left to travel 4 m followed by 5 m to his right to reach his office. ‘A’ turned right and travelled 12 m to reach his office. What is the shortest distance between the two offices?
(a) 15 m
(b) 17 m
(c) 19 m
(d) 20 m
Ans: (b)
Just draw what the question says.
Required Distance= Square root ((10+5) ^2+ (8) ^2)
= Square root (225+64)
= Square root (289)
= 17
58. Consider two statements S1 and S2 followed by a question:
S1: p and q both are prime numbers.
S2: p + q is an odd integer.
Question: Is pq an odd integer?
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question
(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question
(c) Both S1 and S2 taken together are not sufficient to answer the question
(d) Both S1 and S2 are necessary to answer the question
Ans: (b)
S2: If one of the integers is odd and the other is even then the product will always be even.
Hence, S1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
59. Which year has the same calendar as that of 2009?
(a) 2018
(b) 2017
(c) 2016
(d) 2015
Ans: (d)
Odd days in the year 2010: 1 (Not a leap year)
Odd days in the year 2011: 1 (Not a leap year)
Odd days in the year 2012: 2 (Leap year)
Odd days in the year 2013: 1 (Not a leap year)
Odd days in the year 2014: 1 (Not a leap year)
Odd days in the year 2015: 1 (Not a leap year)
We are getting 7 odd days till 2015, hence, 2015 will have the same calendar.
60. Number 136 is added to 5B7 and the sum obtained is 7A3, where A and B are integers. It is given that 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3. The only possible value of B is
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 8
Ans: (d)
136
+
5B7
Sum: 7A3
Since, 7A3 is exactly divisible by 3, So possible options of A are 2, 5, 8 etc.
Again, 4+B= 10+ A
So, B must be 8 to make the sum 12, A will be 2.
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
India’s economic footprint, given its population, still remains small compared to the US, the European Union or China. It has much to learn from other economies, yet must implement solutions that fit its unique circumstances. India especially needs an effective longterm regulatory system based on collaboration rather than the ‘ current top-down approach. Regulations seek desirable outcomes yet are repeatedly used as political tools to push one agenda or another. Often, regulations fail to consider impacts on jobs and economic growth – or less restrictive alternatives. Regulations may be used to protect local markets at the expense of more widely shared prosperity in the future. Additionally, regulations inevitably result in numerous unintended consequences. In today’s hyper competitive global economy, regulations need to be viewed as “weapons” that seek cost-justified social and environmental benefits while improving the economic well-being of most citizens.
61. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?
(a) A better regulatory system will help India achieve the size of economy appropriate to its population.
(b) In a competitive global economy, India must use regulations strategically.
(c) Regulations in India do not favour its integration with today’s hyper competitive global economy.
(d) Job creation and economic growth should be dominant considerations in developing India’s regulatory system.
Ans: (b)
Let us give a title to this passage without going through the options available.
Title may be “Role of regulation in Indian economic growth”.
So, the inference will be centred around this title.
Option (a) gets eliminated as it has not been guaranteed that better regulation will ensure achieve the size of economy appropriate to its population.
Option (c) does not sounds good as the existing regulations has not resulted into its disintegration from the rest of the word.
Option (d) is wrong as the key goal of reform in regulation is to achieve competitive advantage.
Option (b) is most appropriate.
62. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made : In today’s global economy,
1. regulations are not effectively used to protect local markets.
2. social and environmental concerns are generally ignored by the governments across the world while implementing the regulations.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
S1: Incorrect, as regulations are usually used to protect local markets.
S2: Incorrect, refer the last part of the passage.
Passage – 2
In a study, scientists compared the microbiomes of poorly nourished and well nourished infants and young children. Gut microbes were isolated from faecal samples of malnourished and healthy children. The microbiome was “immature” and less diverse in malnourished children compared to the better developed “mature” microbiome found in healthy children of the same age. According to some studies, the chemical composition of mother’s milk has shown the presence of a modified sugar (sialylated oligosaccharides). This is not utilized by the baby for its own nutrition. However, the bacteria constituting the infant’s microbiome thrive on this sugar which serves as their food. Malnourished mothers have low levels of this sugar in their milk. Consequently, the microbiomes of their infants fail to mature. That in turn, leads to malnourished babies.
63. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial inference that can be derived from the above passage?
(a) If malnourished condition in children is caused by gut bacteria, it cannot be treated.
(b) The guts of malnourished babies should be inoculated with mature microbiomes.
(c) Babies of malnourished mothers should be fed with dairy milk fortified with sialylated oligosaccharides instead of mother’s milk.
(d) Research on benign effects of gut bacteria on nutrition has policy implications.
Let’s give the title of this passage.
“Relation between malnourished children microbiomes”
The inference will be around the title. Option d is the most appropriate.
64. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Processed probiotic foods are a solution to treat the children suffering from malnutrition due to immature gut bacteria composition.
2. The babies of malnourished mothers generally tend to be’ malnourished.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
S1: No mention of processed food.
S2: Correct in the context of this passage.
Passage – 3
Temperatures have risen nearly five times as rapidly on the Western Antarctic Peninsula than the global average over the past five decades. Researchers have now found that melting glaciers are causing a loss of species diversity among benthos in the coastal waters off the Antarctic Peninsula, Impacting an entire seafloor ecosystem. They believe increased levels of suspended sediment in water to be the cause of the dwindling biodiversity in the coastal region.
65. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been Made :
1. Regions of glaciers warm faster than other regions due to global warming.
2. Global warming can lead to seafloor sedimentation in some areas.
3. Melting glaciers can reduce marine biodiversity in some areas.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
S1: No mention of this assumption.
S2 and S3: Implicit.
Passage – 4
A research team examined a long-term owl roost. Owls prey on small mammals and the excreted remains of those meals that accumulated over the time, provide us an insight into the composition and structure of small mammals over the past ‘millennia. The research suggested that when the Earth went through a period of rapid warming about 13,000 years ago, the small mammal community was stable and resilient. But, from the last quarter of the nineteenth century, human-made changes to the environment had caused an enormous drop in biomass and energy flow. This dramatic decline in energy flow means modern ecosystems are not adapting as easily as they did in the past.
66. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :
1. Global warming is a frequently occurring natural phenomenon.
2. The impending global warming will not adversely affect small mammals.
3. Humans are responsible for the loss of the Earth’s natural resilience.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Here, you have been asked to choose the correct Assumption. So, we should keep in mind why the passage has been drafted? What is the purpose of the author drafting the passage?
Again, we have multiple options in front of us, so choose the statement that is totally invalid in the context of this passage.
S2: Incorrect, just opposite to the opinion of the author.
S1: Incorrect, not mentioned in the passage.
S3: Correct, as this message is implicit in the passage.
Passage – 5
Food varieties extinction is happening all over the world – and it is happening fast. For example, of the 7,000 apple varieties that were grown during the nineteenth century, fewer than a hundred remain. In the Philippines, thousands of varieties of rice once thrived; now only up to a hundred are grown there. In China, 90 percent of the wheat varieties cultivated just a century ago have disappeared. Farmers in the past painstakingly bred and developed crops well suited to the peculiarities of their local climate and environment. In the recent past, our heavy dependence on a few high yielding varieties and technology-driven production and distribution of food is causing the dwindling of diversity in food crops. If some mutating crop disease or future climate change decimates the few crop plants we have come to depend on to feed our growing population, we might desperately need some of those varieties we have let go extinct.
67. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Humans have been the main reason for the large scale extinction of plant species.
2. Consumption of food mainly from locally cultivated crops ensures crop diversity.
3. The present style of production and distribution of food will finally lead to the problem of food scarcity in the near future.
4. Our food security may depend on our ability to preserve the locally cultivated varieties of crops.
Which of the above assumptions are valid?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (b)
So, why the passage has been written?
The author is concerned about fast extinction of some of the varieties of the plants.
S1: Incorrect, no such accountability has been fixed.
S2: Correct, in line with the essence of the passage.
S3: Incorrect, the author has not given any time frame regarding the food scarcity.
S4: Correct, Straight forward option from the passage.
