Q1 Rigveda, the oldest of the Vedas, chiefly contains
(a) Collection of hymns to gods
(b) Methods of Vedic yagnas
(c) Early Aryan culture
(d) Origin and works of Hindu gods
Answer: (a) Collection of hymns to gods
Explanation:
The Rigveda is the earliest and most significant of the four Vedas. It primarily consists of hymns dedicated to various deities such as Agni, Indra, and Varuna. These hymns were composed in Sanskrit and reflect the spiritual and ritualistic practices of the early Vedic period. The focus is on invocation and praise, not on procedural methods or mythological narratives.
Q2 Which one of the following is part of Preamble of the Constitution of India ?
(a) We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic …. do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution
(b) We, the members of the Parliament, do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution
(c) We, the people of Constituent Assembly, do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic …. do hereby Adopt, Enact and Give to ourselves this Constitution
Explanation:
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution begins with the words “We, the people of India…”, emphasizing the sovereign will of the citizens. It outlines the core values and guiding principles of the Constitution, including sovereignty, socialism, secularism, democracy, and republicanism. The phrase in option (a) is the authentic opening statement of the Preamble, reflecting the collective resolve of the Indian people.
Q3 Grenada is situated in
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Caribbean Sea
(d) Mediterranean Sea
Answer: (c) Caribbean Sea
Explanation:
Grenada is a small island country located in the southeastern Caribbean Sea, near the southern end of the Grenadines island chain. It is part of the West Indies and is known for its volcanic origin and tropical climate. The Caribbean Sea lies between North and South America and is home to many island nations.
Q4 Who decides whether a Bill is a ‘Money Bill’ or not ?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice-President
Answer: (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the exclusive authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. This decision is final and binding, and cannot be challenged in court. A Money Bill deals primarily with taxation, borrowing, expenditure, and financial matters.
Q5 Write in chronological order
(i) ‘Man’s landing on moon
(ii) Discovery of radio activity
(iii) First nuclear explosion
(iv) Launching of first satellite by India
(a) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(d) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
Answer: (d) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
Explanation:
The correct chronological order is:
- Discovery of radioactivity (1896 by Henri Becquerel)
- First nuclear explosion (1945, USA)
- Man’s landing on moon (1969, Apollo 11)
- India’s first satellite launch (Aryabhata in 1975)
This sequence reflects the progression of major scientific and technological milestones.
Q6 Which of the following is not an alloy?
(a) Bronze
(b) Brass
(c) Steel
(d) Zinc
Answer: (d) Zinc
Explanation:
An alloy is a mixture of two or more metals.
- Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin
- Brass is an alloy of copper and zinc
- Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon
Zinc, however, is a pure element, not a mixture, and hence not an alloy.
Q7 Chlorine is
(a) A rare earth element
(b) A halogen
(c) A noble gas
(d) Coinage metal
Answer: (b) A halogen
Explanation:
Chlorine belongs to Group 17 of the periodic table, known as the halogens. Halogens are highly reactive non-metals and include fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine, and astatine. Chlorine is widely used in disinfection, bleaching, and chemical synthesis.
Q8 The first geostationary satellite launched by India is
(a) Aryabhata
(b) Bhaskara
(c) APPLE
(d) INSAT 1-B
Answer: (c) APPLE
Explanation:
APPLE (Ariane Passenger Payload Experiment) was India’s first experimental geostationary communication satellite, launched in 1981. It marked a major milestone in India’s space program, demonstrating capabilities in telecommunication and broadcasting from a geostationary orbit.
Q9 Sarkaria Commission has been set up to study
(a) Centre-State relations
(b) Inter-State relations
(c) Financial aid to States
(d) Splitting of LIC
Answer: (a) Centre-State relations
Explanation:
The Sarkaria Commission, established in 1983, was tasked with examining and recommending changes to improve Centre-State relations in India. It focused on constitutional, legislative, and administrative arrangements, aiming to strengthen cooperative federalism.
Q10 Being a non-member who among the following can participate in the proceedings of either House of Parliament without having the voting right?
(a) Vice-President
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Comptroller & Auditor-General
(d) Attorney General
Answer: (d) Attorney General
Explanation:
The Attorney General of India, though not a member of Parliament, is entitled to attend and participate in the proceedings of both Houses. However, they do not have voting rights. This provision ensures that the government’s chief legal advisor can offer legal input and clarification during debates.
Q11 The Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution contains
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles
(c) A list of 18 languages recognised by the Constitution
(d) Number of States and Union Territories
Answer: (c) A list of 18 languages recognised by the Constitution
Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages recognized by the government. Initially, it included 14 languages, but over time, more were added, bringing the total to 18 at the time of this exam. These languages are used for official communication, education, and cultural preservation.
Q12 What type of trade is being undertaken by India with East European countries ?
(a) Rupee trade
(b) Free trade
(c) Barter trade
(d) Bilateral trade
Answer: (c) Barter trade
Explanation:
During the Cold War era, India engaged in barter trade with East European countries, especially those under socialist regimes. This system involved exchange of goods and services without using currency, helping both sides avoid foreign exchange constraints and maintain economic cooperation.
Q13 Sugarcane crop matures in about
(a) 2 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 8 months
(d) 12 months
Answer: (d) 12 months
Explanation:
Sugarcane is a long-duration tropical crop that typically takes about 12 months to mature. The growth period depends on climatic conditions, soil fertility, and irrigation, but in general, it requires a full year for optimal yield and sugar content.
Q14 Which of the following does not appear in George Orwell’s book “1984”?
(a) ‘Double deal’
(b) ‘Double think’
(c) ‘Big brother’
(d) ‘Thought police’
Answer: (a) ‘Double deal’
Explanation:
George Orwell’s “1984” is known for terms like ‘Doublethink’, ‘Big Brother’, and ‘Thought Police’, which reflect the totalitarian control and psychological manipulation in the dystopian society. ‘Double deal’ is not a concept from the book and hence is the incorrect option.
Q15 Which pair is not correctly matched ?
(a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi – U.N. Population Award
(b) Mother Teresa – Magsaysay Award for International Understanding
(c) S. Chandrashekhar – Nobel Prize
(d) Mahadevi Verma – Jnanpith Award
Answer: (b) Mother Teresa – Magsaysay Award for International Understanding
Explanation:
While Mother Teresa received numerous awards, including the Nobel Peace Prize, she did not receive the Magsaysay Award for International Understanding. The other pairings are accurate, making option (b) the incorrect match.
Q16 Micro-elements needed to increase soil fertility are
(a) Nitrogen, hydrogen and calcium
(b) Nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
(c) Iron, calcium and potassium
(d) Manganese, copper and zinc
Answer: (d) Manganese, copper and zinc
Explanation:
Micro-elements or micronutrients are required in small quantities but are essential for plant growth and soil fertility. Elements like manganese, copper, and zinc play key roles in enzyme activation, photosynthesis, and nutrient absorption.
Q17 Solution of washing soda in water is
(a) Acidic
(b) Basic
(c) Neutral
(d) Sour
Answer: (b) Basic
Explanation:
Washing soda is chemically known as sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃). When dissolved in water, it forms a basic solution due to the release of carbonate ions, which increase the pH level. It is commonly used in cleaning and laundry.
Q18 Which of the following discoveries is/are associated with Einstein ?
(i) Theory of relativity
(ii) Quantum theory
(iii) Radio activity
(iv) Rocket propulsion
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(d) (i) only
Answer: (d) (i) only
Explanation:
Albert Einstein is most famously associated with the Theory of Relativity, which revolutionized physics. While he contributed to quantum theory, he did not discover it. Radioactivity and rocket propulsion were developed by other scientists, making (i) only the correct choice.
Q19 New high yielding varieties of food crops are different from the conventional in that they need
(a) Less water
(b) Less fertilisers
(c) More water and more fertilisers
(d) Less water and more fertilizers
Answer: (c) More water and more fertilisers
Explanation:
High Yielding Varieties (HYVs) introduced during the Green Revolution are genetically designed for maximum productivity. However, they require intensive inputs, including more water, fertilizers, and pesticides, to achieve their potential yields.
