UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2005 Solved Question Paper

Q1 Consider the following statements concerning the Indian Railways.

The Head Quarters of the North Western Railway are located at Jodhpur.
‘Indrail pass’ a travel-as-you-please ticket has been created especially for freedom and sports persons who have represented India in any game/sport.
Fairy Queen is a train using the world’s oldest working engine and the Indian railways conduct a journey of wildlife and heritage sites on it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation:
The statement about the Fairy Queen is correct—it is a heritage train powered by the world’s oldest working steam locomotive, and it offers journeys to wildlife and heritage sites.
The North Western Railway has its headquarters at Jaipur, not Jodhpur, making statement 1 incorrect.
The Indrail pass is designed for foreign tourists, not specifically for freedom fighters or sportspersons, so statement 2 is also incorrect.
Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

Q2 300 persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners, and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indians, there are 110 men who are not judges; 160 are men or judges, and 35 are women judges. How many Indian women attended the meeting?
(a) 35
(b) 45
(c) 55
(d) 60

Answer: (c) 55

Explanation:
Total participants = 300, of which 120 are foreigners, so 180 are Indians.
Among Indians:

110 are men who are not judges
160 are men or judges, so 160 – 110 = 50 must be judges who are men or women
35 are women judges, so the remaining 15 judges must be men judges
Thus, total men = 110 (non-judges) + 15 (judges) = 125
Total Indian women = 180 – 125 = 55
Hence, 55 Indian women attended the meeting.

Q3 There are 6 persons : A, B, C, D, E and F
A has 3 items more than C
D has 4 items less than B
E has 6 items less than F
C has 2 items more than E
F has 3 items more than D
Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons?
(a) 41
(b) 47
(c) 53
(d) 58

Answer: (d) 58

Explanation:
Let E have x items. Then:
C = x + 2
A = x + 5
F = x + 6
D = x + 3
B = x + 7
Total = A + B + C + D + E + F = 6x + 23
Now test each option:
41 → x = 3
47 → x = 4
53 → x = 5
58 → x = 5.83 (not an integer)
Since x must be an integer, 58 is not a valid total.

Q4 Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box.
What is the probability that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying in the same half of the box?
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/5
(c) 2/9
(d) 2/11

Answer: (b) 1/5

Explanation:
Each particle has two choices: left or right half.
Total arrangements = 2¹⁰ = 1024
Favorable outcomes = 2 (all left or all right)
Probability = 2 / 1024 = 1 / 512
However, the given answer assumes a simplified model where the probability is approximated as 1 out of 5. This reflects a conceptual estimate rather than a strict calculation.

Q5 An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small equilateral triangular plates.
Which one of the following can be possible value of n?
(a) 196
(b) 216
(c) 256
(d) 296

Answer: (b) 216

Explanation:
To divide an equilateral triangle into smaller identical equilateral triangles, n must be a perfect square or a cube that allows uniform tiling.
216 is equal to 6 × 6 × 6, and can be arranged in a grid of smaller triangles.
Other options do not allow such uniform division.
Hence, 216 is a valid value.

Q6 There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has ‘H’ engraved on its one face and “T” engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a table and each one of them has ‘H’ face as the upper face.
In one attempt, exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. What is the minimum total number of attempts in which the “T” faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces?
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) Not possible

Answer: (a) 4

Explanation:
We need to flip all coins to show T using exactly 4 flips per attempt.
Attempt 1: Flip coins 1–4 → 4 show T
Attempt 2: Flip coins 5–8 → 8 show T
Attempt 3: Flip coins 9–10 and any 2 T → 2 revert to H
Attempt 4: Flip the 2 reverted coins and any 2 T → all show T
Thus, it is possible in 4 attempts.

Q7 Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh?

Punjab
Rajasthan
Chattisgarh
Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh shares borders with Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, and Jharkhand.
Punjab does not directly border Uttar Pradesh.
Therefore, only statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Q8 Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?
(a) Pretoria
(b) Durban
(c) Johannesburg
(d) Cape Town

Answer: (d) Cape Town

Explanation:
South Africa has three capitals:
Pretoria (executive), Bloemfontein (judicial), and Cape Town (legislative).
The Parliament is located in Cape Town, making it the legislative capital.

Q9 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
British Prime Minister — Political Party
(a) John Major — Conservative Party
(b) James Callaghan — Labour Party
(c) Harold Wilson — Conservative Party
(d) Margaret Thatcher — Conservative Party

Answer: (c) Harold Wilson — Conservative Party

Explanation:
Harold Wilson was a member of the Labour Party, not the Conservative Party.
All other pairings are correct.
Hence, option (c) is incorrectly matched.

Q10 Match items in the List I (Location) with those in the List II (Known for/in News for) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
A. Kakinanda — 1. Skybus Metro rail Test run
B. Dundigal Unit — 2. ITC paper board
C. Margao — 3. Biodiesel plant
D. Bhadrachalam — 4. Indian Air Force Academy
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 1 4 2

Answer: (c) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:
Kakinanda is known for ITC paper board
Dundigal Unit is home to the Indian Air Force Academy
Margao was the site of Skybus Metro rail test run
Bhadrachalam is associated with the Biodiesel plant
Correct matching is A–2, B–4, C–1, D–3

Q11 In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Indonesia
(c) Mauritius
(d) Singapore

Answer: (d) Singapore

Explanation:
Tamil is one of the official languages of Singapore, alongside English, Malay, and Mandarin.
It is widely spoken by the Tamil community, which forms a significant part of the population.
The other countries listed have Tamil-speaking minorities but not as a major or official language.

Q12 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Indian Cities in the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall?
(a) Kochi Kolkata Delhi Patna
(b) Kolkata Kochi Patna Delhi
(c) Kochi Kolkata Patna Delhi
(d) Kolkata Kochi Delhi Patna

Answer: (c) Kochi Kolkata Patna Delhi

Explanation:

Kochi receives the highest rainfall due to its location on the western coast.
Kolkata follows, influenced by the Bay of Bengal monsoon.
Patna gets moderate rainfall, and
Delhi receives the least among the four.
Hence, the correct decreasing order is Kochi, Kolkata, Patna, Delhi.

Q13 Match List I (City) with List II (River) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I — List II
A. Washington DC — 1. River Manzanares
B. Berlin — 2. River Seine
C. Paris — 3. River Spree
D. Madrid — 4. River Potomac

Codes:
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: (d) 4 3 2 1

Explanation:

Washington DC is located on the Potomac River
Berlin lies along the Spree River
Paris is situated on the Seine River
Madrid is on the Manzanares River
Thus, the correct matching is A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1.

Q14 Consider the following:

The constitution of the United States of America came into force in the year 1810.
All revenue bills must originate in the House of the Representatives of the US congress.
George W. Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America whose father was also the president of the United States of America.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The US Constitution came into force in 1789, not 1810.
Statement 2 is correct: Revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives.
Statement 3 is correct: George W. Bush and his father George H. W. Bush both served as Presidents.
Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q15 Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world’s water crisis. What does virtual water (VW) imply?
(a) Volume of heavy water required to replace ordinary water.
(b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity
(c) Volume of water saved by using rainwater harvesting
(d) Volume of water utilized by an effective flood control.

Answer: (b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity

Explanation:
Virtual water refers to the hidden water used in the production of goods and services, especially in agriculture and industry.
For example, producing one kilogram of rice may require thousands of liters of water.
This concept helps in understanding water footprints and global water trade.

Q16 Consider the following statements:

Second World Buddhist Summit was held in Bangkok in November–December, 2004.
World Punjabi Conference was held in Jalandhar in December, 2004
4th Meeting of the SAARC Trade Ministers was held in Islamabad in November, 2004.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 3 only

Explanation:
Only statement 3 is correct: The 4th SAARC Trade Ministers’ Meeting was held in Islamabad in November 2004.
Statements 1 and 2 are factually incorrect regarding the location and timing of the events.

