Q1. In which place police blinded the prisoners recently ?
(a) Bijapur
(b) Bhagalpur
(c) Bidar
(d) Berampur
Answer: (b) Bhagalpur
Explanation:
The incident of police blinding prisoners occurred in Bhagalpur, Bihar, during the early 1980s. It involved the use of acid or needles to damage the eyes of undertrial prisoners, leading to permanent blindness. This case became a symbol of custodial violence and triggered widespread legal and human rights reforms across India.
Q2. Who wrote Vande Mataram ?
(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Bankim Chandra Chatterjeea
Answer: (d) Bankim Chandra Chatterjeea
Explanation:
Bankim Chandra Chatterjeea wrote Vande Mataram, which was later adopted as the national song of India. It first appeared in his novel Anandamath and became a powerful symbol of patriotism during the freedom struggle. The song’s spiritual and nationalistic tone inspired many revolutionaries and continues to hold cultural significance.
Q3. President’s rule came to end at the end of 1980 in the State of
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Assam
(d) Maharashtra
Answer: (c) Assam
Explanation:
President’s Rule in Assam ended in 1980, restoring democratic governance after a period of political instability. The central government had imposed direct rule due to law and order concerns, and its withdrawal marked a return to elected leadership in the state.
Q4. What is the main cause for the recent workers strike in Poland ?
(a) Interference in the internal affairs of the country by Russians
(b) Demand for changing the constitution
(c) Demand for higher wages and bonus by the workers
(d) Demand for formation of independent trade unions and workers’ right to strike
Answer: (d) Demand for formation of independent trade unions and workers’ right to strike
Explanation:
The strike in Poland was driven by workers demanding independent trade unions and the right to strike, challenging the state-controlled labor system. This movement led to the rise of Solidarity, a pivotal force in Poland’s political transformation and resistance to authoritarian rule.
Q5. The Constitution of India was actually ready in
(a) 1947
(b) 1949
(c) 1950
(d) 1952
Answer: (b) 1949
Explanation:
The Constitution of India was completed on 26th November 1949, though it came into effect on 26th January 1950. This marked the formal adoption of a sovereign legal framework, replacing colonial laws and laying the foundation for democratic governance.
Q6. Who received the 1980 Nobel Peace Prize ?
(a) Jimmy Carter
(b) Mother Teresa
(c) Czeslaw Milosz
(d) Adolfo Perez Esquivel
Answer: (d) Adolfo Perez Esquivel
Explanation:
Adolfo Perez Esquivel, an Argentine activist, received the 1980 Nobel Peace Prize for his non-violent advocacy of human rights in Latin America. His work opposed military dictatorship and emphasized peaceful resistance against oppression.
Q7. Put the following mass communication media in the sequence in which they came to India ?
- Radio
- Television
- Films
- Printing
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 1, 4, 3, 2
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 4, 3, 1, 2
Answer: (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
Explanation:
The correct sequence is Printing, Films, Radio, and Television. Printing arrived during the colonial era, followed by films in the early 20th century. Radio broadcasting began in the 1920s, and television was introduced in the 1950s, making it the most recent medium.
Q8. Which Asian country had bloodless coup in 1960 ?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Turkey
(c) Iraq
(d) Iran
Answer: (b) Turkey
Explanation:
In 1960, Turkey experienced a bloodless coup led by military officers who ousted the civilian government. The coup was executed without widespread violence and aimed to restore constitutional order amid growing political unrest.
Q9. Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) Bhaskara and Aryabhata were put into orbit from a Chinese cosmodrome
(b) Bhaskara and Aryabhata were put into orbit from a French cosmodrome
(c) Rohini II is going to be launched from Mocow
(d) Rohini, the third Indian satellite, was launched from Sriharikota
Answer: (d) Rohini, the third Indian satellite, was launched from Sriharikota
Explanation:
Rohini, the third Indian satellite, was launched from Sriharikota, India’s primary space launch center. This marked a significant step in ISRO’s indigenous space program, showcasing India’s growing capability in satellite deployment.
Q10. Which of the two states merged into one recently ?
(a) Syria and Libya
(b) Libya and Israel
(c) Lebanon and Syria
(d) Egypt and Chad
Answer: Not available
Explanation:
The correct answer is not provided in the official key. Without verified records, the merger of any two states listed remains uncertain. This question may refer to a proposed or symbolic union rather than a formal political merger.
Q11. What is the new name of Rhodesia ?
(a) Zimbabwe
(b) Zambia
(c) Namibia
(d) Kampuchea
Answer: (a) Zimbabwe
Explanation:
Rhodesia was renamed Zimbabwe in 1980 following its independence from British colonial rule. The name change marked the end of white minority governance and the beginning of majority rule under Robert Mugabe.
Q12. What is the cause for Iran-Iraq conflict ?
(a) Iraq’s claim over the oil territories of Iran
(b) Dispute regarding the Shatt-el-Arab waterways
(c) Demand of the Kurds for a separate state
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Dispute regarding the Shatt-el-Arab waterways
Explanation:
The Iran-Iraq conflict was primarily triggered by a territorial dispute over the Shatt-el-Arab waterway, a vital channel for oil exports. Both nations claimed control, leading to escalating tensions and eventually a full-scale war in 1980.
Q13. Who among the following is the recipient of UN Peace Medal ?
(a) M. C. Modi
(b) Mother Teresa
(c) Anwar Sadat
(d) Ronald Regan
Answer: (a) M. C. Modi
Explanation:
M. C. Modi, a renowned Indian ophthalmologist, received the UN Peace Medal in recognition of his humanitarian work, especially in the field of eye care. His contributions to public health were seen as promoting peace through service.
Q14. Jean Paul Sartre, who died in 1980, is famous for
(a) Socialism
(b) Communism
(c) Revisionism
(d) Existentialism
Answer: (d) Existentialism
Explanation:
Jean Paul Sartre was a leading figure in existentialist philosophy, emphasizing individual freedom, choice, and responsibility. His works challenged traditional norms and inspired generations of thinkers and writers.
Q15. Recently Indian Government has taken over which of the following spiritual institutions ?
(a) Paunar Ashram
(b) Rishikesh Ashram
(c) Auroville Pondicherry
(d) Rajneesh Ashram
Answer: (c) Auroville Pondicherry
Explanation:
The Indian government took over Auroville, a spiritual township in Pondicherry, to ensure its administration aligned with national interests. The move was aimed at preserving its international character and spiritual mission.
Q16. Who among the following represented India as captain in the Olympic hockey ?
(a) Claudius
(b) K. D. Singh
(c) Dhyan Chand
(d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these
Explanation:
Claudius, K. D. Singh, and Dhyan Chand all served as captains of the Indian Olympic hockey team at different times. Each contributed significantly to India’s gold medal victories, establishing India as a dominant force in international hockey.
Q17. It takes 11 seconds for the light to reach the earth from moon and 8 minutes from the sun. How much time will it take from the nearest bright star to reach the earth?
(a) 4.5 minutes
(b) 45 minutes
(c) 45 months
(d) 4.3 light years
Answer: (d) 4.3 light years
Explanation:
The nearest bright star to Earth is Alpha Centauri, and light from it takes approximately 4.3 light years to reach us. This means light travels for 4.3 years before becoming visible on Earth, highlighting the vast distances in space.
Q18. U.S.A. found rings around which planet ?
(a) Venus
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Pluto
Answer: (b) Jupiter
Explanation:
The USA’s space missions discovered rings around Jupiter, which were previously unknown. Though not as prominent as Saturn’s, Jupiter’s rings are composed of dust particles and were detected using space probes like Voyager.
Q19. Who won the Wimbledon Table Tennis Championship five times in a row?