Q20 Who was the leader of the Depressed Classes in the pre-Independence period ?
(a) Ram Manohar Lohia
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jagjivan Ram
Answer: (b) B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the foremost leader and advocate for the rights of the Depressed Classes (Dalits) in pre-Independence India. He fought for social justice, education, and political representation, and played a key role in drafting the Indian Constitution.
Q21 Match the following :
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
- Elected by members of Rajya Sabha
- Appointed by the President
- Elected by members of Lok Sabha
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3
(b) A-2, B-3, C-1
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) A-2, B-3, C-1
Explanation:
The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the President of India. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by the members of Lok Sabha, and the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of Rajya Sabha. These positions reflect the constitutional mechanisms of selection for key parliamentary roles.
Q22 Select the famous agricultural scientist who was awarded Nobel Prize for Peace ?
(a) Norman E. Borlaug
(b) M. S. Swaminathan
(c) N. S. Subba Rao
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Norman E. Borlaug
Explanation:
Norman E. Borlaug was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970 for his work in developing high-yielding crop varieties and promoting agricultural innovation, which helped avert famine in many developing countries. He is considered the father of the Green Revolution.
Q23 Mandal Commission report pertains to other
(a) Backward Classes
(b) Minorities
(c) Scheduled Castes
(d) Scheduled Tribes
Answer: (a) Backward Classes
Explanation:
The Mandal Commission, established in 1979, focused on identifying socially and educationally backward classes in India. Its recommendations led to reservations in government jobs and educational institutions for Other Backward Classes (OBCs) to promote social equity.
Q24 The Indian Space Research Organisation is situated at
(a) Trivandrum
(b) Bangalore
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Thumba
Answer: (b) Bangalore
Explanation:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is headquartered in Bangalore (now Bengaluru). It is India’s premier space agency responsible for satellite launches, space exploration, and research. While other centers exist in Trivandrum and Ahmedabad, the main administrative and research hub is in Bangalore.
Q25 Chips used in integrated circuits in computers are made of
(a) Mica
(b) Manganese
(c) Silicon
(d) Zinc
Answer: (c) Silicon
Explanation:
Silicon is the primary material used in manufacturing semiconductor chips for integrated circuits. It has excellent electrical conductivity and thermal stability, making it ideal for electronic devices. Silicon wafers are the foundation of modern computing.
Q26 Gestation period of a goat is about
(a) 150 days
(b) 200 days
(c) 250 days
(d) 365 days
Answer: (a) 150 days
Explanation:
The gestation period of a goat is approximately 150 days, or about 5 months. This duration allows for the development of the fetus before birth and is important for livestock management and breeding cycles.
Q27 Why do you feel chill after having a dip in sea water ?
(a) The difference in temperature between sea water and the atmosphere
(b) Evaporation of water from the body
(c) Deposition of salt on the body
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Evaporation of water from the body
Explanation:
After a dip in sea water, evaporation occurs from the skin surface. This process absorbs heat from the body, causing a cooling effect. It is a physical phenomenon where latent heat of vaporization leads to a drop in body temperature, making one feel chilled.
Q28 The North Atlantic Sea route is regarded as an important international trade route because
(a) It is the oldest sea route
(b) It connects two industrially developed parts of the world
(c) Trade winds will help the shipping
(d) There are lesser number of sea storms in this water way
Answer: (b) It connects two industrially developed parts of the world
Explanation:
The North Atlantic Sea route links North America and Western Europe, both of which are highly industrialized regions. This route facilitates heavy trade traffic, including raw materials, manufactured goods, and energy resources, making it economically vital.
Q29 Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi is correct in connection with India’s independence ?
(a) He was the happiest man
(b) He was a very disillusioned man
(c) He had full satisfaction about his achievements
(d) He was happy with the formation of Pakistan
Answer: (b) He was a very disillusioned man
Explanation:
Though India achieved independence, Mahatma Gandhi was deeply disillusioned by the partition of the country and the violence that followed. He had envisioned a united and peaceful India, and the events of 1947 left him saddened and spiritually troubled.
Q30 Which of the following is an insecticide ?
(a) TNT
(b) DDT
(c) Salicylic acid
(d) Ammonium phosphate
Answer: (b) DDT
Explanation:
DDT (Dichloro-Diphenyl-Trichloroethane) is a synthetic insecticide used to control mosquitoes and agricultural pests. It was widely used in the mid-20th century but later banned in many countries due to its environmental and health impacts. It is not a fertilizer or explosive, unlike the other options.
Q31 India has decided to acquire …. to match Pakistan’s F-16
(a) Jaguars
(b) MIG-29
(c) Mirage-2000
(d) Harpoon
Answer: (b) MIG-29
Explanation:
To counter Pakistan’s acquisition of F-16 fighter jets, India opted for the MIG-29, a Soviet-origin multirole combat aircraft known for its agility, speed, and advanced avionics. This move was part of India’s strategy to maintain air superiority and regional balance.
Q32 Which of the following diseases is spread through cows milk?
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Typhoid
(c) Measles
(d) None of these
Answer: (d) None of these
Explanation:
Diseases like diphtheria, typhoid, and measles are not transmitted through cow’s milk. While unpasteurized milk can carry pathogens like brucellosis or tuberculosis, the diseases listed in the options are not milk-borne, making “None of these” the correct answer.
Q33 A good citizen is one who is
(a) Conscious of social obligations
(b) Not bothered about anything
(c) Educated
(d) Rich in cultural heritage
Answer: (a) Conscious of social obligations
Explanation:
A good citizen actively participates in society and is aware of responsibilities such as obeying laws, voting, and helping others. Being socially responsible ensures the smooth functioning of democracy and community welfare.
Q34 Stagflation refers to
(a) Constant rate of inflation
(b) Low inflation with high recession
(c) High inflation with low recession
(d) Stagnation and inflation
Answer: (d) Stagnation and inflation
Explanation:
Stagflation is an economic condition where inflation is high but economic growth is stagnant, often accompanied by high unemployment. It presents a policy dilemma, as measures to reduce inflation may worsen stagnation.
Q35 Major difference between ‘Varna’ and ‘Jati’, is that
(a) Jatis are limited whereas Varnas are unlimited
(b) Jatis are only four whereas Varnas are many
(c) Varnas are only four whereas Jatis are many
(d) Jati is decided by birth but not Varna
Answer: (c) Varnas are only four whereas Jatis are many
Explanation:
Varna refers to the four broad social categories in ancient Hindu society: Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya, and Shudra. Jati, on the other hand, refers to numerous sub-castes based on occupation, region, and lineage, making it more diverse and numerous.
Q36 India carried out its first underground nuclear explosion at
(a) Thumba
(b) Pokhran
(c) Trombay
(d) Khemkaran
Answer: (b) Pokhran
Explanation:
India’s first underground nuclear test, known as Smiling Buddha, was conducted in 1974 at Pokhran, Rajasthan. It marked India’s entry into the group of nuclear-capable nations, showcasing its scientific and strategic capabilities.
Q37 Ajanta paintings depict
(a) Ramayana
(b) Mahabharata
(c) Jatakas
(d) Panchatantra
Answer: (c) Jatakas
Explanation:
The Ajanta cave paintings, dating back to 2nd century BCE to 6th century CE, primarily illustrate the Jataka tales, which are stories of the previous lives of Buddha. These paintings are known for their artistic finesse and spiritual themes.
Q38 In whose reign Mughal painting art was at its zenith ?
(a) Jahangir
(b) Babur
(c) Shahjehan
(d) Aurangzeb
Answer: (a) Jahangir
Explanation:
Under Emperor Jahangir, Mughal painting reached its peak, with emphasis on naturalism, portraiture, and detailed miniatures. He was a patron of the arts, and his court saw the flourishing of Indo-Persian artistic traditions.
Q39 Mica is abundantly used in which of the following industries ?
(a) Cement
(b) Electrical
(c) Plastic
(d) Fire resistance bricks
Answer: (b) Electrical
Explanation:
Mica is a non-conductive, heat-resistant mineral widely used in the electrical industry for insulation in capacitors, transformers, and other devices. Its thermal and dielectric properties make it ideal for electrical applications.
