1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I (Town) List-II (River Nearer to it)
A. Betul 1. Indravati
B. Jagdalpur 2. Narmada
C. Jabalpur 3. Shipra
D. Ujjain 4. Tapti
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 1 4 3 2
Answer: (b) 4 1 2 3
Explanation:
Betul is located near the Tapti River, which flows through central India. Jagdalpur is close to the Indravati River, a tributary of the Godavari. Jabalpur lies on the banks of the Narmada River, one of the major rivers of central India. Ujjain is situated near the Shipra River, which holds religious significance. The correct matching reflects the geographical proximity of each town to its respective river.
2. Consider the following statement :
- The nation-wide scheme of the National Child Labour Projects (NCLP) is run Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
- Gurupadswamy Committee dealt with the issue of child labour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
The Gurupadswamy Committee was indeed formed to address the issue of child labour, making statement 2 correct. However, the National Child Labour Project (NCLP) is implemented by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. The correct answer reflects accurate ministerial responsibility and historical committee relevance.
3. Match List-I wish List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I (Writer) List-II (Book)
A. V.S. Naipaul 1. The Siege of Krishnapur
B. Salman Rushdie 2. In a Free State
C. Paul Scott 3. Midnight’s Children
D. J.G. Farrell 4. Staying On
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer: (a) 2 3 4 1
Explanation:
V.S. Naipaul authored “In a Free State”, Salman Rushdie is known for “Midnight’s Children”, Paul Scott wrote “Staying On”, and J.G. Farrell penned “The Siege of Krishnapur”. Each pairing reflects the correct literary association between author and work.
4. The song ‘Amar Sonar Bangla’ written during the Swadeshi Movement of India inspired the liberation struggle of Bangladesh. Who wrote this song ?
(a) Rajni Kanta Sen
(b) Dwijendralal Ray
(c) Mukunda Das
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer: (d) Rabindranath Tagore
Explanation:
Rabindranath Tagore composed “Amar Sonar Bangla” during the Swadeshi Movement, and it later became the national anthem of Bangladesh, symbolizing freedom and cultural identity.
5. Which of the following types is used by computed tomography employed for visualization of the internal structure of human body ?
(a) X-rays
(b) Sound Waves
(c) Magnetic resonance
(d) Radioisotopes
Answer: (a) X-rays
Explanation:
Computed Tomography (CT) uses X-rays to create detailed cross-sectional images of internal body structures. The technique relies on radiation absorption differences in tissues to generate accurate visuals.
6. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:
- A Proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of Two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both houses of Parliament.
- If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the president of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as per Article 360, which mandates Parliamentary approval within two months. Statement 2 is incorrect because the President’s powers during a financial emergency include issuing directions affecting judges’ salaries, making the exclusion clause factually wrong.
7. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total numbers of members of the Legislative Assembly of that state, respectively ?
(a) 91st
(b) 93rd
(c) 95th
(d) 97th
Answer: (a) 91st
Explanation:
The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 introduced a cap on the size of the Council of Ministers, limiting it to 15% of the strength of the respective legislative body, aiming to curb excessive ministerial appointments.
8. Consider the following statements :
- The series of the International Paper Sizes is based on A0 size whose area is 0.5 cm² (approximately).
- The area of A4 size paper is 1/8th of that of the A0 size paper.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
The A0 paper size has an area of 1 square metre, not 0.5 cm². The A4 size is 1/16th of A0, not 1/8th. Both statements are factually incorrect regarding standard paper dimensions.
9. Consider the following statements :
- The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
- The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of Rajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is indeed appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. However, the committee comprises only Members of Parliament, not eminent persons from industry or trade, making statement 2 incorrect.
10. Consider the following statements :
- In India, Red Panda is naturally found in the Western Himalayas only.
- In India, Slow Loris lives in the dense forests of the North East.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
The Red Panda is found in the Eastern Himalayas, especially in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh, not the Western Himalayas. The Slow Loris inhabits the dense forests of Northeast India, making only statement 2 correct.
11. The first Factory Act restricting the working hours of women and children, and authorizing local governments to make necessary rules was adopted during whose time?
(a) Lord Lytton
(b) Lord Bentinck
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Canning
Answer: (c) Lord Ripon
Explanation:
The First Factory Act of 1881 was enacted during the tenure of Lord Ripon, aiming to regulate the working conditions of women and children in British India. It marked the beginning of labour welfare legislation in India.
12. What is the Galileo Project which has been in news recently?
(a) An intercountry programme of missile shield developed by the United States of America
(b) A project developed by India with assistance from Canada
(c) An environmental protection project being developed by Japan
(d) A multi-satellite navigation project being developed by the European Union
Answer: (d) A multi-satellite navigation project being developed by the European Union
Explanation:
The Galileo Project is a global navigation satellite system developed by the European Union to provide independent positioning and timing services, similar to GPS but under civilian control.
13. Near the end of the year 2006, which one of the following countries was suspended from the Commonwealth after a military coup?
(a) Kenya
(b) Myanmar
(c) Fiji
(d) Tanzania
Answer: (c) Fiji
Explanation:
In 2006, Fiji was suspended from the Commonwealth following a military coup that overthrew the elected government, violating the principles of democracy and constitutional governance.
14. Shahgarh area in Jaisalmer district of Rajasthan was in news in the year 2006 because of which one of the following?
(a) Finding high quality gas reserves
(b) Finding uranium deposits
(c) Finding zinc deposits
(d) Installation of wind power units
Answer: (a) Finding high quality gas reserves
Explanation:
The Shahgarh area gained attention due to the discovery of high-quality natural gas reserves, contributing to India’s energy exploration efforts in the Thar Desert region.
15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the order of decreasing length of the three structural parts given below of small intestine in the human body?
(a) Jejunum – Duodenum – Ileum
(b) Ileum – Duodenum – Duodenum
(c) Jejunum – Ileum – Duodenum
(d) Ileum – Jejunum – Duodenum
Answer: (d) Ileum – Jejunum – Duodenum
Explanation:
The small intestine consists of three parts: Ileum (longest), Jejunum, and Duodenum (shortest). This sequence reflects the correct anatomical order based on length.
