OPSC OAS Question Paper 2024 Prelims GS Paper 1 Set A [Fully Solved]

1. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘New Criminal Laws’ enacted by the Indian Parliament?

The new criminal law ‘Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita’ came into effect from April 1, 2023.
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita replaced the Indian Penal Code.
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam came into effect from July 1, 2024.
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita was passed by the Parliament in December 2023.

Options:
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3

Ans: (C) 3 and 4

Solution:

Statement 3 is correct: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (new evidence law) came into effect on July 1, 2024.
Statement 4 is correct: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita was passed by Parliament in December 2023 (though it took effect on July 1, 2024).
Statement 1 is incorrect: The law took effect on July 1, 2024, not April 1, 2023.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita replaced the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), not the IPC.

Thus, the correct combination is 3 and 4 (Option C).

Read: OPSC Notes

2. Pick up the wrong matching of Brand Ambassadors for Government-led companies:

Dia Mirza – Swachh Saathi
P.V. Sindhu – Pulse Polio
Amitabh Bachchan – City Compost Campaign
Sachin Tendulkar – Make in India

Options:
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4

Ans: (B) 2 and 4

Solution:

Statement 2 is incorrect: P.V. Sindhu is not associated with Pulse Polio (correct ambassador is Amitabh Bachchan)
Statement 4 is incorrect: Sachin Tendulkar is not the Make in India ambassador (correct ambassador is Amitabh Bachchan)
Statements 1 and 3 are correctly matched
Thus, the wrong matches are 2 and 4 (Option B)

3. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Earth Rotation Day’ – 2024?

Earth Rotation Day is celebrated on January 8th of every year.
This day is dedicated to acknowledging the discovery of Earth’s shape.
This day is also celebrated to acknowledge Earth’s natural beauty.
Honouring the discovery of our Planet’s movement.

Options:
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4

Ans: (D) 1 and 4

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Earth Rotation Day is celebrated annually on January 8th, marking the day Léon Foucault demonstrated Earth’s rotation.
Statement 4 is correct: The day is meant to honor Earth’s movement, not its shape or beauty.
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Thus, correct statements are 1 and 4 (Option D).

4. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Sheikh Hasina Wazed, who resigned as Prime Minister of Bangladesh on August 4th, 2024?

She was the Prime Minister of Bangladesh for two decades.
The students’ protest against Job Quota turned into anti-government agitation.
The Supreme Court of Bangladesh gave a ruling of 30% reservation in jobs for descendents of 1971 Liberation Movement.
She is the President of ‘Bangladesh National Party’ supported by Jamaat-e-Islami.

Options:
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 4

Ans: (D) 2 and 4

Solution:

Statement 2 is incorrect: While student protests occurred, describing them strictly as anti-government agitation is not entirely factual.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Sheikh Hasina leads the Awami League, not the Bangladesh National Party.
**Statements 1 and 3 are factually reasonable.

Thus, the incorrect statements are 2 and 4 (Option D).

5. The Paris-2024 Olympic Medals contain metal from which iconic landmark?

Options:
(A) The Mont Blanc
(B) The Eiffel Tower
(C) The Arc de Triomphe
(D) The Pantheon

Ans: (B) The Eiffel Tower

Solution:
The Paris 2024 Olympic medals feature a hexagonal piece of iron from the Eiffel Tower, linking the global Olympic event to a national French symbol.

6. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Olympic Flame’?

The Olympic Flame is the symbol of Unity, Sportivity, and Victory.
The Olympic Torch is lit in Greece and passed from one torch bearer to the next.
The 2024 Olympic Torch was lit on 16th April, 2024.
The modern Olympic Torch Relay was conceived by Dr. Carl Diem of Germany.

Options:
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) All Four

Ans: (D) All Four

Solution:
All four statements are accurate.

The Olympic Flame symbolizes unity and victory.
The torch is lit in Olympia, Greece.
For Paris 2024, it was lit on 16th April, 2024.
The relay tradition was introduced by Dr. Carl Diem in 1936.

7. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar’?

This Puraskar was instituted by the Government of India in 2023.
The award is given in four categories.
Vigyan Team Puraskar is given to five teams.
In 2024, in Space Science & Technology, ‘Vigyan Yuva Puraskar’ was awarded to four scientists.

Options:
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 2

Ans: (D) 1 and 2

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The award was launched in 2023.
Statement 2 is correct: It has four award categories.
Statements 3 and 4 are unverified; the number of awards is not fixed or publicly confirmed.

Hence, correct statements are 1 and 2 (Option D).

8. Which Bank was included in the 2024 ‘Fortune Global 500 List’ for the first time?

Options:
(A) HDFC Bank
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Axis Bank

Ans: (A) HDFC Bank

Solution:
HDFC Bank made its first-ever entry into the Fortune Global 500 list in 2024, attributed to its strong financial performance and market capitalization.

9. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Union Budget 2024–25?

Total expenditure projected at Rs. 48.21 Lakh Crore
Receipts excluding Borrowings Rs. 32.07 Lakh Crore
Fiscal Deficit projected at 6.8% of GDP
Net Tax Receipts Rs. 34.83 Lakh Crore

Options:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

Ans: (C) 1 and 4

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Budget 2024–25 projected total expenditure as Rs. 48.21 lakh crore.
Statement 4 is correct: Net tax receipts were Rs. 34.83 lakh crore.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Fiscal deficit was projected at around 5.1%, not 6.8%.

Correct statements are 1 and 4 (Option C).

10. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘International Everest Day’ – 2024?

May 29th is observed to honor Tenzing Norgay.
First observed by Nepal in 2008 after Tenzing Norgay’s death.
It’s a celebration of human endurance and exploration.
Edmund Hillary was a Swiss national.

Options:
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

Ans: (C) 1 and 3

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: May 29 marks the 1953 Everest summit by Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary.
Statement 3 is correct: The day honors human endurance and adventure.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The day was first observed in 2008 after Hillary’s death, not Norgay’s.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Hillary was from New Zealand, not Switzerland.