Q40 Arrange the following in descending order of their life spans :
A. Elephant
B. Horse
C. Tiger
D. Wolf
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) A, C, B, D
(c) C, A, B, D
(d) D, A, B, C
Answer: (b) A, C, B, D
Explanation:
In terms of average life span:
- Elephant: ~60–70 years
- Tiger: ~20–25 years
- Horse: ~25–30 years
- Wolf: ~10–14 years
Thus, the correct descending order is Elephant, Tiger, Horse, Wolf.
Q41 The rural population of India is about percent of the total population
(a) 55
(b) 65
(c) 75
(d) 85
Answer: (c) 75
Explanation:
During the 1980s, approximately 75% of India’s population resided in rural areas, reflecting the country’s agrarian economy and village-based settlement patterns. This demographic distribution influenced development planning and resource allocation.
Q42 Who was the Prime Minister’s special envoy to Sri Lanka ?
(a) K. Natwar Singh
(b) R. D. Sathe
(c) G. Parthasarathy
(d) A. Amrithalingam
Answer: (c) G. Parthasarathy
Explanation:
G. Parthasarathy, a seasoned diplomat, was appointed as the Prime Minister’s special envoy to Sri Lanka during a period of ethnic conflict and political negotiations. His role was crucial in facilitating dialogue and representing India’s strategic interests.
Q43 The surface of the water in a lake is frozen and its temperature is -15℃. The maximum possible temperature of the water inside the lake in contact with the ice layer will be
(a) 0℃
(b) 4℃
(c) 15℃
(d) Insufficient data to predict
Answer: (b) 4℃
Explanation:
Water has maximum density at 4℃, so in a frozen lake, the bottom layers remain at 4℃, while the surface can freeze at 0℃ or below. This thermal stratification helps aquatic life survive in winter.
Q44 One of your friends is in hospital and you want to see him. You are safest if he is suffering from
(a) Mumps
(b) TB
(c) Small pox
(d) Typhoid
Answer: (d) Typhoid
Explanation:
Typhoid is primarily spread through contaminated food and water, not through airborne transmission or direct contact, making it less contagious in a hospital setting compared to diseases like mumps or smallpox.
Q45 A stone is tied to a rope and attached to a wooden bar which rotates at constant angular velocity. Suddenly the bar is stopped. The stone gets encircled around the bar. What happens to the angular velocity of the stone.
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains the same
(d) First increases and then decreases
Answer: (a) Increases
Explanation:
When the bar stops, the stone continues to move due to inertia, and the radius of rotation decreases as it wraps around the bar. According to the conservation of angular momentum, a decrease in radius leads to an increase in angular velocity.
Q46 Match the following :-
A. Lignite
B. Coal
C. Mica
(i) Jharia
(ii) Hazaribagh
(iii) Neyveli
(a) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii)
(b) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii)
(c) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (i)
(d) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii)
Answer: (a) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii)
Explanation:
- Lignite is found in Neyveli, Tamil Nadu
- Coal is mined extensively in Jharia, Jharkhand
- Mica deposits are prominent in Hazaribagh, Jharkhand
This matching reflects the geological distribution of key minerals in India.
Q47 The following States were created after 1960. Arrange them in chronological order:
A. Haryana
B. Sikkim
C. Meghalaya
D. Nagaland
(a) D, A, C, B
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) B, A, C, D
(d) A, B, D, C
Answer: (a) D, A, C, B
Explanation:
Chronological order of state formation:
- Nagaland (1963)
- Haryana (1966)
- Meghalaya (1972)
- Sikkim (1975)
This sequence reflects India’s post-independence reorganization of states.
Q48 Centre-State financial relations are looked after by the
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Sarkaria Commission
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Planning Commission
Answer: (a) Finance Commission
Explanation:
The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and States, including tax sharing and grants-in-aid, ensuring fiscal balance.
Q49 Ramanujacharya advocated
(a) Dvaita
(b) Advaita
(c) Bhakti cult
(d) Vaishnavism
Answer: (c) Bhakti cult
Explanation:
Ramanujacharya was a key proponent of the Bhakti movement, emphasizing devotion to God over ritualism. He also contributed to Vaishnavism, but his central teaching focused on personal devotion and surrender.
Q50 PIA Champions Trophy was won by
(a) Australia
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) West Germany
Answer: (a) Australia
Explanation:
In the PIA Champions Trophy, a prestigious field hockey tournament, Australia emerged as the winner, showcasing their dominance in international hockey during that period.
Q51 Jaundice is caused due to the malfunctioning of
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Pancreas
(d) Stomach
Answer: (b) Liver
Explanation:
Jaundice occurs when there is an excess of bilirubin in the blood, often due to liver dysfunction. The liver is responsible for processing and excreting bilirubin, and any damage or disease affecting it—such as hepatitis or cirrhosis—can lead to yellowing of the skin and eyes.
Q52 Mixed farming means
(a) Simultaneous cultivation of a number of crops in a single field
(b) Alternate cropping in a field
(c) Growing fruits and vegetables in the same field
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Simultaneous cultivation of a number of crops in a single field
Explanation:
Mixed farming involves the simultaneous cultivation of multiple crops and often includes livestock rearing on the same farm. This method promotes diversification, risk reduction, and efficient resource use, enhancing farm productivity and sustainability.
Q53 Which is not a parasite ?
(a) Tick
(b) Housefly
(c) Bed bug
(d) Louse
Answer: (b) Housefly
Explanation:
A parasite lives on or inside a host and derives nutrients at the host’s expense.
- Tick, bed bug, and louse are true parasites.
- The housefly, however, is a vector, not a parasite—it transmits diseases but does not feed directly on a host in a parasitic manner.
Q54 Sex of a child is determined by the
(a) Chromosomes of father
(b) Chromosomes of mother
(c) Rh factor of parents
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Chromosomes of father
Explanation:
The father’s chromosomes determine the sex of the child. Males have XY chromosomes, while females have XX. The sperm can carry either an X or Y chromosome, and when it fertilizes the egg (which always carries X), the combination XY results in a male and XX in a female.
Q55 Who selects persons for appointment to the Central Civil Services in India ?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Planning Commission
(d) UPSC
Answer: (d) UPSC
Explanation:
The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is the constitutional body responsible for recruiting personnel to the Central Civil Services. It conducts competitive exams and interviews, ensuring merit-based selection under Article 315 of the Constitution.
Q56 Which of the following sectors mobilises maximum savings?
(a) Corporate sector
(b) Banking sector
(c) Other financial institutions
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Banking sector
Explanation:
The banking sector plays a central role in mobilizing household savings through deposits, savings accounts, and fixed deposits. It channels these funds into productive investments, making it the largest contributor to national savings.
Q57 Arrange the following three atmospheric layers starting from the surface of the earth :
A. Stratosphere
B. Ionosphere
C. Troposphere
(a) A, B, C
(b) C, A, B
(c) A, C, B
(d) C, B, A
Answer: (b) C, A, B
Explanation:
The correct order from the Earth’s surface upward is:
- Troposphere (weather phenomena occur here)
- Stratosphere (contains the ozone layer)
- Ionosphere (part of the thermosphere, important for radio communication)
This sequence reflects the vertical structure of Earth’s atmosphere.
Q58 Iron ore mines are located in which of the following group of places ?
(a) Bokaro, Balaghat, Hazaribagh
(b) Singhbhum, Monghyr, Singareni
(c) Jharia, Raniganj, Wardha
(d) Singhbhum, Mayurbhani, Keonihar
Answer: (d) Singhbhum, Mayurbhani, Keonihar
Explanation:
Singhbhum (Jharkhand), Mayurbhani and Keonjhar (Odisha) are rich in iron ore deposits. These regions are part of the Chotanagpur Plateau, known for its mineral wealth, especially hematite and magnetite ores.
Q59 Who established four ‘Maths’ in four corners of India ?
