Q1. A meteor is
(a) a rapidly moving star
(b) a piece of matter which has entered the earth’s atmosphere from outer space
(c) part of a constellation
(d) a comet without a tail
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A meteor is a fragment of matter from outer space that enters the earth’s atmosphere, producing a streak of light due to frictional heating. It is not a star or a comet, but a solid particle that becomes visible when it burns upon atmospheric entry.
Q2. The word ‘Hindu’ as reference to the people of Hind (India) was first used by
(a) the Greeks
(b) the Romans
(c) the Chinese
(d) the Arabs
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The term ‘Hindu’ was first used by the Arabs to describe the people living beyond the Indus River (Sindhu). The word evolved from geographical usage to a cultural and religious identity, but its origin lies in Arab references to the Indian subcontinent.
Q3. Given below is a map of some countries which were parts of the erstwhile Soviet Union, with water bodies shown by shaded areas :
The countries marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are respectively
(a) Tajikistan, Turkmenia, Uzbekistan, Kirgizia, Kazakhstan
(b) Turkmenia, Kirgizia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, Kazakhstan
(c) Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, Kirgizia, Turkmenia
(d) Kazakhstan, Turkmenia, Uzbekistan, Kirgizia, Tajikistan
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The correct sequence of countries marked on the map corresponds to Kazakhstan, Turkmenia, Uzbekistan, Kirgizia, and Tajikistan, based on their geographical location and relative positioning in Central Asia. These were all part of the former Soviet Union, and their identification relies on map-based spatial awareness.
Q4. To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, the Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) SBI
(d) SBI
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was empowered to regulate the capital markets in India to ensure transparency, investor protection, and prevention of fraudulent practices. It plays a central role in monitoring and enforcing rules for stock exchanges and market participants.
Q5. Consider the table given below providing some details of the results of the election to the Karnataka State Legislative : Assembly held in December, 1994.
Political Party | Percentage of popular votes obtained | Number of seats secured
Janata Dal | 36 | 116
Congress | 31 | 35
BJP | 20.4 | 40
In terms of electoral analysis, the voter-seat distortion is to be explained as the result of the adoption of the
(a) Hare system
(b) Cumulative vote system
(c) First-past-the-post system
(d) Plural vote system
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The First-past-the-post system leads to disproportionate seat allocation compared to vote share. In this case, Janata Dal secured a majority of seats with only 36% of votes, showing how winning candidates in individual constituencies can dominate the assembly even without majority support across the electorate.
Q6. Who among the following was a Brahmavadini who composed some hymns of the Vedas ?
(a) Lopamudra
(b) Gargi
(c) Leelavati
(d) Savitri
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Lopamudra was a Brahmavadini, a woman sage who composed Vedic hymns. She is known for her intellectual contributions to Rigvedic literature, and her verses reflect philosophical depth and spiritual insight, marking her as a prominent female figure in ancient Indian scholarship.
Q7. The Alpine vegetation in the western Himalayas is found only up to a height of 3000 metres, while in the eastern Himalayas it is found up to a height of 4000 metres. The reason for this variation in the same mountain range is that
(a) eastern Himalayas are higher than western Himalayas
(b) eastern Himalayas are nearer to the Equator and sea coast than western Himalayas
(c) eastern Himalayas get more monsoon rainfall than the western Himalayas
(d) eastern Himalayan rocks are more fertile than the western Himalayan rocks
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The eastern Himalayas receive more monsoon rainfall, which supports vegetation at higher altitudes. The moist climate allows Alpine flora to thrive up to 4000 metres, whereas the drier western Himalayas limit vegetation to lower elevations due to less precipitation.
Q8. According to the 1991 Census, the highest percentage of population in India is to be found in the age-group of
(a) 60 years and above
(b) 35 to 55 years
(c) 25 to 34 years
(d) 5 to 14 years
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The 1991 Census revealed that the 5 to 14 years age group had the highest percentage of population, reflecting India’s youthful demographic profile. This age group is significant for education and future workforce planning, indicating a high birth rate and population momentum.
Q9. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India ?
(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Election Commission recommends the schedule, and the formal notification is issued by the President (for Lok Sabha) or Governors (for State Assemblies). This reflects the constitutional procedure where executive authority issues the notification, but the Election Commission controls the process.
Q10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List I (Eras) | List II (Reckoned from)
I. Vikrama era | (A) 3102 B.C.
II. Saka era | (B) 320 A.D.
III. Gupta era | (C) 78 A.D.
IV. Kali era | (D) 58 B.C.
(E) 248 A.D.
Codes :
(a) I-B, II-D, III-E, IV-A
(b) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
(c) I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-C
(d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The correct matches are:
- Vikrama era began in 58 B.C.
- Saka era started in 78 A.D.
- Gupta era is reckoned from 320 A.D.
- Kali era is calculated from 3102 B.C.
These eras are used in Indian historical and calendrical systems, and their starting points are well-established in traditional chronology.
Q11. The standard time of the following countries is ahead or behind Greenwich Mean Time depending on whether they are east or west of the longitude passing through Greenwich :
I. Cuba
II. Greece
III. Iraq
IV. Costa Rica
V. Japan
Which one of the following sequential orders gives the correct arrangement of the countries according to their standard time from ahead to behind GMT?
(a) V, III, II, I, IV
(b) II, IV, I, III, V
(c) IV, I, III, II, V
(d) III, V, IV, I, II
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Countries located east of Greenwich have time ahead of GMT, while those to the west are behind GMT. The correct order from most ahead to most behind is:
Japan (V) → Iraq (III) → Greece (II) → Cuba (I) → Costa Rica (IV).
This reflects their longitudinal positions relative to Greenwich.
Q12. Which one of the following Five-Year Plans recognised human development as the core of all developmental efforts?
(a) The Third Five-Year Plan
(b) The Fifth Five-Year Plan
(c) The Sixth Five-Year Plan
(d) The Eighth Five-Year Plan
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–1997) emphasized human development as central to economic progress. It focused on education, health, employment, and poverty alleviation, marking a shift from purely economic targets to people-centric planning.
Q13. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra-legal device(s) for securing cooperation and coordination between the States in India?
I. The National Development Council
II. The Governors’ Conference
III. Zonal Councils
IV. The Inter-State Council.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, III and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) IV only
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
National Development Council, Governors’ Conference, and Zonal Councils are extra-constitutional and extra-legal mechanisms created for inter-state coordination. They are not mentioned in the Constitution, unlike the Inter-State Council, which is a constitutional body under Article 263.
Q14. The original home of the gypsies was
(a) Egypt
(b) Russia
(c) India
(d) Persia
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Gypsies, also known as Roma people, trace their ethnic origins to India, particularly the northwestern regions. Linguistic and genetic studies confirm their migration from India around a thousand years ago.
Q15. Which one of the following is the continent with the highest mean elevation in the world?
(a) Antarctica
(b) North America
(c) Asia
(d) South America
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Antarctica has the highest mean elevation among all continents due to its thick ice sheets and mountainous terrain. The average elevation exceeds 2000 metres, making it the loftiest continent.
Q16. Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)?
I. To stabilise agricultural prices.
II. To ensure meaningful real income levels to the farmers.
III. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural commodities at reasonable rates through public distribution system.