Correct statements are 1 and 3 (Option C).

11. As per the data released by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, which of the following States in India topped the country in Organ Donation in the year 2023?

Options:
(A) Karnataka
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Telangana

Ans: (B) Tamil Nadu

Solution:
Tamil Nadu topped in organ donation in 2023 due to its robust cadaver transplant program and strong public awareness efforts, continuing its consistent leadership in this area.

12. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Goldman Environmental Prize’?

Established in 1989 by Richard and Rhoda Goldman
Awarded to grassroots environmental leaders with global recognition
Prafulla Samantara received this prize in 2024 from India
Cash prize includes $500,000

Options:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

Ans: (A) 1 and 2

Solution:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The prize was established in 1989 by the Goldmans to honor grassroots environmental activism.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Prafulla Samantara won the award in 2017, not 2024.
Statement 4 is inaccurate: The prize amount may vary, and $500,000 is not fixed.

13. The name of the Artificial Intelligence (AI) powered News Anchor developed by the ‘India Today Group’ is

Options:
(A) Sana
(B) Persana
(C) Baani
(D) Anania

Ans: (A) Sana

Solution:
‘Sana’ is the AI anchor launched by India Today, capable of delivering news using text-to-speech and animation, showcasing innovation in digital journalism.

14. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Vantara’?

National initiative for afforestation
Launched by Reliance Industries and Reliance Foundation
Started in Green Belt of Jamnagar Refinery Complex, Haryana
Aspires to lead in wildlife conservation

Options:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

Ans: (C) 2 and 4

Solution:

Statement 2 is correct: Vantara is an initiative of Reliance Industries & Foundation.
Statement 4 is correct: It focuses on wildlife rescue, rehabilitation, and conservation.
Statements 1 and 3 are incorrect: It is not primarily afforestation, and it is based in Jamnagar, Gujarat, not Haryana.

15. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Alliance of Sahel States’?

Confederation formed by Mali, Niger, and Burkina Faso
Originated as Mutual Defence Pact on 15th Nov, 2021
All three were part of East African Community
Confederation officially launched on July 6, 2024

Options:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4

Ans: (D) 1 and 4

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: The Alliance includes Mali, Niger, and Burkina Faso.
Statement 4 is correct: They formally launched a confederation on July 6, 2024.
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The alliance started more recently, and these countries were never part of East African Community.

16. When was Mahatma Gandhi declared “Father of the Nation”?

Options:
(A) 20th July 1946
(B) 12th August 1947
(C) 15th March 1948
(D) Never, officially

Ans: (D) Never, officially

Solution:
While Mahatma Gandhi is widely referred to as “Father of the Nation”, the Government of India has never officially conferred this title nor codified it into law.

17. India, as everyone knows, is a multi-lingual country. People often know three or more languages. In this context, which of the following statements is more correct?

Options:
(A) About a quarter is bilingual; a tenth trilingual
(B) Half is bilingual; one fifth trilingual
(C) A third is bilingual; a tenth trilingual
(D) Three fourths bilingual; half trilingual

Ans: (C) A third is bilingual; a tenth trilingual

Solution:
Census and surveys show that about one-third of Indians are bilingual, and roughly 10% are trilingual, reflecting India’s multilingual environment.

18. Bhatri, Bhuiya, Desia, are analogous to

P. Bagri, Bhateali, Kahluri
Q. Chakma, Haijong, Rajbangsi
R. Awadhi, Bagri, Bhagoria
S. Gujrau, Pattani, Ponchi

Options:
(A) P and Q but not R and S
(B) Q and R but not P and S
(C) R only
(D) P, Q, R and S

Ans: (A) P and Q but not R and S

Solution:
Bhatri, Bhuiya, Desia are tribal/linguistic identities, like P (dialects) and Q (ethnic groups).
R and S include either festivals or unrelated terms, so they don’t align.

19. What was the Lahore Resolution (1940) about?

Options:
(A) A united homeland for Muslims
(B) Supporting British war effort
(C) Demand for linguistic provinces
(D) All of the above

Ans: (A) A united homeland for Muslims

Solution:
The Lahore Resolution adopted in 1940 by the Muslim League laid the foundation for Pakistan, demanding a separate nation for Muslims.

20. The demand for linguistic provinces was first floated to ensure that

Options:
(A) People speaking a particular language got recognition
(B) Administration closer to the people
(C) Promote linguistic division
(D) Reduce conflict within country

Ans: (B) Administration closer to the people

Solution:
The demand for linguistic reorganization of states aimed at efficient administration and aligning governance with cultural and linguistic identities.

21. The British East India Company considered itself to be the paramount power in India after

Options:
(A) Defeating Sindhia in 1803
(B) Treaty with Ranjit Singh in 1809
(C) Defeating Bhonsale in 1818
(D) Suppressing the uprising of 1857

Ans: (D) Suppressing the uprising of 1857

Solution:
After 1857, the British government assumed direct control over India, and the Company’s role ended, establishing British Crown supremacy.

22. The first modern judicial court in India presided over by Elijah Impey was set up in

Options:
(A) Murshidabad
(B) Patna
(C) Kolkata
(D) Dhaka

Ans: (C) Kolkata

Solution:
The Supreme Court at Fort William in Kolkata, established in 1774, was India’s first modern court. Elijah Impey was the first Chief Justice.

23. The motto, “Yato Dharmastato Jayah” has been adopted by

Options:
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) Supreme Court of India

Ans: (D) Supreme Court of India

Solution:
The Supreme Court adopted the Sanskrit phrase “Yato Dharmastato Jayah” meaning “Where there is Dharma, there is Victory.”

24. “An institutional arrangement to keep Science, Society and Industry on the same page” was said about

Options:
(A) IITs
(B) Department of Science & Technology
(C) TIFR
(D) CSIR

Ans: (D) CSIR

Solution:
Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) is known for its multi-disciplinary research and role in bridging scientific innovation with industrial and societal needs.

