BPSC 67 Solved Question Paper [Re-Exam]

BPSC 67 Re-Exam Question Paper (Solution) : Exam date 30.09.2022

1. Who established trade relations with Rome empire?

(B) Western Shakas

(D) Kushanas

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: The Kushan dynasty had diplomatic contacts with the Roman Empire, Sasanian Persia, the Aksumite Empire, and the Han dynasty of China and was at the center of trade relations between the Roman Empire and China.

Ambassadors from the Kushans who met with the Roman Emperor Hadrian are described in the Historia Augusta.

2. The Muslim ruler whose empire was regarded as a part of Dar-ul-Islam was

(A) Razia

(B) Iltunnish

(D) Balban

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Dar al-Islam means ‘house of peace’ and refers to the dominion of Islam, namely, any structure that allows the free practice of Islam.

3. Who among the following opposed the power of the Khalifa

(A) Alauddin Khalji

(B) Muhammad-bin-Tughluq

(D) Iltutmish

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (E)

4. Tughril Khan raised a standard of revolt during whose reign?

(A) Alauddin Khalji

(B) Feroz Tughluq

(D) Balban

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Tughril Khan raised a standard of revolt during the reign of the Seljuq Sultan Malik-Shah I. He also raised the revolt against Balban.

5. Who was the first Mughal ruler who fought against the British?

(A) Aurangzeb

(B) Shah Jahan

(D) Jahangir

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Mughal Empire and British Empire did not have direct conflicts during the reign of any Mughal emperor. The East India Company gradually gained control of India through diplomacy and military means during the decline of the Mughal Empire in the 18th and 19th centuries.

The shift of Power occurred during the regime of Aurangzeb.

6. Which of the following were the social reforms introduced by William Bentinck?

Abolition of Sati
Abolition of slavery
Removal of disabilities due to change of religion
Suppression of the organized bands of Thugs.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.

(A) 1, 3, and 4 only

(B) 1, 2, and 4 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: William Bentinck, Governor-General of British India from 1828 to 1835, introduced several significant social reforms during his tenure. Some of the notable ones include:

Abolition of Sati: Bentinck passed the Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829, which made the practice of Sati (widow immolation) illegal.
Suppression of Thugees: Bentinck implemented measures to suppress the Thugees, a criminal cult that practiced robbery and murder across India.
Legal Reforms: Bentinck introduced legal reforms, such as the implementation of a new system of criminal justice, and the introduction of English as the official language of the courts.
Education Reforms: Bentinck established the first government-funded schools in India, with the aim of providing education to Indian children. He also introduced Western-style education in India, which laid the foundation for the development of modern education in India.
Prohibition of Female Infanticide: Bentinck passed laws to prohibit the practice of female infanticide, which was prevalent in some parts of India.
Encouragement of Western Medicine: Bentinck encouraged the use of Western medicine in India and established the first medical college in Calcutta.
Imposition of duty on Opium cultivated in Malwa.

7. Sind was conquered and annexed by

(A) Sleeman

(B) Napier

(D) Wellington

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Sind was conquered and annexed by Charles James Napier, a British army officer, who served as the Governor of Sindh, in 1843. He led the British forces in the conquest of Sindh and signed the Treaty of Lahore with the defeated ruler of Sindh, in 1843, which made Sindh a part of the British Indian Empire.

8. In which year, first Census was introduced in India?

(A) 1901

(B) 1911

(D) 1872

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: The first census was conducted non-synchronously in different parts of India in 1872 during the British colonial period. The census was conducted under the supervision of Lord Mayo, who was the Viceroy and Governor-General of India at that time. The main purpose of the census was to gather information about the population of India, including demographic and social characteristics such as age, sex, religion, caste, and occupation.

The census was carried out by trained enumerators who went from door to door to collect information. The total population of India at that time was estimated to be around 238 million.

9. On which date, Sukhdev, Bhagat Singh, and Rajguru were hanged?

(A) 23rd March 1931

(B) 7th September 1931

(D) 12th November 1930

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Bhagat Singh, Rajguru, and Sukhdev were hanged by the British on 23 March 1931.

10. Who was the third Satyagrahi of Individual Satyagraha launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1940?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Rajendra Prasad

(D) Vinoba Bhave

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic, and non-violent in nature. Vinoba Bhave was the first Satyagrahi, Jawaharlal Nehru was the second Satyagrahi, and Brahma Dutt was the third Satyagrahi.

Individual Satyagraha was a non-violent resistance movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1940 as part of the Indian independence movement. The movement was based on the principle of nonviolent civil disobedience, and it called for individual Indians to protest against the British colonial government by engaging in acts of peaceful non-cooperation and civil disobedience.

The goal of the movement was to put pressure on the British government to grant India independence. The movement was not as successful as the mass civil disobedience movements launched by Gandhi, such as the Non-cooperation Movement and the Quit India Movement, but it was significant in that it marked the first time that Gandhi called for individual acts of resistance against the British government.

11. Who launched secret radio during the Quit India Movement?

(A) Subhadra Kumari Chauhan

(B) Sucheta Kripalani

(D) Usha Mehta

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Usha Mehta was a Gandhian freedom fighter who is known for organizing the Congress Radio, a secret radio station to spread information during Quit Indian movement in 1942.

This question has been taken from UPSC Prelims 2011 Exam.

12. Who was the Physician of Magadh ruler Bimbisara?

(A) Vijayasena

(B) Jeevaka

(D) Shilabhadra

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Jeevak was a physician and son of the physician Jivaka in ancient India. He was a contemporary of the Buddha and was known for his skill in treating illnesses and injuries.

Jivaka was considered to be the court physician to King Bimbisara of Magadha and also to the Buddha himself. He is also known as “Jivaka Komarabhacca” which means ‘Jivaka, son of Komarabhacca’.

He is considered one of the most famous physicians in ancient India and is said to have written a medical text called the Jivakacintamani.

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13. Who was the real founder of Turk rule in Bihar?

(A) Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji

(B) Ibrahim

(D) Malik Husamuddin

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji was a general of the Ghurid Empire during the early 13th century. He was sent by his overlord to conquer the eastern regions of the Ghurid Empire, including present-day Bengal and Bihar.

In 1202, Ibn Bakhtiyar Khilji led a successful campaign in the region, capturing the city of Nadia, which was the capital of the Sena dynasty.

14. Who Was the first Indian Governor of Bihar?

(A) Dr. Shri Krishna Singh

(B) Brij Kishor Prasad

(D) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Satyendra Prasanna Sinha was the first Indian Governor of Bihar in 1920 whereas Jairamdas Daulatram was appointed the governor just after the Indian Independence in 1947.

15. Who were the leaders of the Santhal Revolt?

(A) Sidhu and Kanhu

(B) Gaurakshni Bhagat and Keshav Chandra, Roy

(D) Sara Bhagat and Balaram Bhagat

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Santhal revolt was led by Sidhu and Kanoo in 1855. The rebellion of the Santhals began as a reaction to end the revenue system of the British East India Company (BEIC), usury practices, and the zamindari system in India.

16. In which year did the Chauri Revolt of Bihar take place?

(A) 1842

(B) 1798

(D) 1832

(E) None of the above/More than one of the – above

Ans: (B)

17. In which year was Orissa separated from Bihar?

(A) 1936

(B) 1956

(D) 1912

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Orissa was separated from the state of Bihar and established as a separate state on April 1, 1936. The British government of India had created the province of Orissa in 1912, but it was still part of Bihar and Odisha till 1936.

The demand for a separate state for Odia-speaking people had been raised by leaders like Madhusudan Das, who is considered as the “Father of the Odisha Nation”. The British government granted their demand, and Orissa became the first state in India to be created on linguistic lines.

18. Where was the first Buddhist Council convened?

(A) Rajagriha

(B) Amaravati

(D) Pataliputra

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The first Buddhist council was convened in the city of Rajgir in present-day Bihar. The council was held in a cave named Sattapanni, and it took place around 400 BC, just a few years after the death of the Buddha.

