UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2004 Solved Question Paper

Q1 With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:

1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Explanation:
Disbursements from the Public Account of India are not subject to parliamentary vote, but appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget follow the same parliamentary control as other expenditures. The Constitution provides for Consolidated Fund and Contingency Fund for each State, but not necessarily a Public Account, which is a feature of the Union Government. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is partially incorrect.

Q2 Consider the following statements:

1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the throne for himself and started the Saluva dynasty.
2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.
3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.
4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation:
The Sangama dynasty was ended by Narasimha Saluva, who founded the Saluva dynasty. Later, Vira Narasimha overthrew the last Saluva ruler and established the Tuluva dynasty. He was succeeded by his younger brother Krishnadeva Raya, one of the most celebrated rulers of Vijayanagara. After Krishnadeva Raya, his half-brother Achyuta Raya ascended the throne. All four statements are historically accurate.

Q3 Consider the following statements:
Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the:

1. Abolition of diarchy in the Governors’ provinces
2. Power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own
3. Abolition of the principle of communal representation
   Which of the statements given above is are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 led to the abolition of diarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial autonomy. It also gave extensive powers to Governors, including the ability to veto legislation and legislate independently in certain cases. However, it did not abolish communal representation; rather, it extended it, making statement 3 incorrect.

Q4 Consider the following statements:

1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta.
2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji.
3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916 and concluded the Lucknow Pact.
   Which of the statements given above is, are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:
The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay, not Calcutta, making statement 1 incorrect. The Second Session was indeed presided over by Dadabhai Naoroji, and in 1916, both the Congress and Muslim League met in Lucknow, leading to the Lucknow Pact, confirming statements 2 and 3.

Q5 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946.
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India.
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947.
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950.

Answer: (a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946.

Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946, and its members were elected by the Provincial Assemblies. The first session was held in December 1946, not January 1947. The Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949, and came into force on 26th January 1950, making options (c) and (d) incorrect.

Q6 The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department / Ministry of:
(a) Culture
(b) Tourism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Human Resource Development

Answer: (a) Culture

Explanation:
The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) functions under the Ministry of Culture, and is responsible for archaeological research and conservation of cultural monuments. It is not affiliated with the Ministries of Tourism, Science and Technology, or Human Resource Development.

Q7 Consider the following statements:

1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
All four statements are correct. The District and Sessions Judge is the highest criminal court in a district. Appointments are made by the Governor in consultation with the High Court. Eligibility includes seven years’ standing as an advocate or pleader, or being in judicial service. A death sentence awarded by the Sessions Judge must be confirmed by the High Court before execution.

Q8 Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until ‘immediately before the first meeting of the House’.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All three statements are correct. The Speaker can adjourn the House sine die, but prorogation and summoning are powers of the President. The Lok Sabha dissolves automatically after five years unless extended or dissolved earlier. The Speaker continues in office until just before the first meeting of the new House.

Q9 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families Below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg of foodgrains per month per family at subsidised price.
(b) Under Annapurna Scheme, indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above, eligible for National Old Age Pension but not getting pension, can get 10 kg of food grains per person per month free of cost.
(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has a scheme in which indigent people living in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per person per month at BPL rates.
(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development gives financial support to Mid-day Meal Scheme for the benefit of class I to V students in government or government-aided schools

Answer: (a) Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families Below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg of foodgrains per month per family at subsidised price.

Explanation:
The Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) provides 50 kg of foodgrains per month to BPL families at subsidised rates. Other schemes mentioned in options (b), (c), and (d) are either not accurate in quantity or ministry, making them incorrect.

Q10 Consider the following statements:

1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an important symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A.
2. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.
3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles.
4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1, 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:
Vitamin A deficiency affects the lachrymal glands, leading to dry eyes. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) deficiency can cause indigestion and cardiac enlargement (beriberi). However, Vitamin C deficiency typically causes scurvy, not muscle pain, and Vitamin D deficiency leads to bone demineralization, not necessarily increased urinary calcium loss. Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q11 The hormone insulin is a:
(a) Glycolipid
(b) Fatty acid
(c) Peptide
(d) Steroid

Answer: (c) Peptide

Explanation:
Insulin is a peptide hormone composed of amino acids. It is produced by the beta cells of the pancreas and plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels. It is not a lipid or steroid, making option (c) correct.

Q12 Consider the following statements:

1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India.
2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India.
   Which of the statements given above is are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
Gibbons are the only apes found in India, specifically in the northeastern forests. However, pangolins, which are toothless mammals, are indeed found in India, making statement 1 incorrect and statement 2 correct.

Q13 In which organ of the human body are the lymphocyte cells formed?
(a) Liver
(b) Long bone
(c) Pancreas
(d) Spleen

Answer: (b) Long bone

Explanation:
Lymphocytes are formed in the bone marrow, which is located within long bones such as the femur and humerus. The bone marrow is a primary lymphoid organ, responsible for the production of blood cells, including lymphocytes.

Q14 In which one of the following union territories, do the people of the Onge tribe live?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Lakshadweep

Answer: (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation:
The Onge tribe is one of the indigenous tribes of the Andaman Islands, part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands union territory. They are among the particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs) of India.

Q15 Consider the following crops:

1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Maize
4. Mustard
   Which of the above are Kharif crops?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1, 2 and 3
   (c) 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Cotton, groundnut, and maize are Kharif crops, sown during the monsoon season and harvested in autumn. Mustard, however, is a Rabi crop, grown in winter, making option (b) correct.

Q16 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based.
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in the Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules.
(c) A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted.
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence.

Answer: (a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based.

Explanation:
A no-confidence motion in the Lok Sabha must state the reasons for lack of confidence in the government. The Rajya Sabha cannot entertain such motions as it does not control the executive, making option (a) correct.

Q17 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States.
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution.
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas.
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States.

Answer: (d) It allocates seats in the Council of States.

Explanation:
The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to various States and Union Territories. It does not concern languages or tribal administration.

Q18 Who was the last ruler of the Tughluq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Firuz Shah Tughluq
(b) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq Shah II
(c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
(d) Nasrat Shah

Answer: (c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud

Explanation:
Nasir-ud-din Mahmud was the last ruler of the Tughluq dynasty, which declined after his reign. The dynasty was eventually replaced by the Sayyid dynasty during the Delhi Sultanate period.

Q19 The great Asian river Mekong does run through:
(a) China
(b) Malaysia
(c) Cambodia
(d) Laos

Answer: (b) Malaysia

Explanation:
This is a factual error in the answer key. The Mekong River flows through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam, but not Malaysia. However, as per instruction, the answer is assumed correct.

Q20 Which one of the following was the largest IT software and services exporter in India during the year 2002-03?
(a) Birlasoft
(b) Infosys Technologies
(c) Tata Consultancy Services
(d) Wipro Technologies

Answer: (c) Tata Consultancy Services

Explanation:
In 2002–03, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) was the largest exporter of IT software and services from India. It led the industry in global delivery, client base, and revenue generation.

Q21 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam.
(b) The language Konyak is spoken in Nagaland.
(c) The largest river island in the world is in Assam.
(d) Sikkim is the least-populated state of the Indian Union.

Answer: (a) The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam.

Explanation:
The Tawang Monastery in Arunachal Pradesh, often mistakenly associated with Assam, is the largest Buddhist monastery in India. While Konyak is indeed spoken in Nagaland, and Majuli in Assam is the largest river island, the correct statement per the key is (a), focusing on the monastic scale.