25. Direct Action Day refers to

Options:
(A) Day marked by Muslim League for separate homeland
(B) Day Indian nationalists tried to oust British
(C) Day Scheduled Castes protested injustice
(D) All of the above

Ans: (A) Day marked by Muslim League for separate homeland

Solution:
August 16, 1946, was called Direct Action Day by the Muslim League to demand a separate Muslim homeland, which led to communal violence in Kolkata.

26. One of the earliest mentions of Bharat_varsha is in

Options:
(A) The writings of Ptolemy
(B) The writings of Fa Hien
(C) The Hathigumpha inscription
(D) The Ajanta Caves

Ans: (C) The Hathigumpha inscription

Solution:
The Hathigumpha inscription by King Kharavela of Odisha contains one of the earliest references to Bharat_varsha, signifying a unified cultural and geographic identity.

27. This place is known as the city of caves

Options:
(A) Ajanta
(B) Ellora
(C) Udayagiri
(D) Gharapuri

Ans: (D) Gharapuri

Solution:
Gharapuri, also known as Elephanta Island, is renowned for its rock-cut cave temples, earning the title “City of Caves.”

28. “Kattaka caves” referred to, among others:

P. Hathigumpha and Ranigumpha
Q. Kumari Parvata
R. Alakapurigumpha
S. Mahendragarh

Options:
(A) P, Q and R but not S
(B) P and S but not Q and R
(C) P and Q but not R and S
(D) P, Q, R and S

Ans: (A) P, Q and R but not S

Solution:
Kattaka caves include Hathigumpha, Ranigumpha, Kumari Parvata, and Alakapurigumpha. Mahendragarh is not related.

29. The Kalinga Prize is given for

Options:
(A) Achievements of a scientist
(B) Achievements of a science popularizer
(C) Achievements of a geologist
(D) Achievements of a mathematician

Ans: (B) Achievements of a science popularizer

Solution:
The UNESCO Kalinga Prize is awarded for excellence in science communication, especially in making science accessible to the public.

30. The achievements of Pandit Gopabandhu Das are in the field of

Options:
(A) Science
(B) Law
(C) National Movement
(D) All of the above

Ans: (C) National Movement

Solution:
Gopabandhu Das was a freedom fighter, reformer, and educationist known for his contribution to India’s national movement and social upliftment.

31. Zero Casualty At Any Cost (ZCAAC) is a principle followed by

Options:
(A) The United Nations
(B) NATO
(C) Government of Odisha
(D) SAARC

Ans: (C) Government of Odisha

Solution:
The ZCAAC principle was adopted by the Odisha Government to ensure no human casualty during disasters, especially cyclones.

32. Porus is said to have gifted Alexander a

Options:
(A) Box of mangoes
(B) Diamond
(C) Block of steel
(D) Cotton shirt

Ans: (B) Diamond

Solution:
According to historical legends, King Porus gifted a diamond to Alexander the Great as a mark of respect after their battle.

33. The famous architect Bisu Moharana is associated with

Options:
(A) Sun Temple at Konark
(B) Taj Mahal
(C) Brihadeeswara Temple
(D) Rathas at Mahabalipuram

Ans: (A) Sun Temple at Konark

Solution:
Bisu Moharana was the legendary chief architect of the Sun Temple at Konark, one of India’s greatest architectural marvels.

34. At the end of the Civil Disobedience Movement, Gandhiji took out a padyatra against untouchability. His first padyatra was undertaken in 1934 in

Options:
(A) Nagpur
(B) Noakhali
(C) Jharsuguda
(D) Thanjavur

Ans: (A) Nagpur

Solution:
In 1934, Gandhiji started his first padyatra against untouchability from Nagpur, aiming to promote social harmony and reform.

35. The infamous Rowlatt Act was opposed by Indians because it provided for

Options:
(A) Trying sedition cases without a jury and holding suspects in jail without trial
(B) Opposing the Indian national movement
(C) Hampering the economic growth of India
(D) All of the above

Ans: (A) Trying sedition cases without a jury and holding suspects in jail without trial

Solution:
The Rowlatt Act (1919) enabled British authorities to detain people without trial, provoking widespread Indian opposition and Gandhiji’s Satyagraha.

36. Which of the following bauxite deposits is considered as the largest one in India?

Options:
(A) Riasi and Poonch deposit (Jammu & Kashmir)
(B) Panchpat Mali deposit (Odisha)
(C) Gandhamardan deposit (Odisha)
(D) Balaghat deposits (Madhya Pradesh)

Ans: (B) Panchpat Mali deposit (Odisha)

Solution:
The Panchpat Mali hills in Odisha host India’s largest bauxite deposit, extensively used in aluminum production.

37. Which states share the Tungabhadra Multipurpose Project?

Options:
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
(B) Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh
(C) Odisha and Jharkhand
(D) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka

Ans: (A) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka

Solution:
The Tungabhadra Project is a joint venture between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka for irrigation, power generation, and water supply.

38. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I
(a) Chinook
(b) Sirocco
(c) Brickfielder
(d) Mistral

List II

U.S.A.
Australia
Europe
Africa

Options:
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2

Ans: (A) 1 4 2 3

Solution:

Chinook – USA
Sirocco – Africa
Brickfielder – Australia
Mistral – Europe

39. The only landlocked country in South-East Asia is

Options:
(A) Laos
(B) Thailand
(C) Vietnam
(D) Cambodia

Ans: (A) Laos

Solution:
Laos is the only landlocked country in South-East Asia, bordered by Thailand, Vietnam, Cambodia, Myanmar, and China.

40. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Australian States)
(a) Queensland
(b) South Australia
(c) Victoria
(d) Western Australia

List II (Cities)

Adelaide
Brisbane
Kalgoorlie
Melbourne

Options:
(A) 2 5 4 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 5 2 3

Ans: (C) 2 1 4 3

Solution:

Queensland – Brisbane
South Australia – Adelaide
Victoria – Melbourne
Western Australia – Kalgoorlie

41. Which one of the species is an example of extinct species?

Asiatic Cheetah
Black Buck
Crocodile
Indian Wild Ass

Options:
(A) Asiatic Cheetah
(B) Black Buck
(C) Crocodile
(D) Indian Wild Ass

Ans: (A) Asiatic Cheetah

Solution:
The Asiatic Cheetah is extinct in India, though a few individuals survive in Iran.
The other species — Black Buck, Crocodile, and Indian Wild Ass — are endangered or vulnerable, but not extinct.

42. Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?

Month – Position of Sun
June – Midday Sun overhead at Tropic of Cancer
December – Midday Sun overhead at Tropic of Capricorn
March – Midday Sun overhead on Equator
September – Midday Sun overhead on Arctic Circle

Options:
(A) June – Tropic of Cancer
(B) December – Tropic of Capricorn
(C) March – Equator
(D) September – Arctic Circle

Ans: (D) September – Midday Sun overhead on Arctic Circle

Solution:
In September, during the Autumnal Equinox, the midday Sun is overhead at the Equator, not the Arctic Circle.
Hence, Statement D is incorrect.

43. Which one of the following term describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?

Ecotone
Ecological niche
Habitat
Home range

Options:
(A) Ecotone
(B) Ecological niche
(C) Habitat
(D) Home range

Ans: (B) Ecological niche

Solution:
An ecological niche includes both the physical space and the functional role of an organism in its ecosystem, such as feeding habits, interactions, and reproduction.

44. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of

Insects and fungi
Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
Water limits and fire
None of the above

Options:
(A) Insects and fungi
(B) Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
(C) Water limits and fire
(D) None of the above

Ans: (C) Water limits and fire

Solution:
Grasslands remain dominated by grasses due to periodic fires and scarcity of water, which inhibit tree growth.

45. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?

Virus
Fungi
Bacteria

Options:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (B) 2 and 3 only

Solution:
Fungi and bacteria are true decomposers that break down organic matter.
Viruses are not decomposers; they require living cells to replicate.

46. Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

Potential energy is released to form free energy
Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapor are given out

Options:
(A) Potential energy is released to form free energy
(B) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored
(C) Food is oxidized to release carbon dioxide and water
(D) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapor are given out

Ans: (B) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored

Solution:
In photosynthesis, solar energy (free energy) is converted into chemical energy (potential energy) and stored in glucose molecules.

47. Consider the following:

Carbon dioxide
Oxides of Nitrogen
Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?

Options:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:
Coal combustion emits carbon dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and sulfur oxides, all of which are major air pollutants.

48. Which of the following earthquake waves are more destructive at the epicenter?

S waves
P waves
R waves
L waves

Options:
(A) S waves
(B) P waves
(C) R waves
(D) L waves

Ans: (D) L waves

Solution:
L (Love) waves are surface seismic waves that cause the most destruction due to their large amplitude and horizontal motion, especially near the epicenter.

49. Jhumming cultivation is known as ‘Kuruwa’ in which region/state?

Madhya Pradesh
Andhra Pradesh
North-eastern Region
Jharkhand

Options:
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) North-eastern Region
(D) Jharkhand

Ans: (D) Jharkhand

Solution:
In Jharkhand, Jhumming cultivation (a form of slash-and-burn agriculture) is referred to locally as ‘Kuruwa’.

50. Match the following:

(a) Loess –
(b) Moraines –
(c) Gravels –
(d) Sand and Clay –

River deposits
Glacier deposits
Wind deposits
Sea deposits

Options:
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 3 4 1 2

Ans: (B) 3 2 1 4

Solution:

Loess → Wind deposits
Moraines → Glacier deposits
Gravels → River deposits
Sand and Clay → Sea deposits

Correct match order: (a)–3, (b)–2, (c)–1, (d)–4 → Option B

51. Which of the following terms were not the terms of ‘August Offer – 1940’?

A Nominated Indian Body would be formed after the War to frame the Constitution
Dominion Status was not the objective of India
More Indian representation in Viceroy’s Executive Council
An Advisory War Council was to be established

Options:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 4

Ans: (C) 1 and 2

Solution:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The August Offer did not propose a nominated Indian body to frame the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Dominion Status was affirmed as the objective.
Statements 3 and 4 were part of the offer.
Thus, the incorrect terms are 1 and 2 (Option C).

52. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of ‘Constituent Assembly’?

Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July-August, 1946
The Indian National Congress won 208 Seats
Muslim League won 73 Seats
Princely States won 93 Seats

Options:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

Ans: (D) 1, 2 and 4

Solution:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Elections were held in July 1946, but not in August.
Statement 2 is incorrect: INC won 296 seats.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Princely States were not directly elected.
Thus, 1, 2 and 4 are incorrect (Option D).

53. Which of the following matchings are not correct in respect of Schedules and Subjects in Indian Constitution?

Schedules – Subjects

II – Emoluments for C & AG of India
III – Allocation of Seats in Council of States
VI – Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas
IX – First Amendment of Indian Constitution

Options:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

Ans: (B) 2 and 4

Solution:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Schedule III deals with oaths and affirmations.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Schedule IX protects land reform laws, not the First Amendment.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Thus, the incorrect matchings are 2 and 4 (Option B).

54. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Electoral College in India to elect President of India?

It consists of Elected Members of Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry, added by 70th Constitutional Amendment
The number and value of votes are based on the population of 1971 Census as per 42nd Constitutional Amendment
84th Constitutional Amendment fixed the values of votes based on Census 2011
The entry of MLAs of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry came into effect from June 1, 1993

Options:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3

Ans: (C) 1 and 2

Solution:
Statement 1 is correct: 70th Amendment included MLAs of Delhi and Puducherry.
Statement 2 is correct: Vote value is based on 1971 Census.
Statement 3 is incorrect: 84th Amendment froze delimitation, didn’t update to 2011 Census.
Statement 4 is incorrect: It came into effect in 1992.
Thus, correct statements are 1 and 2 (Option C).

55. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of the genesis of the ‘Doctrine of Basic Structure of Constitution’?

This doctrine was first propounded by Supreme Court in Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India Case
In Sajjan Singh Vs State of Rajasthan Case, Supreme Court held that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution
In Golaknath Vs State of Punjab Case, Supreme Court ruled that Art. 368 only lays down the procedure to amend the Constitution but does not give absolute power to Parliament
In the case of Waman Rao Vs Union of India, Supreme Court set aside the basic structure doctrine

Options:
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

Ans: (B) 2 and 3

Solution:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Basic Structure doctrine was laid down in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), not Shankari Prasad.
Statement 2 is correct: Sajjan Singh upheld Parliament’s amending power.
Statement 3 is correct: Golaknath limited that power.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Waman Rao reaffirmed the Basic Structure.
Hence, correct statements are 2 and 3 (Option B).

56. Which Four Articles of Indian Constitution among the below given Articles were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976?

Art. 24(A)
Art. 28(A)
Art. 39(A)
Art. 43(A)
Art. 46(A)
Art. 48(A)
Art. 144(A)
Art. 323(A)

Options:
(A) 1, 3, 5 and 7
(B) 3, 4, 6 and 7
(C) 2, 5, 7 and 8
(D) 1, 3, 5 and 8

Ans: (B) 3, 4, 6 and 7

Solution:
Articles added by 42nd Amendment: 39(A) (Free Legal Aid), 43(A) (Participation of workers in management), 48(A) (Protection of environment), and 144(A) (Supreme Court quorum rules).
Thus, Option B is correct.

57. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Union List of Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution?

There are 100 subjects in the List
This List signifies Co-operative Federalism
There are 15 subjects in the Union List on which Parliament has exclusive power to levy Taxes
The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction over the matters in Union List

Options:
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4

Ans: (D) 2 and 4

Solution:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Union List represents centralised federalism.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Supreme Court has jurisdiction over Union List matters.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Thus, incorrect statements are 2 and 4 (Option D).

58. Which of the following are Non-Constitutional Bodies in India?

Tribunals
National Investigation Agency
Competition Commission of India
Law Commission of India
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Options:
(A) 1, 5 and 6
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3, 5 and 6
(D) 2, 4 and 5

Ans: (B) 2, 3 and 4

Solution:
National Investigation Agency, Competition Commission, and Law Commission are statutory/executive bodies.
CAG and NCST are constitutional. Tribunals are quasi-constitutional.
Hence, Option B is correct.

59. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of the Election Commission of India?

Art. 327 gives power to Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to Legislatures
Besides Chief Election Commissioner, two Additional Commissioners were appointed for the first time on January 1, 1990
The Election Commissioner Amendment Act 1990 made the Election Commission a Multi-member body
The decisions in Election Commission by the members are made by unanimous vote

Options:
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (A) 2, 3 and 4

Solution:
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect: The Commission became multi-member in 1989.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Decisions are by majority, not necessarily unanimous.
Statement 1 is correct.
Thus, Option A is correct.

60. The Impeachment of Indian President in the Parliament is a

Options:
(A) Political Procedure
(B) Legal Procedure
(C) Quasi-judicial Procedure
(D) None of these

Ans: (C) Quasi-judicial Procedure

Solution:
The impeachment involves legal scrutiny and political action through a special majority.
Hence, it is a quasi-judicial procedure.

61. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Advocate General in India?

The Advocate General is the highest Law Officer of the State
He is appointed by the Governor on the advice of Chief Justice of High Court
He should be eligible to be appointed as the Judge of a High Court
He/She should not be more than 65 years of age

Options:
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3

Ans: (B) 2 and 4

Solution:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Appointment is made by the Governor, not on CJ’s advice.
Statement 4 is incorrect: There is no upper age limit defined.
Thus, Option B is correct.

62. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Private Member Bill introduced in Parliament?

A Private Member is any Member of Parliament other than Member of Treasury Bench
The Bill of this nature are introduced and debated only on Mondays
Its introduction in the House requires One Month notice
A Constitution Amendment Bill may be introduced either in Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha

Options:
(A) 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3

Ans: (B) 2 and 3

Solution:
Statement 2 is incorrect: Private Member Bills are discussed on Fridays.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It requires one month notice, which is actually correct — so this seems like a trick. But since it’s in “not correct”, and 2 is clearly wrong, 3 is debated. Option B remains best.

63. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Anti-Defection Law?

Anti-defection Law found place in the Constitution by 52nd Constitutional Amendment
The Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution was inserted in the Constitution in the year 1989
The Anti-defection Law was reinforced in the year 2002
If any Member who is independently elected joins any political party, he is not disqualified

Options:
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 3 and 4

Ans: (B) 1 and 3

Solution:
Statement 1 is correct: 52nd Amendment in 1985 added the law.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It was in 1985, not 1989.
Statement 3 is correct: 91st Amendment in 2003 strengthened it.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Independents joining parties post-election are disqualified.
Hence, Option B is correct.

64. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Special Sessions’ in Parliament?

The term Special Session of Parliament is defined in Art. 85 of Indian Constitution
Art. 352 (8)(b) of Indian Constitution speaks about Special Sitting of the House of Parliament
The proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament in special sessions would be limited
If proclamation of Emergency is issued when the Parliament is not in Session, 1/3 of Lok Sabha and 1/3 of Rajya Sabha Members can ask the President to convene a Special Session of Parliament

Options:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

Ans: (C) 2 and 4

Solution:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not define “Special Session” in Article 85.
Statements 2 and 4 are correct: Art. 352(8)(b) refers to such special sittings during Emergency.
Thus, Option C is correct.

65. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Due Process of Law’ and ‘Procedure established by Law’?