The council was organized by the monk Mahakassapa and was attended by a large number of senior monks. The main objective of the council was to preserve and recite the teachings of the Buddha as well as to settle disputes and disagreements that had arisen among the monastic community. The council also established a standardized version of the monastic code (Vinaya) for the sangha, which is still followed by Theravada monks today.

19. Which Gupta ruler assumed the throne after killing his elder brother?

(A) Samudragupta

(B) Chandragupta II

(D) Shri Gupta

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Chandragupta II killed his elder brother Ramgupta.

20. Who laid the foundation of the Vardhana dynasty?

(A) Rajyavardhana

(B) Adityavardhana-

(D) Pushyabhuti

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: The Vardhana dynasty was founded by a ruler named Pushyabhuti. He laid the foundation of this dynasty in the 6th century CE in the present-day eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar region of India.

Pushyabhuti was succeeded by his son, Prabhakaravardhana, who expanded the kingdom and his rule is considered one of the most significant in the history of the dynasty.

The most notable ruler of the Vardhana dynasty was his son, Harsha, who was a powerful emperor and a great patron of arts, literature, and Buddhism. Under his rule, the Vardhana dynasty reached its zenith, and his empire included much of the northern Indian subcontinent, including present-day Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Bengal, and parts of Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

21. The Sargasso Sea is a part of the

(A) Arctic Ocean

(B) North Atlantic Ocean

(D) Indian Ocean

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Sargasso Sea is a region of the North Atlantic Ocean, defined by ocean currents that create a large swirling gyre. It is distinguished by its deep blue color and the presence of a large amount of sargassum seaweed, from which it gets its name.

The Sargasso Sea is not considered a formal sea, but rather a region defined by oceanographic features. It is located within the Western Atlantic Ocean, bordered by the Gulf Stream to the west, the North Atlantic Current to the north, the Canary Current to the south, and the Azores Current to the east.

22. What is the boundary line between India and China called?

(A) Radcliffe Line

(B) Indira Point

(D) McMahon Line

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: The McMahon Line is a demarcation line that separates India and China, particularly in the eastern Himalayas. It was proposed by British colonial administrator Henry McMahon in 1914, during a conference between British, Tibetan, and Chinese representatives. The line was drawn as the proposed boundary between Tibet and British India, but China never officially recognized it.

The McMahon Line is considered to be the legal boundary between India and China by the Indian government, but China disputes it and claims a larger territory, which has led to several border disputes and conflicts between the two countries, most notably the Sino-Indian War of 1962.

23. Rajasthan receives very little rain because

(A) it is too hot

(B) there is no water available and thus the winds remain dry

(D) the monsoon fails to reach this area

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Rajasthan receives very little rainfall because it is located in the rain shadow region of the Western Ghats.

The Western Ghats are a mountain range that runs parallel to the western coast of India, and they block the monsoon winds that bring rainfall to the region.

The monsoon winds, which are moisture-laden, hit the Western Ghats and lose most of their moisture, resulting in very little rainfall on the leeward side of the mountains, which includes Rajasthan.

Additionally, Rajasthan’s geographical location, which is closer to the Thar Desert, also causes low rainfall. The region also has high temperatures and low humidity, which also contribute to low rainfall.

24. Consider the following statements:

In India, Project Tiger was launched in 1973.
The theme for National Biodiversity 2022 is ‘Building a shared future for all life’.
The Project Tiger is a tiger conservation programme.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 only

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Project Tiger is a conservation program launched in India in 1973 to protect Bengal tigers. The project aims to protect tigers and their habitats, as well as to raise awareness about the importance of tiger conservation.

The program includes measures such as habitat restoration, anti-poaching efforts, and relocation of human settlements from core tiger areas. The project has had some success in increasing tiger populations in the country, but challenges such as habitat loss and poaching continue to threaten the survival of wild tigers in India.

25. For which cultivation Karewas are famous?

(A) Saffron

(B) Mango

(D) Banana

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Karewas is a type of landform found in the Kashmir Valley of India, and are known for their terraced cultivation of saffron. Saffron is a spice that is derived from the Crocus sativus flower and is highly valued for its unique flavor and color.

The terraced fields on the Karewas are ideal for growing saffron, as they provide good drainage and access to sunlight. In addition to saffron, Karewas are also known for their cultivation of other crops such as almonds, walnuts, and apples.

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26. Which State in India is the leading producer of thorium?

(A) Bihar

(B) Jharkhand

(D) Kerala

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Kerala and Tamil Nadu states in India are the leading producer of thorium. Thorium is a naturally occurring radioactive element that is found in small amounts in most rocks and soils. It is mainly found in the form of monazite, which is a mineral that contains thorium, cerium, and other rare earth elements.

Tamil Nadu is rich in monazite deposits, particularly in the coastal areas of the state. The state-owned Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL) operates a monazite processing plant in the city of Manavalakurichi in the Kanyakumari district which is considered the primary source of thorium in India.

About Thorium: Thorium is a naturally occurring radioactive element that is found in small amounts in most rocks and soils. It is a silvery-white metal that is relatively abundant in the Earth’s crust but is not as commonly found in concentrated deposits as other elements like uranium or plutonium. It has several isotopes, but only one of them is stable. Thorium-232 is the most stable isotope, with a half-life of 14 billion years.

Thorium is not fissile, meaning it cannot be used directly as a fuel for nuclear reactors, but it can be converted into a fissile isotope, Uranium-233, through nuclear reactions. This isotope has been considered a potential fuel for nuclear power generation because it is less radioactive and produces less long-lived nuclear waste than other nuclear fuels.

However, thorium is not yet being used extensively as a fuel for nuclear reactors, mainly due to the lack of commercial reactors specifically designed to use thorium and the lack of a thorium fuel cycle infrastructure. But, several countries including India has been investing in the research of Thorium-based reactor and their fuel cycle technology.

27. At which of the following places the newsprint paper industry is located?

(A) Durgapur

(B) Nepanagar

(D) Satana

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Nepanagar is located in Madhya Pradesh state of India, it is home to a newsprint paper industry. The paper factory was set up in 1938 by the British India Corporation Ltd, and was later taken over by the Hindustan Paper Corporation. It is one of the largest newsprint manufacturing units in India and it uses bamboo as the raw material for paper production.

Durgapur, Kanpur, and Satana are also industrial towns in India but they are not known for having newsprint paper industry.

28. Where was first coal mine in India mined?

(A) Raniganj

(B) Dhanbad

(D) Maria

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Raniganj is a town in West Bengal state of India, it is considered as the birthplace of coal mining in India. The first coal mine in India was opened in 1774 in Raniganj by British merchant, John Sumner and Suetonius Grant Heatly.

The mine was owned by the British East India Company and it was mainly used to extract coal for the British-owned railway companies. The Raniganj Coalfield, which is located around the town, is one of the oldest and most important coal fields in India.

Dhanbad, Asansol and Maria are also situated in the coal rich region of India, but the first coal mine in India was mined in Raniganj.

29. According to the Census of India, 2011, which Scheduled Tribe is largest in

(A) Kol

(B) Bhil

(D) Santhal

(E) None of the above/More than one of above

Ans: (B)

Solution: According to the Census of India, 2011, Bhil tribe is the largest Scheduled Tribe in India. Bhils are found mainly in the central and western states of India such as Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, and Chhattisgarh. As per the census of 2011, Bhil tribe has a population of around 10.4 million, which constitutes around 8.6% of the total scheduled tribe population in India.

Kol, Gond, and Santhal are also major Scheduled Tribe in India, but Bhil is the largest among them.

30. The total geographical area of Bihar State is

(A) 94316 sq. km-

(B) 94163 sq. km

(D) 94200 sq. km

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

31. Which river is known as Sorrow of Bihar?

(A) Ganga

(B) Kosi

(D) Ghaghara

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Kosi River, the Sorrow of Bihar, is a river in northern India and southern Nepal that is known for its devastating floods.