(a) John McEnroe
(b) Jimmy Connors
(c) Bjorn Borg
(d) Prakash Padukone
Answer: (c) Bjorn Borg
Explanation:
Though the question mentions Table Tennis, the correct context is Wimbledon Tennis, where Bjorn Borg won the Men’s Singles title five times consecutively from 1976 to 1980, showcasing his dominance on grass courts.
Q20. U.S.S.R. stands for
(a) Union of Secular Socialist Republics
(b) Union of Sovereign Socialist Republics
(c) Union of Soviet Secular Republics
(d) Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
Answer: (d) Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
Explanation:
U.S.S.R. stands for Union of Soviet Socialist Republics, a federation of multiple republics under a communist regime. It existed from 1922 to 1991 and was a major global power during the Cold War era.
Q21. Which famous judgement restricted the authority of the Parliament to amend the Constitution so as to damage or destroy its basic or essential features or its basic structure ?
(a) Golaknath case
(b) Balananda Saraswati case
(c) Minerva Mills Ltd. and others case
(d) Keshvanand Bharti case
Answer: (a) Golaknath case
Explanation:
The Golaknath case (1967) was a landmark judgment where the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights under Article 368. This decision laid the foundation for the basic structure doctrine, which was later reinforced in the Keshavananda Bharati case, ensuring that the core principles of the Constitution remain inviolable.
Q22. Which of the following High Courts covers more than one State/Union Territories?
(a) Delhi
(b) Allahabad
(c) Gauhati
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Gauhati
Explanation:
The Gauhati High Court has jurisdiction over multiple states in the Northeast region, including Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, and Arunachal Pradesh. It is unique in its multi-state coverage, ensuring judicial access across diverse territories.
Q23. What is the function of the Small Farmers Development Agency ?
(a) To arrange credit through institutional source
(b) To draw up suitable programme for improved agriculture and subsidiary occupations
(c) Development of rural artisans and rural industries
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
The Small Farmers Development Agency (SFDA) was established to support marginal and small farmers by providing credit, promoting agricultural improvements, and encouraging rural industries. Its integrated approach aimed at uplifting rural livelihoods.
Q24. What is the shortest route from Moscow to San Francisco ?
(a) Moscow to Europe; crossing Atlantic and East coast of North America
(b) Over the North pole and over Canada and crossing Pacific
(c) Moscow to Siberia to Japan and crossing Pacific
(d) Moscow to Europe to Greenland; crossing Atlantic and then North America
Answer: (a) Moscow to Europe; crossing Atlantic and East coast of North America
Explanation:
The shortest air route from Moscow to San Francisco typically involves flying westward over Europe, crossing the Atlantic Ocean, and entering North America via the East Coast, due to the great circle route principle in aviation.
Q25. What is the best way of increasing agricultural output in India ?
(a) By using more fertilisers
(b) By using more water
(c) By increasing the area under cultivation
(d) By using better seeds, requisite amount of fertilisers and modern technology
Answer: (d) By using better seeds, requisite amount of fertilisers and modern technology
Explanation:
The most effective method to boost agricultural productivity in India is through modern inputs like high-yielding seeds, balanced fertilisation, and advanced technology. This approach was central to the Green Revolution, which transformed Indian agriculture.
Q26. Why the main oil refineries in India are situated near seaports ?
(a) Because India needs much crude oil which is mostly imported
(b) Because most of the crude oil is exported to other countries
(c) Because sea water is required for refining crude oil
(d) Because petrol is available near sea ports
Answer: (a) Because India needs much crude oil which is mostly imported
Explanation:
India imports a significant portion of its crude oil, so refineries are located near seaports to facilitate easy unloading and transportation. This reduces logistics costs and ensures efficient processing of imported oil.
Q27. Put the following political leaders in serial order in which they ruled Afghanistan
- Karmal
- Daoud
- Taraki
- Amin
(a) 2, 4, 3, 1
(b) 1, 3, 4, 2
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1
Answer: (d) 2, 3, 4, 1
Explanation:
The correct chronological order of Afghan leaders is: Daoud, followed by Taraki, then Amin, and finally Karmal. This sequence reflects the political transitions during a period of instability and Soviet influence in Afghanistan.
Q28. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) 1951-56 First Five-Year Plan
(b) 1956-61 Second Five-Year Plan
(c) 1961-66 Third Five-Year Plan
(d) 1966-71 Fourth Five-Year Plan
Answer: (d) 1966-71 Fourth Five-Year Plan
Explanation:
The Fourth Five-Year Plan was actually implemented from 1969 to 1974, not 1966 to 1971. The period between 1966 and 1969 was covered by annual plans due to economic instability and drought conditions.
Q29. Mixed economy means
(a) Co-existence of private and public sectors
(b) Co-existence of small and large scale industries
(c) Industries completely owned by the Government
(d) Control of means of production by the Government
Answer: (a) Co-existence of private and public sectors
Explanation:
A mixed economy combines elements of both capitalism and socialism, allowing private enterprises to operate alongside government-owned sectors. India adopted this model to balance economic growth with social welfare.
Q30. Panchayati Raj System was introduced in the year
(a) 1948
(b) 1959
(c) 1951
(d) 1952
Answer: (b) 1959
Explanation:
The Panchayati Raj System was formally introduced in 1959, following the recommendations of the Balwantrai Mehta Committee. It aimed to decentralize governance and empower local self-government institutions across rural India.
Q31. ‘Grants-in-aid’ is given to the States for
(a) Improving the Centre-State relationship
(b) Reducing regional imbalances
(c) Improving the development of backward areas
(d) Various development schemes and rehabilitation purposes
Answer: (c) Improving the development of backward areas
Explanation:
Grants-in-aid are financial allocations provided by the Central Government to States, especially for the development of backward regions. These funds aim to reduce regional disparities, support targeted schemes, and promote inclusive growth.
Q32. What is the trade policy of India ?
(a) Exports promotion and Import substitution
(b) Export oriented
(c) Import oriented
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Exports promotion and Import substitution
Explanation:
India’s trade policy emphasizes export promotion to earn foreign exchange and import substitution to reduce dependency on foreign goods. This dual approach supports self-reliance and strengthens the domestic industrial base.
Q33. Which of the following States is landlocked ?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) West Bengal
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Bihar
Answer: (d) Bihar
Explanation:
Bihar is a landlocked state, meaning it does not have a coastline. Unlike Maharashtra, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh, which have access to the sea, Bihar is surrounded by other states and relies on inland transport.
Q34. The dispute regarding the election of Prime Minister and President of India can be decided by
(a) High Court
(b) Election Tribunal
(c) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d) None of the above
Explanation:
Disputes related to the election of the Prime Minister and President are adjudicated by the Supreme Court of India, not by the High Court or Election Tribunal. This ensures constitutional authority and finality in judgment.
Q35. Why U.S.S.R. have many local time differences?
(a) Because of long east-west stretches
(b) Because north-south stretch is more
(c) Because it covers two continents
(d) Because of large differences in climate
Answer: (a) Because of long east-west stretches
Explanation:
The U.S.S.R. spanned a vast east-west geographical area, resulting in multiple time zones. This longitudinal spread necessitated local time differences to align with solar time across regions.
Q36. Rajya Sabha is dissolved once in
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 6 years
(d) It is never dissolved
Answer: (d) It is never dissolved
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha, or Council of States, is a permanent body and is never dissolved. However, one-third of its members retire every two years, ensuring continuity and renewal.
Q37. The Russian leader Leonid Brezhnev and Indira Gandhi had discussions in December 1980. Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) Condemning of U.S.S.R. intervention in Afghanistan
(b) Condemning of Sino-American relationship
(c) Transforming Indian Ocean as a peace zone
(d) Change in policy towards West Asia
Answer: (c) Transforming Indian Ocean as a peace zone
Explanation:
During the 1980 discussions, both leaders emphasized the importance of peace in the Indian Ocean region, advocating for it to be a zone of peace free from military conflict and foreign intervention.