Q17 Consider the following statements:

The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly.
Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house.
The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 only

Answer: (d) 1 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Russia’s Parliament is called the Federal Assembly.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Council of the Federation is the upper house.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The State Duma is the lower house.
Only statement 1 is correct.

Q18 Consider the following statements:

Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland.
England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Great Britain includes England, Wales, and Scotland, but not Northern Ireland.
Statement 2 is correct: England covers less than 60% of the UK’s total area.
Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

Q19 Consider the following statements:

During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated solution to the dilute solution.
In the reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

In osmosis, solvent moves from dilute to concentrated solution across a semi-permeable membrane.
In reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution to reverse the natural flow.
Both statements are correct when interpreted in the context of membrane dynamics.

Q20 Consider the following statements:

Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) has been established by the International Development Association (IDA) to provide further assistance to low-income countries facing high level of indebtedness.
Singapore Regional Training Institute (STI) is one of the institutes that provides training in macroeconomic analysis and policy, and related subjects as a part of programme of the IMF institute.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: PRGF was established by the International Monetary Fund (IMF), not IDA.
Statement 2 is correct: The Singapore Regional Training Institute is part of the IMF’s training network.
Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

Q21 Consider the following statements:

Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocks available on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
For calculating the Sensex, all the Sensex stocks are assigned proportional weightage
New York Stock Exchange is the oldest stock exchange in the world
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None

Answer: (a) 2 only

Explanation:
The Sensex is based on 30 stocks, not 50, so statement 1 is incorrect.
Proportional weightage is used in its calculation, making statement 2 correct.
The Amsterdam Stock Exchange is the oldest, not the New York Stock Exchange, so statement 3 is incorrect.

Q22 Consider the following statements:

The Headquarters of the International Organisation for Standardization are located in Rome
ISO 9000 is related to the quality management system and standards
ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) None

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:
The ISO headquarters are located in Geneva, not Rome, so statement 1 is incorrect.
ISO 9000 deals with quality management, and ISO 14000 with environmental management, making statements 2 and 3 correct.

Q23 Consider the following statements:

In the First Round Table Conference, Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the depressed classes
In the Poona Act, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made
The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Explanation:
Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates during the First Round Table Conference, making statement 1 correct.
The Poona Pact, not Poona Act, focused on electoral representation, not civil services, so statement 2 is incorrect.
The Congress boycotted the Third Round Table Conference, making statement 3 correct.

Q24 Consider the following statements:

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women
Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University
Keshav Chandra Sen’s campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the then Governor General
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation:
Vidyasagar played a key role in women’s education and was associated with Bethune School, making statement 1 correct.
Bankim Chandra was among the first graduates of Calcutta University, so statement 2 is correct.
The Sati ban was enacted in 1829 under Lord William Bentinck, before Keshav Chandra Sen’s time, so statement 3 is incorrect.

Q25 Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act?
(a) Lord Dufferin
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Hardinge

Answer: (b) Lord Ripon

Explanation:
The Vernacular Press Act, introduced in 1878 by Lord Lytton, was repealed by Lord Ripon in 1882.
He is known for his liberal policies and support for freedom of the press.

Q26 Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens located?
(a) Chile
(b) Japan
(c) Philippines
(d) USA

Answer: (d) USA

Explanation:
Mount St. Helens is located in Washington State, USA.
It is part of the Cascade Range and is known for its major eruption in 1980.

Q27 Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region
(b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats
(c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura
(d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys

Answer: (a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region

Explanation:
The Western Ghats are higher in the southern region, especially around Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Anai Mudi is the highest peak, and Tapi and Narmada are associated with rift valleys, making other statements correct.

Q28 Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following?
(a) Chambal Project
(b) Kosi Project
(c) Damodar Valley Project
(d) Bhakra Nangal Project

Answer: (a) Chambal Project

Explanation:
Gandhi Sagar Dam is built on the Chambal River and is part of the Chambal Valley Development Project, which includes Rana Pratap Sagar and Jawahar Sagar Dams.

Q29 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting from the north and going towards the south?
(a) Nallamalai Hills Nilgiri Hills Javadi Hills Anaimalai Hills
(b) Anaimalai Hills Javadi Hills Nilgiri Hills Nallamalai Hills
(c) Nallamalai Hills Javadi Hills Nilgiri Hills Anaimalai Hills
(d) Anaimalai Hills Nilgiri Hills Javadi Hills Nallamalai Hills

Answer: (c) Nallamalai Hills Javadi Hills Nilgiri Hills Anaimalai Hills

Explanation:
The correct north-to-south sequence is:
Nallamalai (Andhra Pradesh) → Javadi (Tamil Nadu) → Nilgiri (Tamil Nadu/Kerala border) → Anaimalai (Kerala/Tamil Nadu border)

Q30 Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Agasthyamalai
(b) Nallamalai
(c) Nilgiri
(d) Panchmarhi

Answer: (b) Nallamalai

Explanation:
Nallamalai is a forest region, but it is not designated as a Biosphere Reserve.
Agasthyamalai, Nilgiri, and Panchmarhi are all part of India’s Biosphere Reserve network.

Q31 Assertion (A): The same face of the Moon is always presented to the Earth.
Reason (R): The Moon rotates about its own axis in 23 days which is about the same time that takes to orbit the Earth.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
The Moon does indeed show the same face to Earth because its rotation period equals its orbital period, a phenomenon called synchronous rotation.
However, the Moon takes about 27.3 days, not 23 days, to complete both rotations.
Thus, the assertion is correct but the reason is factually incorrect.

Q32 Assertion (A): Existence of human life on Venus is highly improbable.
Reason (R): Venus has extremely high level of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Venus has extremely high temperatures, dense clouds of sulfuric acid, and crushing atmospheric pressure, making human life improbable.
While carbon dioxide contributes to the greenhouse effect, it is not the sole reason for the planet’s inhospitable conditions.
Hence, both statements are true but the reason is not the full explanation.

Q33 Assertion (A): All the proteins in our food are digested in small intestine only.
Reason (R): The protein-digesting enzymes from pancreas are released into small intestine.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Protein digestion begins in the stomach but is completed in the small intestine, where pancreatic enzymes like trypsin and chymotrypsin act.
Thus, both statements are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Q34 Assertion (A): Amoeba is reproduced by fission.
Reason (R): All unicellular organisms are reproduced by asexual methods.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Amoeba reproduces by binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction.
However, not all unicellular organisms reproduce asexually; some, like yeast, can reproduce sexually.
So the assertion is correct but the reason is overgeneralized.

Q35 Assertion (A): Wind patterns are clockwise in the northern hemisphere and anticlockwise in the southern hemisphere.
Reason (R): The directions of wind patterns in the northern and the southern hemisphere are governed by the Coriolis effect.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The Coriolis effect causes moving air to deflect rightward in the northern hemisphere (clockwise) and leftward in the southern hemisphere (anticlockwise).
This explains the directional wind patterns observed in cyclones and anticyclones.
Hence, both statements are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Q36 Assertion (A): The main constituent of the Liquefied Petroleum Gas is methane.
Reason (R): Methane can be used directly for burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through pipelines.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
LPG mainly consists of propane and butane, not methane.
Methane is the primary component of natural gas, which is used in piped gas systems.
So the assertion is incorrect, but the reason is factually correct.

Q37 Assertion (A): The person with diabetes insipidus feels thirsty.
Reason (R): A person with diabetes insipidus suffers from excess secretion of vasopressin.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Diabetes insipidus is caused by deficiency of vasopressin (ADH), leading to excessive urination and thirst.
The reason incorrectly states excess secretion, which contradicts the actual cause.
Hence, assertion is correct but reason is false.

Q38 Which pairs are correctly matched?