The river, which originates in the Himalayas in Nepal, is known for changing its course frequently and for causing severe flooding in the state of Bihar, India.

The floods caused by the Kosi River have been a major problem for the people of Bihar for centuries, and have led to widespread loss of life and property.

32. In which district of Bihar, Telhar Kund Waterfall is located?

(A) Nawada

(B) Kaimur

(D) Sasaram

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Telhar Kund Waterfall is located in the Kaimur district of Bihar state, India. It is situated near the Telhar village, which is located on the Kaimur plateau, and it is a popular tourist spot in the region. The waterfall is around 100 feet high and it is surrounded by beautiful greenery. It is one of the most beautiful waterfall in Bihar and is a popular spot for trekking, photography and picnics.

Nawada, Rohtas, and Sasaram are also districts of Bihar state, but Telhar Kund Waterfall is not located in those districts.

33. Which is the Asia’s largest and freshwater oxbow lake in Bihar?

(A) Kanwar Lake

(B) Anupam Lake

(D) Ghogha Lake

(E) None of the above/More than one of the Above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Kusheshwar Lake is considered as the Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake in Bihar, India. It is situated in the Kusheshwar Asthan village of the Darbhanga district, which is located in the north-eastern part of the state.

The lake is formed by the meandering of the Kusheshwar river and is an important site for migratory birds. The lake is surrounded by lush green vegetation and it is a popular spot for boating and fishing. The lake is also known for its religious significance, as a temple dedicated to Lord Kusheshwar is located on its bank.

Kanwar Lake, Anupam Lake and Ghogha Lake are also lakes found in Bihar, but they are not Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake.

34. Which district of Bihar has the largest gold reserve?

(A) Jamui

(B) Banka

(D) Munger

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Bihar has 222.885 million tonnes of gold metal, which is 44% of the country’s total gold reserves. Jamui district has the largest reserve.

35. Which district of Bihar is known as ‘Silk’ city’?

(A) Bhojpur

(B) Bhagalpur

(D) Katihar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Bhagalpur is a district in the state of Bihar, India, known as the “Silk City” due to its historical association with the silk industry. The district is famous for its Tussar silk, which is also known as “Bhagalpuri Tussar” and is known for its quality and texture. The district is home to several silk production units and is a major center for the production and export of silk products. The silk industry of Bhagalpur is a major contributor to the economy of the district.

36. What is the female literacy rate of Bihar as per the Census 2011 of India?

(A) 71.25%

(B) 50.50%

(D) 61.10%

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

About Female Literacy Rate

The female literacy rate is a statistical measure that represents the percentage of women in a given population who are able to read and write. It is typically calculated by dividing the number of literate females by the total number of females in a population, and then multiplying by 100 to get the percentage.

Female literacy rate is considered as one of the key indicators of a country’s social and economic development, as it is closely related to factors such as economic growth, poverty reduction, and improved health and education outcomes.

The higher the female literacy rate, the greater the ability of women to participate in the workforce and contribute to the development of their communities and nations.

37. Which is the chief heavenly body of Solar system?

(A) Jupiter

(B) Saturn

(D) Earth

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Sun is the chief heavenly body of the Solar System.

The Solar System is the collection of all celestial bodies that orbit around the Sun. It includes the Sun, the planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune), dwarf planets (Ceres, Pluto, and Eris), and other celestial bodies such as asteroids and comets. The Solar System formed about 4.6 billion years ago from the collapse of a giant cloud of gas and dust. The Sun is the center of the Solar System and is responsible for providing light and heat to the planets. The planets orbit the Sun in elliptical paths and are held in place by the Sun’s gravity.

38. Which elements are abundant in the formation of interior layer of the earth?

(A) Silica and magnesium

(B) Basalt and silica

(D) Silica and aluminium

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The interior layer of Earth is made up of Nickel and Iron.

39. Who among the following postulated the concept of geographical cycle of erosion?

(A) W. M. Davis

(B) S. W. Wooldridge

(D) A. Holmes

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: W. M. Davis postulated the concept of the geographical cycle of erosion.

The cycle of erosion theory, also known as the Davisian cycle of erosion, was proposed by American geographer and geologist William Morris Davis in the late 19th and early 20th century. The theory states that landforms, such as mountains and valleys, go through a predictable series of stages or cycles of erosion.

According to Davis, the cycle of erosion begins with the uplift of land, which is then exposed to weathering and erosion by rivers and streams. The eroded material is transported downstream and deposited, forming a plain or peneplain. Over time, the plain is uplifted again and the cycle begins anew.

The cycle of erosion theory proposed by Davis is a model to explain the evolution of landforms, but it has been criticized for being too simplistic and not taking into account other factors such as tectonics, climate change, and human activity. Despite this, Davis’s ideas have been influential in the field of geomorphology and still have some relevance today.

40. In which hemisphere, roaring forties, furious fifties and shrieking sixties are blowing?

(A) Southern Hemisphere

(B) Eastern Hemisphere

(D) Northern Hemisphere

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties, and Shrieking Sixties are winds that blow in the Southern Hemisphere. These strong westerly winds blow in the latitudes between 40 and 60 degrees south, and are known for their high speeds and unpredictable nature. They are caused by the combination of the Earth’s rotation and the lack of land masses in the Southern Hemisphere to disrupt the flow of air.

The Roaring Forties refer to the latitudes between 40 and 50 degrees south, the Furious Fifties between 50 and 60 degrees south and the Shrieking Sixties between 60 and 70 degrees south.

41. Generally how many sessions are there in the Lok Sabha?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 3

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: There are typically three sessions in a year. A session contains many meetings. The process of calling all members of the Parliament to meet is called Summoning of Parliament. It is the President who summons Parliament.

42. Who was the Chairman of the First Law Commission in Independent India?

(A) Justice V, K. Sundaram

(B) Justice T. V . Venkatarama Aiyar

(D) Justice J. L. Kapur

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The first Law Commission in India was formed in 1955 with its chairman being the then Attorney-General of India, M. C. Setalvad.

43. If ‘One Nation One Election’ is to be realized in India, which Article of the Indian Constitution will require an amendment?

(A) Article 172

(B) Article 356

(D) Article 83

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (E)

Solution: If “One Nation One Election” is to be implemented in India, it would likely require an amendment to Article 83 and Article 172 of the Indian Constitution.

44. Which State does not have Panchayat system?

(A) Mizoram

(B) Meghalaya

(D) Nagaland

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (E)

Solution: Currently, the Panchayati Raj system exists in all states except Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, and in all Union Territories except Delhi.

45. The division of each State into territorial constituencies for the Lok Sabha is done by the Delimitation Commission. This delimitation has been freezed till which year?

(A) 2025

(B) 2026

(D) 2024

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Following the 84th amendment to the Constitution, in 2002, Delimitation is to be done after 2026 if not postponed.

46. The Supreme Court is

(A) protector of human rights

(B) final interpreter of the Constitution

(D) federal court

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (E)

Solution: Both options B and D are correct.

In India, the Supreme Court acts as the final interpreter of the Constitution. The Supreme Court has the power to interpret the Constitution and to ensure that the government and other institutions abide by it. It also has the power to strike down any laws that are found to be unconstitutional. Additionally, the Supreme Court can hear cases related to the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution.

Further, Supreme Court has the jurisdiction over the entire country and it is the federal court of the country.

47. To review the financial position of Panchayats, the State Government constitutes every five years a/an

(A) finance committee

(B) advisory commission

(D) finance commission

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: The state government constitutes a finance commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats. The Finance Commission is a statutory body, which is appointed by the Governor of the state.

It is responsible for making recommendations to the state government regarding the distribution of financial resources between the state and the Panchayats. It also makes recommendations on the principles that should govern grants-in-aid to Panchayats and other local bodies.