Hence, correct answer will be d.
68. If every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and the remaining letters are capitalized, then how is the first month of the second half of the year written?
(a) JuLY
(b) jULy
(c) jUly
(d) jUlY
Ans: (d)
The question says following arrangement: AbCdEfGhIjKlMnOpQrStUvWxYz
So, Required code will be: jUlY
69. Sunita cuts a sheet of paper into three pieces. Length of first piece is equal to the average of the three single digit odd prime numbers. Length of the second piece is equal to that of the first plus one-third the length of the third. The third piece is as long as the other two pieces together. The length of the original sheet of paper is
(a) 13 units
(b) 15 units
(c) 16 units
(d) 30 units
Ans: (d)
L1= (3+5+7)/3= 5
L2= 5+L3/3
Or, 3L2= L3+ 15
Or, L3=3L2-15
Also, L3= L1+L2= 5+L2
Hence, 3L2-15= 5+L2
Or, 2L2= 20
Or, L2=10
Or, L3= 10+5= 15
L1=5
Length of original sheet is 10+5+15= 30
70. In the sequence 1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7, how many such 5s are there which are not immediately prece ded by 3 but are immediately followed by 7?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None
Ans: (a)
1, 5, 7, 3, 5, 7, 4, 3, 5, 7
71. A joint family consists of seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G with three females. G is a widow and sister-in-law of D’s father F. B and D are siblings and A is daughter of B. C is cousin of B. Who is E?
1. Wife of F
2. Grandmother of A
3. Aunt of C
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
72. Each face of a cube can be painted in black or white colours. In how many different ways can the cube be painted?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans: (b)
6 Black, 0 White (1 way)
5 Black, 1 White (1 way)
4 Black, 2 white (2 ways)
3 Black, 3 white (2 ways)
2 Black, 4 white (2 ways)
1 Black, 5 White (1 way)
0 Black, 6 white (1 way)
73. How many triplets (x, y, z) satisfy the equation x + y + z = 6, where x, y and z are natural numbers?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 10
Ans: (d)
Possible triplets are:
(114), (123), (132), (141), (213), (222), (231), (312), (321), (411)
74. If $ means ‘divided by’; @ means ‘multiplied by’; # means ‘minus’, then the value of 10#5@1$5 is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 9
Ans: (d)
First put the symbol of the higher order.
Here, it is $
So factor 1$5 becomes 1/5
Now, next thing is @
So, 5X1/5= 1
Now, 10-1=9
75. An 8-digit number 4252746B leaves remainder 0 when divided by 3. How many values of B are possible?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: (c)
4252746B
Sum of all the digits except B is 30 which is divisible by 3. Hence, B can be 0,3,6,9
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the following information and answer the three items that follow:
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F appeared in several tests. Either C or F scores the highest. Whenever C scores the highest, then E scores the least. Whenever F scores the highest, B scores the least. In all the tests they got different marks; D scores higher than A, but they are close competitors; A scores higher than B; C scores higher than A.
76. If F stands second in the ranking, then the position of B is
(a) Third
(b) Fourth
(c) Fifth
(d) Sixth
Ans: (c)
77. If B scores the least, the rank of C will be
(a) Second
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) Second or third
Ans: (d)
78. If E is ranked third, then which one of the following is correct?
(a) E gets more marks than C
(b) C gets more marks than E
(c) A is ranked fourth
(d) D is ranked fifth
Ans: (b)
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following statements SI and S2 and answer the two items that follow:
S1: Twice the weight of Sohan is less than the weight of Mohan or that of Rohan.
S2: Twice the weight of Rohan is greater than the weight of Mohan or that of Sohan.
79. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Weight of Mohan is greatest
(b) Weight of Sohan is greatest
(c) Weight of Rohan is greatest
(d) ‘Whose weight is greatest’ cannot be determined
Ans: (d)
2S< (M or R)
2R> (M or S)
80. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Weight of Mohan is least
(b) Weight of Sohan is least
(c) Weight of Rohan is least
(d) ‘Whose weight is least’ cannot be determined
Ans: (b)
As 2S< (M or R)
Or, S<(M or R)