IV. To ensure maximum price for the farmer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The CACP aims to:
- Stabilize agricultural prices to avoid market volatility
- Ensure fair income for farmers
- Balance consumer interests via reasonable pricing in the public distribution system
It does not aim for maximum prices, but for remunerative and stable returns.
Q17. Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?
I. Election of the President
II. Representation of States in Parliament
III. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
IV. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Amendments affecting the Election of the President, Representation of States in Parliament, and Lists in the Seventh Schedule require ratification by at least half of the State legislatures under Article 368(2). Abolition of Legislative Council is done by Parliament alone.
Q18. In Sanskrit plays written during the Gupta Period women and sudras speak
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Prakrit
(c) Pali
(d) Sauraseni
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In Gupta-era Sanskrit dramas, women and sudras typically spoke Prakrit, a vernacular language, while elite characters used Sanskrit. This reflected social stratification and linguistic conventions of classical Indian theatre.
Q19. The graph given below shows the mean average monthly temperatures (in °C) and mean monthly rainfall (in cms) of a place :
This graph is indicative of which one of the climatic zones of the world?
(a) Wet and dry tropical
(b) Rainy tropical
(c) Semi-arid tropical
(d) Temperate marine
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The graph shows distinct wet and dry seasons with high temperatures year-round, typical of wet and dry tropical climates. These zones have seasonal rainfall and are found in regions like savannas.
Q20. Consider the table given below :
Which one of the following will fit in the place marked ‘X’?
(a) Ministers who are not Members of Parliament but who have to get themselves elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members
(c) Not more than 20 representatives of Union Territories
(d) The Attorney-General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The correct entry for ‘X’ is not more than 20 representatives of Union Territories, as per Article 81 of the Constitution. These members are elected to represent Union Territories in the Lok Sabha.
Q21. The name by which Asoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is
(a) Chakravarti
(b) Dharmadeva
(c) Dharmakirti
(d) Priyadarsi
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In his inscriptions, Asoka refers to himself as ‘Priyadarsi’, meaning ‘He who looks with kindness upon all beings’. This title reflects his Dhamma-oriented governance and compassionate rule, especially after his conversion to Buddhism.
Q22. Consider the map given below :
The divisions along India’s coastal region indicate
(a) coastal pollution zones
(b) salinity density isopleths
(c) the areas upto which sovereignty extends
(d) underwater relief contours
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The divisions shown on the map represent underwater relief contours, which are submarine topographic features. These contours help in understanding depth variations and marine geography along the Indian coastline.
Q23. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha?
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies vote in Rajya Sabha elections, and also participate in the electoral college for Lok Sabha under certain conditions. Their role is crucial in indirect elections to the Upper House.
Q24. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara are
(a) the three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
(b) the three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified
(c) the three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(d) the three main musical gharanas prevalent in India
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
These are the three principal styles of Indian temple architecture:
- Nagara (North India)
- Dravida (South India)
- Vesara (a hybrid style found in Deccan)
Each style has distinct structural features, reflecting regional aesthetics and religious practices.
Q25. In the map given below, three out of the four places marked indicate places where a thermal power station is located :
The place where there is no thermal power station is marked
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Among the marked locations, place 2 does not host a thermal power station. The other three are known for thermal energy generation, while this one is either non-industrial or associated with other forms of power.
Q26. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List I | List II
I. European transcontinental railway | (A) Paris to Istanbul
II. Trans-Andean railway | (B) Leningrad to Vladivostok
III. Trans-Siberian railway | (C) Leningrad to Volgograd
IV. Orient Express | (D) Buenos Aires to Valparaiso
(E) Paris to Warsaw
Codes:
(a) I-E, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(b) I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B
(c) I-E, II-A, III-B, IV-C
(d) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The correct matches are:
- European transcontinental railway → Paris to Warsaw
- Trans-Andean railway → Buenos Aires to Valparaiso
- Trans-Siberian railway → Leningrad to Vladivostok
- Orient Express → Paris to Istanbul
These routes are historically significant and represent major international rail connections.
Q27. As part of the liberalisation programme and with a view to attracting foreign exchange, the Government and the RBI have devised two schemes known as FCNR ‘A’ and FCNR ‘B’. Which of the following is/are true regarding these two schemes?
I. Under scheme ‘A’ RBI bears exchange rate fluctuations.
II. Under scheme ‘B’, other banks are to meet out the difference in exchange rate fluctuations.
III. Both the schemes stand withdrawn now.
IV. Only scheme ‘A’ has been withdrawn.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) III only
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II and IV
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Under FCNR ‘A’, the RBI bore the exchange rate risk, while in FCNR ‘B’, the commercial banks took on that responsibility. Eventually, scheme ‘A’ was withdrawn, leaving ‘B’ operational for a time. These schemes were part of foreign currency deposit mobilization.
Q28. Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council so far even though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Though the Seventh Amendment allows for Legislative Councils, Madhya Pradesh has not constituted one. Other states like Maharashtra, Bihar, and Karnataka have bicameral legislatures, including Legislative Councils.
Q29. In the map given below four areas are differently shaded, three of which indicate cereal crops production areas and one indicates non-cereal crop production area.
As per the index given, the non-cereal crop production area is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Based on the shading and index, area 4 corresponds to non-cereal crop production, possibly indicating cash crops or plantation crops. The other areas are known for cereal cultivation like wheat, rice, or maize.
Q30. In the interim government formed in 1946, the Vice-President of the Executive Council was
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(c) C. Rajagopalachari
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In the interim government of 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru served as the Vice-President of the Executive Council, effectively acting as the de facto Prime Minister before independence. This role was pivotal in transitioning to self-rule.
Q31. Which of the following are among the non-plan expenditures of the Government of India?
I. Defence expenditure
II. Subsidies
III. All expenditures linked with the previous plan periods
IV. Interest payment
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Non-plan expenditures include defence, subsidies, interest payments, and committed liabilities from previous plans. These are recurring costs not directly linked to current developmental planning but essential for government functioning.
Q32. “Monoculture of commercially viable trees is destroying the unique natural profile of ………… Thoughtless exploitation of timber, deforesting vast tracts for palm cultivation, destruction of mangroves, illegal logging by tribals and poaching only compound the problem. Fresh water pockets are fast drying up due to deforestation and destruction of mangroves.” The place referred to in this quotation is
(a) Sunderbans
(b) Kerala Coast
(c) Orissa Coast
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Sunderbans, a mangrove-rich ecosystem, faces threats from monoculture, deforestation, and illegal activities. These actions disrupt freshwater balance and biodiversity, making the region ecologically vulnerable.
Q33. The Mughal School of Painting formed the spinal column of the various schools of Indian miniature art. Which one of the following painting styles was not affected by Mughal painting?
(a) Pahari
(b) Rajasthani
(c) Kangra
(d) Kalighata
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Kalighata paintings, originating in Bengal, were folk-based and developed independently of Mughal influence. In contrast, Pahari, Rajasthani, and Kangra styles show clear Mughal artistic impact in themes and techniques.
Q34. Who among the following were famous jurists of medieval India?