Q38. U.S.A. boycotted Moscow Olympic Games because
(a) These were held in Moscow
(b) Of Soviet military intervention in Afghanistan
(c) Of internal crisis in America
(d) U.S.S.R. did not invite U.S.A.
Answer: (b) Of Soviet military intervention in Afghanistan
Explanation:
The USA boycotted the 1980 Moscow Olympics in protest against the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan. This action was part of a broader diplomatic and political response to Soviet aggression during the Cold War.
Q39. Recently which country wanted Diego Garcia back ?
(a) Madagascar
(b) Mauritius
(c) South Korea
(d) South Africa
Answer: (b) Mauritius
Explanation:
Mauritius has long claimed Diego Garcia, a strategically important island currently under British control and leased to the USA for military use. The demand reflects territorial sovereignty concerns.
Q40. The first month of the Saka era is
(a) Chaitra
(b) Vaishakha
(c) Phalguna
(d) Pausha
Answer: (a) Chaitra
Explanation:
The Saka era, used in the Indian national calendar, begins with the month of Chaitra, which typically starts in March. It aligns with the solar cycle and is used for official and cultural purposes.
Q41. Which film was adjudged the best feature film for 1980 ?
(a) Shodh
(b) Ankur
(c) Mrigaya
(d) Aakaler Sandhane
Answer: (d) Aakaler Sandhane
Explanation:
Aakaler Sandhane, directed by Mrinal Sen, was awarded the Best Feature Film for 1980. The film explores the Bengal famine of 1943 and its impact on rural life, blending historical narrative with contemporary social critique. Its realistic portrayal and cinematic depth earned it national recognition.
Q42. Who got the 1980 Nehru Award for International Understanding ?
(a) Nelson Mandela
(b) Barbara Ward
(c) Kenneth Kaunda
(d) Zhao Ziyang
Answer: (b) Barbara Ward
Explanation:
Barbara Ward, a British economist and writer, received the 1980 Nehru Award for her contributions to international understanding, particularly in the areas of global development, poverty alleviation, and environmental sustainability. Her work emphasized ethical responsibility in global economics.
Q43. Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) Reagan promised to lower defence budget
(b) Reagan promised higher taxes
(c) Reagan’s victory can be compared with the landslide victory of President Roosevelt
(d) Reagan was awarded Nobel Peace prize in 1980
Answer: (c) Reagan’s victory can be compared with the landslide victory of President Roosevelt
Explanation:
Ronald Reagan’s electoral victory in 1980 was a landslide, similar in scale to Franklin D. Roosevelt’s historic win. Reagan’s campaign focused on economic revival, strong national defense, and conservative values, leading to widespread support across the U.S.
Q44. Who succeeded Mao Tse-tung ?
(a) Zhao Ziyang
(b) Deng Xiaoping
(c) Huang Hua
(d) Hau Guo-feng
Answer: (d) Hau Guo-feng
Explanation:
After Mao Tse-tung’s death in 1976, Hau Guo-feng became the Chairman of the Communist Party of China. Though he held power briefly, the real influence shifted to Deng Xiaoping, who led China’s economic reforms and modernization efforts.
Q45. Total solar eclipse was observed in February 1980 in India at
(a) Delhi
(b) Puri
(c) Bombay
(d) Calcutta
Answer: (b) Puri
Explanation:
The total solar eclipse of February 1980 was best observed from Puri, a coastal town in Odisha. The location offered clear visibility of the celestial event, attracting scientists and enthusiasts for astronomical observation.
Q46. What is the main purpose of the International Development Association ?
(a) To make loans on more flexible terms for important development projects in underdeveloped countries
(b) To make loans on more flexible terms for important development projects in developed countries
(c) To participate in development of irrigation projects in developing countries
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) To make loans on more flexible terms for important development projects in underdeveloped countries
Explanation:
The International Development Association (IDA) is a part of the World Bank Group, providing low-interest or interest-free loans to underdeveloped countries. Its goal is to support poverty reduction and economic development through flexible financial assistance.
Q47. What is land ceiling ?
(a) To fix a land area for irrigation purposes
(b) To fix rural land holdings at the existing level
(c) To fix urban land holdings at the existing level
(d) To fix the quantum of land held by a family
Answer: (d) To fix the quantum of land held by a family
Explanation:
Land ceiling refers to the legal limit on the amount of land a family or individual can own. It was introduced to prevent concentration of land, promote equitable distribution, and support land reforms in India.
Q48. Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in
(a) Part I of the Constitution
(b) Part II of the Constitution
(c) Part III of the Constitution
(d) Part IV of the Constitution
Answer: (d) Part IV of the Constitution
Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. They guide the legislature and executive in framing laws and policies aimed at achieving social and economic justice.
Q49. China has which type of Parliamentary System ?
(a) One party
(b) Two-party
(c) Multi-party
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) One party
Explanation:
China follows a one-party system, dominated by the Communist Party of China (CPC). All major decisions are made within the party structure, and political pluralism is not permitted under its governance model.
Q50. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights ?
(a) 36th Amendment
(b) 38th Amendment
(c) 40th Amendment
(d) 42nd Amendment
Answer: (d) 42nd Amendment
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights, especially in matters relating to economic and social welfare. It was part of a broader effort to strengthen the role of the state in achieving constitutional goals.
Q51. The average rate of increase of per capita income in 1978-79 was
(a) 4%
(b) 4.7%
(c) 6%
(d) 5.1%
Answer: (d) 5.1%
Explanation:
In 1978–79, India recorded an average per capita income growth rate of 5.1%, reflecting modest economic progress. This figure indicates the average increase in income per person, factoring in population growth and national income trends.
Q52. Which number will continue the following series? 27, 25, 25, 22, 23, 19, 21, 16, 19, –
(a) 16
(b) 13
(c) 10
(d) 11
Answer: (b) 13
Explanation:
The series alternates between subtracting 2 and 3:
27 (–2) → 25, (–0) → 25, (–3) → 22, (+1) → 23, (–4) → 19, (+2) → 21, (–5) → 16, (+3) → 19, (–6) → 13.
This pattern of alternating subtraction and addition with increasing magnitude leads to the next number being 13.
Q53. Which number will continue the following series? 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, 48, 63, 80, –
(a) 92
(b) 99
(c) 91
(d) 87
Answer: (b) 99
Explanation:
The differences between terms are:
+5, +7, +9, +11, +13, +15, +17, +19 → next difference is +21
So, 80 + 19 = 99
The series follows a pattern of increasing odd numbers added successively.
Q54. If SYSTEM is written as SYSMET and NEARER is written as AENRER, then FRACTION will be coded as
(a) Carfnoit
(b) Carftion
(c) Noitfrac
(d) Fracnoit
Answer: (a) Carfnoit
Explanation:
The coding rearranges the letters by reversing and interchanging segments.
FRACTION → Rearranged as CARFNOIT, matching the pattern seen in NEARER → AENRER.
This involves segment shifting and partial reversal, producing Carfnoit.
Q55. In a hydraulic device as shown in the figure how much weight should be put on the piston A to balance the level of water when a weight of 40 gm is put on the piston B?
(a) 10 g
(b) 5 g
(c) 20 g
(d) 40 g
Answer: (a) 10 g
Explanation:
Using Pascal’s principle, pressure is equal across both pistons:
Pressure = Force/Area →
If piston B has 2 cm² area and 40 g weight, piston A with 4 cm² area needs only 10 g to balance.
This shows inverse proportionality between area and required force.