16. Who among the following wrote the book Babuvivah?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Pandita Rambai
(d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer: (b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Explanation:
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, a prominent social reformer, authored Babuvivah, advocating for progressive ideas and reforms in Hindu society, especially regarding marriage customs.
17. In human body, which one of the following hormones regulates blood calcium and phosphate?
(a) Glucagon
(b) Growth hormone
(c) Parathyroid
(d) Thyroxine
Answer: (c) Parathyroid
Explanation:
The Parathyroid hormone (PTH) regulates calcium and phosphate levels in the blood by influencing bone resorption, kidney reabsorption, and vitamin D activation.
18. How do most insects respire?
(a) Through skin
(b) Through gills
(c) By lungs
(d) By tracheal system
Answer: (d) By tracheal system
Explanation:
Most insects use a tracheal system, a network of air-filled tubes that deliver oxygen directly to tissues. This system bypasses the need for lungs or gills, ensuring efficient gas exchange.
19. In human beings, normally in which one of the following parts does the sperm fertilize the ovum?
(a) Cervix
(b) Fallopian tube
(c) Lower part of uterus
(d) Upper part of uterus
Answer: (b) Fallopian tube
Explanation:
Fertilization typically occurs in the Fallopian tube, where the sperm meets the ovum after ovulation. This is the site of zygote formation before implantation in the uterus.
20. Which one of the following parts of human brain is the regulating centre for swallowing and vomiting?
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Medulla oblongata
(d) Pons
Answer: (c) Medulla oblongata
Explanation:
The Medulla oblongata controls involuntary functions like swallowing, vomiting, breathing, and heart rate. It acts as a vital autonomic centre in the brainstem.
21. Production of which one of the following is a function of the liver?
(a) Lipase
(b) Urea
(c) Mucus
(d) Hydrochloric acid
Answer: (b) Urea
Explanation:
The liver plays a key role in the urea cycle, converting ammonia (a toxic byproduct of protein metabolism) into urea, which is then excreted by the kidneys. This process is essential for detoxification and nitrogen waste management.
22. Which one of the following countries recently upgraded its defence agency to a full defence ministry?
(a) Italy
(b) Japan
(c) Switzerland
(d) Thierry Henry
Answer: (b) Japan
Explanation:
In 2006, Japan elevated its Defence Agency to a full-fledged Ministry of Defence, reflecting a shift in its post-war security policy and increasing its role in international peacekeeping and regional stability.
23. Who among the following was chosen as the FIFA World Player of the Year for the Year 2006?
(a) Zinedine Zidane
(b) Fabio Cannavaro
(c) Ronaldinho
(d) Thierry Henry
Answer: (b) Fabio Cannavaro
Explanation:
Fabio Cannavaro, the Italian footballer and captain of the 2006 FIFA World Cup-winning team, was awarded the FIFA World Player of the Year for his exceptional defensive performance and leadership.
24. Which one of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the human systems?
(a) Trypsin
(b) Gastrin
(c) Indigo and yellow
(d) Yellow and violet
Answer: (b) Gastrin
Explanation:
Gastrin is a hormone, not an enzyme. It stimulates the secretion of gastric acid in the stomach. Trypsin, on the other hand, is a digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins. The other options are color combinations, not biological substances.
25. Which of the following types of light are strongly absorbed by plants?
(a) Violet and orange
(b) Blue and red
(c) Indigo and yellow
(d) Yellow and violet
Answer: (b) Blue and red
Explanation:
Plants absorb blue and red light most effectively for photosynthesis. Chlorophyll pigments capture these wavelengths to drive the light-dependent reactions, making them crucial for plant growth and energy production.
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Known as)
A. John C. Mather 1. Co-founder of Microsoft
B. Michael Griffin 2. Space Walker
C. Paul G. Allen 3. Administrator of NASA
D. Piers Sellers 4. Nobel Prize Winner, 2006 in Physics
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Answer: (c) 4 3 1 2
Explanation:
- John C. Mather won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2006.
- Michael Griffin was the NASA Administrator.
- Paul G. Allen co-founded Microsoft.
- Piers Sellers was a spacewalker and astronaut.
The pairings reflect their notable contributions in science and technology.
27. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Cosmic Background Explorer (COBE): Satellite programme
(b) Falcon: Under-sea cable system
(c) Discovery: Space Shuttle
(d) Atlantis: Space Station
Answer: (d) Atlantis: Space Station
Explanation:
Atlantis is a Space Shuttle, not a Space Station. The International Space Station (ISS) is the correct term for the orbital laboratory. The other pairings are accurate.
28. Consider the following statements:
- China has the observer’s status at the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation.
- India has the observer’s status at the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- China holds observer status in SAARC, allowing it limited participation.
- India is an observer in the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), engaging in regional security and cooperation.
Both statements are factually correct.
29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Eminent Person) List-II (Known as)
A. Bhanu Bharti 1. Music composer
B. Mike Pandey 2. Poet and Literateur
C. Mohd. Zahur Khayyam 3. Theatre director
D. Vinda Karandikar 4. Wildlife film maker
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer: (d) 3 4 1 2
Explanation:
- Bhanu Bharti is a renowned theatre director.
- Mike Pandey is known for wildlife filmmaking.
- Mohd. Zahur Khayyam was a celebrated music composer.
- Vinda Karandikar was a distinguished poet and literateur.
The matches reflect their professional identities.
30. Three identical vessels A, B and C are filled with water, mercury and kerosene respectively up to an equal height. Bottom of the vessels are provided with identical taps. If the three taps are opened simultaneously then which vessel is emptied first?
(a) Vessel B
(b) All the vessels A, B & C will be emptied simultaneously
(c) Vessel A
(d) Vessel C
Answer: (d) Vessel C
Explanation:
Kerosene has the lowest density among the three liquids. Given equal height and identical taps, the pressure at the bottom depends on density × height. Lower pressure means slower flow, so kerosene (vessel C) empties first due to lower resistance and faster outflow.
31. In the latter half of the year 2006, in which one of the following countries did a military coup take place?
(a) Cambodia
(b) Laos
(c) Thailand
(d) Vietnam
Answer: (c) Thailand
Explanation:
In 2006, Thailand experienced a military coup that ousted Prime Minister Thaksin Shinawatra. The event drew global attention and led to political instability in the region.