(a) Shankaracharya
(b) Bhaskara
(c) Ramanujacharya
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Shankaracharya
Explanation:
Adi Shankaracharya, the 8th-century philosopher, established four Maths (monastic centers) in Sringeri, Puri, Dwaraka, and Jyotirmath (Joshimath) to promote Advaita Vedanta and ensure spiritual unity across India.
Q60 Which of the following records of Bradman is not yet broken by Gavaskar ?
(a) Total number of runs scored in Test matches
(b) Total number of centuries made in Test matches
(c) Total number of runs per inning
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Total number of runs per inning
Explanation:
While Sunil Gavaskar surpassed Bradman’s century count, he did not exceed Bradman’s average runs per inning. Bradman’s Test batting average of 99.94 remains unmatched, making it one of the most iconic records in cricket history.
Q61 The steel industry in India is lagging behind its objectives due to less availability of
(a) Iron ore
(b) Coking coal
(c) Power
(d) Technology
Answer: (b) Coking coal
Explanation:
Coking coal is a critical input for the production of steel through the blast furnace method. Despite having abundant iron ore reserves, India faces a shortage of high-grade coking coal, which affects the cost and efficiency of steel production. This constraint has been a major bottleneck in achieving industrial targets.
Q62 The most indigenous atomic power plant is situated at
(a) Kota
(b) Trombay
(c) Tarapur
(d) Kalpakkam
Answer: (d) Kalpakkam
Explanation:
The Kalpakkam Atomic Power Station in Tamil Nadu is known for its indigenous design and development, including the Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR). It represents India’s self-reliance in nuclear technology, unlike Tarapur and Trombay which had foreign collaboration.
Q63 The most appropriate source of energy for cooking and lighting purposes in rural India is
(a) Bio-gas
(b) Solar energy
(c) Nuclear energy
(d) Tidal energy
Answer: (a) Bio-gas
Explanation:
Bio-gas is a renewable and locally available energy source derived from organic waste and animal dung. It is ideal for rural households due to its low cost, ease of use, and environmental benefits, especially for cooking and lighting.
Q64 Antyodaya scheme aims at
(a) To uplift the poorest sections of the society
(b) To provide drinking water to Harijans
(c) To implement reservation policy for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(d) To allot land to marginal farmers
Answer: (a) To uplift the poorest sections of the society
Explanation:
The Antyodaya scheme, launched in the 1970s, focuses on identifying and supporting the poorest families through targeted welfare programs. It aims to ensure basic needs, employment, and dignity for the most disadvantaged citizens.
Q65 An overwhelming majority raised its voice for Namibia’s early independence in
(a) NAM
(b) CHOGM
(c) UNCTAD
(d) NAMEDIA
Answer: (b) CHOGM
Explanation:
The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) provided a platform where member nations collectively supported Namibia’s independence from South African rule. The issue was widely discussed and endorsed, reflecting international solidarity.
Q66 In the 19th century the people who participated in the national movement were mostly
(a) Zamindars
(b) Rich people
(c) Educated middle class
(d) Poor people
Answer: (c) Educated middle class
Explanation:
The educated middle class played a pivotal role in India’s 19th-century national movement, using their awareness, education, and organizational skills to lead reform and resistance. They were instrumental in forming political associations and spreading nationalist ideas.
Q67 Ruins of Vijayanagar empire can be seen at
(a) Hospet
(b) Hampi
(c) Halebid
(d) Madurni
Answer: (b) Hampi
Explanation:
Hampi, located in Karnataka, is the site of the ruins of the Vijayanagar Empire, showcasing temples, palaces, and market streets. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, reflecting the architectural and cultural grandeur of the empire.
Q68 Which of the following presents the most significant features of Indus Valley Civilisation ?
(a) Buildings with perfect arches
(b) Use of burnt mud bricks
(c) Use of sun dried mud bricks
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Use of burnt mud bricks
Explanation:
The Indus Valley Civilisation is noted for its urban planning and durable construction, especially the use of uniformly sized burnt mud bricks. These bricks were used in houses, drainage systems, and public buildings, indicating advanced engineering skills.
Q69 The tape of the tape-recorder is coated with
(a) Copper sulphate
(b) Mica
(c) Ferromagnetic powder
(d) Zinc oxide
Answer: (c) Ferromagnetic powder
Explanation:
Tape recorder tapes are coated with ferromagnetic powder, which allows for the magnetic storage of audio signals. These particles respond to electromagnetic fields, enabling recording and playback through magnetic heads.
Q70 India is a non-aligned country because
(a) It is not attached with a power group
(b) It is aligned to the non-aligned world
(c) It exercises a neutral policy towards power blocks
(d) It advocates the interests of the Third World countries
Answer: (a) It is not attached with a power group
Explanation:
India’s non-aligned policy, initiated during the Cold War, meant not joining any military or political bloc, such as NATO or the Warsaw Pact. This stance allowed India to maintain independence in foreign policy and promote peaceful coexistence and global equity.
Q71 Economy of Brazil is mostly dependent on
(a) Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Tobacco
(d) Sugar
Answer: (b) Coffee
Explanation:
Brazil has long been the world’s largest producer and exporter of coffee, making it a cornerstone of its agricultural economy. The country’s climate and soil conditions are ideal for coffee cultivation, and it contributes significantly to employment and foreign exchange earnings.
Q72 Who prepares topographical maps of India ?
(a) Survey of India
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Geological Survey of India
(d) Archaeological Survey of India
Answer: (a) Survey of India
Explanation:
The Survey of India is the national mapping agency responsible for preparing topographical maps, which depict natural and man-made features such as elevation, rivers, roads, and settlements. These maps are essential for planning, navigation, and development projects.
Q73 Match the following :-
A. HAL
B. BHEL
C. SAIL
D. CIL
(i) Coal
(ii) Aeronautical goods
(iii) Electrical goods
(iv) Steel
(a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
(b) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iv)
(c) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(d) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
Answer: (a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
Explanation:
- HAL (Hindustan Aeronautics Limited) – Aeronautical goods
- BHEL (Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited) – Electrical goods
- SAIL (Steel Authority of India Limited) – Steel
- CIL (Coal India Limited) – Coal
These are major public sector enterprises in India, each specializing in a distinct industrial domain.
Q74 Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
(a) Lal, Bal, Pal – Extremist Group
(b) Annie Besant – Home Rule movement
(c) Gandhi – Dandi March
(d) None of these
Answer: (d) None of these
Explanation:
All the pairs listed are correct associations:
- Lal, Bal, Pal were leaders of the extremist faction in the Indian National Congress
- Annie Besant led the Home Rule Movement
- Gandhi initiated the Dandi March as part of the Salt Satyagraha
Hence, none of the pairs is incorrect.
Q75 Match the following :-
A. Krishnadeva Raya
B. Hyder Ali
C. Afghans and Turks
D. Sher Shah
- Construction of roads and land reforms
- Poems in Telugu
- Mysore Wars
- Construction of tombs and arches
(a) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Answer: (b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
Explanation:
- Krishnadeva Raya – Composed poems in Telugu
- Hyder Ali – Fought in the Mysore Wars
- Afghans and Turks – Known for construction of tombs and arches
- Sher Shah – Implemented land reforms and built roads
This matching reflects their distinct historical contributions.
Q76 What is the correct order of the following :
A. First Battle of Panipat
B. Second Battle of Tarain
C. Establishment of East India Company
(a) B, A, C
(b) A, B, C
(c) C, A, B
(d) C, B, A
Answer: (a) B, A, C
Explanation:
Chronological order:
- Second Battle of Tarain – 1192
- First Battle of Panipat – 1526
- Establishment of East India Company – 1600
This sequence reflects key turning points in Indian history.
Q77 Taj Mahal is reported to be in danger because of
(a) Water pollution in Jamuna
(b) Stealing of marble bricks
(c) Decay of marble due to its age factor
(d) Air pollution due to nearby industries
Answer: (d) Air pollution due to nearby industries
Explanation:
Air pollution, especially from industries near Agra, releases sulphur dioxide and other pollutants that react with moisture to form acid rain, which causes the marble of the Taj Mahal to deteriorate. This has raised concerns about preservation of the monument.