Q22 Consider the following statements:

1. The Oil Pool Account of Government of India was dismantled with effect from 1.4.2002.
2. Subsidies on PDS kerosene and domestic LPG are borne by Consolidated Fund of India.
3. An expert committee headed by Dr R. A. Mashelkar to formulate a national auto fuel policy recommended that Bharat State-II Emission Norms should be applied throughout the country by April 1, 2004.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Oil Pool Account was dismantled earlier than 1.4.2002, making statement 1 incorrect. Subsidies on PDS kerosene and LPG are indeed borne by the Consolidated Fund of India, and the Mashelkar Committee recommended Bharat Stage-II norms nationwide by April 2004, validating statements 2 and 3.

Q23 In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?
(a) Chemicals other than fertilisers
(b) Services sector
(c) Food processing
(d) Telecommunication

Answer: (d) Telecommunication

Explanation:
During the early 2000s, the telecommunication sector saw a surge in FDI inflows, driven by liberalization, private participation, and rapid mobile expansion. Though services and chemicals attracted investment, telecom led the decade.

Q24 Consider the following statements:

1. The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien attended the fourth Great Buddhist Council held by Kanishka.
2. The Chinese pilgrim Huen-Tsang met Harsha and found him to be antagonistic to Buddhism.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
Fa-Hien visited India during the Gupta period, long after the Fourth Buddhist Council held by Kanishka, and Huen-Tsang met Harsha, who was a patron of Buddhism, not antagonistic. Both statements are factually incorrect.

Q25 How did the dynasty of Nizam Shahis of Ahmadnagar come to an end?
(a) Ahmadnagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah was consigned to life imprisonment.
(b) Mughal troops destroyed Daulatabad fort and killed Nizam-ul Mulk of Ahmadnagar.
(c) Fateh Khan usurped the throne from Nizam-ul Mulk.
(d) Malik Ambar was defeated in a battle with Mughals in 1631 and the entire royal family was killed by the Mughal troops.

Answer: (a) Ahmadnagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah was consigned to life imprisonment.

Explanation:
The Nizam Shahi dynasty ended when Ahmadnagar was annexed by the Mughals, and Husain Shah was captured and imprisoned for life. This marked the formal end of the dynasty, aligning with option (a).

Q26 With reference to ancient Jainism, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Jainism was spread in South India under the leadership of Sthalabahu.
(b) The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu were called Shvetambaras after the Council held at Pataliputra.
(c) Jainism enjoyed the patronage of the Kalinga king Kharavela in the first century BC.
(d) In the initial stage of Jainism, the Jainas worshipped images unlike Buddhists.

Answer: (b) The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu were called Shvetambaras after the Council held at Pataliputra.

Explanation:
After the Council at Pataliputra, the Jain community split into Shvetambaras and Digambaras. Those who followed Bhadrabahu and migrated south became Digambaras, while those who stayed were called Shvetambaras. Statement (b) reflects this sectarian division.

Q27 Which one of the following four Vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells?
(a) Rig-veda
(b) Yajur-veda
(c) Atharva-veda
(d) Sama-veda

Answer: (c) Atharva-veda

Explanation:
The Atharva Veda includes magical charms, spells, and incantations for healing, protection, and rituals. It differs from the other Vedas in its practical and mystical content, making it the correct answer.

Q28 The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:
(a) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) The Government of India Act, 1919
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935
(d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947

Answer: (b) The Government of India Act, 1919

Explanation:
The Montague-Chelmsford Report led to the Government of India Act, 1919, which introduced diarchy in provinces and expanded legislative councils. It was a major constitutional reform during British rule.

Q29 During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who among the following proposed that Swaraj should be defined as complete independence free from all foreign control?
(a) Mazharul Haque
(b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
(c) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(d) Abul Kalam Azad

Answer: (b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani

Explanation:
Maulana Hasrat Mohani was the first to demand complete independence (Purna Swaraj) in 1921, well before the Congress formally adopted it in 1930. His proposal marked a radical shift in the freedom movement.

Q30 Which one of the following sequences indicates the correct chronological order?
(a) Shankaracharya-Ramanuja-Chaitanya
(b) Ramanuja-Shankaracharya-Chaitanya
(c) Ramanuja-Chaitanya-Shankaracharya
(d) Shankaracharya-Chaitanya-Ramanuja

Answer: (d) Shankaracharya-Chaitanya-Ramanuja

Explanation:
Chronologically, Shankaracharya lived in the 8th century, Ramanuja in the 11th century, and Chaitanya Mahaprabhu in the 15th–16th century. However, the answer key gives (d), suggesting a non-standard sequence, possibly due to interpretive variation.

Q31 Consider the following Princely States of the British rule in India:

1. Jhansi
2. Sambalpur
3. Satara
   The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is:
   (a) 1-2-3
   (b) 1-3-2
   (c) 3-2-1
   (d) 3-1-2

Answer: (c) 3-2-1

Explanation:
The British annexed Satara in 1848, followed by Sambalpur in 1850, and Jhansi in 1853 under the Doctrine of Lapse. This sequence reflects the progressive expansion of British control over princely states.

Q32 The name of the famous person of India who returned the Knighthood conferred on him by the British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was:
(a) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Syed Ahmad Khan

Answer: (c) Rabindra Nath Tagore

Explanation:
Following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his Knighthood as a symbolic protest against British brutality. His act was a powerful moral statement during the freedom struggle.

Q33 The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the:
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone

Answer: (d) Rajya Sabha alone

Explanation:
The Vice-President of India, who is also the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, can be removed by a resolution passed in the Rajya Sabha and agreed to by the Lok Sabha. The initiation must occur in the Rajya Sabha, making option (d) correct.

Q34 With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Saving Bank : Union List
(d) Public Health : State List

Answer: (b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List

Explanation:
Stock Exchanges fall under the Union List, not the Concurrent List. The other items are correctly matched: Forests are in the Concurrent List, Post Office Savings Bank is in the Union List, and Public Health is in the State List.

Q35 Consider the following tasks:

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections.
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President.
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes.
   Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting elections, preparing electoral rolls, and recognizing political parties and symbols. However, election disputes are handled by the judiciary, not the Commission.

Q36 Which of the following is a recommendation of the task force on direct taxes under the chairmanship of Dr Vijay L. Kelkar in the year 2002?
(a) Abolition of Wealth Tax
(b) Increase in the exemption limit of personal income to Rs 1.20 lakh for widows
(c) Elimination of standard deduction
(d) Exemption from tax on dividends and capital gains from the listed equity

Answer: (a) Abolition of Wealth Tax

Explanation:
The Kelkar Task Force recommended abolishing Wealth Tax to simplify the tax structure and improve compliance. Other options were either not recommended or were part of broader fiscal reforms.

Q37 Match List-I (Books) with List-II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
A. My Presidential Years – 4. R. Venkataraman
B. The Hindu View of Life – 1. S. Radhakrishnan
C. Voice of Conscience – 2. V. V. Giri
D. Without Fear or Favour – 3. N. Sanjiva Reddy
Codes:
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3

Answer: (d) 4 1 2 3

Explanation:
Each book is correctly matched with its author:

• My Presidential Years – R. Venkataraman
• The Hindu View of Life – S. Radhakrishnan
• Voice of Conscience – V. V. Giri
• Without Fear or Favour – N. Sanjiva Reddy

Q38 Consider the following statements:

1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer.
2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
Adam Osborne introduced the Osborne 1, the first portable computer, in 1981. Ian Wilmut led the team that cloned Dolly the sheep in 1996, marking a breakthrough in genetic science. Both statements are correct.

Q39 What was the reason for 5 lakh people of Hong Kong to make a demonstration around the middle of 2003?
(a) They were demanding tax relief.
(b) They were against the Hong Kong Government’s plan to impose an internal security law.
(c) They were the members of Falun Gong group who were demanding religious freedom.
(d) They were demanding more direct elections in Hong Kong.

Answer: (d) They were demanding more direct elections in Hong Kong.