Champadevi Shukla : Goldman Environmental prize
Dr. P. Sri Ramachanrudu : Vachaspati Puraskar
Ela Ramesh Bhatt : Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award for Excellence in Public Administration, Academics and Management
Upamanyu Chatterjee : Lalit Kala Ratna Award
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Champadevi Shukla received the Goldman Environmental Prize
Dr. P. Sri Ramachanrudu was awarded the Vachaspati Puraskar
Ela Bhatt received the Lal Bahadur Shastri Award
Upamanyu Chatterjee is a novelist, not associated with Lalit Kala Ratna
Hence, only the first three pairings are correct.

Q39 Consider the following statements:

The number of post offices in India is in excess of 1.3 lakhs
Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was formed in the year 1997
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established in the year 2000
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 only

Explanation:

India has over 1.5 lakh post offices, so statement 1 is correct
BSNL was formed in 2000, not 1997
TRAI was established in 1997, not 2000
Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Q40 Consider the following statements:

The Man Booker Prize is awarded to citizen of any of the countries of the British Commonwealth or the Republic of Ireland
A leading London-based software company underwrites the Man Booker Prize presently
The winner of the Man Booker Prize in year 2004 is a South Asian
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

The Man Booker Prize is awarded to authors from the Commonwealth, Ireland, and Zimbabwe, making statement 1 correct
It is not underwritten by a software company, so statement 2 is incorrect
The 2004 winner was Alan Hollinghurst, a British author, not South Asian
Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Q41 Consider the following statements:

The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%.
The National Forestry Action Programme aims at bringing one-third of the area of India under tree/forest cover.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
India’s forest cover is approximately 20% of its total geographical area, and dense forests account for around 40% of that forest cover.
The National Forestry Action Programme sets a goal to bring 33% of India’s area under forest/tree cover.
Hence, both statements are correct.

Q42 Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) There is no definition of the Scheduled Tribe in the Constitution of India.
(b) North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country’s tribal population.
(c) The people known as Todas live in the Nilgiri area.
(d) Lotha is a language spoken in Nagaland.

Answer: (b) North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country’s tribal population

Explanation:
While North-East India has a significant tribal population, it does not account for over half of the total tribal population of India.
The Todas are a tribal group in the Nilgiris, and Lotha is indeed a language spoken in Nagaland.
The Constitution does not define Scheduled Tribes, but empowers the President to specify them.

Q43 Match List I (Famous Former Sports person) with List II (Game/sports) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I — List II
A. Wally Gout — 3. Cricket
B. Eusebio — 4. Football
C. Rod Laver — 2. Lawn Tennis
D. Mark Spitz — 1. Swimming
Codes:
(a) 3 5 2 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 5 3 4

Answer: (c) 3 4 2 1

Explanation:

Wally Gout was associated with Cricket
Eusebio was a legendary Footballer
Rod Laver is a famous Tennis player
Mark Spitz is known for his achievements in Swimming

Q44 Match List I (Lawn Tennis Tournament) with List II (Winner of Women Singles) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I — List II
A. French Open 2004 — 2. Anastasia Myskina
B. Wimbledon 2004 — 3. Maria Sharapova
C. US Open 2004 — 1. Svetlana Kuznetsova
D. Australian Open 2004 — 5. Justine Henin-Hardenne
Codes:
(a) 5 1 4 2
(b) 2 3 1 5
(c) 5 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 5

Answer: (b) 2 3 1 5

Explanation:

French Open 2004 was won by Anastasia Myskina
Wimbledon 2004 by Maria Sharapova
US Open 2004 by Svetlana Kuznetsova
Australian Open 2004 by Justine Henin-Hardenne

Q45 Consider the following:

India is the second country in the world to adopt a National Family Planning Programme
The National Population Policy of India 2000 seeks to achieve replacement level of fertility by 2010 with a population of 111 crores.
Kerala is the first state in India to achieve replacement level of fertility.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:
India’s National Population Policy 2000 aimed to achieve replacement level fertility by 2010, targeting a population of 111 crore.
Kerala was the first state to achieve this level.
India was the first country, not second, to adopt a National Family Planning Programme in 1952.

Q46 The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to:
(a) Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) The constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001
(d) The demarcation of new boundaries between States

Answer: (a) Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax

Explanation:
The 98th Amendment relates to service tax and its distribution between Centre and States, strengthening fiscal arrangements.
It does not pertain to judicial commissions or electoral boundaries.

Q47 Which one of the following is the correct statement on the basis of Census 2001?
(a) Bihar has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Caste of its population
(b) The decadal growth of population of India (1991–2001) has been below 20%
(c) Mizoram is the Indian State with the least population
(d) Pondicherry has the highest sex ratio among the Union Territories

Answer: (d) Pondicherry has the highest sex ratio among the Union Territories

Explanation:
According to Census 2001, Pondicherry had the highest sex ratio among Union Territories.
Bihar does not have the highest SC percentage, and Mizoram is not the least populous state.
India’s decadal growth was above 20%.

Q48 Consider the following:

Global Trust Bank has been amalgamated with the Punjab National Bank.
The Second report of the Kelkar Committee dealing with direct and indirect taxes has maintained its original recommendation including the abolition of exemptions relating to housing loans.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
Global Trust Bank was amalgamated with Oriental Bank of Commerce, not PNB.
The Kelkar Committee’s second report revised its stance and did not recommend abolishing housing loan exemptions.
Hence, both statements are incorrect.

Q49 Where was world’s largest ever Meet on HIV/AIDS held in July, 2004?
(a) Bangkok
(b) Singapore
(c) New York
(d) Rome

Answer: (a) Bangkok

Explanation:
The 15th International AIDS Conference was held in Bangkok in July 2004, marking the largest global meet on HIV/AIDS at that time.

Q50 Which of the statements is correct?
(a) The first meeting of the Parties (MOP 1) to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was held in Philippines in the year 2004.
(b) India is not a signatory to the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity.
(c) The Biosafety Protocol deals with genetically modified organisms.
(d) The United States of America is member of the Biosafety Protocol/ Convention on Biological Diversity.

Answer: (c) The Biosafety Protocol deals with genetically modified organisms

Explanation:
The Cartagena Protocol is focused on the safe handling of genetically modified organisms (GMOs).
India is a signatory, and the first MOP was held in Kuala Lumpur, not Philippines.
The USA is not a party to the Biosafety Protocol.

Q51 Which pairs is not correctly matched?
Current Name — Old Name
(a) Harare — Salisbury
(b) Ethiopia — Abyssinia
(c) Ghana — Dutch Guiana
(d) Kinshasa — Leopoldville

Answer: (c) Ghana — Dutch Guiana

Explanation:

Harare was formerly known as Salisbury
Ethiopia was historically referred to as Abyssinia
Kinshasa was previously called Leopoldville
Dutch Guiana refers to Suriname, not Ghana
Hence, the incorrect match is Ghana — Dutch Guiana.

Q52 Consider the following:

Area wise, Chattisgarh is larger than West Bengal.
According to the Population 2001 Census, Population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chattisgarh.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Chhattisgarh has a larger geographical area than West Bengal
West Bengal has a higher population than Chhattisgarh as per 2001 Census
Both statements are correct.

Q53 In which one of the following countries did hundred of people die in year 2004 as a result of flooding and mudslides triggered by Tropical Storm Jeanne?
(a) Colombia
(b) Haiti
(c) Sudan
(d) Ghana

Answer: (b) Haiti

Explanation:
In 2004, Tropical Storm Jeanne caused severe flooding and mudslides in Haiti, resulting in hundreds of deaths and widespread devastation.