The recommendations of the Finance Commission are usually accepted by the state government and are binding on it.

48. What is the objective of community development?

(A) Build human capital

(B) Environment protection

(D) Economic development

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (E)

Solution: The Community Development Program (CDP) was a rural development program implemented in India in the 1950s. The program aimed to improve the economic and social conditions of rural communities by promoting agricultural and industrial development, as well as by providing basic services such as healthcare, education, and housing.

The program was implemented by the government through the Community Development Blocks (CDBs), which were administrative units established at the taluk (a sub-division of a district) level. The CDBs were responsible for the implementation of the program and for the coordination of various development activities.

The CDP was later replaced by other rural development programs such as the Integrated Rural Development Program (IRDP) and the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).

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49. Electoral College for the 16th Vice Presidential Election of India for 2022 consists of how many members?

(A) 788

(B) 545

(D) 798

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Vice President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both houses of the Indian Parliament.

50. The Indian President is eligible for re-election for how many times?

(A) Twice

(B) Thrice

(D) Once

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The President of India is eligible to be re-elected for any number of times.

51. Bhandari Committee is related to

(A) indirect taxation

(B) agriculture credit

(D) direct taxation

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

52. Choose the correct statement related to the National Pension Scheme (NPS).

(A) NPS is a retirement benefit scheme introduced by the Government of India to facilitate a regular income to all the citizens of India.

(B) NPS is regulated by the IRDA

(D) NPS is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority.

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: NPS is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).

53. Which of the following is not included in the priorities of India Budget 2022-23?

(A) Inclusive development

(B) Productivity Enhancement and Investment, Sunrise Opportunities, Energy Transition, and Climate Action

(D) PM Gati Shakti

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Disinvestment was not a part of it.

Disinvestment in India refers to the process of the Indian government selling its stake in public sector companies to private investors. The government may sell its entire stake in a company, or it may sell a portion of its stake while retaining a controlling interest in the company. The proceeds from the sale of these shares are used to reduce the government’s budget deficit, fund development projects, or invest in other areas of the economy.

The disinvestment process is usually carried out by the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM), which is a department under the Ministry of Finance. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates the process of disinvestment. The main objective is to raise resources for the government and to increase the efficiency of the public sector enterprises.

54. What was the Tax-GDP ratio in the financial year 2021-22 in India?

(A) 11.7%

(B) 11.5%

(D) 12.5%

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Tax-GDP ratio is an important indicator of the government’s ability to raise revenue through taxes. It is calculated by dividing the total tax revenue collected by the government by the country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

The Tax-GDP ratio is usually expressed as a percentage. In general, a higher Tax-GDP ratio indicates that a country has a more robust tax system and is able to raise more revenue to fund public services and development projects.

In the recent past, India’s Tax-GDP ratio has been around 17% which is low compared to developed countries, but it is expected to increase as the government is trying to expand the tax base and increase compliance.

55. What was India’s share in World Exports by commodity divisions and groups in 2018?

(A) 0.7%

(B) 2.1%

(D) 1.7%

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: According to data from the World Trade Organization (WTO), in 2018, India’s share of world exports by commodity divisions and groups was as follows:

Agricultural products: 2.3%
Fuels and mining products: 2.6%
Manufactured goods: 1.8%
Other semi-manufactured goods: 1.1%
Unclassified goods: 0.1%

It’s worth noting that India’s share of world exports is relatively small compared to other major exporting countries, and there are also variations across different commodity divisions and groups. India is known for its strong agricultural exports, and also known for its exports of IT services, jewellery and textiles. However, India has been trying to increase its share of world exports by diversifying its product base and increasing its competitiveness in the global market.

56. What was the total production of wheat in India as per the 4th advance estimates in the year 2020-21?

(A) 209.5 million tonnes

(B) 501.5 million tonnes

(D) 109.5 million tonnes

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: As per the latest data from the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India, the total wheat production in India for the year 2021-22 was estimated to be around 105.8 million tonnes.

The major wheat-producing states in India are:

Uttar Pradesh: Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India, producing around 25% of the total wheat production in the country.
Punjab: Punjab is the second-largest producer of wheat in India, contributing around 20% of the total production.
Haryana: Haryana is the third-largest producer of wheat in India, contributing around 15% of the total production.
Madhya Pradesh: Madhya Pradesh is the fourth-largest producer of wheat in India, contributing around 8% of the total production.
Rajasthan: Rajasthan is the fifth-largest producer of wheat in India, contributing around 7% of the total production.
Bihar and Gujarat also among other states which are important wheat producing states in India

Please note that this information is based on the latest data I have, and the actual figures may vary. Additionally, the production figures are subject to change based on the weather conditions, pest attacks, irrigation and other factors that can affect the crop.

57. Choose the correct statement regarding the Vibrant Village Programme.

(A) It is for the Maharashtra State of India.

(B) It was started in the year 2017.

(D) It is for the development of roads connectivity in Bihar.

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

58. Choose the incorrect statement as per the Economic Survey of Bihar, 2021 22.

(A) The secondary sector in Bihar had grown at 4.8 per cent.

(B) The tertiary sector in Bihar had grown at the highest rate of 8.5 per cent.

(D) The primary sector in Bihar had grown at 2.3 per cent.

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The primary sector in Bihar had grown at 2.8 percent.

59. Choose the correct order of the following districts of Bihar as per the ascending level of urbanization.

(A) Nalanda < Patna < Munger

(B) Patna < Munger < Nalanda

(D) Nalanda < Munger < Patna

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

60. The fiscal deficit is expected to be GSDP of Bihar for the financial 2022-23.

(A) 12.1%

(B) 3.47%

(D) 3.18%

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total revenue and total expenditure. It is an indicator of the government’s financial health and reflects its ability to raise revenue and manage its expenses.

When the government’s total expenditure exceeds its total revenue, it results in a fiscal deficit. The government then has to borrow money to finance the deficit, which can lead to an increase in the national debt.

A high fiscal deficit can lead to inflation, as the government may print more money to finance its expenses. It can also lead to a weaker currency, as investors may lose confidence in the government’s ability to manage its finances.

The government tries to keep the fiscal deficit within a certain limit, as set by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act. The target for fiscal deficit is usually expressed as a percentage of the country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

A fiscal deficit can be financed through borrowing, either by issuing bonds or by borrowing from the central bank. However, if the fiscal deficit is too high and sustained, it can lead to debt sustainability issues. In order to reduce the fiscal deficit, governments usually implement policies such as cutting spending, increasing taxes or both.

61. Choose the option which is not part of the `Saat Nischay Part-2 Scheme’ of Bihar.

(A) Strong woman, capable woman

(B) Irrigation water to every field

(D) Yuva Shakti – Progress of Bihar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Saat Nischay (Seven Resolves) is an initiative launched by the Government of Bihar in 2016 to improve the quality of life for the people of Bihar. The initiative includes seven major areas of focus:

Electricity: To provide 24-hour electricity to all households in the state by 2020.
Drinking Water: To ensure that all households have access to safe drinking water by 2020.

Roads: To construct and maintain all-weather roads in the state, including rural roads and inter-village connectivity.
Health: To provide affordable and accessible healthcare to all citizens of Bihar, including the construction of new hospitals and clinics.
Education: To improve the quality of education in Bihar by building new schools, providing teachers with training and resources, and increasing enrolment.
Skill Development: To provide training and employment opportunities for the youth of Bihar, including vocational training and apprenticeships.
Housing: To provide affordable housing for all citizens of Bihar, including the construction of new homes and the upgrading of existing homes.

The initiative aims to improve the quality of life for the people of Bihar by addressing their basic needs, such as access to electricity, water, and healthcare, and by promoting economic development and job creation.

62. Choose the correct order of the Bihar State districts in descending order of per capita income.

(A) Sheohar > Araria > East Champaran > Kishanganj > Nawada

(B) East Champaran > Sheohar > Araria > Kishanganj > Nawada

(D) Nawada > Kishanganj > Champaran > Araria > Sheohar

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

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Which statement is not true about the poverty estimates based on the 68th round of NSSO?