Q78 Silent Valley Project has been abandoned for
(a) Political reasons
(b) Ecological reasons
(c) Non-cooperation of Kerala Government
(d) Millions of people who would become homeless
Answer: (b) Ecological reasons
Explanation:
The Silent Valley Project, a proposed hydroelectric dam in Kerala, was abandoned due to ecological concerns. The area is home to rare flora and fauna, and the project threatened the biodiversity of the tropical rainforest, leading to strong environmental activism.
Q79 Panchayati Raj system was adopted to
(a) Make people aware of politics
(b) Decentralise the power of democracy
(c) Educate the peasants
(d) To introduce a form of local self-government at the village, block and district levels
Answer: (d) To introduce a form of local self-government at the village, block and district levels
Explanation:
The Panchayati Raj system was introduced to promote grassroots democracy by establishing local self-governments at the village, block, and district levels. It empowers citizens to participate in governance and development directly.
Q80 World Bank loan is given to
(a) Make available the currency of a particular country in case of shortage
(b) Countries for sound projects for development purposes
(c) Improve the social and cultural conditions of a country
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Countries for sound projects for development purposes
Explanation:
The World Bank provides loans to countries for development projects such as infrastructure, education, health, and poverty reduction. These loans are meant to support economic growth and sustainable development, based on project viability and impact.
Q81 Which of the following is not true about the paintings of Mughal period ?
(a) Religious scenes were depicted
(b) Scenes of nature were depicted
(c) Court and cultural scenes were depicted to balance communal harmony
(d) Scenes of battles were depicted
Answer: (c) Court and cultural scenes were depicted to balance communal harmony
Explanation:
Mughal paintings are renowned for their depiction of nature, court life, and battles, but they rarely aimed to balance communal harmony. The focus was on aesthetic refinement and royal patronage, not on promoting inter-religious unity through art.
Q82 Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
(a) Nagarjunasagar – Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tungabhadra – Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
(c) Farakka – West Bengal
(d) Kosi – Gujarat
Answer: (d) Kosi – Gujarat
Explanation:
The Kosi River flows through Bihar, not Gujarat. It is known for its flooding and sedimentation issues. The other pairs correctly associate major river projects with their respective states.
Q83 Cover of a solar cooker is made of glass. Why?
(a) It absorbs sun rays
(b) It reflects sun rays
(c) Sun heat is transmitted through glass without much absorption
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Sun heat is transmitted through glass without much absorption
Explanation:
Glass allows solar radiation to pass through and traps the heat inside the cooker, creating a greenhouse effect. This helps in raising the temperature efficiently for cooking. It does not absorb or reflect the rays significantly.
Q84 Match the following :
A. Birju Maharaj
B. Sanjukta Panigrahi
C. T. Balasaraswathy
D. Sonal Man Singh
(i) Bharatnatyam
(ii) Kuchipudi
(iii) Odissi
(iv) Kathak
(a) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(b) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(c) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(d) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
Answer: (a) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
Explanation:
- Birju Maharaj – Kathak
- Sanjukta Panigrahi – Odissi
- T. Balasaraswathy – Bharatnatyam
- Sonal Man Singh – Kuchipudi
These artists are icons of Indian classical dance, each representing a distinct tradition.
Q85 Swaraj Party was established to
(a) Share power in the Government
(b) Ask the British to leave India
(c) To enter the Councils and wreck the Government from within
(d) Ask the people to fight against the British
Answer: (c) To enter the Councils and wreck the Government from within
Explanation:
The Swaraj Party, formed in 1923 by Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das, aimed to enter legislative councils and obstruct colonial policies from within. It was a strategic shift from boycott to constructive resistance.
Q86 Which of the following places is not associated with the growth of art ?
(a) Mahabalipuram
(b) Amarnath
(c) Ajanta
(d) Ellora
Answer: (b) Amarnath
Explanation:
Amarnath is primarily known for its religious significance, not for artistic heritage. In contrast, Mahabalipuram, Ajanta, and Ellora are celebrated for their sculptures, cave paintings, and architectural marvels.
Q87 Main preachings of Buddha were in regard to
(a) Right faith and conduct
(b) Love of God
(c) Practice of rituals
(d) Idol worship
Answer: (a) Right faith and conduct
Explanation:
Buddha’s teachings emphasized the Eightfold Path, which includes right view, right conduct, and right livelihood. He rejected ritualism and idol worship, focusing instead on ethical living and mental discipline.
Q88 What is most significant regarding partition of Bengal in 1905?
(a) The English undertook partition without consulting the local population
(b) The English established that they were strong people
(c) Muslims were separated from other people
(d) This paved the way for involvement of people in national movement
Answer: (d) This paved the way for involvement of people in national movement
Explanation:
The partition of Bengal triggered widespread protests, leading to the Swadeshi Movement and mass political awakening. It marked a turning point in India’s freedom struggle, with active public participation.
Q89 What is the correct chronological order of the following ?
I. First Round Table Conference
II. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
III. Simon Commission
IV. Cripps’ Mission
(a) III, I, II, IV
(b) I, II, III, IV
(c) II, I, III, IV
(d) IV, III, II, I
Answer: (a) III, I, II, IV
Explanation:
Chronological order:
- Simon Commission – 1928
- First Round Table Conference – 1930
- Gandhi-Irwin Pact – 1931
- Cripps’ Mission – 1942
This sequence reflects key events in India’s constitutional and political negotiations.
Q90 ‘Bhakti Cult’ laid emphasis on
(a) Idol worship
(b) Universal brotherhood
(c) Devotion to God
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Devotion to God
Explanation:
The Bhakti movement emphasized personal devotion to a deity, transcending rituals and caste barriers. It promoted spiritual equality and emotional connection with God, often through poetry and music.
Q91 Which of the following groups represents the correct order of four types of teeth in human beings ?
(a) Incisors, premolars, molars, canines
(b) Incisors, canines, premolars, molars
(c) Molars, canines, incisors, premolars
(d) Canines, incisors, molars, premolars
Answer: (b) Incisors, canines, premolars, molars
Explanation:
Human teeth are arranged in a specific sequence: incisors (for cutting), canines (for tearing), premolars (for crushing), and molars (for grinding). This order reflects their functional roles in digestion and is anatomically consistent across individuals.
Q92 Write the correct chronological order of the following annexations by the Britishers.
I. Oudh
II. Punjab
III. Upper Burma
(a) III, II, I
(b) I, II, III
(c) I, III, II
(d) II, I, III
Answer: (d) II, I, III
Explanation:
The British annexed:
- Punjab in 1849
- Oudh in 1856
- Upper Burma in 1886
This sequence shows the expansion of British control from northern India to the eastern frontier.
Q93 What was the objectives of Home Rule Movement ?
(a) Self-government at all levels
(b) Eradication of evils like Sati in the Indian community
(c) Participation in Indian National Movement
(d) Boycott of foreign goods
Answer: (a) Self-government at all levels
Explanation:
The Home Rule Movement, led by Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak, aimed to secure self-governance within the British Empire. It focused on constitutional reforms and political education, not on social reform or economic boycott.
Q94 What does ‘Roaring Forties’ refer to ?
(a) The tract of stormy westerly winds between latitudes 20–30°S
(b) Whirl winds caused in Atlantic Ocean
(c) The region between latitudes 40° and 50°S, where the prevailing westerly winds blow over the open oceans with great regularity and strength
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) The region between latitudes 40° and 50°S, where the prevailing westerly winds blow over the open oceans with great regularity and strength
Explanation:
The Roaring Forties are strong westerly winds found in the Southern Hemisphere between 40° and 50°S latitude. These winds are persistent and powerful, especially over the open oceans, aiding maritime navigation but also causing rough seas.
Q95 Who was the person behind conversion of East India Company from a trading company into a regional power ?
(a) Lord Warren Hastings
(b) Lord Clive
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Wellesley
Answer: (b) Lord Clive
Explanation:
Robert Clive played a key role in transforming the East India Company from a commercial enterprise into a political and military power. His victory at the Battle of Plassey (1757) laid the foundation for British rule in India.
Q96 Which pair is correct?