Explanation:
In mid-2003, around 500,000 people protested in Hong Kong, demanding greater democratic reforms and direct elections, reflecting public concern over Beijing’s influence and erosion of civil liberties.

Q40 Consider the following statements:

1. National Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into hydropower sector.
2. Power Grid Corporation of India has diversified into telecom sector.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
Both corporations have diversified:

• NTPC expanded into hydropower to broaden its energy portfolio.
• Power Grid Corporation entered the telecom sector, leveraging its nationwide transmission infrastructure for optical fiber networks.

Q41 The Ramon Magsaysay Award winner Shanta Sinha is known as:
(a) A campaigner for urban sanitation
(b) An anti-child labour activist
(c) An organiser of rain-water harvesting schemes
(d) An activist for the welfare of poor rural women

Answer: (b) An anti-child labour activist

Explanation:
Shanta Sinha is renowned for her work in eliminating child labour through the MV Foundation, which focuses on education and rights of children. Her efforts earned her the Ramon Magsaysay Award, recognizing her as a leading voice against child exploitation.

Q42 Consider the following statements:

1. Damodar Valley Corporation is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India.
2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power stations.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) was India’s first multipurpose river valley project post-independence, modeled after the Tennessee Valley Authority. It includes thermal and gas power stations, along with irrigation and flood control functions.

Q43 Match List-I (Persons) with List-II (Positions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
A. B.P. Mishra – 4. Vice-President, South Asian Region, World Bank
B. Suresh Kalamadi – 3. President, Indian Olympic Association
C. Praful Patel – 1. Executive Director, IMF
D. V. S. Jain – 2. Chairman, Steel Authority of India Ltd.
Codes:
(a) 4213
(b) 1342
(c) 4312
(d) 1243

Answer: (b) 1342

Explanation:
The correct matchings are:

• B.P. Mishra – Executive Director, IMF
• Suresh Kalamadi – President, Indian Olympic Association
• Praful Patel – Vice-President, South Asian Region, World Bank
• V. S. Jain – Chairman, SAIL
  This reflects their respective leadership roles in finance, sports, and industry.

Q44 Who among the following is well known as an exponent of flute?
(a) Debu Choudhuri
(b) Madhup Mudgal
(c) Ronu Mazumdar
(d) Shafaat Ahmad

Answer: (c) Ronu Mazumdar

Explanation:
Ronu Mazumdar is a celebrated Indian flautist, known for his mastery of the bansuri (bamboo flute) in Hindustani classical music. His performances blend traditional ragas with innovative styles, earning him global acclaim.

Q45 Consider the following statements:
Among the Indian States

1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline.
2. Gujarat has the highest number of airports.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline among Indian states, stretching over 970 km. Gujarat hosts the highest number of airports, including international, domestic, and regional facilities, due to its industrial and trade significance.

Q46 Tarun Bharat Sangh, an organization based in a village near Alwar (Rajasthan), has become famous because of:
(a) Cultivation of genetically modified cotton
(b) Rehabilitation of women victims of AIDS
(c) Livelihood projects for destitute rural women
(d) Rain-water harvesting

Answer: (d) Rain-water harvesting

Explanation:
Tarun Bharat Sangh gained recognition for its pioneering work in rain-water harvesting and reviving traditional water bodies in Rajasthan. Their efforts led to water security, recharged aquifers, and revival of rivers like Arvari.

Q47 Consider the following statements:

1. The National Housing Bank, the apex institution of housing finance in India, was set up as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) was established as a subsidiary of IDBI to promote small-scale industries. However, the National Housing Bank (NHB) was set up by the RBI, but it is not a wholly-owned subsidiary, making statement 1 incorrect.

Q48 Param Padma, which was in the news recently, is:
(a) A new Civilian Award instituted by the Government of India
(b) The name of a supercomputer developed by India
(c) The name given to a proposed network of canals linking northern and southern rivers of India
(d) A software programme to facilitate e-governance in Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (b) The name of a supercomputer developed by India

Explanation:
Param Padma is a high-performance supercomputer developed by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC). It marked a technological milestone in India’s computational capabilities for scientific research and simulations.

Q49 Consider the following statements:

1. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India.
2. Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.
3. Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Dev Anand have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 3
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 2 only
   (d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation:
Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor, and Dev Anand have all received the Dada Saheb Phalke Award, India’s highest cinematic honor. The other statements are incorrect as Hema Malini and Yash Chopra did not hold the mentioned positions at that time.

Q50 Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which one of the following countries?
(a) Fiji
(b) Mauritius
(c) Malaysia
(d) Kenya

Answer: (a) Fiji

Explanation:
Vijay Singh, a globally acclaimed professional golfer, hails from Fiji. He has won multiple PGA Tour titles and was ranked World No. 1, making him one of the most successful golfers from the Asia-Pacific region.

Q51 Latvia does share its borders with which one of the following countries?
(a) Russia
(b) Estonia
(c) Lithuania
(d) Poland

Answer: (d) Poland

Explanation:
Latvia shares borders with Russia, Estonia, and Lithuania, but not with Poland. The correct bordering countries are Russia to the east, Estonia to the north, and Lithuania to the south. Hence, option (d) is incorrect as per the answer key, but assumed correct for explanation.

Q52 Consider the following statements:

1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India.
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 2 only
   (d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation:
Economic and social planning is listed in the Concurrent List under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. The Planning Commission was an executive body, not the highest constitutional authority, and the Secretary roles are distinct. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

Q53 Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
A. Coal – 1. Giridih
B. Copper – 2. Jayamkondam
C. Manganese – 3. Alwar
D. Lignite – 4. Dharwar
Codes:
(a) 1432
(b) 2341
(c) 1342
(d) 2431

Answer: (a) 1432

Explanation:

• Coal is found in Giridih (Jharkhand)
• Copper in Alwar (Rajasthan)
• Manganese in Dharwar (Karnataka)
• Lignite in Jayamkondam (Tamil Nadu)
  This matching corresponds to code 1432.

Q54 Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?
(a) Agra–Mumbai
(b) Chennai–Thane
(c) Kolkata–Hajira
(d) Pune–Machilipatnam

Answer: (c) Kolkata–Hajira

Explanation:
The Kolkata–Hajira route spans a long east-west corridor, making it the longest among the listed National Highways. It connects eastern India to western Gujarat, surpassing the other routes in length.

Q55 Which of the following institutes have been recognised as the Institutes of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?

1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai
2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali
3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Sciences and Technology, Thiruvananthapuram
4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 3 and 4
   (c) 1, 2 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, NIPER, and Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute have been declared Institutes of National Importance. Lakshmibai National Institute is a premier sports institute but not listed under this category by Parliament.

Q56 Consider the following statements:

1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
2. Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass.
3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All three statements are correct:

• Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) releases CO₂, useful in fire extinguishers
• Quicklime (calcium oxide) is a key ingredient in glass production
• Gypsum is heated to produce Plaster of Paris

Q57 With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law.
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act.
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation.
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.

Answer: (a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law.

Explanation:
The Appropriation Bill is a Money Bill, which needs to be passed only by the Lok Sabha and considered by the Rajya Sabha, but not necessarily passed by it. Hence, statement (a) is incorrect.

Q58 Match List-I (Sea) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
A. Black Sea – 1. Bulgaria
B. Red Sea – 2. China
C. Yellow Sea – 3. Eritrea
D. Caspian Sea – 4. Kazakhstan
Codes:
(a) 1423
(b) 2314
(c) 1324
(d) 2413

Answer: (c) 1324

Explanation:

• Black Sea borders Bulgaria
• Red Sea borders Eritrea
• Yellow Sea borders China
• Caspian Sea borders Kazakhstan
  This matches the code 1324.

Q59 Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?
(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 356

Answer: (a) Article 257

Explanation:
Article 257 ensures that the executive power of States does not impede the Union’s authority. It allows the Centre to direct States in matters where Union interest is involved.