Q56. To check a thermometer, the boiling point of water should be recorded as shown in the figure
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer: (a) A
Explanation:
To verify a thermometer, the boiling point of water should be measured with the bulb fully immersed and not touching the container, as shown in position A. This ensures accurate temperature reading without external interference.
Q57. The temperature of two different months May and June is given for four different towns A, B, C and D. Which figure shows maximum deviation in the temperature?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer: (b) B
Explanation:
Town B shows the greatest difference between May and June temperatures, indicating maximum deviation. This reflects climatic variability or seasonal transition in that location.
Q58. In the given figure, area of the shaded square is A. All the horizontal and vertical lines meet at 90°. All horizontal lines are of equal length. What is the area of the whole figure?
(a) 13 A
(b) 12 A
(c) 24 A
(d) 13 A²
Answer: (a) 13 A
Explanation:
The figure consists of 13 equal squares, each of area A, arranged in a grid.
So, total area = 13 × A = 13 A.
This is a direct multiplication based on uniform square units.
Q59. How many nuclear power plants are there in India now?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 9
(d) 13
Answer: (b) 4
Explanation:
As of 1981, India had 4 operational nuclear power plants, including Tarapur, Rajasthan, Kalpakkam, and Narora. These facilities were part of India’s early efforts in nuclear energy development.
Q60. What is the main objective of the Rural Development Programme?
(a) To provide roads in the rural areas
(b) To meet the growing and complex needs of rural people
(c) To assist the poorest among the poor in rural areas in employment
(d) To bring about overall development of rural India covering resources and cultural and economic aspects of the community life
Answer: (d) To bring about overall development of rural India covering resources and cultural and economic aspects of the community life
Explanation:
The Rural Development Programme aims for holistic upliftment of rural areas, addressing economic, cultural, and resource-based needs. It includes infrastructure, employment, education, and community empowerment, ensuring sustainable development.
Q61. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Fossil I is heavier than fossil II
(b) Fossil II is heavier than fossil I
(c) Fossil I is older than fossil II
(d) Fossil II is older than fossil I
Answer: (d) Fossil II is older than fossil I
Explanation:
The age of fossils is determined by their stratigraphic position—fossils found in deeper layers are generally older. If Fossil II is located beneath Fossil I, it indicates that Fossil II is older, following the principle of superposition in geology.
Q62. What was the main aim of Bearer Bonds Scheme ?
(a) To mop up black money
(b) To enable the black money holders to invest for rural reconstruction programme
(c) To enable the public to deposit money with the government for development work
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) To mop up black money
Explanation:
The Bearer Bonds Scheme was introduced to absorb black money into the formal economy. It allowed individuals to invest undisclosed income without revealing identity, thereby helping the government mobilize funds for development while addressing tax evasion.
Q63. What does secularism mean ?
(a) State patronising all religions
(b) State having its own religion
(c) State having no official religion and citizens are free to follow any religion or faith
(d) State having one official religion and showing respect to all other religions
Answer: (c) State having no official religion and citizens are free to follow any religion or faith
Explanation:
In the Indian context, secularism means the state does not endorse any religion and ensures freedom of faith for all citizens. It promotes religious neutrality and equal treatment of all religions under the law.
Q64. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to property
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) Right to freedom of speech and expression
Answer: (b) Right to property
Explanation:
The Right to Property was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 31 but was removed by the 44th Amendment Act (1978). It is now a legal right under Article 300A, unlike the other options which remain Fundamental Rights.
Q65. There are mice in the field which act as prey to snakes. Hawks eat the snakes. Some dogs are brought into the field. What will be its effect?
(a) Mice will decrease
(b) Hawks will decrease
(c) Snakes will increase
(d) Mice and snakes will decrease
Answer: (d) Mice and snakes will decrease
Explanation:
Dogs may hunt or disturb snakes, reducing their population. With fewer snakes, mice might increase, but dogs may also chase or kill mice, leading to a decline in both. This reflects a disruption in the food chain due to the introduction of a new predator.
Q66. A new temperature scale has been Revised according to which water freezes at 40° X. (Xelsius) and boils at 240° X. The relationship between Xelsius and Celsius scale is best expressed by the graph
(a) i
(b) ii
(c) iii
(d) iv
Answer: (b) ii
Explanation:
The Xelsius scale sets freezing at 40° X and boiling at 240° X, which corresponds to 0°C and 100°C respectively. This implies a linear relationship, and the correct graph would show a straight line with positive slope, as in option ii.
Q67. On the above scale, the average body temperature of 98.4º F will be equivalent to
(a) 77° X
(b) 113.8° X
(c) 128.6° X
(d) 154.4° X
Answer: (b) 113.8° X
Explanation:
Using the conversion formula from Fahrenheit to Celsius, 98.4°F ≈ 36.9°C. Applying the Xelsius scale conversion:
X = (36.9 × 2) + 40 = 113.8° X
This reflects the linear transformation between Celsius and Xelsius.
Q68. A and B can do a piece of work in 4 days. If A can do it alone in 12 days, how much time B will take to finish it alone ?
(a) 4 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 8 days
(d) 10 days
Answer: (b) 6 days
Explanation:
A’s work rate = 1/12 per day.
A + B together = 1/4 per day.
So, B’s rate = 1/4 – 1/12 = 1/6
Hence, B alone will take 6 days to complete the work.
Q69. What number will come next in the following series ? 5, 8, 9, 14, 16, 23, 26
(a) 29
(b) 33
(c) 35
(d) 39
Answer: (a) 29
Explanation:
The pattern alternates between +3, +1, +5, +2, +7, +3
Next increment should be +3, so:
26 + 3 = 29
This series uses alternating increases with a growing pattern.
Q70. Based on the following statements, which is the correct conclusion drawn. Only gentlemen can become members of the club. Many of the members of the club are officers. Some of the officers have been invited for dinner.
(a) All the members of the club have been invited for dinner
(b) Some of the officers are not gentlemen
(c) All gentlemen are members of the club
(d) Only gentlemen have been invited for dinner
Answer: (c) All gentlemen are members of the club
Explanation:
Since only gentlemen can become members, it implies that all members are gentlemen, but not all gentlemen are necessarily members. The correct logical conclusion is that all gentlemen in the club are members, aligning with statement (c).
Q71. A particle moves with some velocity along a certain path as shown in the diagram. The distance covered by the particle in 4 seconds is
(a) 50 mts.
(b) 40 mrs.
(c) 60 mts.
(d) 100 mts.
Answer: (d) 100 mts.
Explanation:
The graph shows a velocity-time relationship, and the area under the curve gives the distance travelled. If the particle maintains a velocity that increases linearly, the total area (a trapezium or combination of rectangles and triangles) over 4 seconds equals 100 meters, indicating the total distance covered.
Q72. Cloth is woven horizontally with 1 cm wide thickness of violet and white colour alternately and 1 cm wide thickness of grey and white colour alternately in the vertical direction. The resulting pattern will consist of
(a) Squares with 3 different colours
(b) Squares with 4 different colours
(c) Stripes with 3 different colours
(d) Stripes with 4 different colours
Answer: (b) Squares with 4 different colours
Explanation:
The horizontal weave alternates between violet and white, and the vertical weave alternates between grey and white. Their intersection creates four combinations: violet-grey, violet-white, white-grey, and white-white, forming squares with 4 different colours.
Q73. How many minimum number of colours will be required to paint all the sides of a cube without the adjacent sides having the same colours ?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer: (a) 3
Explanation:
To ensure that no two adjacent faces of a cube share the same colour, a minimum of 3 colours is sufficient. This is a classic graph colouring problem, where adjacent faces (edges) must differ in colour.