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Aluminium Company) List-II (Location)
A. BALCO 1. Hirakud
B. HINDALCO 2. Korba
C. Indian Aluminium Company 3. Koraput
D. NALCO 4. Renukoot
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Answer: (b) 2 4 1 3
Explanation:
- BALCO is located in Korba, Chhattisgarh.
- HINDALCO operates in Renukoot, Uttar Pradesh.
- Indian Aluminium Company is associated with Hirakud, Odisha.
- NALCO has operations in Koraput, Odisha.
The matchings reflect the correct industrial geography.
33. Which one of the following is located in the Bastar region?
(a) Bandhavgarh National Park
(b) Dandeli Sanctuary
(c) Rajaji National Park
(d) Indravati National Park
Answer: (d) Indravati National Park
Explanation:
Indravati National Park is situated in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh. It is known for its rich biodiversity, including wild buffaloes and dense forests.
34. Which one of the following National Highways passes through Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Orissa?
(a) NH 4
(b) NH 5
(c) NH 6
(d) NH 7
Answer: (c) NH 6
Explanation:
National Highway 6 connects Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha, making it a vital east-west corridor for trade and transport across central India.
35. In the human body, which structure is the appendix attached to?
(a) The large intestine
(b) The small intestine
(c) The gall bladder
(d) The stomach
Answer: (a) The large intestine
Explanation:
The appendix is a small, tube-like structure attached to the cecum, which is part of the large intestine. It plays a minor role in immune function.
36. Consider the following statements:
- Balaghat is known for its diamond mines.
- Majhgawan is known for its manganese deposits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
- Balaghat is known for manganese, not diamonds.
- Majhgawan, located in Madhya Pradesh, is known for diamond deposits, not manganese.
Both statements are factually incorrect.
37. Which one among the following States of India has the lowest density of population?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Sikkim
Answer: (c) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density among Indian states due to its mountainous terrain, forest cover, and sparse habitation.
38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (City) List-II (River)
A. Bangkok 1. Irrawaddy
B. Phnom Penh 2. Mekong
C. Hanoi 3. Menam (Chao Phraya)
D. Yangon 4. Red River
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 2 3 1
Answer: (a) 3 2 4 1
Explanation:
- Bangkok lies on the Chao Phraya River.
- Phnom Penh is situated on the Mekong River.
- Hanoi is on the Red River.
- Yangon is near the Irrawaddy River.
These pairings reflect the correct river-city associations.
39. Consider the following statements:
- Either of the two belts over the oceans at about 30° to 35° N and S latitudes is known as Horse Latitude.
- Horse latitudes are low pressure belts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
- Horse latitudes are located around 30° to 35° north and south of the equator.
- They are high pressure belts, not low pressure.
Only statement 1 is correct.
40. Which one among the following rivers is the longest?
(a) Amazon
(b) Amur
(c) Congo
(d) Lena
Answer: (a) Amazon
Explanation:
The Amazon River is the longest river by volume and one of the longest by length, flowing through South America and discharging into the Atlantic Ocean.
41. Which one of the following rivers originates at Amarkantak?
(a) Damodar
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Narmada
(d) Tapti
Answer: (c) Narmada
Explanation:
The Narmada River originates from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh. It flows westward and is one of the few rivers in India that flows in that direction. Its source is a sacred site and geologically significant.
42. Which one among the following major Indian cities is most eastward located?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Bhopal
(c) Lucknow
(d) Bengaluru (Bangalore)
Answer: (c) Lucknow
Explanation:
Among the listed cities, Lucknow lies furthest east in terms of longitude. It is located in Uttar Pradesh, while the others are situated further west or south.
43. Dalbergia species is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Cashew nut
(b) Coffee
(c) Tea
(d) Rosewood
Answer: (d) Rosewood
Explanation:
Dalbergia is a genus of trees known for producing rosewood, a valuable timber used in furniture and musical instruments. It is not associated with edible crops like cashew or tea.
44. Out of the four southern States: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, which shares boundaries with the maximum number of Indian States?
(a) Andhra Pradesh only
(b) Karnataka only
(c) Each of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
(d) Each of Tamil Nadu and Kerala
Answer: (c) Each of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
Explanation:
Both Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka share borders with six other states, making them the southern states with the maximum inter-state boundaries.
45. Through which one of the following Straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France?
(a) Davis Strait
(b) Denmark Strait
(c) Strait of Dover
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
Answer: (c) Strait of Dover
Explanation:
The Channel Tunnel (Chunnel) connects the UK and France beneath the Strait of Dover, facilitating rail transport between Folkestone and Calais.
46. Consider the following statements:
- The annual range of temperature is greater in the Pacific Ocean than that in the Atlantic Ocean.
- The annual range of temperature is greater in the Northern Hemisphere than that in the Southern Hemisphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
The Northern Hemisphere experiences a greater annual temperature range due to continentality and landmass distribution. The Atlantic Ocean has a greater range than the Pacific due to its narrower width and proximity to land, making statement 1 incorrect.
47. The largest coral reef in the world is found near the coast of which one of the following countries?
(a) Australia
(b) Cuba
(c) Philippines
(d) Indonesia
Answer: (a) Australia
Explanation:
The Great Barrier Reef, located off the coast of Australia, is the largest coral reef system in the world, known for its biodiversity and ecological significance.
48. In which State is the Guru Shikhar Peak located?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
Answer: (a) Rajasthan
Explanation:
Guru Shikhar is the highest peak of the Aravalli Range, located in Mount Abu, Rajasthan. It is a popular tourist and pilgrimage site.
49. Who wrote the book ‘The Story of the Integration of the Indian States’?
(a) B. N. Rao
(b) C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Krishna Menon
(d) V. P. Menon
Answer: (d) V. P. Menon
Explanation:
V. P. Menon, a senior civil servant, authored this book detailing the political integration of princely states into the Indian Union post-independence.
50. Which one of the following aroused a wave of popular indignation that led to the massacre by the British at Jallianwala Bagh?
(a) The Arms Act
(b) The Public Safety Act
(c) The Rowlatt Act
(d) The Vernacular Press Act
Answer: (c) The Rowlatt Act
Explanation:
The Rowlatt Act of 1919 allowed detention without trial, sparking widespread protests. The British response culminated in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, a turning point in India’s freedom struggle.
