Passage – 1
In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and biomethanation offers a major solution for processing this.
1. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
- Collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies.
- Resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handled by private sector enterprises.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
Solution: Based on the above passage, let’s analyze the given assumptions:
- Collection, processing, and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies.
- This assumption is not explicitly mentioned in the passage. The passage discusses that more than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, but it does not state whether it should be handled by government agencies or not.
- Resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handled by private sector enterprises.
- This assumption is not directly mentioned in the passage. The passage talks about waste-to-energy technology and biomethanation for processing waste, but it does not specify whether it should be handled by private sector enterprises or not.
Neither of the assumptions is explicitly stated in the passage. Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) Generation of energy from municipal solid waste is inexpensive.
(b) Biomethanation is the most ideal way of generating energy from municipal solid waste.
(c) Segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to-energy plants.
(d) The biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste is not adequate to provide energy from waste efficiently/effectively.
Ans: (c)
Explanation: The passage discusses the issue of municipal waste management in India and emphasizes the importance of waste segregation at the source. It mentions that recycling is mostly done by the informal sector, and a significant portion of the municipal budget is allocated to collection and transportation, leaving little for processing and resource recovery. The passage also highlights that waste-to-energy fits in the waste management chain after segregation, collection, and recycling, but before landfilling.
Furthermore, it mentions that the technology most appropriate for converting waste to energy depends on the components of the waste (biodegradable versus non-biodegradable) and its calorific value. The passage suggests that biomethanation offers a major solution for processing the biodegradable component of India’s municipal solid waste, which constitutes a little over 50 percent.
Hence, the crux of the passage is that segregation of municipal solid waste is essential for the successful implementation of waste-to-energy plants.
Passage – 2
There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues.
3. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
- Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers.
- Farmers and consumers need to be educated about eco-friendly food.
Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
Explanation: Based on the above passage, let’s analyze the given assumptions:
- Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers.
- This assumption is not explicitly stated in the passage. The passage mentions that there are challenges and risks associated with organic farming, such as confusion about products and the potential use of harmful substances. However, it does not claim that organic farming is inherently unsafe. It highlights the need for better regulation and research to ensure safety.
- Farmers and consumers need to be educated about eco-friendly food.
- This assumption is implicit in the passage. The passage discusses the confusion among farmers and consumers regarding organic farming products and their proper use. It also mentions that certain substances used in organic farming can be harmful if not applied correctly. This indicates that there is a need for education and awareness about eco-friendly food and organic farming practices.
Based on the passage, assumption 2 is correct, but assumption 1 is not explicitly stated.
4. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
(a) In India, organic farming should not be promoted as a substitute for conventional farming.
(b) There are no safe organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers.
(c) In India, farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable.
(d) The aim of organic farming should not be to generate huge profits as there is still no global market for its products.
Ans: (c)
Explanation: The passage discusses the challenges and issues faced by the organic farming industry in India, such as confusion about products, lack of proper regulation, and potential risks associated with certain substances used in organic farming. Despite these challenges, the author does not outright discourage organic farming. Instead, the passage suggests that farmers need guidance and support to ensure that their organic farming practices are sustainable and safe. This implies that with proper education, regulation, and assistance, organic farming can be improved and made more reliable in India.
Option (a) is not the best reflection of the message because the passage does not explicitly state that organic farming should not be promoted as a substitute for conventional farming, but rather focuses on the need for better regulation and research.
Option (b) is not the best reflection of the message because the passage does not claim that there are no safe organic alternatives to chemical fertilizers. It mentions that organic fertilizers can be difficult to obtain on a large scale, but it does not imply that all organic alternatives are unsafe.
Option (d) is not the best reflection of the message because the passage does not discuss the aim of organic farming being to generate profits or the absence of a global market for its products.
Hence, option (c) is the most suitable reflection of the logical, rational, and practical message conveyed by the author.
Passage – 3
Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets. While food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition. For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional corps/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them.
5. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. To implement the Sustainable Development Goals and to achieve zero-hunger goal, monoculture agriculture practices are inevitable even if they do not address malnutrition.
2. Dependence on a few crops has negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem.
3. Government policies regarding food planning need to incorporate nutritional security.
4. For the present monoculture agriculture practices, farmers receive subsidies in various ways and government offers remunerative prices for grains and therefore they do not tend to consider crop diversity.
Which of the above assumptions are valid?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Let’s analyze the given assumptions based on the passage:
- To implement the Sustainable Development Goals and to achieve the zero-hunger goal, monoculture agriculture practices are inevitable even if they do not address malnutrition.
- This assumption is not valid. The passage does not suggest that monoculture agriculture practices are inevitable to achieve the Sustainable Development Goals or the zero-hunger goal. Instead, it highlights the negative consequences of monoculture practices on food and nutrition security, land quality, water, and the ecosystem.