Q74. What is the minimum number of colours required to fill the spaces in the following diagram without the adjacent sides having the same colour ?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer: (a) 3
Explanation:
The diagram likely represents a planar graph or geometric figure with adjacent regions. Based on the Four Colour Theorem, most such diagrams can be coloured using 3 colours if the structure allows. Hence, 3 colours suffice in this case.
Q75. The two figures show the expenditure on various items by families A and B. Which of the following conclusion is not correct ?
(a) A spends more on Food than B
(b) B spends more on clothing than A
(c) B spends equal amounts on food and clothing
(d) A spends more on rent than on any other item
Answer: (d) A spends more on rent than on any other item
Explanation:
From the visual comparison, Family A’s highest expenditure is not on rent, but likely on food or miscellaneous items. Therefore, the statement that A spends more on rent than on any other item is incorrect.
Q76. By which Amendment to the Constitution, the Fundamental Duties of the citizens were specified ?
(a) 38th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
Answer: (c) 42nd
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of the Constitution. It was part of a broader effort to promote civic responsibility and national integrity during the Emergency period.
Q77. Of the following two statements, both of which cannot be true, but both can also be false. Which are these two statements ?
I. All machines make noise
II. Some machines are noisy
III. No machine makes noise
IV. Some machines are not noisy
(a) I & II
(b) III & IV
(c) I & III
(d) II & IV
Answer: (c) I & III
Explanation:
Statements I and III are mutually exclusive—if all machines make noise, then no machine makes noise cannot be true, and vice versa. However, both can be false if some machines make noise and some don’t, making I and III the correct pair.
Q78. Acts and Regulations validated by Article 31 B are specified in of the Constitution
(a) Concurrent List
(b) State List
(c) Union List
(d) Ninth Schedule
Answer: (d) Ninth Schedule
Explanation:
Article 31B of the Constitution protects laws placed in the Ninth Schedule from being challenged for violating Fundamental Rights. This provision was created to safeguard land reform laws and other socio-economic legislation.
Q79. Bhagvad Gita was originally written in which language ?
(a) Pali
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Hindi
(d) Prakrit
Answer: (b) Sanskrit
Explanation:
The Bhagavad Gita, a sacred Hindu scripture, was originally composed in Sanskrit. It forms part of the Mahabharata, specifically the Bhishma Parva, and presents a dialogue between Lord Krishna and Arjuna on dharma and duty.
Q80. Magasthenes visited the court of
(a) Ashoka
(b) Harsha
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Vikramaditya
Answer: (c) Chandragupta Maurya
Explanation:
Megasthenes, a Greek ambassador, visited the court of Chandragupta Maurya in Pataliputra during the 4th century BCE. His account, Indica, provides valuable insights into Mauryan administration, society, and culture.
Q81. Earliest Indian coins belonged to which period ?
(a) 5th century B.C.
(b) Ashoka’s reign
(c) 1st century A.D.
(d) 3rd century A.D.
Answer: (a) 5th century B.C.
Explanation:
The earliest Indian coins date back to the 5th century B.C., during the Mahajanapada period. These were punch-marked coins, made of silver and used for trade. They represent the beginning of monetary economy in ancient India.
Q82. Bijak was written by
(a) Tulsidas
(b) Ramdas
(c) Guru Nanak
(d) Kabirdas
Answer: (d) Kabirdas
Explanation:
Bijak is a compilation of the teachings of Kabirdas, a 15th-century Bhakti poet and saint. It contains dohas, poems, and philosophical reflections that emphasize spiritual unity and critique ritualism and orthodoxy.
Q83. Which statement about Amir Khusrau is not true ?
(a) He worked for the Hindu-Muslim Unity
(b) He was a great poet
(c) He was a great historian
(d) He wrote poetry in Hindi and Urdu
Answer: (c) He was a great historian
Explanation:
Amir Khusrau was a celebrated poet, musician, and scholar, known for promoting Hindu-Muslim cultural synthesis. While he contributed to literature and music, he was not a historian, making option (c) incorrect.
Q84. What is the correct order of happenings of the following three events in the British rule in India ?
I. Rawlatt Act
II. Hunter Report
III. Jallianwallah Bagh Tragedy
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, I, III
(c) III, II, I
(d) II, III, I
Answer: (a) I, II, III
Explanation:
The Rawlatt Act was passed in 1919, leading to widespread protests. The Jallianwallah Bagh massacre occurred soon after, and the Hunter Commission was set up to investigate it. Thus, the correct sequence is I → II → III.
Q85. Who was the Viceroy when Attlee declared India’s Independence ?
(a) Lord Wavell
(b) Lord Mountbatten
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Answer: (a) Lord Wavell
Explanation:
When Prime Minister Attlee announced the decision to grant India independence in February 1947, Lord Wavell was the Viceroy. He was later succeeded by Lord Mountbatten, who oversaw the actual transfer of power.
Q86. Under whose leadership, the Indian National Army was formed ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Answer: (b) Subhash Chandra Bose
Explanation:
The Indian National Army (INA) was formed under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose, who sought to liberate India from British rule through military action. He rallied support from Indian expatriates and aligned with Axis powers during World War II.
Q87. Who said these words at the time of Quit India Movement—’Do or die’ ?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation:
During the Quit India Movement in 1942, Mahatma Gandhi gave the iconic call to action: “Do or die”, urging Indians to fight for complete independence through non-violent resistance, even at the cost of their lives.
Q88. Why did Gandhiji stop the Non-Cooperation Movement ?
(a) Because of Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(b) Because the mob turned violent
(c) Because he was ordered to do so by the Britishers
(d) Because he did not like to continue the movement
Answer: (b) Because the mob turned violent
Explanation:
Gandhiji called off the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922 after the Chauri Chaura incident, where a violent mob killed policemen. Gandhi believed in strict non-violence, and the incident violated the movement’s core principles.
Q89. The Indian National Movement refers to the
(a) Movement started by Subhash Chandra Bose through I.N.A.
(b) Struggle by the Indians to gain freedom from British colonial rule in India
(c) Struggle by Indians to gain dominion status under British rule
(d) Struggle by Indians to stop British trade in India
Answer: (b) Struggle by the Indians to gain freedom from British colonial rule in India
Explanation:
The Indian National Movement encompasses the freedom struggle against British colonial rule, involving various phases like moderate politics, mass movements, revolutionary activities, and armed resistance, culminating in independence in 1947.
Q90. Which of the following represents the integration of Hindus and Muslims for a common cause ?
(a) Khilafat Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Khilafat Movement
Explanation:
The Khilafat Movement (1919–1924) was a rare instance of Hindu-Muslim unity, where Muslims protested against the dismantling of the Ottoman Caliphate, and Gandhiji supported it to strengthen national solidarity against British rule.
Q91. Puma Swaraj Day was observed on
(a) 26th November, 1947
(b) 26th October, 1949
(c) 26th January, 1950
(d) 26th January, 1930
Answer: (d) 26th January, 1930
Explanation:
Purna Swaraj Day was declared by the Indian National Congress on 26th January 1930, marking the formal demand for complete independence from British rule. This date was later chosen as the day to enforce the Constitution of India in 1950.
Q92. Whom did Gandhiji consider his political Guru ?
(a) Vinoba Bhave
(b) B. G. Tilak
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer: (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Explanation:
Gopal Krishna Gokhale was regarded by Mahatma Gandhi as his political mentor. Gokhale’s emphasis on moderation, reform, and constitutional methods deeply influenced Gandhi’s early political philosophy and approach to public service.
Q93. Which of the following periods can be considered as the era of mass revolution ?
(a) 1856–1885 A.D.
(b) 1757–1857 A.D.
(c) 1920–1947 A.D.
(d) 1901–1919 A.D.
Answer: (c) 1920–1947 A.D.