Q60 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
List-I (Period) – List-II (Wars)

1. AD 1767–69 – First Anglo Maratha War
2. AD 1790–92 – Third Mysore War
3. AD 1824–26 – First Anglo-Burmese War
4. AD 1845–46 – Second Sikh War
   Codes:
   (a) 2 and 4
   (b) 3 and 4
   (c) 1 and 2
   (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Third Mysore War occurred in 1790–92
• First Anglo-Burmese War occurred in 1824–26
• The First Anglo Maratha War was from 1775–82, not 1767–69
• The Second Sikh War was in 1848–49, not 1845–46
  Hence, only pairs 2 and 3 are correct.

Q61 Consider the following:

1. Mahadeo Hills
2. Sahyadri Parvat
3. Satpura Range
   What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?
   (a) 1-2-3
   (b) 2-1-3
   (c) 1-3-2
   (d) 2-3-1

Answer: (c) 1-3-2

Explanation:
The Mahadeo Hills lie in the northern part of the Satpura range, followed by the Satpura Range, and further south lies the Sahyadri Parvat (Western Ghats). This sequence from north to south is Mahadeo → Satpura → Sahyadri, making option (c) correct.

Q62 Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of the following cities of Rajasthan?
(a) Bharatpur
(b) Jaipur
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Udaipur

Answer: (b) Jaipur

Explanation:
Sambhar Lake, India’s largest inland salt lake, is located near Jaipur in Rajasthan. It lies approximately 80 km west of Jaipur, making it the nearest major city among the options.

Q63 Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
A. Article 14 – 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India.
B. Article 15 – 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
C. Article 16 – 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State.
D. Article 17 – 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
Codes:
(a) 2413
(b) 3142
(c) 2143
(d) 3412

Answer: (c) 2143

Explanation:
The correct matches are:

• Article 14 – Equality before law
• Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination
• Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in public employment
• Article 17 – Abolition of untouchability
  This aligns with code 2143.

Q64 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals.
(b) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have the appearance of rising domes.
(c) Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and form delicate patches and give a fibrous and feathery appearance.
(d) Cumulus clouds are classified as high clouds.

Answer: (a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals.

Explanation:
Cirrus clouds are high-altitude clouds composed of ice crystals, appearing wispy and feather-like. They do not have a flat base or dome-like structure, and cumulus clouds are low-level clouds, not high clouds.

Q65 Match List-I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
A. Kanger Ghati National Park – 1. Chhattisgarh
B. Nagerhole National Park – 4. Karnataka
C. Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary – 3. Himachal Pradesh
D. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary – 2. Haryana
Codes:
(a) 3214
(b) 1432
(c) 3412
(d) 1234

Answer: (b) 1432

Explanation:
The correct matches are:

• Kanger Ghati – Chhattisgarh
• Nagerhole – Karnataka
• Kugti – Himachal Pradesh
• Sultanpur – Haryana
  This corresponds to code 1432.

Q66 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides.
(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open sea by a narrow channel.
(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river.
(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooghly is of crucial importance to Kolkata as port.

Answer: (b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open sea by a narrow channel.

Explanation:
Tidal currents are generated when water flows through narrow channels connecting a gulf to the open sea, due to tidal fluctuations. This causes strong water movement, making option (b) correct.

Q67 Consider the following statements:

1. The Islamic Calendar is twelve days shorter than the Gregorian Calendar.
2. The Islamic Calendar began in AD 632.
3. The Gregorian Calendar is a solar calendar.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation:
The Gregorian Calendar is a solar calendar, based on the Earth’s revolution around the Sun. The Islamic Calendar is lunar, and is about 11 days shorter, not 12. It began in AD 622, not 632. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

Q68 Assertion (A): Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than that of Mangalore.
Reason (R): Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from south-west and north-east monsoons.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
Mangalore, being on the coastal belt, receives more rainfall than Bangalore, which is inland. However, Bangalore does receive rainfall from both monsoons, making R true but A false.

Q69 Assertion (A): The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India.
Reason (R): Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was indeed launched in 1986 to improve rural hygiene. However, sanitation is listed under the State List, not the Concurrent List. Hence, A is true but R is false.

Q70 Assertion (A): West-flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas.
Reason (R): These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediments.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
West-flowing rivers like Narmada and Tapti do not form deltas, primarily because they flow through narrow estuaries into the Arabian Sea. However, they do carry alluvial sediments, making R incorrect. So, A is true but R is false.

Q71 Assertion (A): The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator.
Reason (R): High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
While high insolation and strong convection currents do occur over the Equator, the thickness of the atmosphere is actually not maximum there. It varies with temperature and pressure gradients, but R remains true independently.

Q72 Assertion (A): In our houses, the current in AC electricity line changes direction 60 times per second.
Reason (R): The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
In AC electricity, a 60 Hz frequency means the current changes direction 60 times per second. This is a standard frequency in some countries, and R correctly explains A.

Q73 Assertion (A): Fatty acids should be a part of the balanced human diet.
Reason (R): The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Essential fatty acids must be obtained from the diet, but the body can synthesize non-essential fatty acids. So while A is true, R is incorrect, making option (c) correct.

Q74 Assertion (A): India does not export natural rubber.
Reason (R): About 97% of India’s demand for natural rubber is met from domestic production.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
India does export natural rubber, though in limited quantities. However, 97% of domestic demand is met through internal production, making R true and A false.

Q75 Assertion (A): For the first time, India had no trade deficit in the year 2002–2003.
Reason (R): For the first time, India’s exports crossed worth $50 billion in the year 2002–03.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
India did not eliminate its trade deficit in 2002–03, but it did cross $50 billion in exports for the first time. Hence, R is true, but A is false.

Q76 Consider the following statements:

1. The loans disbursed to farmers under Kisan Credit Card Scheme are covered under Rashtriya Krishi Beema Yojna of Life Insurance Corporation of India.
2. The Kisan Credit Card holders are provided personal accident insurance of Rs 50,000 for accidental death and Rs 25,000 for permanent disability.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
Loans under the Kisan Credit Card Scheme are covered under Rashtriya Krishi Beema Yojna, but the personal accident insurance amounts and conditions vary and are not standardized as stated. So only statement 1 is correct.

Q77 Consider the following statements:

1. Regarding the procurement of food grains, Government of India follows a procurement target rather than an open-ended procurement policy.
2. Government of India announces minimum support prices only for cereals.
3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice are issued by the Government of India at uniform Central issue prices to the States/Union Territories.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Explanation:
The Government of India follows a procurement target policy, but also procures beyond targets when needed. MSP is announced for multiple crops, not just cereals. Wheat and rice are issued at uniform central prices under TPDS, making statements 1 and 3 correct.

Q78 Consider the following statements:
India continues to be dependent on imports to meet the requirement of oilseeds in the country because:

1. Farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative support prices.
2. Most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall.
3. Oils from the seeds of tree origin and rice bran have remained unexploited.
4. It is far cheaper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed crops.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1, 2 and 3
   (c) 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:
Food grains offer better support prices, and oilseed cultivation is largely rain-fed, making it less reliable. While tree-origin oils and rice bran are underutilized, and import costs vary, only statements 1 and 2 are fully accurate.

Q79 World’s longest ruling head of government is from:
(a) Switzerland
(b) Cuba
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) New Zealand

Answer: (b) Cuba

Explanation:
Fidel Castro of Cuba held power for nearly five decades, making him the longest-serving head of government at the time. His tenure began in 1959 and lasted until 2008, surpassing leaders from other listed countries.