I. Vijnanesvara
II. Hemadri
III. Rajasekhara
IV. Jimutavahana
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I and IV
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Vijnanesvara, Hemadri, and Jimutavahana were renowned jurists who contributed to Hindu law and legal texts. Their works like Mitakshara and Dayabhaga shaped medieval jurisprudence in India.
Q35. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Increase in foreign exchange reserves — Monetary expansion
II. Low import growth rate in India — Recession in Indian Industry
III. Euroissues — Shares held by Indian companies in European countries
IV. Portfolio investment — Foreign institutional investors
(a) I, II and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Increase in forex reserves leads to monetary expansion
- Low import growth signals industrial slowdown
- Portfolio investment involves foreign institutional investors
Euroissues, however, are international capital raising instruments, not shares held abroad.
Q36. Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this?
I. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term.
II. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 156 allows the President to remove the Governor at any time, and also permits continuation beyond five years until a successor is appointed. Hence, neither statement is strictly true.
Q37. Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was abandoned because of the disease
(a) leaf blight
(b) leaf spot
(c) leaf rust
(d) rot
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Leaf rust, a fungal disease, devastated coffee plantations in Sri Lanka, leading to a shift toward tea cultivation. It causes premature leaf fall, reducing photosynthesis and yield.
Q38. What is the annual growth rate aimed at in the Eighth Five-Year Plan?
(a) 5.6%
(b) 6%
(c) 6.5%
(d) 7%
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–1997) targeted a 5.6% annual growth rate, focusing on human development, liberalization, and economic restructuring to boost inclusive growth.
Q39. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) the Right against Exploitation
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) the Right to Equality
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Article 15 falls under the Right to Equality, prohibiting discrimination based on religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. It ensures equal access to public spaces and opportunities.
Q40. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I | List II
I. Ernesto Zedillo | (A) Uruguay
II. Alberto Fujimori | (B) Brazil
III. Julio Maria Sanguinetti | (C) Mexico
IV. Fernando H. Cardoso | (D) Bolivia
(E) Peru
Codes:
(a) I–C, II–E, III–A, IV–B
(b) I–D, II–E, III–C, IV–A
(c) I–C, II–D, III–V, IV–B
(d) I–E, II–C, III–A, IV–D
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Ernesto Zedillo → Mexico
- Alberto Fujimori → Peru
- Julio Maria Sanguinetti → Uruguay
- Fernando H. Cardoso → Brazil
These leaders were prominent in Latin American politics during the 1990s.
Q41. Which one of the following is the largest mutual fund organisation in India?
(a) SBI Mutual Fund
(b) GIC Mutual Fund
(c) Industrial Bank Mutual Fund
(d) Unit Trust of India
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Unit Trust of India (UTI) was the largest mutual fund organisation in India during the 1990s. It played a pioneering role in mobilizing savings and offering investment options to the public, especially through schemes like US-64.
Q42. According to the Mimamsa system of philosophy, liberation is possible by means of
(a) Jnana
(b) Bhakti
(c) Yoga
(d) Karma
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Mimamsa philosophy emphasizes ritualistic action (karma) as the path to liberation (moksha). It advocates performance of Vedic duties and sacrifices, considering action superior to knowledge or devotion.
Q43. The lead character in the film The Bandit Queen has been played by
(a) Pratibha Sinha
(b) Rupa Ganguly
(c) Seema Biswas
(d) Shabana Azmi
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Seema Biswas portrayed the role of Phoolan Devi in the film The Bandit Queen, delivering a critically acclaimed performance that captured the complexity and trauma of the character’s life.
Q44. The Nobel Prize for deciphering the language of bees was awarded to
(a) H.G. Khurana
(b) K.V. Frisch
(c) Julian Huxley
(d) Dorothy Hodgkins
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Karl von Frisch (K.V. Frisch) received the Nobel Prize for his work on bee communication, especially the waggle dance, which conveys direction and distance to food sources. His research revealed the sophisticated signaling system used by bees.
Q45. The palaeomagnetic results obtained from India indicate that in the past, the Indian land mass has moved
(a) northward
(b) southward
(c) eastward
(d) westward
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Palaeomagnetic studies show that the Indian plate drifted northward from its original position near Antarctica, eventually colliding with the Eurasian plate to form the Himalayas.
Q46. Corporation tax
(a) is levied and appropriated by the States
(b) is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States
(c) is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the States
(d) is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Corporation tax is a Union subject, levied and retained exclusively by the Central Government. It is not shared with the States and forms a part of the Union’s revenue.
Q47. In which one of the following States of India it is legal for a Hindu male and illegal for a Muslim male to have more than one living wife?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Mizoram
(c) Goa
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
In Goa, the Portuguese Civil Code applies, which prohibits polygamy for all citizens, including Muslims, making it illegal for a Muslim male to have more than one wife, unlike in other Indian states.
Q48. Which of the following constitute the World Bank?
I. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
II. International Finance Corporation
III. International Development Association
IV. International Monetary Fund
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The World Bank Group includes:
- IBRD
- IFC
- IDA
The IMF is a separate entity, not part of the World Bank Group, though both are Bretton Woods institutions.
Q49. Of the four places marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 on the map, the one indicating a tidal port is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Place 4 corresponds to a tidal port, which is influenced by tidal movements and requires dredging and tidal synchronization for navigation. Examples include Kandla and Diamond Harbour.
Q50. The radical wing of the Congress Party, with Jawaharlal Nehru as one of its main leaders, founded the ‘Independence for India League’ in opposition to
(a) the Gandhi–Irwin Pact
(b) the Home Rule Movement
(c) the Nehru Report
(d) the Montford Reforms
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Independence for India League was formed by radical Congress leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose in opposition to the Gandhi–Irwin Pact, which they felt was too conciliatory towards the British.
Q51. Agricultural income-tax is assigned to the State Governments by
(a) the Finance Commission
(b) the National Development Council
(c) the Inter-State Council
(d) the Constitution of India
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Constitution of India assigns agricultural income-tax to the State Governments, as agriculture is a State subject under the Seventh Schedule. This ensures fiscal autonomy for states in matters related to agricultural revenue.
Q52. Bronze icons of Nataraja cast during the Chola period invariably show the deity with
(a) eight hands
(b) six hands
(c) four hands
(d) two hands
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Chola bronze icons of Nataraja depict the deity with four hands, symbolizing creation, protection, destruction, and grace. These sculptures are renowned for their artistic elegance and spiritual symbolism.
Q53. Willy-Willy is
(a) a type of tree grown in temperate regions
(b) a wind that blows in a desert
(c) a tropical cyclone of the northwest Australia
(d) a kind of common fish found near Lakshadweep islands
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Willy-Willy refers to a tropical cyclone occurring in northwest Australia. It is characterized by strong winds, heavy rainfall, and is part of the regional naming conventions for cyclonic storms.
Q54. Consider the map given below indicating four places frequently figuring in the news:
Which one of them is Chechenya?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Chechenya is located in the North Caucasus region of Russia, and on the map, it corresponds to place 3. It has been in the news due to conflicts and separatist movements.
Q55. Which one of the following is not an instrument of selective credit control in India?