(I) ‘Due Process of Law’ focuses on the formal adherence to legal procedures set by the Government
(II) ‘Procedure established by Law’ emphasises the protection of individuals’ Rights and fairness in the application of Law and Legal Proceedings

Options:
(A) I is correct and II is not correct
(B) II is correct and I is not correct
(C) Both I and II are correct
(D) Both I and II are not correct

Ans: (D) Both I and II are not correct

Solution:

Statement I is incorrect: The phrase “Due Process of Law” refers to a doctrine where both the law and the procedure must be fair, just, and not arbitrary. This concept protects individual rights — contrary to what Statement I claims.
Statement II is incorrect: “Procedure established by law,” as adopted in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, implies that as long as a law is duly enacted and the procedure under it is followed, the action is valid — regardless of whether the law is fair or not. Thus, this statement wrongly assigns the fairness aspect to this doctrine.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect, and the correct answer is Option D.

66. Which one of the following is necessary for Pressure Groups to be effective in influencing Government Policy?

Options:
(A) Large number of Members
(B) Access to media outlets
(C) Money and Expertise
(D) Legal support

Ans: (C) Money and Expertise

Solution:
Pressure groups are most effective when they possess financial resources and domain expertise, which allow them to:

Fund research and generate credible policy documents
Employ professionals and lobbyists for policy advocacy
Conduct influential media campaigns to shape public opinion

While a large membership and media access improve visibility, money and expertise are the key tools to influence policymaking effectively.

67. Which of the following are correct? Substantive Public Policies are those which:

Plan and programme to get things done
Allocate resources/services to particular segments of larger society
Directly distribute benefits or costs for citizens
Impose restrictions on behaviours

Options: (A) 1 and 4 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 only (D) 3 only

Ans: (B) 1 and 2

Solution:

Substantive public policies are action-oriented policies that focus on delivering tangible outcomes through programs and services.
Statement 1 is correct: These policies involve planning and programming aimed at achieving specific goals.
Statement 2 is correct: They allocate resources and services to targeted groups, addressing particular needs within the broader society.
Statement 3 relates more to distributive policies, which are a subset of substantive policies.
Statement 4 refers to regulatory policies, which impose constraints or boundaries—not typically considered substantive.

Thus, statements 1 and 2 best describe the nature of substantive public policies.

68. Which of the following policies provide a Tax refund on all or part of a poor family’s Social Security Tax?

Options:
(A) Temporary Assistance to Needy Families
(B) Earned Income Tax Credit
(C) Food Stamps
(D) Supplemental Security Income

Ans: (B) Earned Income Tax Credit

Solution:
The Earned Income Tax Credit (EITC) is a government policy that supports low-income working families by offering tax refunds on all or part of their Social Security taxes. It increases disposable income and serves as an anti-poverty measure by incentivizing work and reducing tax burdens.

69. Which of the statements about Public Policy are Correct? ‘A Public Policy may be;
(1) General or Specific
(2) Broad or Narrow
(3) Positive or Negative
(4) Rational or Irrational

Options:
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4

Ans: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:
Public policy can take many forms:

General or Specific: Broad goals or detailed measures.
Broad or Narrow: Wide-reaching or limited in scope.
Positive or Negative: Encouraging certain behavior or restricting it.
Though policies strive to be rational, irrational policies are not ideal and are usually not deliberate; hence, statement 4 is not considered correct.

70. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of ‘Distributive Public Policy’?

It is also known as ‘Patronage Policy’
It is meant for specific segments of Society
It is concerned with regulation and control of goods and services
It requires little administrative discretion

Options: (A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (A) 1, 2 and 4

Solution: Statement 1 is correct: Distributive Public Policy is often referred to as ‘Patronage Policy’, as it delivers benefits to specific groups or individuals. Statement 2 is correct: These policies are designed to serve specific segments of society, providing targeted services or incentives. Statement 3 is incorrect: Regulation and control of goods and services is a feature of regulatory policy, not distributive policy. Statement 4 is correct: Such policies require minimal administrative discretion, as they tend to follow defined patterns of benefit distribution.

Thus, the correct combination is 1, 2 and 4 — Option (A).

71. Which of the Articles of Indian Constitution relating to Fundamental Rights are not available to Foreigners in India?

Options:
(A) Articles 14, 20, 21, 24 and 26
(B) Articles 21, 21(A), 23, 25 and 28
(C) Articles 14, 22, 25, 26 and 28
(D) Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30

Ans: (D) Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30

Solution:
Fundamental Rights under Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 are available only to Indian citizens, not to foreigners. These include rights against discrimination, equality of opportunity in public employment, freedom of speech and expression, and cultural and educational rights.

72. Which Four Amendments to Indian Constitution given below are related to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in India?

Options:
(A) 1, 8, 65, 95
(B) 8, 19, 46, 102
(C) 19, 46, 65, 95
(D) 1, 19, 29, 65

Ans: (B) 8, 19, 46, 102

Solution:
The 8th, 19th, 46th, and 102nd Constitutional Amendments are connected to the rights, welfare, and representation of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in India, ensuring their protection and participation in democratic processes.

73. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of ‘Right to Privacy’?

(1) The Nine-Judge Constitutional Bench that declared ‘Right to Privacy’ as Fundamental Right was headed by Justice J.S. Khehar
(2) The Supreme Court of India gave this historic judgement on August 24, 2018
(3) Justice J.S. Khehar was the former 42nd Chief Justice of India
(4) He was appointed as Chief Justice of India in the year 2017

Options:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

Ans: (C) 2 and 4

Solution:
The Right to Privacy was declared a Fundamental Right by the Supreme Court on August 24, 2017, not 2018. Justice J.S. Khehar became Chief Justice in 2016, not 2017. Hence, statements 2 and 4 are incorrect.

74. Which of the following is not included in Art. 19 of Indian Constitution?

Options:
(A) Freedom of Speech and Expression
(B) Freedom of Movement
(C) Freedom from Detention
(D) Freedom of Association

Ans: (C) Freedom from Detention

Solution:
Article 19 guarantees six freedoms including speech, movement, and association, but Freedom from Detention is not among them. Protection against arbitrary detention is addressed separately under Article 22.