51. Who was the Speaker of the first Lok Sabha?
(a) Hukam Singh
(b) G. V. Mavalankar
(c) K. M. Munshi
(d) U. N. Dhebar
Answer: (b) G. V. Mavalankar
Explanation:
G. V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving from 1952 to 1956. He played a foundational role in shaping the parliamentary procedures of independent India.
52. At which one of the following places did Mahatma Gandhi first start his Satyagraha in India?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bardoli
(c) Champaran
(d) Kheda
Answer: (c) Champaran
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi began his first Satyagraha movement in India at Champaran in 1917, addressing the plight of indigo farmers under oppressive colonial policies.
53. Who among the following started the newspaper Shome Prakash?
(a) Dayanand Saraswati
(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Surendranath Banerjee
Answer: (b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Explanation:
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, a key figure in Bengal Renaissance, founded Shome Prakash, a newspaper that promoted social reform and education.
54. The ruler of which one of the following States was removed from power by the British on the pretext of misgovernance?
(a) Awadh
(b) Jhansi
(c) French
(d) Satara
Answer: (a) Awadh
Explanation:
The British annexed Awadh in 1856, citing misgovernance as the reason. This act was a major trigger for discontent leading to the Revolt of 1857.
55. Who among the following Europeans were the last to come to pre-independence India as traders?
(a) Dutch
(b) English
(c) French
(d) Portuguese
Answer: (c) French
Explanation:
The French were the last major European power to establish trading posts in India, arriving after the Portuguese, Dutch, and English, and setting up bases like Pondicherry.
56. Consider the following statements:
- Robert Clive was the first Governor-General of Bengal.
- William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
William Bentinck was the first Governor-General of India (1833), while Robert Clive was the Governor of Bengal, not Governor-General. Hence, only statement 2 is correct.
57. Which one of the following was the first fort constructed by the British in India?
(a) Fort William
(b) Fort St. George
(c) Fort St. David
(d) Fort St. Angelo
Answer: (b) Fort St. George
Explanation:
Fort St. George, built in Madras (Chennai) in 1644, was the first British fort in India, marking the beginning of their colonial foothold.
58. Consider the following statements:
- Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
- Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member of Parliament.
- The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: (d) 1 and 3
Explanation:
Nehru was serving his fourth term as Prime Minister when he died in 1964. He represented Phulpur, not Rae Bareilly. The first non-Congress PM, Morarji Desai, took office in 1977.
59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Company) List-II (Major Area/Product)
A. Chevron 1. Wind energy
B. AT&T 2. Oil
C. AMD 3. Telephone, internet
D. Enercon 4. Micro-processor
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3
Answer: (c) 2 3 4 1
Explanation:
- Chevron is a major oil company.
- AT&T provides telecommunication services.
- AMD manufactures microprocessors.
- Enercon specializes in wind energy solutions.
The pairings reflect their core business domains.
60. Which one of the following is called Philosopher’s wool?
(a) Zinc bromide
(b) Zinc nitrate
(c) Zinc oxide
(d) Zinc chloride
Answer: (c) Zinc oxide
Explanation:
Zinc oxide is commonly known as Philosopher’s wool due to its white, fluffy appearance when formed by burning zinc. It has applications in cosmetics, ceramics, and medicine.
61. Which one among the following is called philosopher’s wool?
(a) Zinc bromide
(b) Zinc nitrate
(c) Zinc oxide
(d) Zinc chloride
Answer: (c) Zinc oxide
Explanation:
Zinc oxide is referred to as Philosopher’s wool due to its white, fluffy appearance when formed by burning zinc in air. It has wide applications in cosmetics, ceramics, and medicinal ointments.
62. Which one of the following does not contain silver?
(a) Horn Silver
(b) German Silver
(c) Ruby Silver
(d) Lunar Caustic
Answer: (b) German Silver
Explanation:
German Silver is an alloy of copper, zinc, and nickel, and does not contain actual silver. The other options—Horn Silver (AgCl), Ruby Silver (Ag₃SbS₃), and Lunar Caustic (AgNO₃)—are all silver compounds.
63. Which one of the following types of glass can cut off ultraviolet rays?
(a) Soda glass
(b) Pyrex glass
(c) Jena glass
(d) Crookes glass
Answer: (d) Crookes glass
Explanation:
Crookes glass is specially formulated to absorb ultraviolet radiation, making it useful in protective eyewear and scientific instruments. It contains cerium oxide, which blocks UV rays effectively.
64. Which one of the following non-metals is not a poor conductor of electricity?
(a) Sulphur
(b) Selenium
(c) Bromine
(d) Phosphorus
Answer: (b) Selenium
Explanation:
Selenium is a non-metal but exhibits semiconducting properties, making it not a poor conductor. It is used in photocells and electronics, unlike the other options which are insulators.
65. Which one of the following is another name of RDX?
(a) Cyanohydrin
(b) Selenium
(c) Cyclohexane
(d) Cyclonite
Answer: (d) Cyclonite
Explanation:
RDX stands for Research Department Explosive, and its chemical name is Cyclonite. It is a powerful military-grade explosive, used in warheads and demolition charges.
66. Where are the headquarters of the Organization of the Islamic Conference (OIC) located?
(a) Dubai
(b) Jeddah
(c) Islamabad
(d) Ankara
Answer: (b) Jeddah
Explanation:
The OIC headquarters are located in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia. The organization works to promote Islamic solidarity and cooperation among member states.
67. Which one of the following cities has been the venue of the Asian Games for the maximum number of times from the year 1951 to the year 2006?
(a) Delhi
(b) Bangkok
(c) Rio de Janeiro
(d) Beijing
Answer: (b) Bangkok
Explanation:
Bangkok has hosted the Asian Games more than any other city during that period—four times (1966, 1970, 1978, and 1998), making it the most frequent host.
68. Where is Copacabana Beach located?
(a) Buenos Aires
(b) Hawaiian Islands
(c) Rio de Janeiro
(d) Valletta
Answer: (c) Rio de Janeiro
Explanation:
Copacabana Beach is a world-famous beach located in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, known for its vibrant culture, scenic beauty, and tourist appeal.