(a) Regulation of consumer credit
(b) Rationing of credit
(c) Margin requirements
(d) Variable cost reserve ratios
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Variable cost reserve ratios are part of general monetary policy tools, not selective credit control. Instruments like margin requirements, credit rationing, and consumer credit regulation target specific sectors to control credit flow.
Q56. The term Yavanapriya, mentioned in ancient Sanskrit texts, denoted
(a) a fine variety of Indian muslin
(b) ivory
(c) damsels sent to the Greek court for dance performance
(d) pepper
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Yavanapriya means ‘beloved of the Greeks’, and it referred to pepper, a highly valued spice exported from India to the Western world, especially during ancient trade with the Roman Empire.
Q57. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with
(a) denationalisation of banks
(b) electoral reforms
(c) steps to put down insurgency in the North-East
(d) the problem of the Chakmas
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Dinesh Goswami Committee focused on electoral reforms, recommending changes in electoral laws, transparency, and political funding to strengthen democratic processes in India.
Q58. Which one of the following monuments has a dome which is said to be one of the largest in the world?
(a) Tomb of Sher Shah, Sasaram
(b) Jama Masjid, Delhi
(c) Tomb of Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq, Delhi
(d) Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Gol Gumbaz in Bijapur has one of the largest domes in the world, second only to St. Peter’s Basilica in Rome. It is an architectural marvel of the Deccan Sultanate period.
Q59. Which one of the following is true regarding the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)?
(a) It was launched during the Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi
(b) It aims at creating one million jobs annually
(c) The target group of JRY are the urban poor living below the poverty line
(d) Under the scheme 30% of the employment generated is reserved for women
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY) was aimed at rural employment generation, and it mandated that 30% of jobs be reserved for women, promoting gender inclusion in poverty alleviation efforts.
Q60. Bank Rate implies the rate of interest
(a) paid by the Reserve Bank of India on the Deposits of Commercial Banks
(b) charged by Banks on loans and advances
(c) payable on Bonds
(d) at which the Reserve Bank of India discounts the Bills of Exchange
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Bank Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India discounts bills of exchange or lends to commercial banks. It influences the cost of borrowing and is a key tool in monetary policy.
Q61. Which one of the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses majority in the Lower House
(c) All the parts of India are to be represented in the Council of Ministers
(d) In the event of both the President and the Vice-President demitting office simultaneously before the end of their tenure the Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The idea that all parts of India should be represented in the Council of Ministers is a political convention, not a constitutional mandate. It reflects an effort to ensure regional balance and inclusivity, but it is not explicitly stated in the Constitution.
Q62. Which one of the following was an emigree Communist Journal of M.N. Roy?
(a) Kisan Sabha
(b) The Worker
(c) Vanguard
(d) Anushilan
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Vanguard was a Communist journal published by M.N. Roy during his exile. It served as a platform for Marxist ideas and revolutionary thought, especially among Indian expatriates and intellectuals.
Q63. In which one of the following crops international trade is low in the context of total produce?
(a) Rice
(b) Coffee
(c) Rubber
(d) Wheat
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Rice has low international trade relative to its global production, as it is mostly consumed domestically in major producing countries like India and China. Trade is limited due to food security concerns and cultural preferences.
Q64. The Narasimham Committee for Financial Sector Reforms has suggested reduction in
(a) SLR and CRR
(b) SLR, CRR and Priority Sector Financing
(c) SLR and Financing to capital goods sector
(d) CRR, Priority Sector Financing and Financing to capital goods sector
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Narasimham Committee recommended reducing Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), and Priority Sector Lending to improve financial efficiency, credit flow, and banking competitiveness.
Q65. Which of the following are the States in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister in its ambit?
(a) West Bengal and Kerala
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In Gujarat and Maharashtra, the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister, allowing investigation into allegations of corruption or misconduct. This enhances accountability at the highest executive level.
Q66. Ashtapradhan was a Council of Ministers
(a) in the Gupta Administration
(b) in the Chola Administration
(c) in the Vijayanagar Administration
(d) in the Maratha Administration
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Ashtapradhan was an eight-member council under Shivaji’s Maratha administration, each minister handling a specific portfolio like finance, foreign affairs, and internal security, forming a structured governance model.
Q67. The Indian subcontinent was originally part of a huge land mass called
(a) Jurassic Land Mass
(b) Aryavarta
(c) Indiana
(d) Gondwana Continent
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Indian subcontinent was part of the Gondwana Continent, which later drifted northward due to plate tectonics, eventually colliding with Asia to form the Himalayas.
Q68. Which of the following are correctly matched?
I. Hamas — Palestinian extremist group
II. Sinn Fein — IRA’s political wing
III. True Path Party — A major constituent of the ruling coalition in Turkey
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
All three are correctly matched:
- Hamas is a Palestinian militant group
- Sinn Fein is the political wing of the Irish Republican Army (IRA)
- True Path Party was a key political party in Turkey’s coalition government
Q69. Which one of the following does not belong to biosphere reserves set up so far?
(a) Great Nicobar
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Gulf of Kachchh
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Gulf of Kachchh is a marine ecosystem, but it is not designated as a biosphere reserve. The others—Great Nicobar, Sunderbans, and Nanda Devi—are officially recognized biosphere reserves under UNESCO’s Man and Biosphere Programme.
Q70. Consider the map given below:
The route indicated in the map was followed, during the course of his military exploits, by
(a) Chandragupta II
(b) Harshavardhana
(c) Rajendra Chola
(d) Malik Kafur
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The route shown corresponds to the southern military campaign of Rajendra Chola, who led naval expeditions across Southeast Asia, asserting Chola dominance and expanding trade and influence.
Q71. The clouds float in the atmosphere because of their low
(a) temperature
(b) velocity
(c) pressure
(d) density
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Clouds float because of their low density compared to the surrounding air. The tiny water droplets or ice crystals in clouds are suspended due to buoyant forces and air currents, making them appear to float in the atmosphere.
Q72. Which one of the following mountain ranges is spread over only one State in India?
(a) Aravalli
(b) Satpura
(c) Ajanta
(d) Sahyadri
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Ajanta range is confined to Maharashtra, making it a state-specific mountain range. Other ranges like Aravalli, Satpura, and Sahyadri extend across multiple states, covering broader geographical areas.
Q73. Hughly was used as a base for piracy in the Bay of Bengal by
(a) the Portuguese
(b) the French
(c) the Danish
(d) the British
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Portuguese established a base at Hughly and engaged in piracy and trade in the Bay of Bengal during the early colonial period. Their activities led to conflicts with local rulers and other European powers.
Q74. In the field of space technology, India has demonstrated during 1994, her capability to
(a) design advance intercontinental ballistic missile warning systems
(b) build satellites
(c) build stealth missiles
(d) launch geostationary satellites
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In 1994, India successfully demonstrated its ability to launch geostationary satellites, marking a significant milestone in its space technology development. This capability supports telecommunication, weather forecasting, and broadcasting services.
Q75. The ‘Modi script’ was employed in the documents of the
(a) Wodeyars
(b) Zamorins
(c) Hoysalas
(d) Marathas
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Modi script was used extensively by the Maratha administration for official documentation and correspondence. It is a cursive script derived from Devanagari, designed for speedy writing.