(A)The poverty line defined at Rs. 33.33 per capita per day for urban areas.

(B) The 21.9 per cent population of India was living below the poverty line.

(D) The poverty line defined at Rs. 27.20per capita per day for rural areas.

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (E)

Which of the following partly defines the micro-enterprise in India?

(A) Annual turnover not more than 15 crore

(B) Investment in Plant and Machinery not more than 1.5 crore

(D) Investment in Plant and Machinery or equipment not more than 1 crore

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: A micro-enterprise is a small business that typically employs a small number of workers and has a relatively low level of capital investment. These types of businesses are often owned and operated by individuals or families, and they may be involved in a wide range of industries, such as retail, agriculture, or manufacturing.

Micro-enterprises are an important part of the Indian economy, as they provide employment and income opportunities for many people, particularly those in rural and underserved areas.

In India, the criteria for classifying a business as a small, medium, or large enterprise vary depending on the sector of the economy in question. However, there are some general guidelines that are used to determine the classification of a business.

Small Enterprises:

-Manufacturing sector: The investment in plant and machinery is less than Rs. 25 lakhs

-Service sector: The investment in equipment is less than Rs. 10 lakhs.

Medium Enterprises:

-Manufacturing sector: The investment in plant and machinery is between Rs. 25 lakhs and Rs. 5 crores

–Service sector: The investment in equipment is between Rs. 10 lakhs and Rs. 2 crores.

Large Enterprises:

-Manufacturing sector: The investment in plant and machinery is more than Rs. 5 crores

-Service sector: The investment in equipment is more than Rs. 2 crores.

It’s important to note that these are general guidelines and can vary depending on the specific sector of the economy or the specific classification criteria used by different government bodies.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana?

(A) Construction of well

(B) Enhancement of recharging of aquifer

(D) Repair and renovate water bodies

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana (PMKSY) is a government program in India that aims to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of irrigation systems across the country. The program was launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, and it has several key components, including:

Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Program (AIBP), which focuses on completing ongoing irrigation projects in a timely manner.
Har Khet Ko Pani, which aims to provide irrigation coverage to every farm field in the country.
Per Drop More Crop, which focuses on increasing the productivity of water used for irrigation.
Watershed Development, which aims to improve the overall water management and productivity of rain-fed areas.
On-Farm Water Management, which focuses on providing farmers with the tools and knowledge they need to manage irrigation water on their own farms.

The goal of the PMKSY is to ensure that water is made available to every farm field in the country, to increase crop productivity and farmers’ income, and to bring about water security for the country. The scheme also aims to create a per drop more crop scenario and thereby enhance the water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water.

Who successfully led the Buda Satyagraha?

(A) Motilal Nehru

(B) J.B. Kripalani

(D) Vallabhbhai Patel

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: The Buda Satyagraha was led by Sardar Patel, a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and India’s first Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Home Affairs.

The Buda Satyagraha was a non-violent resistance movement led by Sardar Patel in Gujarat, India in the 1940s. The movement was launched to protest against the British government’s decision to collect taxes from farmers in the Kaira district, despite the fact that the area was facing a severe drought and famine.

Who among the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission sent to India in 1946 AD?

(A) Ramsay MacDonald

(B) A. V. Alexander

(D) Sir Stafford Cripps

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Ramsay MacDonald was not a member of the Cabinet Mission sent to India in 1946 AD.

The Cabinet Mission sent to India in 1946 AD was composed of the following members:

Lord Pethick-Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India
Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade
Alexander, First Lord of the Admiralty.

The mission proposed a plan for the formation of an interim government and the creation of a Constituent Assembly made up of representatives from British India and the princely states.

The plan also proposed the division of British India into Hindu-majority and Muslim-majority areas, which led to the partition of India and the creation of the independent countries of India and Pakistan. While the Cabinet Mission Plan was accepted by the Indian National Congress, it was rejected by the Muslim League, which ultimately led to partition.

In which year famous Gandhi-Irwin Pact took place?

(A) 1930 AD

(B) 1931 AD

(D) 1929 AD

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact, also known as the Delhi Pact, was an agreement signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin, the then Viceroy of India, on March 5, 1931. The pact was signed after a series of negotiations between the two leaders, following the Indian nationalist leader’s successful Salt Satyagraha campaign, which aimed to protest against the British monopoly on salt production in India.

The pact included several agreements, including the withdrawal of the British government’s salt tax, the release of political prisoners, and the permission for the Congress party to hold their annual session in the city of Karachi. In return, Gandhi agreed to end the salt satyagraha and other forms of civil disobedience and attend the Second Round Table Conference in London as the Congress’s representative.

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact is considered a significant step towards Indian independence and it marked the beginning of a new phase in the Indian freedom struggle where Gandhi’s methods of non-violent civil disobedience gained wide acceptance.

In which Session Indian National Congress passed Complete Independence Resolution?

(A) 1924 AD Belgaon

(B) 1929 AD Lahore

(D) 1920 AD Nagpur

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Indian National Congress passed a resolution calling for “complete independence” from British rule at its session in Lahore in December 1929.

This resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru and was adopted unanimously by the Congress. This marked a shift in the Congress’s demand from “dominion status” within the British Empire to complete independence.

It was also during this session that Nehru was elected as the President of the Congress, and the Congress Party officially adopted the tricolour flag as its flag. The Lahore session is considered a significant event in Indian history as it set the stage for the Indian independence movement to move towards more direct action and civil disobedience against British colonial rule.

Subhas Chandra Bose renamed Nicobar Island as

(A) Shaheed Island

(B) Balidan Island

(D) Swaraj Island

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Swaraj Island is a name given to the Nicobar Islands in India by Subhas Chandra Bose. Subhas Chandra Bose was an Indian nationalist leader who sought India’s independence from British colonial rule. He formed the Indian National Army (INA) and with the help of Japan, attempted to establish a provisional government of Free India in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in 1943. As a part of his plan, he renamed the Nicobar islands as Swaraj islands meaning self-rule islands.

However, the INA’s attempts to take control of the islands were unsuccessful, and the British regained control of the islands after the end of World War II. The Nicobar Islands are currently an Indian Union Territory and are known by their original name.

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In which state is `Chauri Chaura’, where in February 1922 AD a police station was set on fire?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Bihar

(D) Rajasthan

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The Chauri Chaura incident was a violent event that occurred on February 5, 1922, in the village of Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh in British India. It was a part of the Non-cooperation movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in response to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919.

On that day, a peaceful demonstration of around 2000 people, protesting against the arrest of their leaders, was attacked by police. In retaliation, the crowd set fire to the police station, killing 23 British Indian police officers. The incident led Gandhi to suspend the Non-Cooperation Movement as he felt that the violence violated the principles of non-violence that he had espoused.

The incident had a significant impact on the Indian freedom struggle, as it led to a division within the Indian National Congress over the use of violence in the struggle for independence. Gandhi’s supporters, who believed in non-violent civil disobedience, withdrew from the Congress, while those who supported the use of violence continued to work within the Congress.

The Chauri Chaura incident is considered a seminal event in the Indian independence movement, as it marked a shift in the Congress’s tactics away from non-violent civil disobedience towards a more militant stance.

In which place Khudiram Bose tried to kill Kingsford?

(A) Darbhanga

(B) Muzaffarpur

(D) Patna

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Khudiram Bose, an Indian revolutionary, tried to assassinate his political ideologies into an action by attempting to assassinate British judge Kingsford in Muzaffarpur, Bihar, India. On the evening of April 30, 1908, he threw a bomb at the carriage of Kingsford, who was the chief presidency magistrate of Calcutta. Unfortunately, the carriage was not carrying Kingsford, but two British women, who were killed in the attack. Khudiram Bose was arrested, tried and convicted for the murder of the two women and was hanged on August 11, 1908, at the young age of 18.