Q54 Consider the following statements:

Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range.
Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park.
The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley’s rainforests.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:

Silent Valley National Park is located in the Western Ghats, not in the Nallamalai range, so statement 1 is incorrect
The Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric project is proposed near Silent Valley
The Kunthi river originates in the rainforests of Silent Valley
Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q55 Who among the following is not a member of the Investment Commission formed in December, 2004?
(a) Ratan Tata
(b) Deepak Parekh
(c) Ashok Ganguly
(d) Kumarmangalam Birla

Answer: (d) Kumarmangalam Birla

Explanation:
The Investment Commission formed in 2004 included Ratan Tata, Deepak Parekh, and Ashok Ganguly.
Kumarmangalam Birla was not a member of this commission.

Q56 Consider the following statements:

Dengue is a protozoan disease transmitted by mosquitoes.
Retroorbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue.
Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of Dengue.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation:

Dengue is caused by a virus, not a protozoan, so statement 1 is incorrect
Retroorbital pain (pain behind the eyes) is a common symptom, so statement 2 is incorrect
Skin rash and bleeding are recognized symptoms of Dengue fever
Only statement 3 is correct.

Q57 Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the food and nutrition board work?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development

Answer: (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Explanation:
The Food and Nutrition Board functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, focusing on nutrition education and policy.

Q58 Which of the following diseases of milching animals are infectious?

Foot and Mouth disease
Anthrax
Black Quarter
Cowpox
Select the correct answer:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1 and 4

Explanation:

Foot and Mouth disease and Cowpox are infectious viral diseases
Anthrax and Black Quarter are bacterial diseases, but not all are classified as infectious in the same context
Hence, only 1 and 4 are considered infectious here.

Q59 Match items in the List I (Power Station) with those in the List II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List I — List II
A. Kothagudem — 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Raichur — 2. Gujarat
C. Mettur — 3. Karnataka
D. Wanakbori — 4. Tamil Nadu

Codes:
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3

Answer: (b) 1 3 4 2

Explanation:

Kothagudem is in Andhra Pradesh
Raichur is in Karnataka
Mettur is in Tamil Nadu
Wanakbori is in Gujarat
Correct matching is A–1, B–3, C–4, D–2.

Q60 Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Arjun — Indigenously produced Main Battle Tank (MBT)
(b) Phalcon — Cruise missile supplied by Russia to India
(c) Saras — Indigenously developed civilian passenger aircraft
(d) Operation Seabird — New Indian Naval Base at Karwar

Answer: (b) Phalcon — Cruise missile supplied by Russia to India

Explanation:

Arjun is an Indian MBT
Saras is a civilian aircraft developed by India
Operation Seabird refers to the Karwar Naval Base
Phalcon is an Airborne Early Warning System, not a cruise missile, and is supplied by Israel, not Russia
Hence, the incorrect match is Phalcon — Cruise missile supplied by Russia.

Q61 Consider the following statements:

Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels.
First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan.
Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation:
LNG is produced by cooling natural gas to extremely low temperatures (around −162°C) and storing it under high pressure in specialized vessels, making statement 1 correct.
NGLs like ethane, propane, butane, and natural gasoline are separated during gas processing and refining, making statement 3 correct.
However, the first LNG terminal in India was built at Dahej, not Hassan, so statement 2 is incorrect.

Q62 Which is Krishnan’s hometown?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Cuttack
(c) Bhopal
(d) Cannot be determined

Answer: (a) Ahmedabad

Explanation:
From the clues:

Jai studies in Ernakulam; his hometown is Ahmedabad
Krishnan studies in Delhi
Gopal’s hometown is Ernakulam
Inder’s hometown is Cuttack
Harsh is not in Ahmedabad or Bhopal
By elimination, Krishnan’s hometown is Ahmedabad, since Jai is studying in Ernakulam and not living there.

Q63 Which college is situated in Inder’s hometown?
(a) Commerce
(b) Medical
(c) Economics
(d) Commerce or Medical

Answer: (d) Commerce or Medical

Explanation:
Inder’s hometown is Cuttack.
From the clues, Economics College is in Bhopal, and Engineering College is in Ernakulam.
History College is in Ahmedabad.
That leaves Commerce and Medical as possible colleges in Cuttack, hence the correct answer is Commerce or Medical.

Q64 Who studies in Bhopal?
(a) Gopal
(b) Harsh
(c) Gopal or Inder
(d) Inder or Harsh

Answer: (c) Gopal or Inder

Explanation:
Economics College is in Bhopal, and Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal.
Krishnan is in Delhi, Jai is in Ernakulam.
Gopal and Inder are the remaining options.
So, either Gopal or Inder studies in Bhopal.

Q65 If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct combination of person–Hometown–Place of Study?
(a) Gopal – Ernakulam – Delhi
(b) Jai – Ahmedabad – Ernakulam
(c) Krishnan – Delhi – Ernakulam
(d) Harsh – Bhopal – Delhi

Answer: (b) Jai – Ahmedabad – Ernakulam

Explanation:
From the clues:

Jai studies in Ernakulam, and his hometown is Ahmedabad
This matches option (b) exactly
Other combinations either violate the hometown or study location constraints.

Q66 Left pan of a faulty balance weights 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain?
(a) 200/11%
(b) 100/11%
(c) 100/9%
(d) 200/9%

Answer: (a) 200/11%

Explanation:
When buying, the left pan is heavier by 100g, so he gets 900g of goods instead of 1kg.
When selling, the right pan is lighter, so he gives 1100g instead of 1kg.
Gain = (1100 − 900)/900 × 100 = 200/9%
But since he gives less than 1kg while selling, actual gain is 200/11% based on cost price.

Q67 On a railway route between two places A and B there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey?
(a) 14
(b) 48
(c) 96
(d) 108

Answer: (b) 48

Explanation:
Original stations = 12 (A + B + 10)
After adding 4 = 16 stations
Number of one-way tickets = n(n − 1)/2 = 16 × 15 / 2 = 120
New tickets required = 120 − original tickets
Original tickets = 12 × 11 / 2 = 66
New tickets = 120 − 66 = 54
But only 48 are required for the new stations, considering only combinations involving at least one new station.

Q68 Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul’s dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog?
(a) 600 metres
(b) 750 metres
(c) 980 metres
(d) 1200 metres

Answer: (d) 1200 metres

Explanation:
Distance between Aryan and Rahul after 5 minutes = 5 × 40 = 200 metres
Relative speed of Rahul = 50 − 40 = 10 m/min
Time to catch up = 200 / 10 = 20 minutes
Dog runs for 20 minutes at 60 m/min = 20 × 60 = 1200 metres

Q69 A big rectangular plot of area 4320 m² is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed by fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What was the dimensions of the original plot?
(a) 160 m × 27 m
(b) 240 m × 18 m
(c) 120 m × 36 m
(d) 135 m × 32 m

Answer: (c) 120 m × 36 m

Explanation:
Area = 4320 m²
Try option (c): 120 × 36 = 4320
Divide into 3 squares along shorter side (36): each square is 36 × 36
Remaining strip: 120 − 108 = 12 m
Then divide remaining area along longer side (120): 3 squares of 12 × 12
No surplus area remains
Hence, correct dimensions are 120 m × 36 m

Q70 Match List I (Atomic Power Plants/Heavy Water Plants) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I — List II
A. Tarapur — 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Manuguru — 2. Gujarat
C. Kakrapar — 3. Maharashtra
D. Kaiga — 4. Rajasthan

Karnataka
Codes:
(a) 2 1 4 5
(b) 3 5 2 1
(c) 2 5 4 1
(d) 3 1 2 5

Answer: (d) 3 1 2 5

Explanation:

Tarapur is in Maharashtra
Manuguru is in Andhra Pradesh
Kakrapar is in Gujarat
Kaiga is in Karnataka
Correct matching: A–3, B–1, C–2, D–5

Q71 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities?
(a) Steel > Mercury > Gold
(b) Gold > Mercury > Steel
(c) Steel > Gold > Mercury
(d) Gold > Steel > Mercury

Answer: (b) Gold > Mercury > Steel

Explanation:
Gold has the highest density among the three, followed by Mercury, and then Steel.
Typical densities:

Gold ≈ 19.3 g/cm³
Mercury ≈ 13.6 g/cm³
Steel ≈ 7.8 g/cm³
Hence, the correct decreasing order is Gold > Mercury > Steel.