Q76. One of the reasons for India’s occupational structure remaining more or less the same over the years has been that
(a) investment pattern has been directed towards capital-intensive industries
(b) productivity in agriculture has been high enough to induce people to stay with agriculture
(c) ceilings on land holdings have enabled more people to own land and hence their preference to stay with agriculture
(d) people are largely unaware of the significance of transition from agriculture to industry for economic development
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
India’s investment pattern has favored capital-intensive industries, which generate fewer jobs, leading to limited structural change in employment. As a result, a large portion of the population remains in agriculture, despite its low productivity.
Q77. Which one of the following countries had in 1994 voted against joining the European Union?
(a) Norway
(b) Sweden
(c) Finland
(d) Austria
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In 1994, Norway held a referendum and voted against joining the European Union, citing concerns over sovereignty and economic independence. Other countries like Sweden, Finland, and Austria joined the EU around that time.
Q78. Examine the map given below:
The places marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 were respectively the seats of powers of the
(a) Scindias, Holkars, Gaekwads and Bhonsles
(b) Holkars, Scindias, Gaekwads and Bhonsles
(c) Gaekwads, Bhonsles, Scindias and Holkars
(d) Scindias, Holkars, Bhonsles and Gaekwads
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The correct sequence of Maratha dynasties based on the map is:
- Scindias (Gwalior)
- Holkars (Indore)
- Gaekwads (Baroda)
- Bhonsles (Nagpur)
These were prominent Maratha rulers during the 18th and 19th centuries.
Q79. Which of the following benefits are likely to accrue to India from the World Trade Organisation?
I. India’s share in the world trade is to go up from the present 600 million US dollars to 5 billion US dollars by 2000 A.D.
II. It will help boost exports of agricultural commodities from India.
III. India’s share in the world trade is likely to triple by the year 2000 A.D.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) promotes free and fair trade, which can help boost India’s agricultural exports and increase its global trade share. While exact figures may vary, the trend of growth is expected to be positive and significant.
Q80. Comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 hit the planet
(a) Pluto
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 collided with Jupiter in 1994, providing scientists with valuable data on planetary atmospheres and impact dynamics. The event was observed globally and marked a rare astronomical occurrence.
Q81. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Battle of Buxar ………….. Mir Jafar vs. Clive
(b) Battle of Wandiwash …………… French vs. East India Company
(c) Battle of Chilianwala …………… Dalhousie vs. Marathas
(d) Battle of Kharda …………… Nizam vs. East India Company
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Battle of Wandiwash (1760) was fought between the French and the British East India Company, marking a decisive British victory in the Carnatic Wars. It effectively ended French colonial ambitions in India.
Q82. Examine the following statements:
I. All children are inquisitive.
II. Some children are inquisitive.
III. No children are inquisitive.
IV. Some children are not inquisitive.
Among these statements, the two statements which cannot both be true simultaneously but can both be false would be
(a) I and III
(b) I and IV
(c) II and III
(d) III and IV
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Statements I (All children are inquisitive) and III (No children are inquisitive) are mutually exclusive, so they cannot both be true. However, both can be false if some children are inquisitive and some are not, making them logically incompatible but falsifiable.
Q83. Arakan Yoma is the extension of the Himalayas located in
(a) Baluchistan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Nepal
(d) Kashmir
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Arakan Yoma range is located in Myanmar and is considered a southeastern extension of the Himalayas. It plays a role in climatic and geographic separation between India and Myanmar.
Q84. The signatories to the treaty banning chemical weapons include
(a) USA, Russia, India, Iran and Israel
(b) Iraq, Libya, India, Russia and China
(c) Brazil, Angola, North Korea, Pakistan and USA
(d) Syria, Sri Lanka, Japan, Singapore and France
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) was signed by countries including the USA, Russia, India, Iran, but not Israel as a ratified member. However, in the context of the options, (a) best reflects the major signatories involved in the global ban on chemical weapons.
Q85. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
I. The Lucknow Pact
II. The Introduction of Dyarchy
III. The Rowlatt Act
IV. The Partition of Bengal
(a) I, III, II, IV
(b) IV, I, III, II
(c) I, II, III, IV
(d) IV, III, II, I
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The chronological order is:
- Partition of Bengal (1905)
- Lucknow Pact (1916)
- Rowlatt Act (1919)
- Introduction of Dyarchy (1919 Government of India Act)
This sequence reflects the political developments during British rule.
Q86. The national highway from Delhi to Calcutta via Mathura and Varanasi is numbered
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
National Highway 2 (NH-2) connects Delhi to Kolkata, passing through Mathura, Kanpur, Allahabad, Varanasi, and other major cities. It is part of the historic Grand Trunk Road.
Q87. The word Adivasi was used for the first time to refer to the tribal people by
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Thakkar Bappa
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Thakkar Bappa, a noted social reformer, was among the first to use the term ‘Adivasi’ to describe India’s tribal communities, emphasizing their indigenous status and cultural identity.
Q88. The concept of Anuvrata was advocated by
(a) Mahayana Buddhism
(b) Hinayana Buddhism
(c) Jainism
(d) the Lokayata school
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Anuvrata refers to small vows taken by lay followers in Jainism, promoting ethical living, non-violence, and truthfulness. It is a scaled-down version of Mahavratas followed by monks.
Q89. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India?
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in the federal system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The correct reservation for women in local bodies is 33% (now 50% in many states), not 30%. Hence, option (b) is factually incorrect. The other statements reflect constitutional provisions and mechanisms under the 73rd and 74th Amendments.
Q90. The Barrah dacoity was the first major venture of the revolutionary terrorist of the freedom movement in
(a) Bombay-Karnataka
(b) Punjab
(c) East Bengal
(d) The Madras Presidency
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Barrah dacoity (1908) was a revolutionary act in East Bengal, carried out by Jugantar members. It marked the beginning of armed resistance against British rule through terrorist methods.
Q91. Which of the following political parties is/are national political parties?
I. Muslim League
II. Revolutionary Socialist Party
III. All-India Forward Block
IV. Peasants and Workers Party of India
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
None of the listed parties—Muslim League, Revolutionary Socialist Party, All-India Forward Block, or Peasants and Workers Party of India—qualify as national political parties under the Election Commission’s criteria. They are recognized as state-level or regional parties.
Q92. The main reason for low growth rate in India, in spite of high rate of savings and capital formation is
(a) high birth rate
(b) low level of foreign aid
(c) low capital/output ratio
(d) high capital/output ratio
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
A high capital/output ratio means that more capital is required to produce a unit of output, indicating inefficiency in resource utilization. Despite high savings and investment, this leads to slower economic growth.
Q93. Examine the map of Jammu and Kashmir given below:
The mountain ranges marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 are respectively
(a) Ladakh, Zanskar, Karakoram and Pir Panjal
(b) Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar and Pir Panjal
(c) Karakoram, Zanskar, Pir Panjal and Ladakh
(d) Ladakh, Pir Panjal, Karakoram and Zanskar
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The correct sequence based on the geographical layout is:
- 1: Karakoram
- 2: Ladakh
- 3: Zanskar
- 4: Pir Panjal
These ranges form the major mountain systems in Jammu and Kashmir, each with distinct altitude and terrain features.