- Dependence on a few crops has negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem.
- This assumption is valid. The passage mentions that the focus on increasing food production, particularly staples, has led to lower production and consumption of nutritious indigenous traditional crops/grains, fruits, and vegetables. This indicates that dependence on a few crops negatively impacts human health and the ecosystem.
- Government policies regarding food planning need to incorporate nutritional security.
- This assumption is valid. The passage suggests that the agriculture sector’s historical focus on increasing food production has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition. To address this, government policies should incorporate nutritional security and promote the cultivation and consumption of diverse and nutritious foods.
- For the present monoculture agriculture practices, farmers receive subsidies in various ways, and the government offers remunerative prices for grains, and therefore they do not tend to consider crop diversity.
- This assumption is not explicitly stated in the passage. The passage does not directly address whether farmers receive subsidies or government offers remunerative prices for grains, and whether this affects their consideration of crop diversity.
Based on the passage, assumptions 2 and 3 are valid, while assumptions 1 and 4 are not explicitly stated or supported.
6. A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the following statements:
1. The smallest number n such that any n balls drawn from the box randomly must contain one full group of at least one colour is 175.
2. The smallest number m such that any m balls drawn from the box randomly must contain at least one ball of each colour is 167.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
7. If ‘ZERO’ is written as ‘CHUR’, then how is ‘PLAYER’ written?
(a) SOCACT
(b) SODBGT
(c) SODBHT
(d) SODBHU
Ans: (d)
To understand the pattern, let’s analyze how the word ‘ZERO’ is written as ‘CHUR’:
Z -> C
E -> H
R -> U
O -> R
Now, let’s apply the same pattern to the word ‘PLAYER’:
P -> S
L -> O
A -> D
Y -> B
E -> H
R -> U
So, ‘PLAYER’ is written as ‘SODBUH’.
8. Consider the following statements:
1. A is older than B.
2. C and D are of the same age.
3. E is the youngest.
4. F is younger than D.
5. F is older than A.
How many statements given above are required to determine the oldest person/persons?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Ans: (a)
To determine the oldest person/persons, let’s analyze the given statements:
A is older than B.
C and D are of the same age.
E is the youngest.
F is younger than D.
F is older than A.
From statements 1 and 5, we can deduce that:
A is older than B.
F is older than A.
Therefore, F must be the oldest person, as A is older than B, and F is older than A.
9. Consider the following including the Question and the Statements:
There are 5 members A, B, C, D, E in a family.
Question: What is the relation of E to B ?
Statement-1: A and B are a married couple.
Statement-2: D is the father of C.
Statement-3: E is D’s son.
Statement-4: A and C are sisters.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Questions and Statements?
(a) Statement-1, Statement-2 and Statement-3 are sufficient to answer the Question.
(b) Statement-1, Statement-3 and Statement-4 are sufficient to answer the Question.
(c) All four statement together are sufficient to answer the Question.
(d) All four statements are not sufficient to answer the Question.
Ans: (b)
Let’s analyze the given statements:
Statement-1: A and B are a married couple.
Statement-2: D is the father of C.
Statement-3: E is D’s son.
Statement-4: A and C are sisters.
From Statement-1, we know that A and B are a married couple. However, it does not provide any direct information about the relation of E to B.
From Statement-2, we know that D is the father of C. Again, it does not provide any direct information about the relation of E to B.
From Statement-3, we know that E is D’s son. This statement provides the direct information that E is the son of D.
From Statement-4, we know that A and C are sisters. This statement does not provide any direct information about the relation of E to B.
Combining Statements-1, 3, and 4:
From Statement-1, we know that A and B are a married couple. From Statement-3, we know that E is D’s son. From Statement-4, we know that A and C are sisters. Since A and C are sisters, and E is the son of D, E must be the son of A and B. Therefore, E is the brother of C, and A is the mother of E.
10. Choose the group which is different from the others:
(a) 17, 37, 47, 97
(b) 31, 41, 53, 67
(c) 71, 73, 79, 83
(d) 83, 89, 91, 97
Ans: (d)
To identify the group that is different from the others, let’s examine each option:
(a) 17, 37, 47, 97: These numbers are all prime numbers with no common pattern between them.
(b) 31, 41, 53, 67: These numbers are all prime numbers with no common pattern between them.
(c) 71, 73, 79, 83: These numbers are all consecutive prime numbers, i.e., each number is the next prime number after the previous one.
(d) 83, 89, 91, 97: Among these numbers, 91 is not a prime number; it is a composite number as it can be divided by 7 and 13.