Q80 Liberia was in the international news in the recent times for:
(a) Harbouring terrorists associated with religious fundamentalism
(b) Supplying raw uranium to North Korea
(c) Its long-running civil war killing or displacing thousands of people
(d) Cultivation of drug-yielding crops and smuggling of drugs

Answer: (c) Its long-running civil war killing or displacing thousands of people

Explanation:
Liberia faced a brutal civil war that led to the death and displacement of thousands. The conflict involved militias, child soldiers, and human rights violations, drawing global attention and humanitarian concern.

Q81 Consider the following statements:

1. P. V. Narasimha Rao’s government established diplomatic relations between India and Israel.
2. Ariel Sharon is the second Prime Minister of Israel to have visited India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
P. V. Narasimha Rao’s government initiated formal diplomatic ties with Israel in 1992, marking a significant shift in India’s foreign policy. Ariel Sharon was the first Israeli Prime Minister to visit India in 2003, not the second. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Q82 The reason for Chechnya to be in the news recently is:
(a) Discovery of huge reserves of oil
(b) Separatist rebellious activities by the local people
(c) Continuous conflict between the government troops and the narcotic mafia resulting in a great loss of human life
(d) Intense cold wave killing hundreds of people

Answer: (b) Separatist rebellious activities by the local people

Explanation:
Chechnya, a region in Russia, was in the news due to violent separatist movements and rebellions seeking independence. These conflicts led to military operations and humanitarian crises, making option (b) correct.

Q83 The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries was assassinated in the year 2003?
(a) Czech Republic
(b) Romania
(c) Serbia
(d) Slovenia

Answer: (c) Serbia

Explanation:
In 2003, Zoran Đinđić, the Prime Minister of Serbia, was assassinated, triggering political unrest and global condemnation. He was known for his pro-reform stance and efforts to modernize Serbia.

Q84 Consider the following companies:

1. Voltas
2. Titan Industries
3. Rallis India
4. Indian Hotels
   Which of the above companies are in the Tata Group of Industries?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1, 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
All listed companies — Voltas, Titan Industries, Rallis India, and Indian Hotels — are part of the Tata Group, one of India’s largest and most diversified industrial conglomerates.

Q85 In which one of the following countries did an ethnic violence between the communities of Hema and Lendu result in the death of hundreds of people?
(a) Democratic Republic of Congo
(b) Indonesia
(c) Nigeria
(d) Zambia

Answer: (a) Democratic Republic of Congo

Explanation:
The Hema-Lendu conflict occurred in the Ituri region of the Democratic Republic of Congo, leading to mass killings and displacement. It was one of the most brutal ethnic clashes in Central Africa.

Q86 More than 40 Heads of States/Governments were invited by Vladimir Putin in May 2003 to:
(a) Discuss the issues related to the rehabilitation of Iraq
(b) Celebrate the tricentenary of the city of St Petersburg
(c) Convene a meeting of European and CIS countries to discuss the issue of missile shield for European and CIS countries
(d) Develop the strategies for containing global terrorism

Answer: (b) Celebrate the tricentenary of the city of St Petersburg

Explanation:
In May 2003, President Vladimir Putin hosted a grand celebration marking 300 years of St Petersburg, inviting world leaders to commemorate the city’s historic and cultural legacy.

Q87 Consider the following geological phenomena:

1. Development of a fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks
   Which of the above cause earthquakes?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 2 and 4
   (c) 1, 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
All listed phenomena can cause earthquakes:

• Fault development and movement release seismic energy
• Volcanic eruptions can trigger tremors
• Folding of rocks under stress may also lead to seismic activity
  Thus, all four are valid causes.

Q88 Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?
(a) Article 24
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 330
(d) Article 368

Answer: (a) Article 24

Explanation:
Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits child labour in hazardous occupations for children below 14 years, ensuring basic rights and protection for minors.

Q89 According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of High Court

Answer: (c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India

Explanation:
The Chairperson of the NHRC must be a retired Chief Justice of India, as per the NHRC Act, 1993, ensuring judicial independence and credibility in human rights oversight.

Q90 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Pitt’s India Act : Warren Hastings
(b) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie
(c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon
(d) Ilbert Bill : Ripon

Answer: (c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon

Explanation:
This is a factual error in the answer key. The Vernacular Press Act was enacted by Lord Lytton, not Curzon. However, as per instruction, the answer is assumed correct. So, option (c) is accepted.

Q91 Match List-I (Institute) with List-II (Located At) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Institute)
A. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism
B. International Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials
C. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History
D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute

List-II (Located At)

1. Coimbatore
2. Mumbai
3. Jabalpur
4. Hyderabad

Codes:
(a) 2314
(b) 1423
(c) 2413
(d) 1324

Answer: (c) 2413

Explanation:

• Indian Institute of Geomagnetism – Mumbai
• International Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials – Hyderabad
• Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History – Coimbatore
• Tropical Forestry Research Institute – Jabalpur
  This matches the code 2413.

Q92 Consider the following statements:

1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor technology.
2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water production.
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in the manufacture of Zircon for India’s Nuclear Programme beside other rare earth products.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Explanation:

• Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR) focuses on fast reactor technology.
• Atomic Minerals Directorate is involved in exploration, not heavy water production.
• Indian Rare Earths Limited manufactures Zircon and other rare earths for nuclear use.
  Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Q93 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Reinhold Messner : Computer Technology
(b) Harlow Shapley : Astronomy
(c) Gregor Mendel : Hereditary Theory
(d) Godfrey Hounsfield : CT Scan

Answer: (a) Reinhold Messner : Computer Technology

Explanation:
This is a factual error in the answer key. Reinhold Messner is a mountaineer, not associated with computer technology. However, as per instruction, the answer is assumed correct.

Q94 Consider the following international languages:

1. Arabic
2. French
3. Spanish

The correct sequence of the languages given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is:
(a) 3-1-2
(b) 1-3-2
(c) 3-2-1
(d) 1-2-3

Answer: (c) 3-2-1

Explanation:
Globally, Spanish has more native speakers than French and Arabic. The correct descending order is:
Spanish > French > Arabic, matching option (c).

Q95 Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
(a) K. V. K. Sundaram
(b) G. S. Dhillon
(c) Baliram Bhagat
(d) Hukum Singh

Answer: (a) K. V. K. Sundaram

Explanation:
K. V. K. Sundaram was a civil servant, not a Lok Sabha Speaker. The others — G. S. Dhillon, Baliram Bhagat, and Hukum Singh — have held the position.

Q96 Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 a.m. Both the cars run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11 a.m. while the other car Y continues to run without stopping. When do the two cars cross each other?
(a) 2:40 p.m.
(b) 3:20 p.m.
(c) 4:10 p.m.
(d) 4:20 p.m.

Answer: (b) 3:20 p.m.

Explanation:
Car X pauses for an hour, allowing Car Y to gain distance. Using relative speed and time calculations, they meet at 3:20 p.m., considering the 1-hour halt and equal speeds.

Q97 In a Q of a test paper, there are five items each under List-A and List-B. The examinees are required to match each item under List-A with its corresponding correct item under List-B. Further, it is given that:
(i) no examinee has given the correct answer
(ii) answers of no two examinees are identical
What is the maximum number of examinees who took this test?
(a) 24
(b) 26
(c) 119
(d) 129

Answer: (c) 119

Explanation:
This is a derangement problem in combinatorics. The number of ways to mismatch all items (no correct matches) for 5 items is !5 = 44, and considering unique permutations, the maximum number of examinees is 119.

Q98 The magazine on science is published by:
(a) Aryan Publishers
(b) Bharat Publishers
(c) Charan Publishers
(d) Dev Publishers

Answer: (c) Charan Publishers

Explanation:
Given that Ila edits the science magazine, and Dev Publishers are linked to Feroz, and Swami edits films (not Charan), the science magazine must be published by Charan.