Q94. The largest source of financing the public sector outlay of the Eighth Five-Year Plan comes from
(a) balance from current revenue
(b) contribution of public enterprises
(c) government borrowings
(d) deficit financing
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–1997) relied heavily on government borrowings to fund public sector outlays, reflecting a shift toward market-based financing and fiscal restructuring.
Q95. The new Exim Policy announced in 1992 is for a period of
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 5 years
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The 1992 Exim Policy was formulated for a five-year period, aiming to liberalize trade, promote exports, and integrate India with the global economy through policy reforms.
Q96. Consider the following:
I. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
II. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India
III. Industrial Development Bank of India
IV. Unit Trust of India
The correct sequence in which the above were established is
(a) I, II, IV, III
(b) I, III, II, IV
(c) IV, III, II, I
(d) I, IV, III, II
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The chronological order of establishment is:
- I. IFCI (1948)
- II. ICICI (1955)
- IV. UTI (1964)
- III. IDBI (1964)
This sequence reflects the evolution of financial institutions supporting industrial development in India.
Q97. In 1930 Mahatma Gandhi started Civil Disobedience Movement from
(a) Sevagram
(b) Dandi
(c) Sabarmati
(d) Wardha
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Civil Disobedience Movement began from Sabarmati Ashram, where Gandhi commenced the Dandi March to protest the salt tax, marking a turning point in India’s freedom struggle.
Q98. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that
(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
A candidate loses their deposit if they fail to secure a minimum percentage of valid votes. If the winner loses the deposit, it implies vote fragmentation due to many contestants, leading to low individual vote shares.
Q99. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Jamnalal Bajaj – Satyagraha Ashram at Wardha
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji – Bombay Association
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai – National School at Lahore
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak – Satya Shodhak Sabha
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Satya Shodhak Sabha was founded by Jyotirao Phule, not Bal Gangadhar Tilak. The other associations are correctly matched with their respective leaders and contributions to social reform and nationalism.
Q100. Which one of the following is a mixed fertilizer?
(a) CAM
(b) Urea
(c) Ammonium Sulphate
(d) NPK
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
NPK is a mixed fertilizer containing Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), and Potassium (K). It provides balanced nutrients essential for plant growth, unlike single-nutrient fertilizers like urea or ammonium sulphate.
Q101. Which one of the following polymers is widely used for making bullet proof material?
(a) Polyvinyl chloride
(b) Polyamides
(c) Polyethylene
(d) Polycarbonates
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Polyamides, especially Kevlar, are widely used in bulletproof materials due to their high tensile strength, light weight, and resistance to impact. These properties make them ideal for personal armor and ballistic protection.
Q102. The chemical used as a ‘fixer’ in photography is
(a) sodium sulphate
(b) sodium thiosulphate
(c) ammonium persulphate
(d) borax
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Sodium thiosulphate acts as a fixer in photography, removing unexposed silver halide crystals from the film, thereby stabilizing the image and preventing further exposure to light.
Q103. The technique used to transmit audio signals in television broadcasts is
(a) Amplitude Modulation
(b) Frequency Modulation
(c) Pulse Code Modulation
(d) Time Division Multiplexing
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Frequency Modulation (FM) is used to transmit audio signals in television broadcasts because it offers better noise immunity and higher fidelity compared to amplitude modulation.
Q104. A parachutist jumps from a height of 5000 metres. The relationship between his falling speed ‘v’ and the distance fallen through ‘d’ is best represented as
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The falling speed initially increases due to gravity but eventually stabilizes due to air resistance, reaching terminal velocity. Hence, the v–d graph flattens, showing a non-linear relationship.
Q105. Which one of the following can be used to confirm whether drinking water contains a gamma emitting isotope or not?
(a) Microscope
(b) Lead plate
(c) Scintillation counter
(d) Spectrophotometer
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A scintillation counter detects gamma radiation by converting it into light pulses, which are then measured. It is a sensitive instrument used in radiation monitoring and isotope detection.
Q106. The normal temperature of human body on the Kelvin scale is
(a) 280
(b) 290
(c) 300
(d) 310
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The normal human body temperature is 37°C, which equals 310 Kelvin. The Kelvin scale is used in scientific measurements and starts from absolute zero.
Q107. When the same note is played on a sitar and a flute, the sound produced can be distinguished from each other because of the difference in
(a) pitch, loudness and quality
(b) pitch and loudness
(c) quality only
(d) loudness only
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The quality (timbre) of sound depends on the instrument’s structure and harmonics. Even if pitch and loudness are the same, the distinct sound signatures of a sitar and flute make them recognizable.
Q108. Assertion (A): A diamond sparkles more than a glass imitation cut to the same shape.
Reason (R): The refractive index of diamond is less than that of glass.
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The assertion is true—diamond sparkles due to high refractive index and dispersion. But the reason is false, because diamond’s refractive index is higher than glass, not lower.
Q109. Who among the following anticipated Newton by declaring that all things gravitate to the earth?
(a) Aryabhata
(b) Varahamihira
(c) Buddhagupta
(d) Brahmagupta
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Brahmagupta, a 7th-century Indian mathematician, proposed that objects fall due to earth’s attraction, anticipating the concept of gravity long before Newton’s formal theory.
Q110. Optical fibre works on the principle of
(a) total internal reflection
(b) refraction
(c) scattering
(d) interference
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Optical fibres transmit light using total internal reflection, allowing signals to travel long distances with minimal loss. This principle ensures efficient communication in telecom and internet networks.
Q111. Suppose a rocketship is receding from the earth at a speed of 2/10th the velocity of light. A light in the rocketship appears blue to the passengers on the ship. What colour would it appear to an observer on the earth?
(a) Blue
(b) Orange
(c) Yellow
(d) Yellow orange
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Due to the Doppler effect, light from a receding source shifts toward the red end of the spectrum. A blue light seen on the rocketship would appear yellow to an observer on Earth because of this redshift caused by relative motion.
Q112. Which one of the following pairs of materials serves as electrodes in chargeable batteries commonly used in devices such as torchlights, electric shavers, etc?
(a) Nickel and cadmium
(b) Zinc and carbon
(c) Lead peroxide and lead
(d) Iron and cadmium
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Nickel–cadmium (Ni–Cd) batteries use nickel oxide hydroxide and cadmium as electrodes. They are rechargeable, have long life cycles, and are commonly used in portable electronic devices.
Q113. Cryogenic engines find applications in
(a) submarine propulsion
(b) frost-free refrigerators
(c) rocket technology
(d) researches in superconductivity
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Cryogenic engines operate using liquefied gases at extremely low temperatures, such as liquid hydrogen and oxygen, and are used in rocket propulsion due to their high efficiency and thrust capability.
Q114. The variations in temperatures from 0°C to 100°C with respect to time of two liquids P, Q are shown in the graph given below. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) During heating, liquid P remained hotter than liquid Q throughout
(b) At no point of time during heating did the two liquids have the same temperature
(c) P attained the temperature of 100°C faster than Q
(d) Q attained the temperature of 100°C faster than P
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The graph shows that liquid Q reaches 100°C before liquid P, indicating it heats up faster. This could be due to lower specific heat capacity or better thermal conductivity, allowing quicker temperature rise.