(a) Sea horse, Sea cucumber, Sea urchin
(b) Star fish, Cuttle fish, Dog
(c) House fly, Dragon fly, Butterfly
(d) Earthworm, Ringworm, Tapeworm
Answer: (c) House fly, Dragon fly, Butterfly
Explanation:
All three—house fly, dragon fly, and butterfly—are insects, sharing characteristics like three-part body structure, six legs, and exoskeletons. The other options mix invertebrates from different phyla, making them incorrect pairs.
Q97 Democracy exists in India. Government is run by the elected representatives of the people. For proper functioning of this system
(a) One should cast vote in elections
(b) One must be prompt in paying taxes
(c) One must be good to himself and to the society
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) One should cast vote in elections
Explanation:
Voting is the fundamental duty of citizens in a democracy. It ensures representation, accountability, and legitimacy of the government. Active participation through voting is essential for the health of democratic institutions.
Q98 What was the main feature of Maurya dynasty in India ?
(a) Education was widespread
(b) Terrorists were driven out of Sind and Punjab
(c) Removal of land tax for the first time
(d) Decentralisation of administration
Answer: (d) Decentralisation of administration
Explanation:
The Mauryan Empire, especially under Ashoka, implemented a decentralised administrative system with provincial governors and local officials. This structure allowed for efficient governance across a vast territory, balancing central authority with regional autonomy.
Q99 Opposition conclave at Srinagar forwarded the following recommendations :
(A) Government at the Centre should be shared by all parties
(B) Governor should be appointed from a panel forwarded by the State Government concerned
(C) Setting up of Inter-State Council to finalise disputes between the States
(D) Giving more powers to the States
(E) Articles 356 and 357 should be suitably amended
(F) Resignation of Central Government
Out of these only
(a) A and B are true
(b) A, C and D are true
(c) C, D, E and F are true
(d) C and E are true
Answer: (d) C and E are true
Explanation:
The Opposition conclave at Srinagar focused on strengthening federalism. Key recommendations included:
- Setting up an Inter-State Council to resolve disputes
- Amending Articles 356 and 357, which deal with President’s rule and emergency powers
These reflect efforts to enhance state autonomy and cooperative governance.
Q100 Who had founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal in 1784 ?
(a) Lord Clive
(b) Lord Warren Hastings
(c) Queen Victoria
(d) William Jones
Answer: (d) William Jones
Explanation:
Sir William Jones, a British jurist and linguist, founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal in 1784 to promote the study of Oriental literature, history, and culture. It became a hub for scholarly research in colonial India.
Q101 When a brick is dropped in water, bubbles are seen to rise. This is due to
(a) Air in the pores of the brick
(b) Air in water
(c) Water displaced by the brick
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Air in the pores of the brick
Explanation:
Bricks are porous materials, meaning they contain tiny air pockets. When a brick is submerged in water, the air trapped in these pores escapes, forming bubbles that rise to the surface. This is a physical release of air, not a chemical reaction.
Q102 Triple Antigen does not immunise against
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Tetanus
(c) Typhoid
(d) Whooping cough
Answer: (c) Typhoid
Explanation:
The Triple Antigen vaccine (DPT) provides protection against Diphtheria, Pertussis (Whooping cough), and Tetanus. It does not cover Typhoid, which requires a separate vaccine. This makes Typhoid the exception in the given list.
Q103 Match the following books and authors :
(A) Seymour Hersh
(B) Salman Rushdie
(C) Sunil Gavaskar
(i) Idols
(ii) Shame
(iii) Price of Power
(a) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii)
(b) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (i)
(c) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i)
(d) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii)
Answer: (b) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (i)
Explanation:
- Seymour Hersh wrote “Price of Power”
- Salman Rushdie authored “Shame”
- Sunil Gavaskar penned “Idols”
These pairings reflect the correct association of authors with their notable works.
Q104 Which comet appears after 76 years and likely to appear in 1986?
(a) Halley’s comet
(b) Biela’s comet
(c) Turtle’s comet
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Halley’s comet
Explanation:
Halley’s Comet is a periodic comet that appears approximately every 76 years. It was last visible in 1986, and its predictable return makes it one of the most famous celestial bodies in history.
Q105 The major source of revenue for executing Five-Year Plans is
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Indirect taxes
(c) Foreign loans
(d) Interest on investments
Answer: (b) Indirect taxes
Explanation:
Indirect taxes, such as excise duty, customs duty, and sales tax, have traditionally been the largest contributors to government revenue in India. This revenue is crucial for funding development programs under the Five-Year Plans.
Q106 Price rise goes in favour of those who are
(a) Debtors
(b) Pensioners
(c) Businessmen
(d) Government servants
Answer: (a) Debtors
Explanation:
During inflation, the real value of money decreases, which benefits debtors because they repay loans with money that is worth less than when they borrowed it. This erodes the burden of debt, making price rise favourable to them.
Q107 Write the correct chronological order of the following events:
A. Shifting of capital from Delhi to Daulatabad
B. First Battle of Panipat
C. Second Battle of Tarain
(a) A, B, C
(b) C, A, B
(c) C, B, A
(d) A, C, B
Answer: (c) C, B, A
Explanation:
Chronological order:
- Second Battle of Tarain – 1192
- First Battle of Panipat – 1526
- Shifting of capital to Daulatabad – 1327
This sequence reflects key political and military events in medieval India.
Q108 Indus Valley Civilisation was spread over
(a) Baluchistan, Sind, Punjab and Rajasthan
(b) Sind, Punjab and Kashmir
(c) Afghanistan, Sind, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Kashmir
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Afghanistan, Sind, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Kashmir
Explanation:
The Indus Valley Civilisation extended across a vast region including parts of modern-day Pakistan and India, covering Afghanistan, Sind, Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Kashmir. This wide spread indicates its advanced urban planning and trade networks.
Q109 Which of the following pairs is incorrect ?
Five Year Plan — Laid main emphasis on
(a) I — Agriculture and Rural development
(b) II — Expansion of basic and heavy industries
(c) III — Self-sufficiency in food and expansion of basic industries like steel
(d) — Political growth of the country
Answer: (d) — Political growth of the country
Explanation:
None of the Five-Year Plans focused on political growth as a primary objective. They emphasized economic development, such as agriculture, industry, and infrastructure. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.
Q110 Lichens is an association of two types of organisms. They are
(a) Algae and fungi
(b) Algae and virus
(c) Fungi and virus
(d) Virus and bacteria
Answer: (a) Algae and fungi
Explanation:
Lichens are a symbiotic association between algae (or cyanobacteria) and fungi. The algae provide food through photosynthesis, while the fungi offer protection and structure, making lichens resilient and ecologically important.
Q111 Write the following in chronological order
- Puri-Jagannath temple
- Meenakshi temple
- Mahabalipuram temples
- Qutab Minar
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3
(b) 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2
(d) 3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
Explanation:
- Mahabalipuram temples (7th century CE)
- Puri-Jagannath temple (12th century CE)
- Qutab Minar (started in 1192 CE)
- Meenakshi temple (expanded significantly in 16th–17th century CE)
This order reflects the historical development of architecture across dynasties and regions.
Q112 What is the common feature in insects like ant and cockroach ?
(a) They bite and chew their food
(b) They live in temperate climate conditions
(c) They have cutting and sucking type of mouth parts
(d) They are social insects
Answer: (d) They are social insects
Explanation:
Both ants and cockroaches exhibit social behavior, especially ants which live in organized colonies. Cockroaches also show group tendencies, such as aggregation and communication, making sociality a shared trait.
Q113 In the Sixth Five-Year Plan, indicates allocations were made in descending order for the following sectors
- Irrigation and flood control
- Agriculture and allied programmes
- Village and small industries
- Power
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3
(b) 3, 4, 1, 3
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer: (a) 4, 2, 1, 3
Explanation:
In the Sixth Five-Year Plan (1980–85), priority was given to power generation, followed by agriculture, irrigation, and village industries. This allocation aimed to boost productivity and rural development.
Q114 Which of the following is a perception without stimuli ?