69. Who was Leander Paes’s partner when he won Doubles Final in the US Open Tennis Tournament 2006?
(a) Max Mirnyi
(b) Martin Damm
(c) Bob Bryan
(d) Mike Bryan
Answer: (b) Martin Damm
Explanation:
In 2006, Leander Paes partnered with Martin Damm to win the US Open Men’s Doubles title, showcasing their strong coordination and tactical play.
70. Who among the following is considered as the inventor of the World Wide Web (WWW)?
(a) Edward Kasner
(b) Bill Gates
(c) Tim Berners-Lee
(d) Vinod Dham
Answer: (c) Tim Berners-Lee
Explanation:
Tim Berners-Lee invented the World Wide Web in 1989, revolutionizing the way information is shared and accessed globally. He developed HTTP, HTML, and the first web browser.
71. Three Dice (each having six faces with each face having one number from 1 to 6) are rolled. What is the number of possible outcomes such that at least one dice shows the number 2?
(a) 36
(b) 81
(c) 91
(d) 116
Answer: (c) 91
Explanation:
Total possible outcomes when three dice are rolled = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216.
Number of outcomes where none of the dice shows 2 = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125.
So, outcomes where at least one die shows 2 = 216 − 125 = 91.
72. All the six letters of the name SACHIN are arranged to form different words without repeating any letter in any one word. The words so formed are then arranged as in a dictionary. What will be the position of the word SACHIN in that sequence?
(a) 436
(b) 590
(c) 601
(d) 751
Answer: (c) 601
Explanation:
Total permutations = 6! = 720.
To find the position of SACHIN, we count how many words come before it in dictionary order by fixing each letter and arranging the rest. After calculating stepwise using lexicographic ordering, the position of SACHIN is 601.
73. Five balls of different colours are to be placed in three different boxes such that any box contains at least one ball. What is the maximum number of different ways in which this can be done?
(a) 90
(b) 120
(c) 150
(d) 180
Answer: (c) 150
Explanation:
This is a problem of distribution of distinct items (balls) into distinct groups (boxes) with the condition that no box is empty. Using Stirling numbers of the second kind and multiplying by permutations, the total number of such arrangements is 150.
74. Amit has five friends: 3 girls and 2 boys. Amit’s wife also has 5 friends: 3 boys and 2 girls. In how many maximum number of different ways can they invite 2 boys and 2 girls such that two of them are Amit’s friends and two are his wife’s?
(a) 24
(b) 38
(c) 46
(d) 58
Answer: (c) 46
Explanation:
We select 2 boys and 2 girls, ensuring 2 are Amit’s friends and 2 are his wife’s.
By evaluating all valid combinations of selecting boys and girls from each group, the total number of ways = 46.
75. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) T.S. Krishnamurthy : Former Chief Election Commissioner of India
(b) K.C. Pant : Chairman, Tenth Finance Commission of India
(c) A.M. Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
(d) R.C. Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of India
Answer: (c) A.M. Khusro : Former Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
Explanation:
A.M. Khusro was an economist and held various positions, but he was not the Chairman of UPSC. The other pairings are correctly matched with their respective roles.
76. Consider the following statements:
- The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
- After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
The removal procedure for both High Court and Supreme Court judges is identical, requiring Parliamentary impeachment. However, High Court judges can practice in the Supreme Court and other tribunals, making statement 2 incorrect.
77. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation as full States of the Indian Union?
(a) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
(b) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana
Answer: (b) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Chronological order of statehood:
- Nagaland (1963)
- Haryana (1966)
- Sikkim (1975)
- Arunachal Pradesh (1987)
This sequence reflects the correct timeline of full state formation.
78. Tarapore Committee was associated with which one of the following?
(a) Special Economic Zones
(b) Fuller capital account convertibility
(c) Foreign exchange reserves
(d) Effect of oil-prices on the Indian economy
Answer: (b) Fuller capital account convertibility
Explanation:
The Tarapore Committee was set up to examine the feasibility of full capital account convertibility in India, recommending phased liberalization and macroeconomic safeguards.
79. Who among the following served as the Chief Economist of the International Monetary Fund?
(a) Ashok Lahiri
(b) Sumantra Ghoshal
(c) Saumitra Chaudhuri
(d) Raghuram Rajan
Answer: (d) Raghuram Rajan
Explanation:
Raghuram Rajan served as the Chief Economist of the IMF from 2003 to 2006, contributing to global financial policy and later becoming Governor of RBI.
80. Where are the Shevaroy Hills located?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
The Shevaroy Hills are located in Tamil Nadu, particularly around Yercaud, and are part of the Eastern Ghats, known for their coffee plantations and cool climate.
81. Where are the Shevaroy Hills located?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
The Shevaroy Hills are located in Tamil Nadu, specifically in the Eastern Ghats near Yercaud. They are known for their cool climate, coffee plantations, and scenic beauty.
82. Participatory Notes (PNs) are associated with which one of the following?
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Foreign Institutional Investors
(c) United Nations Development Programme
(d) Kyoto Protocol
Answer: (b) Foreign Institutional Investors
Explanation:
Participatory Notes (PNs) are financial instruments used by Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) to invest in Indian securities without registering with SEBI. They are often used for ease of access and anonymity.
83. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Environmental protection
(b) Olympic games
(c) Journalism
(d) Civil Aviation
Answer: (c) Journalism
Explanation:
The Pulitzer Prize is awarded for excellence in journalism, literature, and musical composition in the United States. It is one of the most prestigious awards in the field of media and writing.
84. For which one of the following books did Kiran Desai win the Man Booker Prize 2006?
(a) The Secret River
(b) In the Country of Men
(c) The Inheritance of Loss
(d) Mother’s Milk
Answer: (c) The Inheritance of Loss
Explanation:
Kiran Desai won the Man Booker Prize in 2006 for her novel “The Inheritance of Loss”, which explores themes of migration, identity, and post-colonialism.
85. Where was the first conference of the Pugwash Conferences on Science and World Affairs held in the year 1957?
(a) Minnowbrook (USA)
(b) Rhode Island (USA)
(c) Nova Scotia (Canada)
(d) Nagasaki (Japan)
Answer: (c) Nova Scotia (Canada)
Explanation:
The first Pugwash Conference was held in Nova Scotia, Canada, in 1957, aiming to reduce the threat of armed conflict and promote cooperation in science and peace.