Q115. An air bubble in water will act like a
(a) convex mirror
(b) convex lens
(c) concave mirror
(d) concave lens
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
An air bubble in water behaves like a convex lens because light rays bend outward as they pass from denser water to rarer air, creating a converging effect similar to a convex lens.
Q116. The difference between a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb is that
(a) no chain reaction takes place in nuclear reactor while in the atomic bomb there is a chain reaction
(b) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled
(c) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not controlled
(d) no chain reaction takes place in atomic bomb while it takes place in nuclear reactor
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In a nuclear reactor, the chain reaction is controlled using moderators and control rods, allowing steady energy production. In contrast, an atomic bomb involves an uncontrolled chain reaction, leading to massive energy release.
Q117. Which one of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution?
(a) Diesel
(b) Coal
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Kerosene
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Hydrogen is a clean fuel that produces water vapor as its only byproduct when burned. It causes minimal environmental pollution, unlike fossil fuels which emit carbon dioxide and other pollutants.
Q118. Zero was invented by
(a) Aryabhata
(b) Varahamihira
(c) Bhaskara I
(d) an unknown Indian
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The concept of zero as a numeral was developed by ancient Indian mathematicians, but its exact inventor remains unknown. It was a revolutionary idea that transformed mathematics and computation.
Q119. Which one of the following sets is correctly matched?
(a) Diphtheria, Pneumonia and Leprosy : Hereditary
(b) AIDS, Syphilis and Gonorrhoea : Bacterial
(c) Colour blindness, Hemophilia and Sickle cell anaemia : Sex linked
(d) Polio, Japanese B encephalitis and plague : Viral
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Colour blindness, hemophilia, and sickle cell anaemia are sex-linked genetic disorders, typically associated with X-chromosome mutations. They are inherited conditions, not caused by pathogens.
Q120. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is sometimes called a universal recipient because of the
(a) lack of antigen in his blood
(b) lack of antibodies in his blood
(c) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his blood
(d) presence of antibodies in his blood
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A person with AB blood group has both A and B antigens but no anti-A or anti-B antibodies, allowing them to receive blood from any group without immune reaction, hence the term universal recipient.
Q121. Which one of the following is a membrane that protects the developing embryo from desiccation?
(a) Amnion
(b) Allantois
(c) Chorion
(d) Yolk sac
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The amnion is a protective membrane that surrounds the embryo, forming the amniotic sac filled with fluid. It prevents desiccation (drying out) and provides mechanical protection, making it vital for embryonic development.
Q122. Which one of the following antimicrobial drugs is suitable for treatment of both tuberculosis and leprosy?
(a) Isoniazid
(b) p-aminosalicylic acid
(c) Streptomycin
(d) Rifampicin
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Rifampicin is effective against both tuberculosis and leprosy. It works by inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis, making it a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in multi-drug therapy for these diseases.
Q123. Most of the desert plants bloom during night time because
(a) their blooming is controlled by low temperature
(b) they are sensitive to the phases of moon
(c) the desert insects eat away flowers during day time
(d) the desert insects are active during night time
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Desert plants bloom at night because pollinating insects like moths and beetles are nocturnal. This adaptation helps in successful pollination while avoiding harsh daytime conditions and water loss.
Q124. The only snake that builds a nest is
(a) Chain viper
(b) King Cobra
(c) Krait
(d) Saw-scaled viper
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The King Cobra is the only snake known to build a nest. It uses leaves and debris to construct a mound-like structure where it lays eggs and guards them, showing parental behavior uncommon in snakes.
Q125. Which of the following elements are present in all proteins?
I. Carbon
II. Hydrogen
III. Oxygen
IV. Nitrogen
(a) II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
All proteins are composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen, forming amino acids, the building blocks of proteins. These elements are essential for protein structure and function.
Q126. Which one of the following hormones contains iodine?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Testosterone
(c) Insulin
(d) Adrenaline
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Thyroxine, produced by the thyroid gland, contains iodine atoms. It regulates metabolism, growth, and development, and its synthesis depends on iodine intake.
Q127. “By weaving threads of physics, chemistry and biology into a rich tapestry, this remarkable scientist provided a unifying molecular view of the world… He touted the wonderful properties of Vitamin C first as a cure of common cold and later as a preventive agent against cancer.” One of science’s major figures of all time referred to above is
(a) G.N. Lewis
(b) Linus Carl Pauling
(c) Fritz London
(d) Walter Heitler
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Linus Carl Pauling was a Nobel laureate who made groundbreaking contributions to chemical bonding and molecular biology. He advocated the use of Vitamin C for health benefits, including cold prevention and cancer therapy.
Q128. “The final Agent Orange raid in Vietnam took place in 1970;… areas have begun to bloom again. But 19 years after the war’s end, it seems plain that Agent Orange is killing and maiming human beings…” The offensive substance referred to in the above quotation is
(a) DDT used as insecticide
(b) a complex mixture of herbicides and weedicides used to increase agricultural output
(c) a complex mixture of DDT and other insecticides used as aerial sprays
(d) dioxin used as defoliants
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Agent Orange contained dioxin, a toxic defoliant used during the Vietnam War to destroy forest cover. It caused long-term health issues, including cancer, birth defects, and environmental damage.
Q129. “It begins as a single cell and grows into a merciless disease that claims millions of lives year after year…” The disease referred to in the above quotation is
(a) Cancer
(b) AIDS
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The description matches cancer, which starts from a single mutated cell and progresses into uncontrolled growth, affecting millions globally. Advances in research and treatment have improved survival rates, but it remains a major health challenge.
Q130. ‘Yellow cake’, an item of smuggling across borders is
(a) a crude form of heroin
(b) a crude form of cocaine
(c) uranium oxide
(d) unrefined gold
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Yellow cake is a concentrated form of uranium oxide, used in nuclear fuel processing. It is a strategic material, and its illegal trade raises concerns about nuclear proliferation and security.
Q131. Consider the series given below :
4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96,…
The next term of the series is
(a) 24/3/96
(b) 25/3/96
(c) 26/3/96
(d) 27/3/96
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The dates in the series are spaced 28 days apart, indicating a consistent 4-week interval. Adding 28 days to 26/2/96 gives 25/3/96, maintaining the pattern.
Q132. In track meets both 100 yards and 100 metres are used as distances. By how many metres is 100 metres longer than 100 yards?
(a) 0.856 m
(b) 8.56 m
(c) 0.0856 m
(d) 1.0 m
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
1 yard = 0.9144 metres.
So, 100 yards = 91.44 metres.
100 metres − 91.44 metres = 8.56 metres, making 100 metres longer by 8.56 m.
Q133. Examine the following statements:
I watch TV only if I am bored.
I am never bored when I have my brother’s company.
Whenever I go to the theatre, I take my brother along.
Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the above statements?
(a) If I am bored, I watch TV
(b) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s company
(c) If I am not with my brother, then I watch TV
(d) If I am not bored, I do not watch TV
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The first statement says TV is watched only when bored. So, if not bored, then TV is not watched. This makes option (d) the logically valid conclusion.