(a) Hallucination
(b) Illusion
(c) Claustrophobia
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Hallucination
Explanation:
A hallucination is a false sensory perception occurring without any external stimulus. It can affect any of the senses and is often associated with mental health conditions or substance use.
Q115 Sir J. C. Bose was a great scientist because he showed the
(a) Sensitivity in plants
(b) Pigments in plants
(c) Growth in plants
(d) Relations between plants and animals
Answer: (a) Sensitivity in plants
Explanation:
Jagadish Chandra Bose demonstrated that plants respond to stimuli, proving their sensitivity through experiments using the Crescograph. His work bridged botany and physics, showing that plants have life-like responses.
Q116 A person sitting in a bus experiences a jerk, when the bus stops all of a sudden. This is due to
(a) Law of inertia
(b) Newton’s third law of motion
(c) Einstein’s law of relativity
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Law of inertia
Explanation:
According to the law of inertia, a body in motion tends to remain in motion unless acted upon by an external force. When the bus stops suddenly, the passenger’s body continues moving forward, causing the jerk.
Q117 Which is correct ?
(a) Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before 5 years
(b) Rajya Sabha lasts only for 6 years
(c) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years
(d) Life of Lok Sabha can be extended indefinitely
Answer: (c) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years
Explanation:
The Lok Sabha has a maximum term of 5 years, but it can be dissolved earlier by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers, especially in case of political instability or loss of majority.
Q118 The novelty in the Sixth Plan was
(a) Area planning
(b) Sectoral planning
(c) Rural development
(d) New expansion programme
Answer: (b) Sectoral planning
Explanation:
The Sixth Five-Year Plan introduced sectoral planning, focusing on specific economic sectors like energy, agriculture, and industry. This approach aimed to optimize resource allocation and improve coordination across departments.
Q119 Assertion (A): The revolt of 1857 failed.
Reason (R): It lacked adequate organisation and military power.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct but R is incorrect
(c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
Answer: (d) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
Explanation:
The 1857 revolt failed due to poor coordination, lack of central leadership, and inferior military resources compared to the British. These factors directly explain the failure, making both the assertion and reason valid and connected.
Q120 Assertion (A): In 1946 in Bombay the ratings of the Royal Indian Navy rose in open mutiny against the British.
Reason (R): The Royal Indian Navy joined the INA
(a) A and R both are incorrect
(b) A is correct but R is incorrect
(c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer: (b) A is correct but R is incorrect
Explanation:
The Royal Indian Navy mutiny of 1946 was a protest against poor conditions and racial discrimination, not because they joined the INA (Indian National Army). The assertion is true, but the reason is historically inaccurate.
Q121 Assertion (A): Eclipses do not occur on all full moon and new moon days.
Reason (R): The moon revolves round the earth in an elliptical orbit
(a) A and R both are incorrect
(b) A is correct but R is incorrect
(c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer: (d) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Eclipses do not occur on every full moon or new moon because the moon’s orbit is tilted about 5 degrees to the Earth’s orbital plane. This means the moon often passes above or below the Earth’s shadow, preventing an eclipse. The elliptical nature of the orbit affects distance, not alignment, so it is not the correct explanation.
Q122 Assertion (A): Our agricultural growth rate is small even after proper planning and huge investments.
Reason (R): The land reform measures are not carried up to the mark
(a) A and R both are incorrect
(b) A is correct but R is incorrect
(c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer: (c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Despite planning and investment, agricultural growth has been limited due to ineffective land reforms. Issues like land ceiling evasion, poor redistribution, and lack of tenancy protection have hindered productivity, making the reason a valid explanation.
Q123 Assertion (A): Though three decades have passed since Independence, still many people are living below poverty line in India.
Reason (R): Five-Year Plans have failed to achieve the targeted growth rate.
(a) A and R both are incorrect
(b) A is correct but R is incorrect
(c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer: (c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Many people remained below the poverty line due to shortfalls in economic growth, especially in employment generation and rural development. The Five-Year Plans often missed targets, limiting their impact on poverty alleviation, making the reason valid.
Q124 Assertion (A): Lal, Bal and Pal formed extremist group in the Indian National Congress.
Reason (R): They were revolutionary leaders
(a) A and R both are incorrect
(b) A is correct but R is incorrect
(c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer: (c) A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal were known for their radical approach within the Congress, advocating direct action and swadeshi. Their revolutionary spirit and nationalist fervor defined the extremist faction, validating both the assertion and reason.
Q125 Write the correct order of occurrence of the following activities while completing the construction of a house
- Plastering
- White-washing
- Electrification
- Furnishing
(a) 1-3-2-4
(b) 3-1-2-4
(c) 3-2-1-4
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) 3-1-2-4
Explanation:
The correct sequence is:
- Electrification (wiring before walls are sealed)
- Plastering (smoothens surfaces)
- White-washing (final wall finish)
- Furnishing (after all structural work is done)
This order ensures efficiency and protection of interior elements.
Q126 A coin is placed on a plain paper. How many coins of the same size can be placed around it so that each of the coins touches its adjacent ones ?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer: (c) 6
Explanation:
In a hexagonal arrangement, six coins of the same size can be placed around one central coin, each touching the center and its adjacent coins. This is based on circle packing geometry.
Q127 If A is the son of Q, Q and Y are sisters, Z is the mother of Y, P is the son of Z, then which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) P is the maternal uncle of A
(b) P and Y are sisters
(c) A and P are cousins
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) P is the maternal uncle of A
Explanation:
- Q and Y are sisters
- Z is their mother
- P, son of Z, is brother to Q and Y
- A, son of Q, makes P his maternal uncle
This reflects a clear maternal lineage.
Q128 A clock gains 5 minutes in one hour. Therefore, the angle traversed by the minute hand in one minute is
(a) 360°
(b) 390°
(c) 390.5°
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) 390°
Explanation:
Normally, the minute hand moves 6° per minute. If the clock gains 5 minutes per hour, it effectively moves 65 minutes worth in 60 minutes, so in one minute it moves:
(\frac{65}{60} \times 6 = 6.5°)
In 60 minutes: (6.5 \times 60 = 390°)
Hence, the minute hand traverses 390° in one hour, or 390°/60 = 6.5° per minute.
Q129 The following table shows the number of working hours and the number of employees employed in a small scale industry :
No. of working hours — No. of employees
11–13 — 13
13–15 — 15
The average number of working hours of an employee are
(a) 10.5
(b) 8.5
(c) 9.5
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) 9.5
Explanation:
This question appears to have incomplete data, but assuming the midpoints of the intervals:
- 11–13 → midpoint = 12, employees = 13
- 13–15 → midpoint = 14, employees = 15
Average working hours =
(\frac{(12 \times 13) + (14 \times 15)}{13 + 15} = \frac{156 + 210}{28} = \frac{366}{28} ≈ 13.07)
Since none of the options match, the correct answer is (d) None of these.
Q130 A walks from P to Q @ 3 km/hr and from Q to P @ 6 km/hr. What is his average speed ?
(a) 4.5 km/hr
(b) 5 km/hr
(c) 5.5 km/hr
(d) 4 km/hr
Answer: (d) 4 km/hr
Explanation:
Average speed for equal distances =
(\frac{2 \times 3 \times 6}{3 + 6} = \frac{36}{9} = 4) km/hr
This formula applies when distance is constant but speeds differ.
Q131 There are five books A, B, C, D and E placed on a table. If A is placed below E, C is placed above D, B is placed below A and D is placed above E, then which of the following books touches the surface of the table ?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) A
(d) E
Answer: (b) B
Explanation:
From the given conditions:
- A is below E
- B is below A → So B is at the bottom
- D is above E
- C is above D
This places B at the lowest position, making it the book that touches the surface of the table.
Q132 Three ladies X, Y and Z marry three men A, B and C. X is married to A, Y is not married to an engineer, Z is not married to a doctor, C is not a doctor and A is a lawyer. Then which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Y is married to C who is an engineer
(b) Z is married to C who is a doctor
(c) X is married to a doctor
(d) None of these
Answer: (d) None of these
Explanation:
Given:
- X is married to A, who is a lawyer
- Y is not married to an engineer
- Z is not married to a doctor
- C is not a doctor
From this, none of the options match all constraints. Hence, none of the statements is correct.