During which Movement ‘Azad Dasta’ was active in Bihar?

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement

(B) Civil Disobedience Movement

(D) Champaran Satyagraha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The group was formed by a group of young men who were inspired by the ideas of nationalism leaders such as Bipin Chandra Pal, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Lala Lajpat Rai, as well as the revolutionary ideologies of Bhagat Singh and his associates.

The group was mainly active in the districts of Muzaffarpur, Darbhanga, and Champaran in Bihar, and they carried out acts of sabotage and violence against the British government and its officials. The group was later banned by the British government and many of its members were arrested and imprisoned.

Who was allotted the Portfolio of the Labour Department in the Interim Government’s Cabinet of 1946 AD?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr. Anugraha Narayan Singh

(D) Jagjivan Ram

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Jagjivan Ram, also known as Babuji, was an Indian independence activist and politician. He was a leader of the Dalit community and is considered to be one of the most prominent Dalit leaders in India. He was a member of the Indian National Congress and served in various positions in the government of India, including as a Cabinet minister.

He was appointed as the Minister of Labour and Employment in the Interim Government of 1946. After India’s independence in 1947, he served in various positions in the Government of India, including as the Minister of Transport and Communications, the Minister of Food and Agriculture and the Minister of Defence. He is remembered for his contribution to the upliftment of the Dalit community and his work towards the social and economic empowerment of the marginalized sections of society.

In 1942 AD, on the occasion of which festival Jayaprakash Narayan escaped from Hazaribagh jail?

(A) Holi

(B) Dussehra

(D) Baisakhi

(E) None of the above/More than one of the

Ans: (C)

Solution: Jayaprakash Narayan, also known as JP, was an Indian independence activist, and political leader. In 1942, on the occasion of the Hindu festival of Holi, Jayaprakash Narayan escaped from Hazaribagh jail, where he was serving a sentence for his involvement in the Quit India Movement.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly in

(A) October 1946 AD

(B) November 1946 AD

(D) September 1946 AD

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946. The Constituent Assembly was set up to draft a constitution for independent India, following the transfer of power from British colonial rule to Indian leadership.

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement and a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi. He served as the President of the Constituent Assembly and played a key role in the drafting of the Indian Constitution. He later went on to become the first President of independent India, serving two consecutive terms from 1950 to 1962.

Who is known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?

(A) Shaukat Ali

(B) Abul Kalam Azad

(D) M. A. Jinnah

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, also known as Bacha Khan or “Frontier Gandhi“, was a Pashtun independence activist and political leader from British India (now Pakistan).

He was a close friend and associate of Mahatma Gandhi and was heavily influenced by his non-violent philosophy. He was known for his work in the Khudai Khidmatgar movement, also known as the “Red Shirts” movement, which advocated for the rights of Pashtuns and non-violent resistance against British colonial rule. He was arrested and imprisoned numerous times by the British government for his activism.

After the partition of British India into India and Pakistan, he remained in Pakistan but continued to advocate for Pashtun rights and self-rule.

Due to his non-violent approach and his work in the frontier regions, he was called “Frontier Gandhi” by his supporters and admirers.

Where was Jhansi Ki Rani Laxmibai died?

(A) Kanpur

(B) Gwalior

(D) Lucknow

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Jhansi Ki Rani Laxmibai, also known as Rani Lakshmibai, was the queen of the Maratha-ruled state of Jhansi in North India during the British Raj. She died on June 17, 1858, during the Indian Rebellion of 1857 also known as the Indian Mutiny, while leading her army against the British forces in the Siege of Jhansi. She died during the battle of Kotah-ki-Sarai, located near the city of Gwalior, in present-day Madhya Pradesh, India. Her death became a symbol of resistance against British colonial rule and she is considered a national hero in India.

Who has said about Bengal Partition, “The partition announcement fell like a bomb shell”?

(A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(B) Bipin Chandra Pal

(D) Surendra Nadi Bannerjee

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Surendranath Banerjee was an Indian political leader, journalist, and lawyer. He was one of the prominent leaders of the Indian independence movement and a key figure in the Indian National Congress.

He was a moderate leader and strongly advocated for constitutional and peaceful means of achieving Indian independence from British colonial rule. He was a member of the Indian National Congress from 1885, and was one of the founder members of the Indian National Congress. He was also the President of the Indian National Congress twice in 1894 and 1902.

He was one of the leaders who strongly opposed the partition of Bengal in 1905, which was announced by Lord Curzon, British Viceroy of India. He believed that the partition was a political move by the British government to weaken the Indian independence movement and create communal divisions among the Indian population.

Sardar Udham Singh killed whom?

(A) Curzon Wyllie

(B) Michael O’dwyar

(D) General Dyer

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Sardar Udham Singh was an Indian independence activist, best known for assassinating Michael O’Dwyer, the former Lieutenant Governor of Punjab in British India, on March 13, 1940, in London. He was subsequently arrested, tried, and convicted of murder and hanged on July 31, 1940. Singh is considered a hero by many in India for his actions, which were seen as an act of revenge for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919.

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A clock is set right at 6 a.m. It gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the right time when the clock indicates 11 a.m. on the next day?

(A) 48 minutes past 10

(B) 50 minutes past 10

(D) 10 a.m.

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

At what time between 5 and 6 will the two hands of a watch coincide?

(A) 27 minutes past 5

(B) 27 (3/11) minutes past 5

(D) 26 minutes past 5

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Anil and Suman together can do a work in 12 days, which Anil alone can do in 20 days. If Suman alone has to do this work, he will take

(A) 28 days

(B) 29 days

(D) 27 days

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

In a class of 55 students, 34 like to play Cricket and 26 like to play Badminton. Also, each student likes to play at least one of the two games. How many students like to play both Cricket and Badminton?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 3

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

What are the two natural numbers whose product is 2400 and the sum of whose squares is 5200?

(A) 80, 30

(B) 75, 32

(D) 120, 20

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

How many numbers between 100 and 500 are divisible by 4, 5 and 6?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(D) 5

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

In a mixture of 70 kg, the ratio of sand cement is 4: 1. How much sand should be added to the mixture so that the ratio of said and cement in it becomes 6: 1?

(A) 28 kg

(B) 30 kg

(D) 24 kg

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Shashi loses 25% by selling oranges at the rate of Rs. 150 per dozen. At what rate should she sell them to get a profit of 20%

(A) Rs. 230 per dozen

(B) Rs. 240 per dozen

(D) Rs. 220 per dozen

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 10 cm and 24 cm. Its perimeter is

(A) 52 cm

(B) 56 cm

(D) 48 cm

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

A train of length 140 meter is running at a speed of 60 Km/h and a dog is running in the same direction parallel to the train at a speed of 18 Km/h. The train will cross the dog in

(A) 11 Seconds

(B) 12 Seconds

(D) 10 Seconds

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

What type of lens is used in magnifying glass?

(A) Plano-concave lens

(B) Convex lens

(D) Concave lens

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Convex lenses are used in a variety of applications, including:

Magnifying glasses and magnifying lenses: Convex lenses are used to magnify small objects or texts, making them easier to see.
Cameras: Convex lenses are used in the lenses of cameras to focus light onto the film or image sensor.
Telescopes: Convex lenses are used in telescopes to gather and focus light from distant objects, allowing them to be viewed more clearly.
Projectors: Convex lenses are used in projectors to focus light onto a screen, creating a large, clear image.
Headlights: Convex lenses are used in headlights to focus the light in a specific direction, increasing visibility while driving.
Safety and protective equipment: Convex lenses are used in safety goggles and other protective equipment to shield the eyes from harmful radiation or debris.
Laser optics: Convex lenses are used in laser optics to focus the laser beam to a small spot or to expand the beam.
Medical equipment: Convex lenses are used in medical equipment such as endoscopes and other instruments for examining internal organs.