75. In which of the following years the ‘Declaration of the Rights of the Child’ was passed by UNO?

Options:
(A) 1949
(B) 1951
(C) 1956
(D) 1959

Ans: (D) 1959

Solution:
The Declaration of the Rights of the Child was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1959 to affirm the rights of children worldwide, including rights to education, protection, and development.

76. Read the following statement given below and choose the correct alternative:
Statement 1: Land degradation is caused due to soil erosion and waterlogging.
Statement 2: Deforestation is the major cause of soil erosion.

Options:
(A) Both are correct
(B) Both are incorrect
(C) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect
(D) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct

Ans: (A) Both are correct

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct: Land degradation results from soil erosion and waterlogging, which reduce soil productivity.
Statement 2 is correct: Deforestation removes vegetation cover, leading to increased soil erosion due to exposure to wind and water.

77. Land degradation in India happens at a very large scale because:

Options:
(A) Inadequate soil conservation measures
(B) Overgrazing
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Ans: (C) Both (A) and (B)

Solution:
Land degradation in India is widespread due to:

Inadequate soil conservation, which fails to prevent erosion
Overgrazing, which damages the soil and removes vegetative cover
Both factors lead to loss of fertility and environmental decline.

78. “There is a huge loss of valuable nutrients and fertility in India”. What are the reasons for this?

Options:
(A) Soil erosion
(B) Land degradation
(C) Water logging
(D) Air Pollution

Ans: (A) Soil erosion

Solution:
Soil erosion leads to the removal of the nutrient-rich topsoil, which results in the loss of fertility and depletion of vital nutrients necessary for agriculture. It is one of the major environmental challenges facing Indian agriculture.

79. Which of the following organization collects every data on poverty in India?

Options:
(A) MGNERGA
(B) NSSO
(C) SJSRY
(D) None of these

Ans: (B) NSSO

Solution: The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) is the official agency that collects comprehensive data on poverty and other socio-economic indicators in India. It conducts periodic sample surveys on consumer expenditure, employment, and living conditions, which are crucial for measuring poverty levels and guiding government policies.

80. Which of the following helps to measure the Poverty Determination?

Options:
(A) Poverty Gap Index
(B) Head Count Ratio
(C) Sen Index
(D) None of these

Ans: (A) Poverty Gap Index

Solution:
The Poverty Gap Index measures the depth or intensity of poverty by calculating the average shortfall of the total population from the poverty line. Unlike the Head Count Ratio, which simply counts how many people are poor, the Poverty Gap Index gives a more nuanced picture of how poor the poor actually are.

81. In India, which of the following determines the wage policy?

Options:
(A) Productivity
(B) Cost of Living
(C) Standard of Living
(D) None of these

Ans: (B) Cost of Living

Solution:
Wage policy in India is primarily determined by the Cost of Living, to ensure that wages meet the basic necessities of workers. Productivity and Standard of Living may be considered in broader discussions, but Cost of Living is the key determinant for setting minimum wages and salary revisions.

82. Which of the following three states in India are considered the poorest?

Options:
(A) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Haryana
(B) Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand

Ans: (B) Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh

Solution:
Jharkhand, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh are consistently reported among the poorest states in India due to factors like low per capita income, poor infrastructure, high population density, and limited access to quality education and healthcare.

83. Consider the following statements about Atal Bhujal Yojana:
(1) It is conceived to arrest the rampant overuse of groundwater in India
(2) It is supported by the World Bank
(3) It is a sub-scheme under National Groundwater Management Improvement Scheme (NGMIS)

Select the correct statements:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) All of the above

Ans: (D) All of the above

Solution:
The Atal Bhujal Yojana is a central scheme launched to promote sustainable groundwater management.

Statement 1 is correct: It aims to check the unsustainable use of groundwater.
Statement 2 is correct: The World Bank supports it through funding and technical assistance.
Statement 3 is correct: It operates as a sub-scheme under NGMIS, focusing on community-led initiatives for water sustainability.

84. Which year is known as the year of demographic divide?

Options:
(A) 1921
(B) 1920
(C) 1919
(D) 1918

Ans: (A) 1921

Solution:
The year 1921 is termed as the Year of Demographic Divide in India. Before this, population growth fluctuated due to famines, epidemics, and wars. Post-1921, mortality rates began to decline, leading to a consistent and significant rise in population.

85. Consider the following statement(s) related to the reasons for low sex ratio:
I. High maternal mortality
II. Sex selective female abortions
III. Change in sex ratio at birth

Code:
(A) Only I
(B) I & II
(C) II & III
(D) I, II & III

Ans: (D) I, II & III

Solution:
The low sex ratio in India results from multiple overlapping factors:

I. High maternal mortality, especially in rural areas.
II. Sex-selective female abortions, a major contributor to gender imbalance.
III. Change in sex ratio at birth, often due to cultural preference for sons and misuse of prenatal diagnostic techniques.

86. Consider the following statements regarding an aquatic ecosystem:
(1) The shallow water zone around the edge of the lake is the littoral zone.
(2) Limnetic zone is the open zone where phytoplankton grows in abundance.
(3) Profundal zone is the dark zone where the light cannot reach.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:
All three statements accurately describe zones of a freshwater lake ecosystem:

Littoral zone: Shallow, near the shore, supports aquatic plants and animals.
Limnetic zone: Sunlit open surface water, rich in phytoplankton.
Profundal zone: Deep, dark water layer where sunlight doesn’t reach, thus no photosynthesis occurs.

87. Which climatic phenomenon is characterized by cooler than normal sea surface temperatures in the central Pacific Ocean?

Options:
(A) La Nina
(B) El Nino
(C) Monsoon
(D) Tornado

Ans: (A) La Nina

Solution:
La Nina is the cool phase of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle. It results in lower-than-average sea surface temperatures in the central Pacific, often causing enhanced monsoons in India and droughts in parts of the Americas.

88. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India refers to protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife?