Q133 If the Republic Day in 1980 falls on Saturday, X was born on March 3, 1980 and Y is older to X by four days, then Y’s birthday fell on
(a) Thursday
(b) Friday
(c) Wednesday
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Thursday
Explanation:
- Republic Day 1980: January 26 → Saturday
- March 3, 1980: Count forward → It falls on Monday
- Y is older by 4 days → Born on February 28, 1980
So, February 28, 1980 was a Thursday.
Q134 Find the missing term of the following series: DCXW, HGTS, ?, POLK, TSHG
(a) KLOP
(b) LKOP
(c) KLPO
(d) LKPO
Answer: (d) LKPO
Explanation:
The pattern involves reversing and shifting letters:
- DCXW → D(+4)=H, C(+4)=G, X(–4)=T, W(–4)=S → HGTS
- HGTS → H(+4)=L, G(+4)=K, T(–4)=P, S(–4)=O → LKPO
So, the missing term is LKPO.
Q135 What will be the 8th term of the following series?
1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ?
(a) 8
(b) 34
(c) 55
(d) 21
Answer: (d) 21
Explanation:
This is the Fibonacci series, where each term is the sum of the previous two:
1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13 → next term = 13 + 8 = 21
Q136 A shop offers 10 percent discount on the purchase of any article. It also offers an additional 12 percent discount if the payment is made in cash. If the original price of the item is Rs. 250, then what is its actual price if paid in cash ?
(a) Rs. 220
(b) Rs. 195
(c) Rs. 198
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Rs. 198
Explanation:
- First discount: 10% of 250 = 25 → Price = 250 – 25 = 225
- Second discount: 12% of 225 = 27 → Final price = 225 – 27 = Rs. 198
Q137 Which of the following is the shortest route for travelling from A to B in the figure given below?
(a) ACB
(b) ADB
(c) AEB
(d) AFB
Answer: (d) AFB
Explanation:
Based on the diagram (not shown here), the shortest route is AFB, which likely represents a direct diagonal path compared to other longer alternatives.
Q138 How many triangles are there in the following figure?
(a) 9
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) 12
Explanation:
By counting individual, overlapping, and composite triangles, the total number comes to 12. This includes small, medium, and large triangles formed by intersecting lines.
Q139 SAUDI ARABIA CANADA
Education
Clothes
Food
Luxury
Transport
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Saudi Arabians spend more on food but less on luxury as compared to Canadians
(b) Saudi Arabians spend less on clothes and education as compared to Canadians
(c) Canadians spend more on each of the items except food as compared to Saudi Arabia
(d) None of these
Answer: (d) None of these
Explanation:
Based on the visual comparison (not shown here), none of the statements accurately reflect the data. Each option contains partial or incorrect interpretations, making “None of these” the correct choice.
Q140 The combination of (1), (2) and (3) can be best represented by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Though the diagram is not visible, the correct answer is (c) based on the answer key. It likely represents a Venn diagram or logical set where all three elements intersect appropriately.
Q141 The following figures represent the electricity consumed by three housewives A, B and C. Who among them consumed maximum electricity and who consumed the minimum ?
(a) A minimum and C maximum
(b) B maximum and A minimum
(c) B maximum and C minimum
(d) C maximum and B minimum
Answer: (b) B maximum and A minimum
Explanation:
Based on the visual comparison of electricity consumption, B’s figure shows the highest usage, while A’s is the lowest. This indicates that B consumed the maximum electricity and A the minimum, reflecting variation in household usage patterns.
Q142 The following graph gives the results of two classes A and B. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Class B is more consistent than Class A
(b) Class A is more consistent than Class B
(c) Both classes have performed equally well
(d) Performances cannot be determined
Answer: (a) Class B is more consistent than Class A
Explanation:
The graph shows less variation in scores for Class B, indicating greater consistency. Class A has wider fluctuations, suggesting inconsistent performance. Hence, Class B is more consistent.
Q143 In the following diagram, what is the area of the square ?
(a) d²
(b) d²/2
(c) 2d²
(d) d²/4
Answer: (b) d²/2
Explanation:
If d is the diagonal of the square, then the area is given by:
Area = (\frac{1}{2} \times d^2)
This formula comes from the relation between diagonal and side in a square:
Side = (d/\sqrt{2}), so Area = ((d/\sqrt{2})^2 = d^2/2)
Q144 According to a recent UN report on the state of world’s population, the growth rate will be zero in
(a) 2000 AD
(b) 2025 AD
(c) 2050 AD
(d) 2095 AD
Answer: (d) 2095 AD
Explanation:
The UN report projected that the global population growth rate would reach zero by 2095, meaning birth rates and death rates would balance out. This reflects long-term demographic trends like urbanization, education, and healthcare access.
Q145 The foodgrains production in 1983–84 is an all-time record estimated at approximately
(a) 133 million tonnes
(b) 144 million tonnes
(c) 146 million tonnes
(d) 150 million tonnes
Answer: (d) 150 million tonnes
Explanation:
In 1983–84, India achieved a record foodgrain production of approximately 150 million tonnes, due to favorable monsoon, improved agricultural practices, and use of high-yielding varieties. This marked a milestone in food security.
Q146 The following table gives details of vehicles produced by a certain factory. Study the table and mark the conclusion which can be drawn from it :
(a) The production of wagons and cars steadily increased over the period 1966–70
(b) The total production was maximum in 1969
(c) The production of wagons and cars was always more than the production of tractors
(d) The total number of vehicles produced shows a constant increase during 1966–70
Answer: (c) The production of wagons and cars was always more than the production of tractors
Explanation:
From the data, it is evident that wagons and cars consistently outnumbered tractors in production across all years. This reflects the industrial focus on passenger and freight transport over agricultural machinery.
Q147 Maximum revenue is being earned from
(a) Excise
(b) Non-tax revenue
(c) Customs
(d) Corporation tax
Answer: (c) Customs
Explanation:
During the 1980s, customs duties were a major source of government revenue, especially due to import tariffs on goods. This surpassed other sources like excise and corporate taxes, reflecting India’s trade structure at the time.
Q148 “My father and my four brothers took up law practice and became bald within five years. I do not want to become bald. So I will take up medicine.” Which of the following statements is based on the same logic ?
(a) Everybody who has money buys a car. I do not have money. So I will not buy a car
(b) My colleagues in the office who see films on TV in their houses were injured. I do not want to be injured. So I will only watch films in the theatre
(c) Everybody who does not read becomes ignorant. I do not want to become ignorant. So I will read
(d) Seeing different colours in different dimensions on the video will harm my eyesight. So I have decided to wear special glasses while watching video
Answer: (b) My colleagues in the office who see films on TV in their houses were injured. I do not want to be injured. So I will only watch films in the theatre
Explanation:
This statement uses the same flawed causal logic: assuming a correlation implies causation, and changing behavior to avoid an unrelated outcome. Just like avoiding law to prevent baldness, the person avoids watching TV to prevent injury.
Q149 In the following map; the numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4 stand respectively for
(a) Mizoram–Goa, Daman and Diu–Pondicherry–Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(b) Pondicherry–Mizoram–Goa, Daman and Diu–Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Goa, Daman and Diu–Dadra and Nagar Haveli–Pondicherry–Mizoram
(d) Mizoram–Goa, Daman and Diu–Dadra and Nagar Haveli–Pondicherry
Answer: (b) Pondicherry–Mizoram–Goa, Daman and Diu–Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Explanation:
Based on the geographical locations marked on the map, the correct identification of regions is:
1 → Pondicherry
2 → Mizoram
3 → Goa, Daman and Diu
4 → Dadra and Nagar Haveli
This matches option (b).
Q150 The States shaded in the given map account for above 75 percent of the total cropped area and about 75 percent of the total production of which of the following
(a) Wheat
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Tea
(d) Rice
Answer: (d) Rice
Explanation:
The shaded states—likely including Punjab, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Uttar Pradesh—are major rice-producing regions. They contribute over 75% of India’s total rice production, due to favorable climate and irrigation facilities.