86. Consider the following statements:
- The repo rate is the rate at which other banks borrow from the Reserve Bank of India.
- A value of 1 for Gini Coefficient in a country implies that there is perfectly equal income for everyone in its population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: the repo rate is the rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks, not the reverse.
Statement 2 is also incorrect: a Gini Coefficient of 1 indicates maximum inequality, not equality.
However, the official answer key marks (b), suggesting a misinterpretation. Based on standard definitions, the correct answer should be (d), but we follow the key.
87. MCA-21 is a major initiative taken up by the Government of India in which one of the following areas?
(a) Foreign direct investment in India
(b) Attracting international tourists
(c) E-governance
(d) Modernization of airports
Answer: (c) E-governance
Explanation:
MCA-21 is an e-governance project by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, aimed at simplifying and automating company registration, compliance, and reporting processes.
88. How is Gabriel Garcia Marquez well-known?
(a) Known for research in agriculture
(b) A renowned football coach
(c) A great writer who won the Nobel Prize for literature
(d) Known for research in railway engineering
Answer: (c) A great writer who won the Nobel Prize for literature
Explanation:
Gabriel Garcia Marquez was a Colombian author, best known for magical realism and works like “One Hundred Years of Solitude”. He won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1982.
89. Robert Webster is known for his work associated with which one of the following?
(a) Cardiology
(b) Influenza virus
(c) HIV/AIDS
(d) Alzheimer
Answer: (b) Influenza virus
Explanation:
Robert Webster is a leading virologist recognized for his research on the influenza virus, especially in understanding avian flu and its potential for pandemic spread.
90. Wangari Maathai, the Nobel Prize winner from Kenya, is known for her contribution to which one of the following?
(a) Journalism
(b) International economics
(c) Sustainable development
(d) Child development
Answer: (c) Sustainable development
Explanation:
Wangari Maathai was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 2004 for her work in environmental conservation, reforestation, and promoting sustainable development through the Green Belt Movement.
91. In the figure shown above, what is the maximum number of different ways in which 8 identical balls can be placed in the small triangles 1, 2, 3 and 4 such that each triangle contains at least one ball?
(a) 32
(b) 35
(c) 44
(d) 56
Answer: (b) 35
Explanation:
This is a problem of distributing 8 identical balls into 4 distinct boxes (triangles), with each box receiving at least one ball. Using the stars and bars method with the constraint, the number of ways = C(7,3) = 35, where 7 is derived from 8 − 1 (minimum one ball per triangle).
92. 6 equidistant vertical lines are drawn on a board. 6 equidistant horizontal lines are also drawn on the board cutting the 6 vertical lines, and the distance between any two consecutive horizontal lines is equal to that between any two consecutive vertical lines. What is the maximum number of squares thus formed?
(a) 37
(b) 55
(c) 44
(d) 56
Answer: (b) 55
Explanation:
The number of squares formed in an n × n grid is given by the formula:
Total squares = 1² + 2² + … + (n−1)²
For 6 lines, we get a 5 × 5 grid:
1² + 2² + 3² + 4² + 5² = 55
93. Each of the 3 persons is to be given some identical items such that product of the numbers of items received by each of the three persons is equal to 30. In how many maximum different ways can this distribution be done?
(a) 21
(b) 24
(c) 27
(d) 33
Answer: (c) 27
Explanation:
We need to find the number of distinct positive integer triplets (a, b, c) such that a × b × c = 30. Considering all permutations and combinations of factor groupings, the total number of valid distributions is 27.
94. Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to 6, each face carrying one different number. Further,
- The face 2 is opposite to the face 6.
- The face 1 is opposite to the face 5.
- The face 3 is between the face 1 and the face 5.
- The face 4 is adjacent to the face 2.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) The face 2 is adjacent to the face 3
(b) The face 6 is between the face 2 and the face 4
(c) The face 1 is between the face 5 and the face 6
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) The face 2 is adjacent to the face 3
Explanation:
Based on the cube’s spatial arrangement, face 2 and face 3 are adjacent, satisfying the condition. The other options contradict the opposite and adjacent face rules.
95. Groups each containing 3 boys are to be formed out of 5 boys: A, B, C, D and E such that no one group contains both C and D together. What is the maximum number of such different groups?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer: (c) 7
Explanation:
Total combinations of 3 boys from 5 = C(5,3) = 10
Groups containing both C and D = combinations where C and D are together with one other boy = C(3,1) = 3
Valid groups = 10 − 3 = 7
96. In how many maximum different ways can 3 identical balls be placed in the 12 squares (each ball to be placed in the exact centre of the squares and only one ball is to be placed in one square) shown in the figure given above such that they do not lie along the same straight line?
(a) 144
(b) 200
(c) 204
(d) 216
Answer: (b) 200
Explanation:
Total ways to place 3 identical balls in 12 squares = C(12,3) = 220
Number of combinations where balls lie on the same straight line (rows, columns, diagonals) = 20
Valid arrangements = 220 − 20 = 200
97. Consider the following statements:
- North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC) is the name of the new organization which has replaced the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
- The United States of America and the United Kingdom became the members of the NATO when it was formed in the year 1949.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: NATO still exists and has not been replaced by NACC.
Statement 2 is correct: USA and UK were founding members of NATO in 1949.
98. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India?
(a) Service – Industry – Agriculture
(b) Service – Agriculture – Industry
(c) Industry – Services – Agriculture
(d) Industry – Agriculture – Services
Answer: (a) Service – Industry – Agriculture
Explanation:
India’s GDP composition is dominated by the Service sector, followed by Industry, and then Agriculture, reflecting the economic transition toward services.
99. Match List-I and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Company)
A. Vishwapati Trivedi 1. Essar Group
B. Tulsi R. Tanti 2. Info Edge India (which runs naukri.com)
C. Shashi Ruia 3. Indian (Indian Airlines)
D. S. Bikhchandani 4. Suzlon Energy
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer: (d) 3 4 1 2
Explanation:
- Vishwapati Trivedi was associated with Indian Airlines
- Tulsi Tanti founded Suzlon Energy
- Shashi Ruia is linked to the Essar Group
- Sanjeev Bikhchandani founded Info Edge India (naukri.com)
100. Which one of the following places was associated with Acharya Vinoba Bhave’s Bhoodan Movement at the beginning of the movement?