Figure 13: Convex Lens

The paramagnetic theory of magnetism applies to

(A) mercury

(B) iron

(D) nickel

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Paramagnetism is a form of magnetism whereby some materials are weakly attracted by an externally applied magnetic field, and form internal, induced magnetic fields in the direction of the applied magnetic field. Examples are iron oxide, oxygen, titanium, aluminium, transition metal complexes, etc.

The nucleus of an atom consists of

(A) electrons and protons

(B) protons and neutrons

(D) electrons and neutrons

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Atomic nuclei consist of electrically positive protons and electrically neutral neutrons. These are held together by the strongest known fundamental force, called the strong force. The nucleus makes up much less than 01% of the volume of the atom, but typically contains more than 99.9% of the mass of the atom.

The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called

(A) roasting

(B) calcination

(D) smelting

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Smelting is a process of applying heat to ore, to extract a base metal. It is a form of extractive metallurgy. It is used to extract many metals from their ores, including silver, iron, copper, and other base metals.

Which among the following are constituents of brass?

(A) Iron and zinc

(B) Copper and nickel

(D) Zinc and copper

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Bronze, alloy traditionally composed of copper and tin. Modern bronze is typically 88 percent copper and about 12 percent tin.

Which among the following is known as quicklime?

(A) CaCO2

(B) Ca(OH)2

(D) CaO

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Calcium oxide (CaO), commonly known as quicklime or burnt lime, is a widely used chemical compound. It is a white, caustic, alkaline, crystalline solid at room temperature.

What happens to the weight of iron, when it rusts?

(A) Decreases then increases

(B) Increases then decreases

(D) Increases for long time

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: When iron or any other metal oxidizes, oxygen from the air combines with the iron to make iron oxide or rust. So, weight of the bar increases, due to the increased weight of oxygen which has combined with the iron.

Which among the following is also known as white metal?

(A) Rhodium

(B) Platinum

(D) Nickel

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Platinum is a white metal. Pure platinum is a lustrous, ductile, and malleable, silver-white metal. Platinum is more ductile than gold, silver or copper, thus being the most ductile of pure metals, but it is less malleable than gold.

Consider the following statements with respect to noble metals:
Noble metals are found in pure form in nature.
Uranium and lead are examples of noble metal.

(A) 2 only

(B) Both I and 2

(D) 1 only

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Noble metals refer to ruthenium (Ru), rhodium (Rh), palladium (Pd), silver (Ag), osmium (Os), iridium (Ir), platinum (Pt), and gold (Ag).

A noble metal is a metal or alloy characterized by it lack of chemical reactivity. These metals resist oxidation and corrosion in any environment. They are the opposite of base metals, which more readily oxidize and corrode.

Uranium and Lead are not the noble metals.

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Consider the following statements
Addition of salt to pure water increases the boiling point of water and decrease the freezing point of water.
When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water decreases.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) Salt and methyl alcohol are same in behaviour

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The boiling point of water is increased slightly and If the salt concentration is increased, then the freezing point of the water will decrease.

When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water decreases due to hydrogen bonding

Which among the following is the main constituent of biogas?

(A) Propane.

(B) Butane

(D) Methane

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Biogas is a mixture of gases, primarily consisting of methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide, produced from raw materials such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, plant material, sewage, green waste and food waste. It is a renewable energy source.

Which among the following would cause the bright red colour due to bursting of crackers?

(A) Sodium

(B) Sulphur

(D) Strontium

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Sparkling red colour after the blast of fire crackers is due to the presence of Strontium.

Copper produces blue color.
Sodium yields yellow color.
Barium produces bright green color.

What are salt-loving plants called?

(A) Mesophytes

(B) Gycophytes

(D) Xerophytes

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The plants which grow in areas with high salt concentrations are called halophytes or salt-tolerant plants.

Fungi are plants that lack

(A) carbon dioxide

(B) chlorophyll

(D) oxygen

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Fungi are plants that lack chlorophyll so photosynthesis will not take place.

Pollination is best defined as

(A) germination of pollen grains

(B) growth of pollen tube in ovule

(D) transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

And: (D)

Solution: Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the stamens, the flower parts that produce them, to the ovule-bearing organs.

Plants receive their nutrients mainly from

(A) atmosphere

(B) light

(D) chlorophyll

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Mineral nutrients come from the soil. These nutrients are absorbed by the plants roots when up-taking water. Mineral nutrients are broken up into macronutrients and micronutrients. The most important primary macronutrients for plants are nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K).

Pine, Fir, Spruce, Cedar, Larch and Cypress are the famous timber-yielding plants of which several also occur widely in the hilly regions of India. All these belong to

(A) gymnosperm

(B) monocotyledons

(D) angiosperm

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

From the following pairs, find the one which is correctly matched.

(A) Tuberculosis—ATS

(B) Tetanus—BCG

(D) Scurvy—Thiamine

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Chloroquine is used to prevent and treat malaria. It is also used to treat liver infection caused by protozoa

The animal without red blood cells is

(A) earthworm

(B) snake

(D) frog

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: In earthworm, the blood vascular system is a closed type one. The colour of the earthworm’s blood is red in colour and haemoglobin is found to be dissolved in the plasma of blood. RBCs (red blood cells) are absent in them.

The ultimate substance to which the carbohydrates are degraded, is

(A) glycerol

(B) glucose

(D) amino acid

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Both simple and complex carbohydrates break down into glucose.

Most of the enzymes are

(A) lipids

(B) acids

(D) proteins

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Structurally, the vast majority of enzymes are Proteins.

Who was the first scientist/doctor, who attempted vaccination?

(A) Robert Koch

(B) Elie Metchnikoff

(D) Joseph Lister

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Edward Jenner is well known around the world for his innovative contribution to immunization and the ultimate eradication of smallpox. He found out that people infected with cowpox were immune to smallpox.

The working principle of a washing machine is

(A) diffusion

(B) centrifugation

(D) reverse osmosis

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Centrifugal Force acts along the radius in an outward direction and hence can be used to throw the water molecules on the clothes radially outwards during the spinning of the washing machine.

The speed of light will be minimal while passing through

(A) vacuum

(B) air

(D) water

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Here, the denser medium is glass having a refractive index of 1.60−1.62 so light will travel with minimum speed in glass.

Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

(A) Velocity

(B) Torque

(D) Speed

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Velocity has both magnitude and direction that is why it is a vector quantity. Whereas, Speed has only magnitude and no direction that is why it is a scalar quantity.

If the spinning speed of the earth increases, then the weight of the body at the equator will

(A) decrease

(B) remain same

(D) increase

(B) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Thus as the spinning speed of earth increases, then g at equator decreases and thus weight of body decreases at equator.

Who is the first person to define speed?

(A) Newton

(B) Kepler

(D) Galileo

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: The Italian physicist Galileo Galilei is credited with being the first to measure speed by considering the distance covered and the time it takes. Galileo defined speed as the distance covered per unit of time.

What is the law in which under the same conditions of same temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain equal number of molecules?

(A) Graham’s law

(B) Pascal’s law

(D) Coriolis effect

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Avogadro’s law states that, “equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure, have the same number of molecules”. For a given mass of an ideal gas, the volume and amount (moles) of the gas are directly proportional if the temperature and pressure are constant.

The ‘theory of relativity’ is presented by which scientist?

(A) Isaac Newton

(B) Stephen Hawking

(D) Albert Einstein

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: In 1905, Einstein discovered the special theory of relativity, establishing the famous dictum that nothing can travel faster than the speed of light.

Due to temperature variation along a conductor, potential variation occurs along it. This phenomenon is known as

(A) Joule effect

(B) Seebeck effect

(D) Thomson effect

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Thomson effect is the evolution or absorption of heat when electric current passes through a circuit composed of a single material that has a temperature difference along its length.

Who has become the first player to cross 3000 runs in the T20 International?