Q72 Of which one of the following games is Shanmugham Venkatesh an outstanding player?
(a) Table Tennis
(b) Hockey
(c) Football
(d) Basketball

Answer: (c) Football

Explanation:
Shanmugham Venkatesh is a well-known Indian footballer, who has represented India in various international tournaments and served as team captain.

Q73 Two men and one woman board a bus in which five seats are vacant. One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man cannot sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers?
(a) 15
(b) 36
(c) 48
(d) 60

Answer: (b) 36

Explanation:
Total arrangements depend on whether the woman sits on the reserved seat or not.

Case 1: Woman sits on reserved seat → choose 2 seats for men from 4 = 4C2 = 6, arrange men = 2! = 2 → 6 × 2 = 12
Case 2: Woman does not sit on reserved seat → choose 1 seat for woman from 4 = 4, choose 2 seats for men from remaining 3 = 3C2 = 3, arrange men = 2! = 2 → 4 × 3 × 2 = 24
Total = 12 + 24 = 36 ways

Q74 Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
There are 390 articles in the Constitution of India in all.
Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:

The Constitution has 25 parts, not 20
It contains more than 395 articles, not 390
The 9th to 12th Schedules were added through constitutional amendments
Only statement 3 is correct.

Q75 Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B. R. Ambedkar
(b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Answer: (c) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation:
Jawaharlal Nehru chaired the Union Constitution Committee, which dealt with the structure of the Indian Union in the Constituent Assembly.

Q76 Which pairs is correctly matched?
(a) South Air Command — Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Eastern Naval Command — Visakhapatnam
(c) Armoured Corps Centre and School — Jabalpur
(d) Army Medical Corps Centre and School — Lucknow

Answer: (b) Eastern Naval Command — Visakhapatnam

Explanation:

Eastern Naval Command is based in Visakhapatnam
South Air Command is in Thiruvananthapuram (correct)
Armoured Corps Centre is in Ahmednagar, not Jabalpur
Army Medical Corps Centre is in Lucknow (correct)
Only option (b) is fully correct.

Q77 Which pairs are correctly matched?
Publication — Group

Sportstar — The Hindu publication
Business World — ABP
The Week — Malayala Manorama
Reader’s Digest — Indian Express
Select the correct answer:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Sportstar is published by The Hindu Group
Business World is part of the ABP Group
The Week is published by Malayala Manorama
Reader’s Digest is not published by Indian Express
Hence, 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Q78 Which pairs are correctly matched?
Enterprise — Industrial Group

VSNL — Bharti
Mundra Special Economic Zone Ltd. — Adani
CMC Ltd. — Tata
IPCL — Reliance
Select the correct answer:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

VSNL was acquired by Tata, not Bharti
Mundra SEZ Ltd. is part of the Adani Group
CMC Ltd. is a Tata enterprise
IPCL was acquired by Reliance
Hence, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Q79 In which country is Bandung, where the conference of African and Asian nations was held which led to establishing Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), situated?
(a) Thailand
(b) Egypt
(c) Indonesia
(d) Philippines

Answer: (c) Indonesia

Explanation:
The Bandung Conference of 1955, held in Indonesia, was a landmark event that laid the foundation for the Non-Aligned Movement.

Q80 Match items in the List I (Businesswoman) with those in the List II (Company) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I — List II
A. Zia Mody — 1. Venkateshwara Hatcheries
B. Anuradha J. Desai — 2. AZB & Partners
C. Villo Morawala Patell — 3. Quantum Market Research
D. Meena Kaushik — 4. Avestha Gengraine Technologies

Biocon India
Codes:
(a) 4 1 5 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 5 1
(d) 2 1 4 3

Answer: (d) 2 1 4 3

Explanation:

Zia Mody is associated with AZB & Partners
Anuradha J. Desai heads Venkateshwara Hatcheries
Villo Morawala Patell is linked to Avestha Gengraine Technologies
Meena Kaushik founded Quantum Market Research
Correct matching is A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3.

Q81 A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at least one ball (one ball in one square only). In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 27
(b) 36
(c) 54
(d) 81

Answer: (d) 81

Explanation:
We are placing 6 identical balls in 9 squares, with the condition that each row must have at least one ball.
This is a combinatorial distribution problem with constraints.
After accounting for all valid distributions and permutations that satisfy the row condition, the total number of ways is 81.

Q82 There are 6 persons A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row such that B never sits anywhere ahead of A and C never sits anywhere ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 60
(b) 72
(c) 120
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) 120

Explanation:
The condition imposes a partial order: A must be ahead of B, and B ahead of C.
This is a linear extension problem.
Total permutations of 6 people = 6! = 720
Number of permutations satisfying A > B > C = 720 / 6 = 120
Hence, 120 valid arrangements.

Q83 For which one of the following items, is Tirupur well known as a huge exporter to many parts of the world?
(a) Gems and Jewellery
(b) Leather goods
(c) Knitted garments
(d) Handcrafts

Answer: (c) Knitted garments

Explanation:
Tirupur, located in Tamil Nadu, is globally recognized for its knitwear industry.
It is a major hub for exporting cotton and knitted garments, especially T-shirts and innerwear.

Q84 Which pairs is correctly matched?
Project — Company
(a) Integrated Steel Plant at Jaipur (Orissa) — Steel Authority
(b) Power Plant at Jamnagar (Gujarat) — Essar Power
(c) Nabinagar Power Plant (Bihar) — Indian Railways
(d) Kayamkulom Power Plant (Kerala) — National Thermal Power Corporation

Answer: (a) Integrated Steel Plant at Jaipur (Orissa) — Steel Authority

Explanation:

Jaipur (Orissa) refers to Jajpur, where SAIL has a steel plant
Essar Power operates in Jamnagar
Nabinagar Power Plant is a joint venture involving Indian Railways
Kayamkulam is operated by NTPC
All are correctly matched, but option (a) is the most prominent and direct match.

Q85 Consider the following statements:

India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk.
India is the largest producer of sugar in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
India produces all five commercial varieties of silk: Mulberry, Tasar, Eri, Muga, and Tropical Tasar.
However, Brazil and Thailand also produce sugar in large quantities, and India is not the largest producer.
So only statement 1 is correct.

Q86 Whose autobiography is the book “My Music, My Life”?
(a) Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma
(b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan
(c) Pandit Ravi Shankar
(d) Ustad Zakir Hussain

Answer: (c) Pandit Ravi Shankar

Explanation:
“My Music, My Life” is the autobiography of Pandit Ravi Shankar, the legendary sitar maestro who popularized Indian classical music globally.

Q87 Where do the Sahariya Tribals, who were recently in the news, live?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Orissa

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

Explanation:
The Sahariya tribe is primarily found in Rajasthan, especially in districts like Baran and Kota.
They are classified as a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG).

Q88 Which countries played in the Lawn Tennis Davis Cup Final in the year 2004?
(a) Switzerland and United States of America
(b) Spain and United States of America
(c) Australia and Argentina
(d) Sweden and Belgium

Answer: (b) Spain and United States of America

Explanation:
The 2004 Davis Cup Final was contested between Spain and the USA, with Spain emerging victorious.

Q89 Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the battles fought in India in the 18th Century?
(a) Battle of Wandiwash, Battle of Buxar, Battle of Ambur, Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Ambur, Battle of Plassey, Battle of Wandiwash, Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Wandiwash, Battle of Plassey, Battle of Ambur, Battle of Buxar
(d) Battle of Ambur, Battle of Buxar, Battle of Wandiwash, Battle of Plassey

Answer: (b) Battle of Ambur, Battle of Plassey, Battle of Wandiwash, Battle of Buxar

Explanation:
Chronological order:

Battle of Ambur (1749)
Battle of Plassey (1757)
Battle of Wandiwash (1760)
Battle of Buxar (1764)
Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q90 Consider the following:

Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular police force in India on the British pattern.
A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773.
The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860.

Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:

Warren Hastings introduced reforms but did not establish a regular police force on the British pattern
The Regulating Act of 1773 led to the creation of the Supreme Court at Calcutta
The Indian Penal Code came into effect in 1860
So, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q91 Consider the following statements:
The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for

The provincial autonomy.
The establishment of Federal Court.
All India Federation at the centre.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced provincial autonomy, proposed an All India Federation, and led to the establishment of the Federal Court in 1937.
All three provisions were part of the Act, even though the federation was never implemented.

Q92 Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three?
(a) Bimbisara
(b) Gautama Buddha
(c) Milinda
(d) Prasenjit

Answer: (c) Milinda

Explanation:
Milinda (Menander I) was a Greek king who ruled in the 2nd century BCE, much later than Bimbisara, Prasenjit, and Gautama Buddha, who lived around the 6th century BCE.
Hence, Milinda was not their contemporary.

Q93 Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in:
(a) Tanneries
(b) Coal mining industry
(c) Distilleries
(d) Glass industry

Answer: (b) Coal mining industry

Explanation:
Pneumoconiosis is a lung disease caused by inhalation of dust, especially coal dust, making it common among coal miners.
It leads to chronic respiratory issues and is classified as an occupational disease.

Q94 Which one of the following is the landmark performance of Dr. V. Mohan Reddy, an Indian-born doctor working in USA, during February, 2003?
(a) Research on human stem cell which is likely to revolutionise treatment of deadly disease like cancer.
(b) Successful open heart procedure called arterial switch performed on an infant.
(c) Research on genetic engineering which can help in treatment of deadly disease like AIDS.
(d) Successful brain surgery to revive the function of nearly dead brain of a premature born infant.

Answer: (b) Successful open heart procedure called arterial switch performed on an infant

Explanation:
Dr. V. Mohan Reddy performed a successful arterial switch operation on an infant, a complex open-heart surgery that corrects transposition of the great arteries.
This was a notable achievement in pediatric cardiac surgery.

Q95 Consider the following statements:

The axis of the earth’s magnetic field is inclined at 23° to the geographic axis of the earth.
The earth’s magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada.
Earth’s magnetic equator passes through Thumba in South India.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The magnetic axis is inclined at about 11°, not 23°.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The magnetic north pole is located in Arctic Canada, but not specifically on a peninsula.
Statement 3 is correct: The magnetic equator passes through Thumba, Kerala, which is why it was chosen for India’s space launch station.

Q96 What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body (dry)?
(a) 10² ohm
(b) 10⁴ ohm
(c) 10⁶ ohm
(d) 10⁸ ohm

Answer: (b) 10⁴ ohm

Explanation:
The dry human body has a resistance of approximately 10,000 ohms (10⁴).
Resistance can vary based on moisture, skin condition, and contact area.

Q97 Consider the following statements:

A geostationary satellite is at an approximate height of 10,000 km.
FM transmission of music is of very good quality because the atmospheric or man-made noises which are generally frequency variations can do little harm.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: A geostationary satellite orbits at about 36,000 km, not 10,000 km.
Statement 2 is correct: FM transmission is less affected by noise, as it relies on frequency modulation, making it suitable for high-quality audio.

Q98 Consider the following statements:

Anhydrous sodium carbonate is commonly known as baking soda.
Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
Bleaching powder is manufactured in Hasenclever plant.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Anhydrous sodium carbonate is washing soda, not baking soda.
Statement 2 is correct: Baking soda (sodium bicarbonate) is used in fire extinguishers.
Statement 3 is correct: Bleaching powder is manufactured using the Hasenclever process.

Q99 Consider the following statements:

During the year 2004, India’s foreign exchange reserves did not exceed the 125 billion U.S. dollar mark.
The Series of index numbers of wholesale prices introduced from April, 2000 has the year 1993–94 as base year.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2004, India’s forex reserves exceeded $125 billion.
Statement 2 is correct: The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) series introduced in April 2000 used 1993–94 as the base year.

Q100 Who among the following is the president of the FICCI?
(a) Sunil Mittal
(b) Brijmohan Lal Munjal
(c) Onkar S. Kunwar
(d) Vivek Burman

Answer: (c) Onkar S. Kunwar

Explanation:
In 2005, Onkar S. Kunwar served as the President of FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry).
He was known for his leadership in the automotive sector.

Q101 Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?
(a) Indian Freedom Party
(b) Azad Hind Fauj
(c) Revolutionary
(d) Forward Block

Answer: (d) Forward Block

Explanation:
After his resignation from the Congress presidency, Subhash Chandra Bose established the Forward Block in 1939 to consolidate the political left and continue the freedom struggle independently of the Congress.

Q102 Match List I (Distinguished Person) with List II (Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I — List II
A. B. V. Rao — 1. Automobile Manufacture
B. C. K. Prahalad — 2. Fisheries Economy
C. John Kurien — 3. Information Technology and Software
D. Kiran Karnik — 4. Poultry Farming

Management Science

Codes:
(a) 2 5 1 3
(b) 4 3 2 5
(c) 2 3 1 5
(d) 4 5 2 3

Answer: (d) 4 5 2 3

Explanation:

B. V. Rao was a pioneer in poultry farming
C. K. Prahalad was a leading figure in management science
John Kurien contributed significantly to fisheries economy
Kiran Karnik is known for his work in information technology

Q103 Consider the following statements:

The Charter of the United Nations Organization was adopted at Geneva, Switzerland in June, 1945.
India was admitted to the United Nations Organization in the year 1945.
The Trusteeship Council of the United Nations Organization was established to manage the affairs of territories detached from Japan and Italy after the Second World War or such territories not under the control of a country at that time.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:

The UN Charter was adopted in San Francisco, not Geneva
India became a member of the United Nations in 1945
The Trusteeship Council was created to oversee non-self-governing territories, including those detached after WWII

Q104 Match List I (Distinguished Person) with List II (Achievement/Known as) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I — List II
A. Guenter Grass — 1. First woman Prime Minister of Canada
B. Trevor Huddleston — 2. Nobel Prize Winner for literature
C. Dicky Dolma — 3. Leading campaigner against apartheid in South Africa
D. Kim Campbell — 4. Youngest woman to climb the Mt. Everest

American violinist

Codes:
(a) 5 3 2 1
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 5 3 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3

Answer: (b) 2 3 4 1

Explanation:

Guenter Grass received the Nobel Prize for Literature
Trevor Huddleston was a prominent anti-apartheid activist
Dicky Dolma was the youngest woman to climb Mt. Everest
Kim Campbell was the first female Prime Minister of Canada

Q105 Which one of the following countries does not have border with Lithuania?
(a) Poland
(b) Ukraine
(c) Belarus
(d) Latvia

Answer: (b) Ukraine

Explanation:
Lithuania shares borders with Poland, Belarus, and Latvia, but not with Ukraine, which lies further southeast.

Q106 Where are the Balearic Islands located?
(a) Mediterranean Sea
(b) Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea
(d) North Sea

Answer: (a) Mediterranean Sea

Explanation:
The Balearic Islands are a Spanish archipelago located in the Mediterranean Sea, known for their scenic beauty and tourism.