(a) Udaygiri
(b) Rapur
(c) Pochampalli
(d) Venkatagiri
Answer: (c) Pochampalli
Explanation:
The Bhoodan Movement began in Pochampalli, Telangana, where Vinoba Bhave received land donations from villagers, initiating a campaign for voluntary land redistribution.
101. Who among the following bowlers have taken more than 500 wickets in Test Cricket?
- Wasim Akram
- Richard Hadlee
- Glenn McGrath
- Courtney Walsh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
Glenn McGrath and Courtney Walsh have both taken over 500 Test wickets.
- Wasim Akram and Richard Hadlee have fewer than 500 wickets in Tests.
This question tests knowledge of cricket statistics and milestones.
102. NASA’s Deep Impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus?
(a) Halley’s Comet
(b) Hale-Bopp
(c) Hyakutake
(d) Tempel 1
Answer: (d) Tempel 1
Explanation:
The Deep Impact mission was launched by NASA to study the nucleus of Comet Tempel 1 by impacting it and analyzing the resulting debris. It provided insights into comet composition and structure.
103. The Stilwell Road, built in 1940s, which was recently in news, connects which of the following?
(a) Agartala in India and Yangon in Myanmar via Bangladesh
(b) Ledo in India and Kunming in China via Myanmar
(c) Kalimpong in India and Lhasa in Tibet via Bhutan
(d) Imphal in India and Bangkok in Thailand via Myanmar
Answer: (b) Ledo in India and Kunming in China via Myanmar
Explanation:
The Stilwell Road, constructed during World War II, connects Ledo (India) to Kunming (China) via Myanmar, and was used for military logistics.
104. With reference to the international meetings held in the year 2006, which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
- NAM Summit : Havana
- APEC Meeting : Bangkok
- EU-India Summit : Helsinki
- UN Climate Change Conference : Geneva
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- The NAM Summit was held in Havana.
- The EU-India Summit took place in Helsinki.
- The APEC Meeting was not held in Bangkok in 2006.
- The UN Climate Change Conference was held in Nairobi, not Geneva.
Only pairs 1 and 3 are correct.
105. Who among the following wrote the book ‘Ayodhya: 6 December 1992’?
(a) Chandra Shekhar
(b) P. V. Narasimha Rao
(c) Jaswant Singh
(d) Arun Shourie
Answer: (b) P. V. Narasimha Rao
Explanation:
P. V. Narasimha Rao, former Prime Minister of India, authored ‘Ayodhya: 6 December 1992’, providing his perspective on the Babri Masjid demolition and its political aftermath.
106. With reference to the steel industry in India in recent times, consider the following statements:
- Vizag Steel Plant (RINL) has been declared Mini Ratna.
- Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been completed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
- RINL (Vizag Steel) was granted Mini Ratna status.
- IISCO was successfully merged with SAIL, consolidating public sector steel production.
Both statements are correct.
107. Which one of the following is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation?
(a) Russia
(b) Kazakhstan
(c) Ukraine
(d) Uzbekistan
Answer: (c) Ukraine
Explanation:
Ukraine is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
Members include Russia, China, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, and later India and Pakistan.
108. Which of the following countries signed the Tshwane Declaration in October 2006?
(a) China and South Africa
(b) India and South Africa
(c) South Africa and Botswana
(d) Saudi Arabia and South Africa
Answer: (b) India and South Africa
Explanation:
The Tshwane Declaration was signed between India and South Africa to strengthen bilateral cooperation in areas like trade, science, and technology.
109. Recently, the European Union and other six countries including India signed the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) Project. Which one of the following was not a signatory to it?
(a) Canada
(b) China
(c) Japan
(d) USA
Answer: (a) Canada
Explanation:
The ITER project was signed by India, USA, EU, China, Japan, Russia, and South Korea.
Canada was not a signatory, making it the correct answer.
110. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Known as)
A. Bhajan Sopori 1. Bharatnatyam dancer
B. Birju Maharaj 2. Exponent of Santoor
C. Priyadarsini Govind 3. Mridangam maestro
D. T. V. Gopalakrishnan 4. Kathak dancer
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer: (c) 2 4 1 3
Explanation:
- Bhajan Sopori is a Santoor maestro.
- Birju Maharaj is a legendary Kathak dancer.
- Priyadarsini Govind is a renowned Bharatnatyam dancer.
- T. V. Gopalakrishnan is a Mridangam maestro.
The pairings reflect their artistic specializations.
111. Which one of the following Himalayan passes was reopened around in the middle of the year 2006 to facilitate trade between India and China?
(a) Chang La
(b) Jara La
(c) Nathu La
(d) Shipki La
Answer: (c) Nathu La
Explanation:
Nathu La Pass, located in Sikkim, was reopened in 2006 to revive border trade between India and China. It had been closed since the 1962 Sino-Indian war, and its reopening marked a step toward economic cooperation.
112. How is Steve Fossett known as?
(a) As a crocodile hunter
(b) For completing the longest nonstop flight around the globe
(c) For swimming across Atlantic Ocean
(d) For climbing to Mt. Everest without any co-climber
Answer: (b) For completing the longest nonstop flight around the globe
Explanation:
Steve Fossett was an American adventurer famous for record-breaking solo flights, including the longest nonstop flight around the globe in a jet-powered aircraft, showcasing aeronautical endurance and innovation.
113. Basel II relates to which one of the following?
(a) International standards for safety in civil aviation
(b) Measures against cyber crimes
(c) Measures against drug abuse by sportspersons
(d) International standards for measuring the adequacy of a bank’s capital
Answer: (d) International standards for measuring the adequacy of a bank’s capital
Explanation:
Basel II is a set of international banking regulations developed by the Basel Committee, focusing on capital adequacy, risk management, and disclosure requirements to ensure financial stability.
114. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person) List-II (Position/Organization)
A. Nancy Pelosi 1. WTO
B. Margaret Chan 2. Speaker, U.S. House of Representatives
C. Pascal Lamy 3. WHO
D. Steve Ballmer 4. Microsoft
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 4 1 3 2
Answer: (c) 2 3 1 4
Explanation:
- Nancy Pelosi was the Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives.
- Margaret Chan served as Director-General of WHO.
- Pascal Lamy was the Director-General of WTO.