Explanation:
The period from 1920 to 1947 saw widespread mass movements like Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, and Quit India, involving millions of Indians. It marked the transition from elite-led politics to mass participation in the freedom struggle.
Q94. The Indian patriot, who died in jail due to hunger strike, was
(a) S. C. Bose
(b) Bhagat Singh
(c) Jatin Das
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal
Answer: (c) Jatin Das
Explanation:
Jatin Das died in Lahore jail in 1929 after a 63-day hunger strike protesting the inhuman treatment of political prisoners. His sacrifice became a symbol of resistance and martyrdom in India’s freedom movement.
Q95. Community Development Programme was launched on the birthday of Gandhiji in the year
(a) 1950
(b) 1952
(c) 1956
(d) 1963
Answer: (b) 1952
Explanation:
The Community Development Programme was launched on 2nd October 1952, Gandhiji’s birthday, to promote rural development through people’s participation. It aimed to improve agriculture, education, health, and infrastructure in villages.
Q96. Why did Md-Bin-Tughlak change his capital from Delhi to Hyderabad/Deogiri ?
(a) Because he wanted to improve trade in Deccan
(b) Because he wanted to spread Islam in the Deccan
(c) Because he wanted to punish the people of Delhi
(d) Because he wanted to escape from Mongolian invasion
Answer: (d) Because he wanted to escape from Mongolian invasion
Explanation:
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq shifted his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad (Deogiri) to protect it from Mongol invasions and to centralize administration. The move was logistically flawed, causing hardship and eventual reversal.
Q97. Which Mughal ruler introduced the Mansabdari system in India ?
(a) Akbar
(b) Humayun
(c) Shahjehan
(d) Babar
Answer: (a) Akbar
Explanation:
The Mansabdari system was introduced by Akbar to organize the military and bureaucracy. It classified officials based on rank (mansab) and determined their salary and number of troops to maintain, ensuring administrative efficiency.
Q98. Who among the following were associated with the birth of Swarajya Party ?
(a) C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru
(b) C. R. Das and Sardar Patel
(c) Motilal Nehru and Rajendra Prasad
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru
Explanation:
The Swarajya Party was founded in 1923 by C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru to enter legislative councils and oppose British policies from within. It emerged after the Non-Cooperation Movement was suspended.
Q99. Who among the following was responsible for the revival of Hinduism in the 19th century ?
(a) Swami Dayanand
(b) Swami Vivekanand
(c) Guru Shankaracharya
(d) Raja Rammohan Roy
Answer: (c) Guru Shankaracharya
Explanation:
Though Raja Rammohan Roy and others contributed to social reform, the revival of Hindu philosophy in the 19th century is attributed to Guru Shankaracharya’s teachings, which were reinterpreted and popularized during this period.
Q100. On which date Constitution of India was adopted and enacted by the Constituent Assembly ?
(a) 15th August, 1947
(b) 26th January, 1950
(c) 26th November, 1949
(d) 30th January, 1948
Answer: (c) 26th November, 1949
Explanation:
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949, though it came into effect on 26th January 1950. This date is celebrated as Constitution Day, marking the birth of Indian democracy.
Q101. To an astronaut in the spacecraft, the sky colour appears to be
(a) Blue
(b) White
(c) Black
(d) Orange red
Answer: (c) Black
Explanation:
In space, there is no atmosphere to scatter sunlight, which is why astronauts see the sky as black. On Earth, the blue sky results from Rayleigh scattering, but in the vacuum of space, light travels unscattered, making the sky appear pitch black.
Q102. What are the primary colours ?
(a) Blue, green, yellow
(b) Yellow, red, blue
(c) Red, blue, green
(d) Green, white, black
Answer: (c) Red, blue, green
Explanation:
The primary colours of light are red, blue, and green. These are the basic components of the additive colour model, used in digital screens and optics. When combined, they produce white light and various other colours.
Q103. If water contracts on freezing, which of the following would happen ?
(a) Icebergs will completely float on the surface of water
(b) Ice would become more dense
(c) Lakes would freeze from top to bottom
(d) Rocks will crack due to freezing or internal water
Answer: (b) Ice would become more dense
Explanation:
If water contracted on freezing, ice would be denser than liquid water and sink. However, in reality, water expands upon freezing, making ice less dense and allowing it to float. If it contracted, icebergs wouldn’t float, and lake freezing patterns would change.
Q104. When the ice floating in a glass of water melts, the level of water will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain constant
(d) First increase and then decrease
Answer: (c) Remain constant
Explanation:
Floating ice displaces an amount of water equal to its weight. When it melts, it turns into the same volume of water it had displaced. Hence, the water level remains unchanged, demonstrating Archimedes’ principle.
Q105. When a person moves from poles to the equator, the population of plants and animals will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain unchanged
(d) Not show any consistent behavior
Answer: (a) Increase
Explanation:
Biodiversity increases as one moves from the poles to the equator due to warmer climate, higher sunlight, and greater ecological productivity. Tropical regions support dense vegetation and diverse fauna, unlike the harsh polar zones.
Q106. What is the function of a fuse wire ?
(a) To prevent an unduly high electric current from passing through a circuit
(b) To increase the current supply
(c) To decrease the current supply
(d) To stabilise the voltage
Answer: (a) To prevent an unduly high electric current from passing through a circuit
Explanation:
A fuse wire is designed to melt when the current exceeds safe limits, thereby breaking the circuit and preventing damage to appliances or electrical fires. It acts as a safety device in electrical systems.
Q107. Why is it advisable not to draw current for many appliances from a single point ?
(a) Current will decrease
(b) Current will increase
(c) Current and voltage both will increase
(d) Voltage will decrease whereas current will increase
Answer: (d) Voltage will decrease whereas current will increase
Explanation:
Drawing current for many appliances from a single outlet causes voltage drop due to increased load, while current demand rises, risking overheating, short circuits, or fuse failure. This can lead to electrical hazards.
Q108. Rickets is caused due to
(a) Deficiency of Vitamin A
(b) Deficiency of Vitamin D
(c) Deficiency of Vitamin C
(d) Low intake of proteins
Answer: (b) Deficiency of Vitamin D
Explanation:
Rickets is a disease that affects bone development in children, caused by Vitamin D deficiency. It leads to soft and weak bones, bowed legs, and skeletal deformities due to impaired calcium absorption.
Q109. Identical twins are born when
(a) Two sperms fertilise one ovum
(b) Two sperms fertilise two ovums simultaneously
(c) One sperm fertilises the ovum and zygote divides into two separate cells developing independently
(d) One sperm fertilises two ovums
Answer: (c) One sperm fertilises the ovum and zygote divides into two separate cells developing independently
Explanation:
Identical twins result from a single fertilised egg (zygote) that splits into two embryos, sharing the same genetic material. This leads to twins that are genetically identical and usually of the same sex.
Q110. Conception generally takes place at the time of
(a) Menses
(b) Before menses
(c) Immediately after menses
(d) Two weeks after menses
Answer: (d) Two weeks after menses
Explanation:
Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days after menstruation, which is the most fertile period. If sperm fertilises the ovum during this time, conception occurs. This timing aligns with the menstrual cycle’s reproductive phase.
Q111. Why mothers feed the child with Vitamin A ?
(a) To prevent rickets
(b) To prevent beri-beri
(c) To prevent night blindness
(d) To prevent polio
Answer: (c) To prevent night blindness
Explanation:
Vitamin A is essential for maintaining healthy vision, especially in low light. Deficiency can lead to night blindness, where the child struggles to see in dim conditions. Mothers provide Vitamin A-rich foods or supplements to prevent this condition and support eye health.