Q107 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given town of Pakistan while moving from the North towards the South?
(a) Islamabad Gujranwala Peshawar Multan
(b) Peshawar Gujranwala Multan Islamabad
(c) Peshawar Islamabad Gujranwala Multan
(d) Islamabad Multan Peshawar Gujranwala

Answer: (c) Peshawar Islamabad Gujranwala Multan

Explanation:
From north to south, the correct geographical order is:
Peshawar → Islamabad → Gujranwala → Multan

Q108 Which pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Bahamas — Nassau
(b) Costa Rica — San Jose
(c) Nicaragua — Belmopan
(d) Dominican Republic — Santo Domingo

Answer: (c) Nicaragua — Belmopan

Explanation:
This match is incorrect, but marked as correct in the key.
However, Belmopan is the capital of Belize, not Nicaragua.
The correct capital of Nicaragua is Managua.
This discrepancy suggests a possible error in the key.

Q109 Consider the following sites/monuments:

Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park
Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai
Mamallapuram
Sun Temple (Konark Temple)
Which of the above are include in the World Heritage List of UNESCO?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
All four sites — Champaner-Pavagadh, Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus, Mamallapuram, and Konark Sun Temple — are recognized as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Q110 Which one of the following airports in India is the first to be owned by public limited company?
(a) Dambolin Airport, Goa
(b) Cochin Airport
(c) Hyderabad Airport
(d) Bangalore Airport

Answer: (b) Cochin Airport

Explanation:
Cochin International Airport is the first airport in India developed under a public-private partnership model, and is owned by a public limited company — CIAL (Cochin International Airport Ltd.).

Q111 Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission?
(a) Test Cricket match fixing
(b) Best Bakery Case
(c) Tehelka Tapes Case
(d) Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya

Answer: (d) Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya

Explanation:
The Liberhan Commission was set up to investigate the demolition of the Babri Masjid in Ayodhya in 1992.
It examined the events leading up to the incident and the role of various individuals and organizations.

Q112 Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The modern Kochi was a Dutch colony till India’s independence.
(b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi.
(c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch colony before the Portuguese took over from them.
(d) The modern Kochi never became a part of the British colony.

Answer: (b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi

Explanation:
The Dutch defeated the Portuguese in Kochi and established their presence by building Fort Williams.
Later, Kochi came under British control, making option (b) the correct historical sequence.

Q113 Match List I (Person) with List II (Organisation) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I — List II
A. V. R. S. Natrajan — Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
B. A. K. Puri — Air India
C. V. Thulasidas — Maruti Udyog Limited
D. Jagdish Kumar — Bharat Earth Movers Limited
Indian Space Research Organisation

Codes:
(a) 2 3 5 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 5 3
(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: (b) 4 1 2 3

Explanation:

V. R. S. Natrajan was associated with Bharat Earth Movers Limited
A. K. Puri headed Air India
V. Thulasidas was linked to Maruti Udyog Limited
Jagdish Kumar worked with ISRO
Hence, the correct matching is A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3.

Q114 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration.
(b) Salem Steel Plant is a premier producer of stainless steel in India.
(c) Maharashtra Electrosmelt Ltd is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Ltd.
(d) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a unit of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.

Answer: (a) Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration

Explanation:
The Rourkela Steel Plant was actually set up with German collaboration, not Soviet.
All other statements are factually correct.

Q115 Which one of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called ‘echaupals’?
(a) ITC
(b) Dabur
(c) Proctor & Gamble
(d) Hindustan Lever

Answer: (a) ITC

Explanation:
ITC launched the e-Choupal initiative to empower rural farmers by providing them with market information and direct access to procurement systems.
It is a model of rural digital outreach.

Q116 For which one of the following, is Satara well known?
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Wind energy plant
(c) Hydro electric plant
(d) Nuclear power plant

Answer: (b) Wind energy plant

Explanation:
Satara, located in Maharashtra, is known for its wind energy installations, contributing to renewable energy generation in India.

Q117 Consider the following statements:

Vigyan rail is a science exhibition on wheels organized by the Council Scientific and Industrial Research.
Vigyan Prasar is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
EDUSAT, the ISRO’s educational satellite was launched from French Guyana 2004.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 2 & 3
(d) None

Answer: (b) 1 & 2

Explanation:

Vigyan Rail was organized by CSIR as a mobile science exhibition
Vigyan Prasar is under the Ministry of Science and Technology, not HRD, but the key marks it as correct
EDUSAT was launched from India, not French Guyana
Hence, statements 1 and 2 are considered correct.

Q118 Consider the following statements:

Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
Right to Property is a legal right but not a fundamental right.
Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Center by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the above statements are true?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 & 3
(c) 1 & 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 & 3

Explanation:

Article 301 deals with freedom of trade and commerce, not property
Right to Property was removed from the list of fundamental rights and made a legal right under Article 300A
Article 300A was inserted by the 44th Amendment
Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q119 Consider the following statements:

The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Parliament can enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 138, so statement 1 is incorrect
Appointments and expenses of the Supreme Court are handled as stated in statement 2
Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

Q120 According to the Census 2001, which one of the following Indian States has the maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

Explanation:
As per Census 2001, Maharashtra ranked second in population after Uttar Pradesh, followed by Bihar and West Bengal.

Q121 Itaipu Dam built on the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the world. Which of the following two countries have this as a joint project?
(a) Brazil and Peru
(b) Paraguay and Ecuador
(c) Brazil and Paraguay
(d) Colombia and Paraguay

Answer: (c) Brazil and Paraguay

Explanation:
The Itaipu Dam is a massive hydroelectric project jointly developed by Brazil and Paraguay on the Paraná River, and is among the largest power-producing dams globally.

Q122 Consider the following statement:

There are 25 High Courts in India.
Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 2 and 3

Explanation:

Punjab, Haryana, and Chandigarh share the Punjab and Haryana High Court
Delhi has its own High Court
The number of High Courts is less than 25, so statement 1 is incorrect

Q123 Which one of the following cities is not a former capital of the given country (country given in the brackets)?
(a) Karachi (Pakistan)
(b) Auckland (New Zealand)
(c) Kyoto (Japan)
(d) Brisbane (Australia)

Answer: (d) Brisbane (Australia)

Explanation:

Karachi, Auckland, and Kyoto were former capitals of their respective countries
Brisbane has never been a national capital, making it the correct answer

Q124 Consider the following statements:
(1) Total land area of earth is approximately 1475 lakh square kilometers.
(2) Ratio of land area to water area of earth is approximately 1 : 4.
(3) Maximum percentage of earth’s water is in the Pacific Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:

The land-to-water ratio is roughly 1:4, with water covering about 71% of Earth’s surface
The Pacific Ocean holds the largest volume of water among all oceans
Statement 1 is incorrect in its numerical estimate

Q125 Consider the following statements:

Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005.
Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone layer.
Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation:

The Kyoto Protocol came into effect in 2005 and addresses greenhouse gas emissions, not ozone depletion
Methane is more potent than carbon dioxide in terms of global warming potential

Q126 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Seikan Rail Tunnel : China
(b) Petronas Tower : Malaysia
(c) Apalachian Trail : United States of America
(d) Rogun Dam : Tajikistan

Answer: (a) Seikan Rail Tunnel : China

Explanation:
The Seikan Rail Tunnel is located in Japan, not China.
All other pairs are correctly matched with their respective countries.

Q127 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of earth’s land?
(a) North America Africa South America Europe
(b) Africa North America South America Europe
(c) North America Africa Europe South America
(d) Africa North America Europe South America

Answer: (b) Africa North America South America Europe

Explanation:
In terms of land area, the correct descending order is:
Africa > North America > South America > Europe

Q128 Match items in the List I (Country) with those in the List II (Name of Parliament) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I — List II
A. Netherlands — 1. Diet
B. Ukraine — 2. States General
C. Poland — 3. Supreme Council
D. Japan — 4. Sejm

Codes:
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3

Answer: (b) 2 3 4 1

Explanation:

Netherlands: States General
Ukraine: Supreme Council
Poland: Sejm
Japan: Diet

Q129 For which one of the following countries, is Spanish not an official language?
(a) Chile
(b) Colombia
(c) Republic of Congo
(d) Cuba

Answer: (c) Republic of Congo

Explanation:
Spanish is not an official language in the Republic of Congo, where French is the official language.
All other listed countries use Spanish officially.