Thus, the group that is different from the others is:
(d) 83, 89, 91, 97
Passage – 1
To tackle the problem of pollution in cities, policy makers think that drastic actions like temporary use of odd-even number scheme for vehicles, closing schools, factories, construction activities, and banning the use of certain type of vehicles are a way forward. Even then the air is not clean. Vehicles more than 15 years old comprise one percent of the total; and taking them off the road will not make any difference. Banning certain fuels and car types arbitrarily is not proper. Diesel engines produce more PM 2.5 and less CO2 than petrol or CNG engines. On the other hand, both diesel and CNG engines produce more NOx than petrol engines. No one has measured the amount of NOx that CNG engines are emitting. Arbitrary bans on vehicles that have passed mandated fitness tests and periodic pollution tests are unfair. What is needed is the scientific and reliable information about the source of pollutants on a continuing basis and the technologies that will work to reduce pollution from them.
11. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational implication conveyed by the passage?
(a) Arbitrary curbs on vehicles to reduce pollution are difficult to implement.
(b) Knee-jerk reactions cannot but an evidence-based approach will be more effective.
(c) A heavy penalty should be enforced on those driving without periodic pollution tests.
(d) In the absence of laws to deal with the problem of pollution, the administration tends to make arbitrary decisions.
Ans: (b)
Explanation: The passage discusses the various measures taken by policy makers to tackle pollution in cities, such as odd-even number schemes, school and factory closures, banning certain vehicles, etc. However, it points out that these drastic actions have not resulted in significant improvements in air quality. The passage argues that arbitrary bans on vehicles based on age or fuel type are not proper, and what is needed instead is scientific and reliable information about the sources of pollutants and effective technologies to reduce pollution.
Based on this, the passage suggests that an evidence-based approach, supported by scientific data and research, is more likely to be effective in addressing pollution than knee-jerk reactions or arbitrary decisions.
Passage – 2
Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. A fundamental reason why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets. Effective corporate governance enhance access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth and employment. Investors look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and accurate financial reporting, and of equal treatment to all stakeholders are met.
12. Which of the following statements best reflects the logical inference from the passage given above?
(a) It is an important agenda of the countries around the world to ensure access to good external financing.
(b) Good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms.
(c) International capital markets ensure that the firms maintain good corporate governance.
(d) Good corporate governance paves the way for robust supply chains.
Ans: (b)
Explanation: The passage discusses how good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. It also highlights the reasons why corporate governance has gained importance on the economic and political agenda worldwide, mainly due to the rapid growth in international capital markets. The passage further emphasizes that effective corporate governance enhances access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth, and employment. Investors prefer to invest in companies that meet certain standards of disclosure, timely and accurate financial reporting, and equal treatment to all stakeholders.
Based on this information, the logical inference is that good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms. When companies have effective governance structures and adhere to high standards of accountability and transparency, it enhances their credibility in the eyes of investors and other stakeholders.
Passage – 3
Elephants are landscape architects, creating clearings in the forest, preventing overgrowth of certain plant species and allowing space for the regeneration of others, which in turn provide sustenance to others herbivorous animals. Elephants eat plants, fruits and seeds, propagating the seeds when they defecate in other places as they travel. Elephant dung provides nourishment to plants and animals and acts as a breeding ground for insects. In times of drought, they access water by digging holes which benefits other wildlife.
13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?
(a) The home range of elephants needs to be a vast area of rich biodiversity.
(b) Elephants are the keystone species and they benefit the biodiversity.
(c) Rich biodiversity cannot be maintained in the forests without the presence of elephants.
(d) Elephants are capable of regenerating forests with species as per their requirement.
Ans: (b)
Explanation: The passage provides several reasons why elephants play a crucial role in maintaining the balance of biodiversity in their ecosystems. It mentions that elephants act as landscape architects by creating clearings in the forest, preventing overgrowth of certain plant species, and allowing space for the regeneration of others. These regenerated plant species provide sustenance to other herbivorous animals, contributing to the overall biodiversity.
Additionally, elephants consume a variety of plants, fruits, and seeds, and as they travel, they propagate the seeds when they defecate in other places. This helps in the dispersion of seeds and contributes to the growth of different plant species in various areas, further enhancing biodiversity.
Furthermore, elephant dung provides nourishment to plants and animals, and it serves as a breeding ground for insects. The access to water by digging holes during drought benefits other wildlife, ensuring the survival of various species even in challenging environmental conditions.
Considering all these aspects, elephants are indeed the keystone species in their habitats. Their presence and activities significantly impact the overall biodiversity and ecological balance.
14. If 7 @ 9 @ 10 = 8, 9 @ 11 @ 30 = 5, 11 @ 17 @ 21 = 13, what is the value of 23 @ 4 @ 15 ?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 13
(d) 15
Ans: (a)
Given that 7x + 96 is divisible by x, it implies that the remainder when 7x + 96 is divided by x is 0.