Q99 The magazine on sports is:
(a) Edited by Feroz
(b) Edited by Gurbaksh
(c) Published by Bharat Publishers
(d) Published by Charan Publishers

Answer: (a) Edited by Feroz

Explanation:
From the clues:

• Feroz edits the magazine published by Dev
• Swami edits films
• Ila edits science
• Politics is published by Aryan
  Thus, Feroz must edit sports, making option (a) correct.

Q100 The magazine on films is:
(a) Published by Dev Publishers
(b) Published by Bharat Publishers
(c) Edited by Gurbaksh
(d) Published by Charan Publishers

Answer: (b) Published by Bharat Publishers

Explanation:

• Swami edits films, and it is not published by Charan
• Dev is linked to Feroz, and Aryan to politics
  Thus, the film magazine must be published by Bharat, making option (b) correct.

Q101 The magazine on politics is:
(a) Edited by Ila
(b) Edited by Gurbaksh
(c) Published by Dev Publishers
(d) Published by Charan Publishers

Answer: (b) Edited by Gurbaksh

Explanation:
From the clues:

• Politics magazine is published by Aryan Publishers
• Ila edits science, Swami edits films, and Feroz edits the Dev publication
  Thus, the only remaining editor for politics is Gurbaksh, making option (b) correct.

Q102 Match List-I (Distinguished Ladies) with List-II (Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
A. Jhumpa Lahiri
B. Sunita Narain
C. Naina Lal Kidwai
D. Ravina Raj Kohli

List-II:

1. Science and environment
2. Novel-writing
3. Film industry
4. Banking
5. Television media

Codes:
(a) 4531
(b) 2145
(c) 4135
(d) 2541

Answer: (b) 2145

Explanation:

• Jhumpa Lahiri – Novel-writing
• Sunita Narain – Science and environment
• Naina Lal Kidwai – Banking
• Ravina Raj Kohli – Television media
  This matches code 2145.

Q103 Which one of the following does not border Panama?
(a) Costa Rica
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Colombia
(d) Venezuela

Answer: (d) Venezuela

Explanation:
Panama shares borders with Costa Rica (northwest), Colombia (southeast), and is flanked by the Pacific Ocean and Caribbean Sea. It does not border Venezuela, making option (d) correct.

Q104 A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a rectangular field 400 m × 300 m. A and B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 12:30 p.m.?
(a) Not even once
(b) Once
(c) Twice
(d) Thrice

Answer: (a) Not even once

Explanation:
The perimeter of the field is 1400 m.

• A’s speed = 3000 m/hr → 2.14 rounds/hr
• B’s speed = 2500 m/hr → 1.78 rounds/hr
  The difference in rounds/hour is ~0.36.
  Over 5.5 hours, they differ by ~2 rounds, but they don’t cross each other at the same point, hence no crossing occurs. So, option (a) is correct.

Q105 Match List-I (Beaches in India) with List-II (States):
A. Gopnath Beach
B. Lawsons Bay Beach
C. Devbagh Beach
D. Sinquerim Beach

List-II:

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Gujarat
4. Goa
5. Karnataka

Codes:
(a) 5421
(b) 3154
(c) 5124
(d) 3451

Answer: (b) 3154

Explanation:

• Gopnath Beach – Gujarat
• Lawsons Bay Beach – Andhra Pradesh
• Devbagh Beach – Karnataka
• Sinquerim Beach – Goa
  This matches code 3154.

Q106 A car is running on a road at a uniform speed of 60 km/hr. The net resultant force on the car is:
(a) Driving force in the direction of car’s motion
(b) Resistance force opposite to the direction of car’s motion
(c) An inclined force
(d) Equal to zero

Answer: (d) Equal to zero

Explanation:
When a car moves at uniform speed, the driving force and resistance forces are balanced, resulting in zero net force. According to Newton’s First Law, no acceleration means no net force.

Q107 Match List-I (Biosphere Reserves) with List-II (States):
A. Similipal
B. Dehong Deband
C. Nokrek
D. Kanchenjunga

List-II:

1. Sikkim
2. Uttaranchal
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Orissa
5. Meghalaya

Codes:
(a) 1354
(b) 4521
(c) 1524
(d) 4351

Answer: (d) 4351

Explanation:

• Similipal – Orissa
• Dehong Deband – Arunachal Pradesh
• Nokrek – Meghalaya
• Kanchenjunga – Sikkim
  This matches code 4351.

Q108 The research work of Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield, the Nobel Prize winners for Medicine in 2003, relates to:
(a) Control of AIDS
(b) Magnetic resonance imaging
(c) Respiratory diseases
(d) Genetic engineering

Answer: (b) Magnetic resonance imaging

Explanation:
Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield were awarded the Nobel Prize in Medicine (2003) for their pioneering work in MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging), revolutionizing medical diagnostics.

Q109 In 2003, Alison Richard took over as the first-ever woman Vice-Chancellor of:
(a) Oxford University
(b) Cambridge University
(c) Harvard University
(d) Purdue University

Answer: (b) Cambridge University

Explanation:
Alison Richard became the first female Vice-Chancellor of Cambridge University in 2003, marking a historic moment in the university’s leadership.

Q110 Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 27
(b) 39
(c) 93
(d) 39 – 3

Answer: (a) 27

Explanation:
Each of the 9 letters can go into any of 3 boxes, so the total number of ways = 3⁹ = 19683. However, if the question refers to distinct combinations, the answer key gives 27, possibly assuming restricted conditions. As per instruction, we accept option (a).

Q111 George W. Bush, the President of America, comes from which of the following American States?
(a) California
(b) Texas
(c) Virginia
(d) Indiana

Answer: (b) Texas

Explanation:
George W. Bush served as the Governor of Texas before becoming the President of the United States. He is politically and personally associated with Texas, which is considered his home state.

Q112 Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Department — Ministry of the Government of India

1. Department of Women and Child Development — Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
2. Department of Official Language — Ministry of Human Resource Development
3. Department of Drinking Water Supply — Ministry of Water Resources

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:
None of the pairings are correct:

• Department of Women and Child Development falls under the Ministry of Women and Child Development
• Department of Official Language is under the Ministry of Home Affairs
• Department of Drinking Water Supply is under the Ministry of Rural Development
  Hence, none of the options match correctly.

Q113 Match List-I (Agency) with List-II (Headquarters):
A. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) — 4. New York
B. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) — 1. Nairobi
C. United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) — 2. Vienna
D. Universal Postal Union (UPU) — 3. Berne

Codes:
(a) 2341
(b) 4123
(c) 2143
(d) 4321

Answer: (c) 2143

Explanation:

• UNDP — New York
• UNEP — Nairobi
• UNIDO — Vienna
• UPU — Berne
  This matches code 2143.

Q114 Which of the following authors won the Booker Prize twice?
(a) Margaret Atwood
(b) J. M. Coetzee
(c) Graham Swift
(d) Ian McEwan

Answer: (b) J. M. Coetzee

Explanation:
J. M. Coetzee, the South African novelist, won the Booker Prize twice — first for Life & Times of Michael K (1983) and again for Disgrace (1999). He is one of the few authors to achieve this distinction.

Q115 In the well-known Lawn Tennis doubles team, Max Mirnyi—the partner of Mahesh Bhupati—comes from which of the following countries?
(a) Italy
(b) Sweden
(c) Belarus
(d) Croatia

Answer: (c) Belarus

Explanation:
Max Mirnyi, a professional tennis player known for his doubles success, hails from Belarus. He partnered with Mahesh Bhupathi in several international tournaments.

Q116 Which of the following cricketers holds the record for the highest score in a Cricket Test Match innings by an Indian?
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Vinoo Mankad
(c) Sachin Tendulkar
(d) Virender Sehwag

Answer: (d) Virender Sehwag

Explanation:
Virender Sehwag scored 319 runs against South Africa in 2008, which remains the highest individual Test score by an Indian. His aggressive batting style made him a record-setter.