Q112. Growing children require comparatively more
(a) Proteins
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Vitamins
(d) All of these
Answer: (a) Proteins
Explanation:
Proteins are crucial for growth and development in children. They help build muscles, tissues, and enzymes, supporting the body’s structural and functional needs. While carbohydrates and vitamins are also important, protein demand is higher during growth phases.
Q113. Heart patients should avoid taking excess of
(a) Proteins
(b) Fats
(c) Vitamins
(d) Carbohydrates
Answer: (b) Fats
Explanation:
Excessive fat intake, especially saturated and trans fats, can lead to cholesterol buildup, increasing the risk of heart disease. Heart patients are advised to consume low-fat diets to maintain cardiovascular health and prevent complications.
Q114. How dehydration helps in the preservation of food?
(a) Growth of micro-organism is checked
(b) Nutrients are concentrated
(c) Surface of food stuffs becomes hard
(d) Chemical reactions stop in the absence of water
Answer: (a) Growth of micro-organism is checked
Explanation:
Dehydration removes moisture, which is essential for the growth of bacteria, fungi, and other microbes. By eliminating water, food becomes less prone to spoilage, making it a reliable method for long-term preservation.
Q115. What is done to raise the dough while making bread?
(a) Alcohol is added
(b) Yeast is added
(c) Carbon dioxide is passed
(d) Air is passed
Answer: (b) Yeast is added
Explanation:
Yeast ferments the sugars in flour, producing carbon dioxide that causes the dough to rise. This process creates air pockets, giving bread its soft and fluffy texture. Yeast is a key agent in leavening.
Q116. How the body temperature is maintained ?
(a) Due to temperature regulating mechanism located in the base of the brain
(b) Due to excessive intake of water
(c) Due to regular intake of foods
(d) Due to the constant flow of blood in the capillaries
Answer: (a) Due to temperature regulating mechanism located in the base of the brain
Explanation:
The hypothalamus, located at the base of the brain, acts as the body’s thermostat. It regulates heat production and loss, maintaining a stable internal temperature through mechanisms like sweating, shivering, and blood flow adjustments.
Q117. Why the countries are scared to import fruits ?
(a) Because they become rotten easily and spread diseases
(b) Because they are not easily adjustable to new climate
(c) Because insects carried through fruits are dangerous
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c) Because insects carried through fruits are dangerous
Explanation:
Imported fruits may carry invasive insects or pests that can threaten local agriculture and ecosystems. These organisms may not have natural predators in the new environment, leading to uncontrolled spread and crop damage.
Q118. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Both salinity and density of sea increase with depth
(b) Both salinity and density of sea decrease with depth
(c) Salinity increases but density of sea decreases with depth
(d) Salinity decreases but density of sea increases with depth
Answer: (a) Both salinity and density of sea increase with depth
Explanation:
As depth increases, temperature drops, causing density to rise. Simultaneously, salinity tends to increase due to less mixing and evaporation effects, making deeper ocean layers denser and saltier than surface waters.
Q119. Which of the following is commonly present in the acids?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Sulphur
(d) Nitrogen
Answer: (b) Hydrogen
Explanation:
All acids contain hydrogen ions (H⁺), which are responsible for their acidic properties. When dissolved in water, acids release hydrogen ions, making hydrogen the defining element in acidic compounds.
Q120. In what sequence are the following obtained from a natural gas well?
- Natural Gas
- Water
- Crude oil
(a) 1, 3, 2
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 3, 2, 1
(d) 2, 1, 3
Answer: (b) 1, 2, 3
Explanation:
From a natural gas well, natural gas is extracted first due to its gaseous state and pressure, followed by water, and then crude oil, which settles at the bottom. This sequence reflects the physical properties and layering of substances underground.
Q121. A person with which blood group will be a universal donor?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) O
(d) AB
Answer: (c) O
Explanation:
People with blood group O are considered universal donors because their red blood cells do not carry A or B antigens, making them compatible with all other blood types. This is especially true for O negative, which lacks the Rh factor as well.
Q122. Dysentery and Influenza are caused by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Viruses
(c) Bacteria and Viruses respectively
(d) Viruses and Bacteria respectively
Answer: (c) Bacteria and Viruses respectively
Explanation:
Dysentery is typically caused by bacteria like Shigella or E. coli, while Influenza is caused by viruses. This distinction is important for treatment, as antibiotics work against bacteria but not viruses.
Q123. Why does man weigh more at the poles than at the equator?
(a) Because there is no atmosphere at the poles
(b) Because gravitational pull is more at the poles
(c) Because gravitational pull is less at the poles
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Because gravitational pull is more at the poles
Explanation:
The Earth is not a perfect sphere—it bulges at the equator and is flattened at the poles. This shape causes stronger gravitational pull at the poles, making a person weigh slightly more there than at the equator.
Q124. Which organ is associated with the production of insulin in the human body?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Liver
(c) Kidney
(d) Heart
Answer: (a) Pancreas
Explanation:
The pancreas produces insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels. Specifically, insulin is secreted by the beta cells in the Islets of Langerhans within the pancreas.
Q125. Mark the correct answer
(a) Planets have an apparent motion and twinkle
(b) Planets have no apparent motion but twinkle
(c) Planets have an apparent motion but do not twinkle
(d) Planets have no apparent motion and do not twinkle
Answer: (c) Planets have an apparent motion but do not twinkle
Explanation:
Planets show apparent motion across the sky due to their orbit around the Sun, but they do not twinkle because they are closer to Earth and their light passes through the atmosphere more steadily than that of stars.
Q126. Why camphor disappears when kept on a plate?
(a) It sublimes
(b) It reacts with the metal of the container
(c) It reacts with the gases of the air
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) It sublimes
Explanation:
Camphor undergoes sublimation, meaning it changes directly from a solid to a gas without becoming liquid. This property causes it to disappear when exposed to air over time.
Q127. The sex of the offspring is determined, when
(a) The conception takes place
(b) The sperm fertilises the ovum
(c) The embryo is partially developed
(d) The end of gestation period is near
Answer: (a) The conception takes place
Explanation:
The sex of the offspring is determined at the moment of conception, when the sperm fertilises the ovum. The chromosome carried by the sperm (X or Y) decides whether the child will be female (XX) or male (XY).
Q128. Colour blindness is
(a) More common among women
(b) Very rare in women
(c) Very rare in men
(d) Found to the same extent in both the sexes
Answer: (b) Very rare in women
Explanation:
Colour blindness is a sex-linked genetic disorder, typically carried on the X chromosome. Since males have only one X chromosome, they are more likely to be affected. Females, having two X chromosomes, are less likely to express the condition unless both carry the gene.
Q129. What happens when alcohol is taken in excess?
(a) It destroys the liver
(b) It produces inflammation of the stomach
(c) It causes the heart to become weak
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
Excessive alcohol consumption can lead to liver damage (e.g., cirrhosis), gastric inflammation, and cardiovascular issues. It affects multiple organs and systems, making it a major cause of chronic health problems.
Q130. What happens when the temperature of water falls from 30°C to 0°C?
(a) The volume of ice formed will be less than volume of water
(b) The volume of ice formed will be more than the volume of water
(c) Water will not freeze at 0°C
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) The volume of ice formed will be more than the volume of water
Explanation:
As water cools to 0°C, it expands upon freezing, forming ice with a greater volume than the original water. This is due to the crystalline structure of ice, which occupies more space than liquid water.
Q131. The deficiency of causes goitre
(a) Sulphur
(b) Iodine
(c) Calcium
(d) Vitamin A
Answer: (b) Iodine
Explanation:
Goitre is caused by a deficiency of iodine, which is essential for the production of thyroid hormones. Without adequate iodine, the thyroid gland enlarges, leading to swelling in the neck. Iodised salt is commonly used to prevent this condition.
Q132. Why is it easier to cook in a pressure cooker ?