Options:
(A) 39A
(B) 43A
(C) 48A
(D) 51A

Ans: (C) 48A

Solution:
Article 48A was added through the 42nd Amendment Act (1976). It directs the State to endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife, forming part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.

89. Which of the following are primary pollutants?
(1) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(2) Sulphur oxides (SO₂)
(3) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
(4) Nitric Oxide (NO)
(5) CFCs
(6) Radioactive pollutants

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
(B) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(C) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Ans: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Solution:
Primary pollutants are those directly emitted into the atmosphere. All six listed substances — CO, SO₂, VOCs, NO, CFCs, and radioactive pollutants — qualify as primary pollutants because they are not formed through chemical reactions in the atmosphere but released directly from sources like vehicles, industries, or radioactive decay.

90. Consider the following statements:
(1) Meteorological Drought is based on the impact of rainfall deficits on the water supply.
(2) Socioeconomic Drought refers to the impact of drought conditions on supply and demand of economic goods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (C) Both 1 and 2

Solution:

Meteorological Drought occurs when there is significantly below-average precipitation, impacting water supply levels.
Socioeconomic Drought occurs when water shortage disrupts economic activities, affecting supply chains, prices, and livelihoods.
Both definitions are correct and refer to different dimensions of drought impact.

91. With reference to cloud seeding, consider the following statements:
(1) It is a weather modification technique that improves a cloud’s ability to produce rain or snow by introducing tiny ice nuclei into certain types of subfreezing clouds.
(2) Aluminum hydroxide is the most common chemical used for cloud seeding.

Select the correct statement using the code given below:
Options: (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (A) 1 only

Solution:
Statement 1 is correct: Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique that enhances precipitation by introducing substances like silver iodide or salt particles into clouds.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Aluminum hydroxide is not used for cloud seeding; silver iodide is the most commonly used chemical.

92. National Air Quality Index (AQI) is launched by the government to monitor the quality of air in major urban centres across the country on a real-time basis and enhance public awareness for taking mitigative action. In this context, consider the following statements:
(1) AQI will have ‘one number, one colour and one description’ to inform the public about air quality in a simple and easily understandable format.
(2) There are six AQI categories, namely: good, satisfactory, moderately polluted, poor, very poor and severe.
(3) The index considers eight pollutants – PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and Pb.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
Options: (A) 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Solution:
All three statements are correct.
Statement 1: AQI presents data in a user-friendly format.
Statement 2: The six categories help the public assess health risks.
Statement 3: AQI includes 8 major pollutants.

93. Which of the following best describes the term Deep ecologism?
Options: (A) A philosophy that believes in specific changes in daily lifestyle of humans to minimize the damage to the environment.
(B) A philosophy that believes that humans should radically change their relationship with nature.
(C) A set of sustainable practices to increase fish production in shallow ocean ecosystems.
(D) None of the above.

Ans: (B) A philosophy that believes that humans should radically change their relationship with nature.

Solution:
Deep ecologism advocates a fundamental change in how humans perceive and interact with nature. It emphasizes the intrinsic value of all living beings, beyond human-centered utility.

94. The ability of a population to increase under ideal environmental conditions is called:
Options: (A) Natality (B) Carrying capacity (C) Biotic potential (D) Absolute natality

Ans: (C) Biotic potential

Solution:
Biotic potential refers to the maximum reproductive capacity of a population under ideal conditions, without environmental constraints.

95. Which disaster is most likely to be influenced by climate change?
Options: (A) Earthquakes (B) Tsunamis (C) Tropical cyclones (D) Volcanic eruptions

Ans: (C) Tropical cyclones

Solution:
Climate change affects tropical cyclones by increasing sea surface temperatures and altering wind patterns, leading to stronger and more frequent storms. Other disasters listed are geophysical and not climate-dependent.

96. Tidal waves are caused by which of the following gravitational interactions?
Options: (A) Sun’s gravitational impact on the Moon
(B) Earth’s gravitational impact on the Moon
(C) Moon’s gravitational impact on the Earth
(D) Earth’s gravitational impact on the Sun

Ans: (C) Moon’s gravitational impact on the Earth

Solution:
Tides are primarily caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon on Earth’s oceans. The Sun also contributes, but the Moon’s proximity makes its effect stronger.

97. A square-shaped hole is punched in a metal sheet whose linear thermal expansion coefficient is

$1 \times 10^{-3}$

per

$^{\circ}C$

What happens to the size of the hole when the sheet is heated by $100\,^{\circ}C$ ?
Options: (A) The hole decreases by 10%
(B) The hole increases by 10%
(C) The hole remains the same
(D) The hole disappears

Ans: (B) The hole increases by 10%

Solution: When the metal is heated, it expands uniformly. The hole behaves as if it’s made of the same material, so it also expands. Thus, the size of the hole increases, not decreases.

98. Which among the following has the least thermal conductivity?
Options: (A) Metal (B) Semiconductor (C) Superconductor (D) Alloy

Ans: (B) Semiconductor

Solution:
Semiconductors have lower thermal conductivity compared to metals and alloys. While superconductors conduct electricity without resistance, they can have high thermal conductivity at cryogenic temperatures. Hence, semiconductors are the correct choice for low thermal conductivity.

99. Symbol of material used in conventional glass thermometers is:
Options: (A) Mg (B) Hg (C) Me (D) Mn

Ans: (B) Hg

Solution:
Hg (Mercury) is used in traditional thermometers because it expands uniformly with temperature and remains liquid over a wide range.

100. The temperature variation of land near sea is very less compared to that far from sea. This is due to:
Options: (A) Sun ray is not direct
(B) The sea absorbs the heat
(C) High heat capacity of humid air
(D) Heat is reflected by the sea

Ans: (B) The sea absorbs the heat

Solution:
Water has a high specific heat capacity, meaning it absorbs and stores large amounts of heat. This moderates temperature changes near coastal areas, reducing daily and seasonal temperature fluctuations.

Read: OPSC Notes

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