So, we can write the equation as follows:
7x + 96 = kx
where k is a positive integer representing the number of times x divides 7x + 96.
Now, rearranging the equation:
7x – kx = -96
Factoring out x:
x(7 – k) = -96
Since x is a positive integer, the factors of -96 will be negative. To get positive values of x, the sign of (7 – k) must be negative.
Possible values of (7 – k) are: (7 – k) = -1, -2, -3, -4, -6, -8, -12, -16, -24, -32, -48, -96
Now, solving for k:
k = 6, 5, 4, 3, 1, -1, -5, -9, -17, -25, -49, -97
However, for k = -1 and k = -5, (7 – k) will not be negative, so they are not valid solutions.
Hence, the valid values of k are:
k = 6, 5, 4, 3, 1
And corresponding values of x are:
x = 96/6 = 16 x = 96/5 = 19.2 (Not valid as x should be a positive integer) x = 96/4 = 24 x = 96/3 = 32 x = 96/1 = 96
Therefore, the number of valid values of x is 4.
Correct answer: (c) 12
16. If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (p + q) (r + s) ?
(a) 230
(b) 225
(c) 224
(d) 221
Ans: (d)
To find the greatest value of (p + q) (r + s), we need to maximize the individual digits p, q, r, and s while ensuring that they are distinct single-digit positive numbers.
Since p, q, r, and s are distinct single-digit positive numbers, the greatest possible single-digit numbers are 9, 8, 7, and 6.
To maximize (p + q) (r + s), we can choose p = 9, q = 8, r = 7, and s = 6.
Now, (p + q) (r + s) = (9 + 8) (7 + 6) = 17 * 13 = 221
Therefore, the greatest value of (p + q) (r + s) is: (d) 221
17. A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13 ?
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 7
(d) 1
Ans: (d)
To find the remainder when N is divided by 13, we need to compute the value of N and then find its remainder when divided by 13.
The number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. So, N can be represented as follows:
N = 999… (99 times)
To calculate N, we can observe that it is a sequence of 99 nines. We can rewrite it as:
N = 9 * (111…1) (99 times)
Now, the number (111…1) with 99 ones can be represented as a sum of an arithmetic sequence with common difference 1:
(111…1) = 1 + 11 + 111 + 1111 + … + 111…1 (99 ones)
Now, we can calculate this sum:
(111…1) = 1 + 11 + 111 + 1111 + … + 111…1 = 1 + (10 + 1) + (100 + 10 + 1) + (1000 + 100 + 10 + 1) + … + (100…0 + 100…0 + … + 10 + 1) = 1 + 10 + 100 + 1000 + … + 100…0 = 1 + 10(1) + 10^2 + 10^3 + … + 10^98 = 1 + 10(1 + 10 + 10^2 + … + 10^97) = 1 + 10[(10^98 – 1)/(10 – 1)] (using the formula for the sum of a geometric series) = 1 + 10(10^98 – 1) = 10^99 – 9
Now, we can calculate N:
N = 9 * (111…1) (99 times) N = 9 * (10^99 – 9)
To find the remainder when N is divided by 13, we can use the fact that 10^6 ≡ 1 (mod 13) (Fermat’s Little Theorem):
N ≡ 9 * (10^99 – 9) ≡ 9 * (10^3)^33 – 9 ≡ 9 * 1^33 – 9 ≡ 9 – 9 ≡ 0 (mod 13)
Therefore, the remainder when N is divided by 13 is 0.
Correct answer: (d) 1
18. Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the resulting number?
(a) 64
(b) 80
(c) 81
(d) 100
Ans: (c)
Let’s calculate the 9-digit number where each digit is 1:
Number = 111,111,111
Now, we need to find the square of this number:
Number^2 = (111,111,111)^2
To compute this, we can use the distributive property of multiplication:
Number^2 = (111,111,111) * (111,111,111) = 1234567900987654321
The resulting number is 1,234,567,900,987,654,321.
Now, we need to find the sum of the digits of this resulting number:
Sum = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 7 + 9 + 0 + 0 + 9 + 8 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 81
Therefore, the sum of the digits of the resulting number is 81.
Correct answer: (c) 81
19. What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100 ?
(a) 855
(b) 856
(c) 910
(d) 911
Ans: (b)
20. ABCD is a square. One point on each of AB and CD; and two distinct points on each of BC and DA are chosen. How many distinct triangles can be drawn using any three points as vertices out of these six points?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 24
Ans: (c)
We can form triangles using any three points from these six points. The total number of triangles can be calculated as:
Number of triangles = C(6, 3) = 6! / (3! * (6 – 3)!) = 20
Therefore, the number of distinct triangles that can be drawn using any three points as vertices out of these six points is 20.
Correct answer: (c) 20
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