Q134. In the given diagram, circle A represents teachers who can teach Physics, circle B represents teachers who can teach Chemistry and circle C represents those who can teach Mathematics. Among the regions marked p, q, r… the one which represents teachers who can teach Physics and Mathematics but not Chemistry is
(a) v
(b) u
(c) s
(d) t
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Region u lies in the intersection of Physics and Mathematics circles, but outside Chemistry, representing teachers who can teach Physics and Mathematics only.
Q135. Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is
(a) blue
(b) violet
(c) red
(d) orange
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Based on visibility and position logic, if E wears indigo, and G cannot see orange, then F must be wearing red, which is not visible to E, satisfying all conditions.
Q136. A person travelled from one place to another at an average speed of 40 km/h and back at 50 km/h. What is his average speed during the entire round trip?
(a) 45
(b) 20
(c) 400/9
(d) Impossible to find out unless the distance between the two places is known
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Average speed for round trip =
( \frac{2ab}{a + b} = \frac{2 \times 40 \times 50}{40 + 50} = \frac{4000}{90} = \frac{400}{9} ) km/h.
Q137. The value of (a^m)(b^m)…(y^m)(z^m) is
(a) m²⁶ + am²⁵ + abm²⁴ +…+ a.b.c…z
(b) m²⁶ + am²⁵ + abm²⁴ +…+ a.b.c…z
(c) 0
(d) Indeterminate
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The expression involves multiplying all 26 letters raised to power m. If any variable is zero, the entire product becomes zero. Since no values are given, the safest assumption is zero, making the result 0.
Q138. A rectangular sump of dimensions 6 m × 5 m × 4 m is to be built using bricks to make the outer dimension 6.2 m × 5.2 m × 4.2 m. Approximately how many bricks of size 20 cm × 10 cm × 5 cm are required?
(a) 1500
(b) 3000
(c) 15000
(d) 30000
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Volume of outer box = 6.2 × 5.2 × 4.2 = 135.408 m³
Volume of inner box = 6 × 5 × 4 = 120 m³
Brick volume = 0.2 × 0.1 × 0.05 = 0.001 m³
Difference = 15.408 m³
Number of bricks = 15.408 ÷ 0.001 = 15,408 ≈ 15,000
Q139. PQRS is a square of side 1 unit and Q, S are the centres of two circles. The area of the shaded portion is
(a) π/2 − 1
(b) π − 1
(c) 1 − π/2
(d) 2 − π
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Area of square = 1 unit²
Each circle has radius 0.5 (half of side)
Area of two semicircles = π × (0.5)² = π/2
Shaded area = 1 − π/2 = 2 − π
Q140. A thief running at 8 km/h is chased by a policeman at 10 km/h. If the thief is 100 metres ahead, the time required for the policeman to catch him is
(a) 2 minutes
(b) 6 minutes
(c) 10 minutes
(d) 3 minutes
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Relative speed = 10 − 8 = 2 km/h = 2000 m/h
Time = Distance ÷ Speed = 100 ÷ (2000/60) = 3 minutes
So, the policeman catches the thief in 3 minutes.
Q141. A student has 60% chance of passing in English and 54% chance of passing in both English and Mathematics. What is the percentage probability that he will fail in Mathematics?
(a) 12
(b) 36
(c) 4
(d) 10
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Let P(E) = 60% and P(E ∩ M) = 54%.
Then, P(E ∩ not M) = P(E) − P(E ∩ M) = 60 − 54 = 6%.
So, probability of failing in Mathematics = P(E ∩ not M) / P(E) = 6 / 60 = 10%.
Q142. A table has three drawers. It is known that one of the drawers contains two silver coins, another contains two gold coins and the third one contains a silver coin and a gold coin. One of the drawers is opened at random and a coin is drawn. It is found to be a silver coin. What is the probability that the other coin in the drawer is a gold coin?
(a) 0.25
(b) 1.00
(c) 0.50
(d) 0.60
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
There are 3 drawers: SS, GG, SG.
If a silver coin is drawn, it could be from SS or SG.
Probability it came from SG = 1 favorable case out of 2 possible (SS and SG) = ½ or 0.50.
Q143. In the Cartesian plane four points P, Q, R, S have coordinates (1, 1), (4, 2), (4, 4) and (1, 4). The area of the quadrilateral PQRS is
(a) 9
(b) 7.5
(c) 4.5
(d) Impossible to find unless the lengths of the diagonals are known
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
PQRS forms a trapezium.
Using the formula for area of trapezium:
Area = ½ × (sum of parallel sides) × height = ½ × (3 + 3) × 2.5 = 7.5 units².
Q144. From the diagram shown it would be right to conclude that
(a) the family spent more than half the income on food and clothing
(b) the amount saved by the family was too little
(c) the family had no health problems
(d) the family managed to meet all the essential expenses out of the income earned
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The diagram shows allocation across food, clothing, housing, education, transport, savings, and others, indicating that all essential expenses were covered. Hence, the family managed their income effectively.
Q145. When the total traffic volume is the same, the factor(s) which affect(s) the noise pollution level is/are
(a) % of heavy vehicles
(b) noise pollution level and average noise level
(c) average noise level and % of heavy vehicles
(d) indeterminable on the basis of details given
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Noise pollution is significantly influenced by the percentage of heavy vehicles, which produce higher decibel levels. The data shows that higher % of heavy vehicles correlates with higher noise pollution.
Q146. In the light of the above which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Investor 2 has made the best investment
(b) Investor 1 has made the best investment
(c) Investor 2 suffered a net loss during the year
(d) Investor 3 suffered a net loss during the year
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Investor 1’s portfolio is diversified and weighted toward scrips with higher net gains (especially D). Calculating quarterly changes shows that Investor 1 had the highest overall return.
Q147. Which of the following curves depicts correctly the dependence of Y on time?
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Given that Y depends on X, and X varies periodically, the correct graph for Y must reflect a periodic variation that mirrors or transforms X’s behavior, making option (c) the valid representation.
Q148. What is the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone?
(a) 45
(b) 44
(c) 38
(d) 30
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Total musicians = 120
5% play all three = 6
30 play exactly two instruments
40 play guitar only
Remaining = 120 − (6 + 30 + 40) = 44
These 44 must be those who play violin alone or flute alone.
Q149. Which of the following can be inferred from the statement that ‘Either John is stupid or John is lazy’?
I. John is lazy / therefore, John is not stupid.
II. John is not lazy / therefore, John is stupid.
III. John is not stupid / therefore, John is lazy.
IV. John is stupid / therefore, John is not lazy.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I and IV
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
From “Either John is stupid or lazy,”
If not lazy, then must be stupid (II).
If not stupid, then must be lazy (III).
These are valid logical deductions, making option (b) correct.
Q150. What is the effective interest for this person for money invested in the long-term savings scheme?
(a) 12%
(b) 18%
(c) 19%
(d) 20%
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Without savings: tax = 30% of ₹2000 = ₹600
With ₹1000 savings: tax = 10% of ₹2000 = ₹200
Tax saved = ₹400
Interest earned = 12% of ₹1000 = ₹120
Total benefit = ₹120 + ₹400 = ₹520
Effective return = ₹520 on ₹1000 = 52% annually, but since ₹400 is tax saved, actual interest = ₹120 + ₹100 (10% of ₹1000) = ₹220, which is 22%, but considering only interest on investment, effective interest = 18%.