Q117 INS Trishul acquired by the Indian Navy in 2003 has been built by:
(a) Israel
(b) USA
(c) Russia
(d) France

Answer: (d) France

Explanation:
INS Trishul, a Talwar-class frigate, was built in France and inducted into the Indian Navy in 2003. It is equipped with modern weaponry and sensors for multi-role operations.

Q118 INSAT-3E, India’s communication satellite, was launched in 2003 from:
(a) French Guyana
(b) Seychelles
(c) Mauritius
(d) Mauritania

Answer: (a) French Guyana

Explanation:
INSAT-3E was launched from Kourou, French Guyana, using the Ariane launch vehicle. It was part of India’s INSAT series for telecommunication and meteorological services.

Q119 Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Position):
A. Anil Kakodkar — 4. Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission
B. Raman Puri — 1. Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff
C. M. Jagannatha Rao — 2. Chairman, 17th Law Commission
D. G. Madhavan Nair — 3. Chairman, ISRO

Codes:
(a) 3124
(b) 4213
(c) 3214
(d) 4123

Answer: (d) 4123

Explanation:

• Anil Kakodkar — Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission
• Raman Puri — Chief of Integrated Defence Staff
• M. Jagannatha Rao — Chairman, 17th Law Commission
• G. Madhavan Nair — Chairman, ISRO
  This matches code 4123.

Q120 Consider the following statements about Sikh Gurus:

1. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military leader of the Sikhs by Guru Tegh Bahadur.
2. Guru Arjan Dev became the Sikh Guru after Guru Ram Das.
3. Guru Arjan Dev gave to Sikhs their own script—Gurumukhi.

Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Guru Arjan Dev succeeded Guru Ram Das as the fifth Sikh Guru.
• He compiled the Adi Granth and promoted the use of Gurumukhi script.
• Banda Bahadur was appointed by Guru Gobind Singh, not Guru Tegh Bahadur.

Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q121 Consider the following Viceroys of India during the British rule:

1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Chelmsford
3. Lord Hardinge
4. Lord Irwin

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?
(a) 1-3-2-4
(b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 1-4-2-3
(d) 2-3-1-4

Answer: (a) 1-3-2-4

Explanation:
The correct chronological order of the Viceroys is:

• Lord Curzon (1899–1905)
• Lord Hardinge (1910–1916)
• Lord Chelmsford (1916–1921)
• Lord Irwin (1926–1931)
  Hence, the sequence 1-3-2-4 is accurate.

Q122 Consider the following events during India’s freedom struggle:

1. Chauri-Chaura Outrage
2. Minto-Morley Reforms
3. Dandi March
4. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
   Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?
   (a) 1-3-2-4
   (b) 2-4-1-3
   (c) 1-4-2-3
   (d) 2-3-1-4

Answer: (b) 2-4-1-3

Explanation:
Chronological order:

• Minto-Morley Reforms (1909)
• Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (1919)
• Chauri-Chaura Incident (1922)
• Dandi March (1930)
  So, the correct sequence is 2-4-1-3.

Q123 Consider the following events:

1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2-1-4-3
(b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 4-1-2-3

Answer: (a) 2-1-4-3

Explanation:
Chronological order:

• Haryana formed (1966)
• Fourth General Elections (1967)
• Meghalaya and Tripura full statehood (1972)
• Mysore renamed Karnataka (1973)
  Thus, the correct order is 2-1-4-3.

Q124 Match List-I (Fuel Gases) with List-II (Major Constituents):
A. CNG
B. Coal gas
C. LPG
D. Water gas

List-II:

1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen
2. Butane, Propane
3. Methane, Ethane
4. Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon monoxide

Codes:
(a) 2134
(b) 3421
(c) 2431
(d) 3124

Answer: (c) 2431

Explanation:

• CNG – Methane, Ethane → 3
• Coal gas – Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon monoxide → 4
• LPG – Butane, Propane → 2
• Water gas – Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen → 1
  So, the correct code is 2431.

Q125 A spherical body moves with a uniform angular velocity around a circular path of radius r. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The body has no acceleration
(b) The body has a radial acceleration 2r directed towards the centre of the path.
(c) The body has a radial acceleration 2/5 2r directed away from the centre of the path.
(d) The body has an acceleration 2r tangential to its path

Answer: (b) The body has a radial acceleration 2r directed towards the centre of the path.

Explanation:
A body moving in a circular path with uniform angular velocity experiences centripetal acceleration directed towards the center. The magnitude is proportional to r, making option (b) correct.

Q126 Which one of the following statements is correct? ‘Deccan Odyssey’ is:
(a) A book on Chatrapati Shivaji
(b) A warship recently acquired by the Indian Navy
(c) A recently started air service between Mumbai and Colombo
(d) A luxury train which travels through Maharashtra and includes Goa in its journey

Answer: (d) A luxury train which travels through Maharashtra and includes Goa in its journey

Explanation:
The Deccan Odyssey is a luxury tourist train operated by the Maharashtra Tourism Development Corporation, covering destinations in Maharashtra and Goa, offering a royal travel experience.

Q127 Standard 18-carat gold sold in the market contains:
(a) 82 parts gold and 18 parts other metals
(b) 18 parts gold and 82 parts other metals
(c) 18 parts gold and 6 parts other metals
(d) 9 parts gold and 15 parts other metals

Answer: (c) 18 parts gold and 6 parts other metals

Explanation:
18-carat gold means 18 parts out of 24 are pure gold, and the remaining 6 parts are other metals like copper or silver. This gives 75% purity, making option (c) correct.

Q128 A weightless rubber balloon is filled with 200 cc of water. Its weight in water is equal to:
(a) (9.8/5) N
(b) (9.8/10) N
(c) (9.8/2) N
(d) Zero

Answer: (d) Zero

Explanation:
An object fully immersed in water and having the same density as water experiences no net weight due to buoyant force. Since the balloon is weightless and filled with water, its apparent weight is zero.

Q129 Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?
(a) Zinc and sulphur
(b) Potassium and mercury
(c) Strontium and barium
(d) Chromium and nickel

Answer: (c) Strontium and barium

Explanation:

• Strontium salts produce red flames
• Barium salts produce green flames
  These are commonly used in fireworks for vibrant colors, making option (c) correct.

Q130 Consider the following statements:

1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised on 26 January, 1950.
2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised on 1 January 1949, not 26 January 1950.
• The borrowing programme is managed by the Department of Economic Affairs, not the Department of Expenditure.
  Hence, both statements are incorrect.

Q131 Which one of the following is the correct decreasing sequence in terms of the value (in rupees) of the minerals produced in India in the year 2002–03?
(a) Metallic minerals–Fuel minerals–Non-metallic minerals
(b) Fuel minerals–Metallic minerals–Non-metallic minerals
(c) Metallic minerals–Non-metallic minerals–Fuel minerals
(d) Fuel minerals–Non-metallic minerals–Metallic minerals

Answer: (b) Fuel minerals–Metallic minerals–Non-metallic minerals

Explanation:
In 2002–03, fuel minerals like coal and petroleum contributed the highest value to India’s mineral output, followed by metallic minerals such as iron ore and bauxite, and then non-metallic minerals like limestone and gypsum. This reflects their economic significance and industrial demand.

Q132 Which one of the following cities (they were in the news in recent times) is not correctly matched with its country?
(a) Salamanca : Spain
(b) Cannes : Italy
(c) Cancun : Mexico
(d) Bruges : Belgium

Answer: (b) Cannes : Italy

Explanation:
Cannes is a famous city in France, known for its international film festival. The other cities are correctly matched:

• Salamanca – Spain
• Cancun – Mexico
• Bruges – Belgium
  Hence, option (b) is incorrectly matched.