(A) Steve Smith

(B) Babar Azam

(D) Viral Kohli

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

What is the name of the campaign launched to ensure complete COVID 19 vaccination (in June 2022)?

(A) Atmanirbhar Vaccine Campaign 2.0

(B) Pradhan Mantri Vaccine Campaign

(D) Har Ghar Dastak Campaign 2.0

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

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Who is the new Chief Minister of Maharashtra after 30th June, 2022?

(A) Eknath Shinde

(B) Ashok Chavan

(D) Devendra Fadnavis

(E)None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Who has started the Har Ghar Tiranga Abhiyan on the occasion of India’s 75th Independence Day?

(A) NITI Aayog

(B) Indian Army

(D) Election Commission

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Which State has become the first State in the country to initiate the process of implementing the Centre’s New Education Policy?

(A) Haryana

(B) Rajasthan

(D) Uttarakhand

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Consider the following pair of the Governors and the Indian States:

State Governor

Rajasthan Kalraj Mishra
Uttar Pradesh Anandiben Patel
West Bengal Satya Pal Malik
Gujarat Phagu Chauhan

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(A) 3 and 4 only

(B) 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Which of the following ministries/ organizations has released ‘Youth in India Report, 2022’?

(A) Population Foundation of India

(B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)

(D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(E) None of the above/More than one of above

Ans: (B)

Elavenil Valarivan, Shreya Agarwal and Ramita, seen in the news, are associated with which sports?

(A) Shooting

(B) Fencing

(D) Wrestling

(E) None of the above/More than one of above

Ans: (A)

Recently who has been assigned the charge of the Ministry of Minority Affairs?

(A) Amit Shah

(B) Nirmala Sitharaman

(D) Smriti Irani

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Who was the candidate of the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) in 15th

Presidential Election in India?

(A) Shatrughan Sinha

(B) Droupadi Murmu

(D) Yashwant Sinha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Who has received the International Booker Prize for her novel, Tomb of Sand (Ret Samadhi)

(A) Arundhati Roy

(B) Anita Desai

(D) Geetanjali Shree

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Who has been awarded with the Dadasaheb Phalke Indian Television Award in 2022 from Bihar?

(A) Deep Shrestha

(B) Madan Pande

(D) Sharad Sinha

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

According to the economic survey of Bihar 2021-22, what is the level of urbanization in the state at present.

(A) 22.4 %

(B) 15.3 %

(D) 11.6 %

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Who is the brand Ambassador of Khadi in Bihar?

(A) Rajesh Tiwari

(B) Manoj Tiwari

(D) Pawan Singh

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

In which district of Bihar, the world’s tallest (251 m) statue of mother Sita will be constructed?

(A) Sitamarhi

(B) Bodh Gaya

(D) Madhubani

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Match List-I with List-II

List I List II

Governor of Bihar Nitish Kumar
Chief Justice of Bihar Mr. H R Srinivas
Chief Minister of Bihar Mr. Sanjay Karol
Chief Electoral Officer of Bihar Mr. Fagu Chauhan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

a b c d

1 2 3 4

a b c d

4 3 1 2

a b c d

4 2 1 3

a b c d

3 2 1 4

None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

The ‘ Operation Prahar’ in Bihar is related to

(A) literacy campaign

(B) no smoking

(D) COVID-19 vaccination

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: It was a drive against liquor.

Hrithik Anand from Bihar has won which medal for India at the 24th Summer Deaf Badminton Olympics held in Brazil?

(A) Silver medal

(B) Bronze medal

(D) Gold medal

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

At which place in Bihar, North India’s first bird ringing station has been recently opened?

(A) Saran

(B) East Champaran

(D) Bhagalpur

(E) None of the above/More than one of above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Bhagalpur in Bihar is going to get North India’s first and India’s fourth bird ringing station. Other three bird ringing stations are at Tamilnadu (Chennai), Rajasthan (Jaipur), Orissa (Bhuvneshwar).

Which of the following in Bihar started the Vulture’s Conservation Plan?

(A) Rajgir Wildlife Sanctuary

(B) Valmiki Tiger Reserve

(D) Kaimur Tiger Reserve

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Valmiki Tiger Reserve (VTR) have started the conservation of vultures.

Valmiki Tiger Reserve

`Sunandini Program’ is related to the

(A) Auxiliary Nurse Midwives (ANMs)

(B) primary health centre’s doctors

(D) Anganwadi workers

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Bihar Social Welfare Department started the “Sunandini initiative” to make anganwadi workers academically proficient.

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Which country’s former Prime Minister Shinzo Abe was shot dead during the election campaign in July 2022?

(A) Japan

(B) Ukraine

(D) France

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Shinzo Abe, a former prime minister of Japan was assassinated on 8 July 2022.

The UN General Assembly has adopted an India-sponsored resolution on multi-lingualism. Which language is mentioned in that for the first time?

(A) Sanskrit

(B) Bengali

(D) Urdu

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The United Nations General Assembly has adopted an India-sponsored resolution on multilingualism that mentions the Hindi language for the first time.

Who presided an emergency session of the General Assembly to discuss Russia’s military operations in Ukraine?

(A) Volkan Bozkir

(B) Antonio Guterres

(D) Abdulla Shahid

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: UNGA President Abdulla Shahid addresses members of the General Assembly Emergency Special Session on Ukraine.

India evacuated people as Part of which mission to bring Indians from war-hit Ukraine, in February 2022?

(A) Operation Maitri

(B) Operation Vijay

(D) Operation Rakshak

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Operation Ganga was an evacuation operation by the Government of India to evacuate the Indian citizens amidst the 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine, who had crossed over to neighbouring countries.

Recently China has claimed rights over territories around the ‘Sakteng Wildlife Snctuary’ claiming it as a ‘disputed region’. This Wildlife Sanctuary is located in

(A) Bhutan

(B) Nepal

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary in Bhutan.

Which Indian State/UT has been chosen to host the G20 Summit in 2023?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Jammu and Kashmir

(D) Goa

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: Jammu and Kashmir has been selected by the Ministry for External Affairs (MEA) for meetings during the G-20 summit, to be hosted by India in 2023.

What is G20?

The G20 or Group of Twenty is an intergovernmental forum comprising 19 countries and the European Union. It works to address major issues related to the global economy, such as international financial stability, climate change mitigation, and sustainable development.

Is India a member of G20?

India has been a part of the G20 since it was established in 1999 as a forum for finance ministers in the aftermath of the Asian financial crisis.

With reference to the UN peacekeeping operations, consider the

Following statements:

UN peacekeepers can use for only for their self-defence.
Peacekeeping operations can only be withdrawn by a resolution by the UN Security Council
USA is the largest budget contributor to the UN peacekeeping operations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 2 and 3 only

(B) 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: UN Peacekeeping Operations have been materialised to help countries torn by conflict to create the conditions for lasting peace”.

UN peacekeeping operations are deployed with the consent of the main parties to the conflict.

Here, USA is the largest budget contributor to UN Peacekeeping Operations.

# Who approves a peacekeeping operation?

Ans: Security Council resolution

Which country has recently signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with the United Arab Emirates?

(A) Australia

(B) Italy

(D) Israel

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Israel has signed a free trade agreement with the United Arab Emirates.

Why is it so important in world political dynamics?

The goal of the Arabs has been to oppose the existence of Israel and support Palestine. This trade agreement indicates the changing view of UAE.

Which country launched its first satellite ‘Arktika-M’ to monitor the climate of the Arctic?

(A) China

(B) Russia

(D) Japan

(E) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: It is Russia’s first satellite for monitoring the Arctic’s climate.

Which country launched the first satellite in the world?

Ans: The Soviet Union, On October 4, 1957, the Soviet Union launched the earth’s first artificial satellite, Sputnik I.

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Why is it important to study the Arctic?

The extent of area covered by Arctic sea ice is an important indicator of changes in global climate change. So, the study of arctic reveals the reality of climate change.

Important Links

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