Q130 Who among the following is not a recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award?
(a) Ustad Bismillah Khan
(b) Satyajit Ray
(c) Lata Mangeshkar
(d) Raj Kapoor

Answer: (d) Raj Kapoor

Explanation:

Ustad Bismillah Khan, Satyajit Ray, and Lata Mangeshkar have all received the Bharat Ratna
Raj Kapoor was honored with other awards but not the Bharat Ratna

Q131 Match List I (National Park/Wildlife Sanctuary) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List I — List II
A. Bondle Wildlife Sanctuary — 1. Orissa
B. Kangerghat National Park — 2. Assam
C. Orang Sanctuary — 3. Chhattisgarh
D. Ushakothi Wildlife Sanctuary — 4. Goa

Tripura
Codes:
(a) 2 1 5 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 5 1
(d) 4 1 2 3

Answer: (b) 4 3 2 1

Explanation:

Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Goa
Kangerghat National Park is in Chhattisgarh
Orang Sanctuary is in Assam
Ushakothi Wildlife Sanctuary is in Orissa
Hence, the correct matching is A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

Q132 Consider the following:

Disputes with mobile cellular companies
Motor accident cases
Pension cases
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 only

Explanation:
Lok Adalats primarily handle motor accident claims, bank recovery cases, and public utility disputes.
Pension cases and telecom disputes are generally not resolved through Lok Adalats.
Hence, only statement 2 is correct.

Q133 Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?
(a) Cambodia
(b) China
(c) Laos
(d) Philippines

Answer: (b) China

Explanation:
ASEAN includes countries like Cambodia, Laos, and Philippines, but China is not a member.
China maintains diplomatic relations with ASEAN but is not part of the grouping.

Q134 Recently, to which of the following countries did India offer to build Buddha Temple?
(a) China
(b) Myanmar
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam

Answer: (a) China

Explanation:
India offered to build a Buddha temple in China as part of its efforts to promote cultural diplomacy and strengthen Buddhist ties between the two nations.

Q135 Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a movement?
(a) Annie Beasant
(b) A. O. Hume
(c) Michael Madhusudan Dutt
(d) R. Palme Dutt

Answer: (a) Annie Beasant

Explanation:
Annie Besant was influenced by Fabian socialism, which advocated gradual social reform through democratic means.
She was associated with the Fabian Society in Britain before becoming active in Indian politics.

Q136 What was Komagata Maru?
(a) A political party based in Taiwan
(b) Peasant communist leader of China
(c) A naval ship on voyage to Canada
(d) A Chinese village where Mao Tse Tung began his Long march

Answer: (c) A naval ship on voyage to Canada

Explanation:
The Komagata Maru was a Japanese ship carrying Indian immigrants to Canada in 1914.
The passengers were denied entry, leading to a significant incident in colonial immigration history.

Q137 Where were the Ghadar revolutionaries, who became active during the outbreak of the World War I based?
(a) Central America
(b) North America
(c) West America
(d) South America

Answer: (b) North America

Explanation:
The Ghadar Party was founded by Indian expatriates in North America, especially in California, to fight against British colonial rule through revolutionary means.

Q138 Consider the following statements:
On the eve of launch of Quit India Movement, Mahatma Gandhi

asked the government servants to resign
asked the soldiers to leave their posts
asked the Princes of the Princely States to accept the sovereignty of their own people
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:
Before the Quit India Movement, Gandhi appealed to the Princes to accept the sovereignty of their people.
He did not explicitly ask government servants or soldiers to resign, making only statement 3 correct.

Q139 In which one of the following provinces was a Congress ministry not formed under the Act of 1935?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madras
(c) Orissa
(d) Punjab

Answer: (d) Punjab

Explanation:
Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Congress formed ministries in several provinces, but not in Punjab, where a coalition government was formed instead.

Q140 At which Congress Session was the Working Committee authorized to launch a programme of Civil Disobedience?
(a) Bombay
(b) Lahore
(c) Lucknow
(d) Tripuri

Answer: (b) Lahore

Explanation:
At the Lahore Session of 1929, the Congress Working Committee was authorized to launch a Civil Disobedience Movement, and the Purna Swaraj resolution was adopted.

Q141 In October 1920, who of the following headed a group of Indians gathered at Tashkent to set up a Communist Party of India?
(a) H. K. Sarkar
(b) P. C. Joshi
(c) M. C. Chagla
(d) M. N. Roy

Answer: (d) M. N. Roy

Explanation:
M. N. Roy was the key figure in founding the Communist Party of India in Tashkent in 1920.
He was a prominent Marxist thinker and played a vital role in introducing communist ideology to Indian politics.

Q142 Who among the following drafted the resolution of fundamental rights for the Karachi Session of Congress in 1931?
(a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation:
The Karachi Session of 1931 adopted a resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy, which was drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru.
It laid the foundation for civil liberties and socio-economic justice in independent India.

Q143 Who among the following was not associated with the formation of U.P. Kisan Sabha in February 1918?
(a) Indra Narain Dwivedi
(b) Gauri Shankar Misra
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Madan Mohan Malviya

Answer: (c) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation:
The U.P. Kisan Sabha was formed in 1918 by leaders like Indra Narain Dwivedi, Gauri Shankar Misra, and Madan Mohan Malviya.
Jawaharlal Nehru joined later and was not among the founding members.

Q144 Which pairs are correctly matched?
Movement/Satyagraha — Person Actively Associated with
(A) Champaran — Rajendra Prasad
(B) Ahmedabad Mill Workers — Morarji Desai
(C) Kheda — Vallabhbhai Patel
Select the correct answer:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Explanation:

Rajendra Prasad was involved in the Champaran Satyagraha
Vallabhbhai Patel led the Kheda Satyagraha
Ahmedabad Mill Workers’ strike was led by Gandhi, not Morarji Desai
Hence, only pairs 1 and 3 are correct.

Q145 Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857 belong to?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (a) Bihar

Explanation:
Kunwar Singh was a zamindar of Jagdishpur in Bihar and one of the most respected leaders of the 1857 Revolt.
He led the rebellion in eastern India against British rule.

Q146 Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of 1857?
(a) Jhansi
(b) Chittor
(c) Jagdishpur
(d) Lucknow

Answer: (b) Chittor

Explanation:
While Jhansi, Jagdishpur, and Lucknow were major centers of the 1857 uprising, Chittor in Rajasthan remained largely unaffected.

Q147 Consider the following statements:

Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla Conference took place.
Indian Navy Revolt, 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

The Simla Conference took place in 1945 under Lord Wavell, not Mountbatten
The Royal Indian Navy Revolt occurred in 1946, involving sailors in Bombay and Karachi
Only statement 2 is correct.

Q148 Consider the following statements:

Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities — a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Part IX was added by the 73rd Amendment to provide for Panchayati Raj institutions
Part IXA was added by the 74th Amendment, and Article 243Q defines Municipal Councils and Corporations
Both statements are correct.

Q149 Consider the following statements:

Articles 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
Constitutions of India and the United States of America envisage a dual polity (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only

Answer: (d) 1 only

Explanation:

Articles 371A to 371I address regional concerns of specific states
India has single citizenship, but the US has dual citizenship (state and federal)
A naturalized citizen of India can be deprived of citizenship under certain conditions
Only statement 1 is correct.

Q150 Who among the following invented Lasers?
(a) Theodore Maiman
(b) Denis Papin
(c) William Morton
(d) Francis Cricks

Answer: (a) Theodore Maiman

Explanation:
Theodore Maiman invented the first working laser in 1960, using a synthetic ruby crystal.
His invention revolutionized fields from medicine to communications.

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