(a) High pressure creates turbulence
(b) More steam is formed inside the cooker
(c) Boiling point of water is raised
(d) Boiling point of water is lowered
Answer: (c) Boiling point of water is raised
Explanation:
In a pressure cooker, the pressure increases, which raises the boiling point of water. This allows food to cook at a higher temperature, speeding up the process and making it more efficient.
Q133. When the rice is boiled, it expands because
(a) The starch gelatinises and swells
(b) The starch gets polymerised
(c) The grains absorb moisture and swell
(d) Sugars break down in the grains
Answer: (c) The grains absorb moisture and swell
Explanation:
During boiling, rice grains absorb water, causing them to swell and expand. This is a physical change, where moisture penetrates the starch, making the grains soft and larger.
Q134. Which of the following is the most common wheat disease in India ?
(a) Green ear
(b) Smut
(c) Loose smut
(d) Rust
Answer: (d) Rust
Explanation:
Rust is the most prevalent wheat disease in India, caused by fungal pathogens. It affects the leaves and stems, reducing photosynthesis and grain yield. Control measures include resistant varieties and fungicides.
Q135. Gypsum is added to the soil ?
(a) To increase the alkalinity
(b) To decrease the acidity
(c) To decrease the alkalinity
(d) As an insecticide
Answer: (c) To decrease the alkalinity
Explanation:
Gypsum (calcium sulfate) is used to neutralize alkaline soils, improving soil structure and water infiltration. It helps in reclaiming sodic soils and enhances nutrient availability for crops.
Q136. Why the Indian farmers plough their fields during the time interval between two crops ?
(a) In order to keep the soil loose for further cultivation
(b) To increase the porosity of the soil
(c) To escape drought
(d) To prevent clodding
Answer: (d) To prevent clodding
Explanation:
Ploughing between crops helps break up soil clods, maintaining a fine tilth for the next sowing. It also aids in weed control, moisture retention, and aeration, preparing the field for better crop establishment.
Q137. Maximum production of paddy per unit water consumption can be best achieved in a
(a) Non-porous soil
(b) Porous soil
(c) Impervious soil
(d) Soil that allows slow percolation
Answer: (d) Soil that allows slow percolation
Explanation:
Paddy cultivation thrives in soil with slow percolation, which retains water longer, reducing irrigation needs and enhancing yield efficiency. Such soils prevent water loss and support continuous root hydration.
Q138. Hybridisation is useful in developing improved crops by
(a) Creating new and better genes
(b) Eliminating undesirable genes
(c) Producing favourable combination of gases
(d) By encouraging favourable genes and removing unfavourable ones
Answer: (d) By encouraging favourable genes and removing unfavourable ones
Explanation:
Hybridisation combines desirable traits from different parent plants, promoting favourable genes like disease resistance, high yield, and drought tolerance, while suppressing undesirable traits, leading to improved crop varieties.
Q139. Which of the following crops has the highest photosynthetic activity ?
(a) Cotton
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Rice
(d) Wheat
Answer: (b) Sugarcane
Explanation:
Sugarcane exhibits the highest photosynthetic efficiency due to its C4 pathway, which is more effective under high light and temperature conditions. This leads to rapid biomass accumulation and high productivity.
Q140. Which of the following statements about the cultivation of tea and coffee is true ?
(a) Tea grows at a higher altitude than coffee
(b) Coffee grows at a higher altitude than tea
(c) Both grow at about the same altitude
(d) There is no climatic relationship between the two crops
Answer: (b) Coffee grows at a higher altitude than tea
Explanation:
Coffee is typically cultivated at higher altitudes (1000–2000 meters) compared to tea, which grows well between 600–2000 meters. The cooler climate and shade at higher elevations favour coffee quality and flavour.
Q141. Which soil is best suited for paddy crop ?
(a) Black soil
(b) Loamy soil
(c) Hard soil
(d) Red soil
Answer: (b) Loamy soil
Explanation:
Loamy soil is ideal for paddy cultivation because it retains moisture, has good drainage, and supports root development. Its balanced texture of sand, silt, and clay allows for slow percolation, which is essential for rice fields.
Q142. The varieties of corn can be improved by which of the following methods ?
(a) Dihybrid cross
(b) Back cross
(c) Double cross
(d) Natural selection
Answer: (c) Double cross
Explanation:
Double cross hybridisation involves crossing two hybrid lines, enhancing genetic diversity and yield potential. It’s widely used in corn breeding to combine favourable traits from multiple parent lines.
Q143. Forests help in
(a) Soil erosion
(b) Soil protection
(c) Depleting the soil of its moisture
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b) Soil protection
Explanation:
Forests protect soil by preventing erosion, maintaining moisture levels, and enhancing organic content. Tree roots bind the soil, and canopy cover reduces the impact of rainfall, preserving topsoil integrity.
Q144. Different seasons are formed because
(a) Sun is moving around the earth
(b) Of revolution of the earth around the sun on its orbit
(c) Of rotation of the earth around its axis
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b) Of revolution of the earth around the sun on its orbit
Explanation:
Seasons occur due to the Earth’s revolution around the Sun and the tilt of its axis, which causes varying sunlight intensity across hemispheres. This leads to summer, winter, spring, and autumn in different regions.
Q145. Earthquakes are caused due to
(a) Volcanic eruptions
(b) Land slides
(c) Cyclones
(d) Movement of a part of earth’s surface on account of the faulting of rocks
Answer: (d) Movement of a part of earth’s surface on account of the faulting of rocks
Explanation:
Earthquakes result from the sudden movement of tectonic plates along fault lines. This release of energy causes ground shaking. While volcanic activity and landslides can trigger quakes, the primary cause is faulting of rocks.
Q146. There are two places P and Q. The longitudes of P and Q are 45° E and 60° W respectively. What will be the difference in their local times
(a) 7 hours
(b) 6 hours
(c) 3.5 hours
(d) Both places will have the same local time
Answer: (a) 7 hours
Explanation:
Each 15° of longitude corresponds to 1 hour of time difference.
Total difference = 45° + 60° = 105° → 105 ÷ 15 = 7 hours
So, the local time difference between P and Q is 7 hours.
Q147. What are the grass lands of South America called ?
(a) Stepes
(b) Prairies
(c) Pampas
(d) Savanna
Answer: (c) Pampas
Explanation:
The Pampas are extensive fertile grasslands in Argentina and Uruguay, known for cattle ranching and grain production. They are a key part of South America’s agricultural economy.
Q148. Humidity of the air
(a) Increases with the increase in atmospheric temperature
(b) Decreases with the increase in atmospheric temperature
(c) Is not affected by the change in atmospheric temperature
(d) Does not show any consistent behaviour with the change in atmospheric temperature
Answer: (a) Increases with the increase in atmospheric temperature
Explanation:
As temperature rises, air can hold more water vapour, increasing humidity. This is why warm climates often feel more humid, while cold air holds less moisture.
Q149. Himalayan rivers are perennial because
(a) They flow from inexhaustible springs in the Himalayas
(b) They are fed in summer by melting snow of Himalayas
(c) There is continuous rain throughout the year in the catchment areas
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) They are fed in summer by melting snow of Himalayas
Explanation:
Himalayan rivers are perennial because they are sustained by glacial meltwater during summer and rainfall during monsoon. This dual source ensures year-round flow, unlike seasonal rivers.
Q150. Why is there a severe difference in the climates of Northern and Southern Hemisphere ?
(a) Due to rotation of the earth around its axis
(b) Due to revolution of the earth around the sun of its orbit
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Both of the above
Explanation:
The rotation of the Earth affects day-night cycles, while its revolution around the Sun and axial tilt cause seasonal variations. These factors lead to climatic differences between the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.