Q133 Consider the following statements: As per 2001 Census

1. The two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and Punjab.
2. The two States with the lowest population per sq km of area are Meghalaya and Mizoram.
3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (d) 1 and 3

Explanation:

• Haryana and Punjab had the lowest sex ratios in 2001.
• Kerala had the highest literacy rate and sex ratio.
• Meghalaya and Mizoram do not have the lowest population density; states like Arunachal Pradesh rank lower.
  Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Q134 Consider the following statements:

1. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodi.
2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo-Mysore War.
3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah in the Battle of Plassey.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation:

• Ibrahim Lodi was defeated by Babur in the First Battle of Panipat, not the third.
• Tipu Sultan died in the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War, not the third.
• Mir Jafar conspired with the British against Siraj-ud-Daulah in the Battle of Plassey (1757).
  So, only statement 3 is correct.

Q135 Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest cover?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Goa
(c) Haryana
(d) Kerala

Answer: (c) Haryana

Explanation:
Haryana has the least forest cover among the listed states due to its dense agricultural and urban landscape. States like Sikkim and Kerala have significant forest areas, while Goa, though small, has a higher forest percentage than Haryana.

Q136 How many three-digit even numbers are there such that 9 comes as a succeeding digit in any number only when 7 is the preceding digit and 7 is the preceding digit only when 9 is the succeeding digit?
(a) 120
(b) 210
(c) 365
(d) 405

Answer: (d) 405

Explanation:
This is a conditional digit placement problem. The constraint is that 7 and 9 must appear together as 7 followed by 9, and 9 must only follow 7. After applying these rules and counting valid three-digit even numbers, the total is 405.

Q137 Match List-I (Sports-person) with List-II (Sport/Game):
A. Shikha Tandon
B. Ignace Tirkey
C. Pankaj Advani
D. Rohan Bopanna

List-II:

1. Badminton
2. Swimming
3. Lawn Tennis
4. Snooker
5. Hockey

Codes:
(a) 3542
(b) 2413
(c) 3412
(d) 2543

Answer: (d) 2543

Explanation:

• Shikha Tandon – Swimming
• Ignace Tirkey – Hockey
• Pankaj Advani – Snooker
• Rohan Bopanna – Lawn Tennis
  This matches code 2543.

Q138 The record for the highest score in an innings in Test Cricket is now being held by Brian Lara. Immediately prior to him, the three record holders were:
(a) Don Bradman, Sunil Gavaskar and Colin Cowdrey
(b) Len Hutton, Peter May and Vivian Richards
(c) Hayden, Lara, Sobers
(d) Bob Cowper, Bill Lawry and Brian Lara

Answer: (c) Hayden, Lara, Sobers

Explanation:
Before Brian Lara’s 400 not out, the record was held by:

• Matthew Hayden (380)
• Brian Lara (375)
• Gary Sobers (365*)
  This sequence reflects the progression of highest individual Test scores.

Q139 In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them, Ajit and Mukherjee, are never together?
(a) 120
(b) 240
(c) 360
(d) 480

Answer: (d) 480

Explanation:
Total arrangements of 6 players = 6! = 720
Arrangements where Ajit and Mukherjee are together = 2 × 5! = 240
So, arrangements where they are not together = 720 – 240 = 480

Q140 Match List-I (State / Province / Overseas Territory) with List-II (Country):
A. British Columbia
B. Bavaria
C. Gibraltar
D. Rhode Island

List-II:

1. USA
2. UK
3. Canada
4. Germany
5. Denmark

Codes:
(a) 1253
(b) 3421
(c) 1423
(d) 3251

Answer: (d) 3251

Explanation:

• British Columbia – Canada
• Bavaria – Germany
• Gibraltar – UK
• Rhode Island – USA
  This matches code 3251.

Q141 Consider the following statements:

1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
3. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:
The femur is indeed the longest bone in the human body, located in the thigh. Cholera is caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. However, Athlete’s foot is caused by a fungus, not a virus. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, and statement 3 is incorrect.

Q142 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48 women for this work, but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is completed. The work is completed in:
(a) 45 days
(b) 50 days
(c) 54 days
(d) 62 days

Answer: (a) 45 days

Explanation:
Using the concept of work equivalence and progressive reduction, the initial workforce completes a portion of the work every 10 days, and with each reduction, the rate decreases. Calculating cumulative work done across intervals leads to the job being completed in 45 days.

Q143 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Unit of Indian Railway — Location
(a) Railway Staff College — Vadodara
(b) Central Organization for Railway Electrification — Varanasi
(c) Wheel and Axle Plant — Bangalore
(d) Rail-coach Factory — Kapurthala

Answer: (b) Central Organization for Railway Electrification — Varanasi

Explanation:
The Central Organization for Railway Electrification (CORE) is headquartered in Allahabad (Prayagraj), not Varanasi. The other units are correctly matched with their locations.

Q144 Consider the following statements:

1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip.
2. Digital technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such as satellite and fibre optics transmission.
3. A digital library is a collection of documents in an organised electronic form available on the Internet only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation:

• A Smart Card contains an embedded microchip for data storage and security.
• Digital technology is widely used in satellite and fiber optic communication.
• A digital library may be available on local networks as well, not just the Internet. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is not.

Q145 Match List-I (New Names of the Countries) with List-II (Old Names of the Countries):
A. Benin
B. Belize
C. Botswana
D. Malawi

List-II:

1. Nyasaland
2. Basutoland
3. Bechuanaland
4. British Honduras
5. Dahomey

Codes:
(a) 3124
(b) 5431
(c) 3421
(d) 5134

Answer: (d) 5134

Explanation:

• Benin was formerly Dahomey
• Belize was British Honduras
• Botswana was Bechuanaland
• Malawi was Nyasaland
  This matches code 5134.

Q146 Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?
(a) Attorney General of India – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Attorney General of India – Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court – Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Members of Parliament

Answer: (d) Judges of the Supreme Court – Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Members of Parliament

Explanation:
The Warrant of Precedence places Judges of the Supreme Court above the Attorney General, followed by the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, and then Members of Parliament. This reflects their constitutional and ceremonial hierarchy.

Q147 Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The probability that these three students will have identical date and month of their birth is:
(a) 3/1000
(b) 3/365
(c) 1/(365)²
(d) 1/(365)³

Answer: (d) 1/(365)³

Explanation:
Assuming uniform distribution of birthdays across 365 days, the probability that all three students share the same date and month is (1/365) × (1/365) × (1/365) = 1/(365)³.

Q148 Consider the following statements:

1. Montenegro and Serbia agreed to a new structure for the Yugoslav Federation.
2. Croatia remained under the Hungarian Administration until the end of First World War.
3. Claims to Macedonia Territory have long been a source of contention between Belgium and Greece.
4. In 1991, Slovenia declared independence from Czechoslovakia.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1, 2 and 3
   (c) 2, 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

• Montenegro and Serbia restructured the Yugoslav Federation post-1990s.
• Croatia was under Hungarian rule until World War I.
• Macedonia disputes involve Greece, not Belgium.
• Slovenia declared independence from Yugoslavia, not Czechoslovakia.
  Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q149 Shirin Ebadi, who won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2003, is from:
(a) Iraq
(b) Nigeria
(c) Iran
(d) Libya

Answer: (c) Iran

Explanation:
Shirin Ebadi, a human rights lawyer and activist, was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2003 for her efforts in promoting democracy and women’s rights in Iran.

Q150 A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a vertical wall and the floor of a room, while continuing to remain in a vertical plane. The path traced by a person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is:
(a) A straight line
(b) An elliptical path
(c) A circular path
(d) A parabolic path

Answer: (d) A parabolic path

Explanation:
As the ladder slips, the midpoint traces a parabolic trajectory due to the combined horizontal and vertical motion governed by the geometry of the ladder and gravitational force.