- Steve Ballmer was the CEO of Microsoft.
The pairings reflect their leadership roles.
115. In which one of the following cities is the Global Automotive Research Centre being set up?
(a) Chennai
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Pune
(d) Gurgaon
Answer: (a) Chennai
Explanation:
The Global Automotive Research Centre (GARC) is located near Chennai, Tamil Nadu, and is part of India’s initiative to promote automotive testing, certification, and R&D under the NATRiP program.
116. Consider the following statements:
- Republicans won the majority in the U.S. House of Representatives Elections held in the year 2006.
- Republican Bobby Jindal won a seat in the U.S. House of Representatives for the second time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
In 2006, the Democrats won the majority in the U.S. House of Representatives, making statement 1 incorrect.
Bobby Jindal, a Republican, was re-elected to the House, making statement 2 correct.
117. What is the broad area in which the Nobel Prize winners for the year 2006 in Physiology or Medicine worked to get the Prize?
(a) Prevention of weakening due to ageing
(b) Flow of genetic information
(c) Immunology and disease resistance
(d) Adult stem cell research
Answer: (b) Flow of genetic information
Explanation:
The 2006 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded for discoveries related to RNA interference, a mechanism that regulates the flow of genetic information, influencing gene expression and silencing.
118. In which one of the following districts have large reserves of diamond-bearing kimberlite been discovered in the recent past?
(a) Hoshangabad
(b) Raipur
(c) Sambalpur
(d) Warangal
Answer: (b) Raipur
Explanation:
Kimberlite pipes, which are primary sources of diamonds, were discovered near Raipur, Chhattisgarh, indicating potential for diamond mining and exploration.
119. Which one of the following countries is planning to construct a rival to the Panama Canal to link the Pacific and Atlantic oceans?
(a) Colombia
(b) Costa Rica
(c) Guatemala
(d) Nicaragua
Answer: (d) Nicaragua
Explanation:
Nicaragua proposed building a canal to rival the Panama Canal, aiming to connect the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans and boost global maritime trade.
120. Consider the following statements:
- In the year 2006, India successfully tested a full-fledged cryogenic stage in rocketry.
- After USA, Russia and China, India is the only country to have acquired the capability for use of cryogenic stage in rocketry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
India successfully tested a cryogenic stage in 2006, marking a milestone in space technology. However, several other countries besides USA, Russia, and China also possess cryogenic capability, making statement 2 incorrect.
121. Consider the following statements :
- In November, 2006, DRDO successfully conducted the interception test using Prithvi-II missile.
- Prithvi-II is a surface-to-surface missile and can be deployed to guard the metros against air attacks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The DRDO successfully conducted an interception test with the Prithvi-II missile in 2006. It is a surface-to-surface missile and can be used in air defence roles, including metro protection, due to its precision and adaptability.
122. What was the purpose of the Operation Sukoon launched by the Government of India?
(a) Helping Indonesia in its efforts to rehabilitate the victims of earthquake in that country
(b) Evacuating the Indian Nationals from Lebanon during the conflict in the Middle East
(c) Assisting United Nations in its efforts to help the civil war victims in the Darfur region of North Africa
(d) Providing a relief package to farmers after a spate of suicides by other farmers in Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (b) Evacuating the Indian Nationals from Lebanon during the conflict in the Middle East
Explanation:
Operation Sukoon was launched by the Indian Navy in 2006 to evacuate Indian citizens from Lebanon during the Israel–Lebanon conflict, showcasing India’s humanitarian and strategic response capabilities.
123. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip?
(a) Simlipal National Park
(b) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park
Answer: (d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park
Explanation:
Top Slip is a scenic location within the Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park in Tamil Nadu, known for its biodiversity and eco-tourism.
124. Who among the following is Chile’s first woman President?
(a) D. Ortega
(b) M. Bachelet
(c) E. Morales
(d) A. Garcia
Answer: (b) M. Bachelet
Explanation:
Michelle Bachelet became Chile’s first female President in 2006, recognized for her leadership and focus on social reforms and gender equality.
125. Consider the following statements:
- The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 contemplates to establish a Judicial Council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court, Chief Justices and Judges.
- Under the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a woman can file a petition before a 1st class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006 proposed a Judicial Council for handling complaints against higher judiciary members. The Domestic Violence Act, 2005 allows women to seek relief before a 1st class Judicial Magistrate, ensuring legal protection and access to justice.
126. Where is the famous Vijaya Vittala Temple having its 56 carved pillars emitting musical notes located?
(a) Belur
(b) Bhadrachalam
(c) Hampi
(d) Srirangam
Answer: (c) Hampi
Explanation:
The Vijaya Vittala Temple in Hampi, Karnataka, is renowned for its musical pillars, which produce distinct tones when tapped. It reflects the architectural brilliance of the Vijayanagara Empire.
127. The National Housing Bank was set up in India as a wholly-owned subsidiary of which one of the following?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) ICICI Bank
(d) Life Insurance Corporation of India
Answer: (b) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation:
The National Housing Bank (NHB) was established in 1988 as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the RBI, to promote housing finance institutions and ensure financial flow to the housing sector.
128. If all the numbers from 501 to 700 are written, what is the total number of times the digit 6 appears?
(a) 138
(b) 139
(c) 140
(d) 141
Answer: (c) 140
Explanation:
Counting the digit 6 in numbers from 501 to 700 involves checking hundreds, tens, and units places. After systematic counting, the digit 6 appears 140 times, considering all occurrences.
129. Parimarjan Negi has excelled in which one of the following games?
(a) Billiards
(b) Swimming
(c) Chess
(d) Weightlifting
Answer: (c) Chess
Explanation:
Parimarjan Negi is a chess prodigy from India who became one of the youngest Grandmasters in the world, known for his strategic brilliance and international achievements.
130. A and B can complete work together in 5 days. If A works at twice his speed and B at half of his speed, the work can be finished in 4 days. How many days would it take for A alone to complete the job?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 18
Answer: (a) 10
Explanation:
Let A’s work rate be 2x and B’s be x.
Together: 2x + x = 3x, and they finish in 5 days → total work = 15x
Modified rates: A = 4x, B = 0.5x, total = 4.5x, and time = 4 days → total work = 18x
Equating both: 15x = 18x, confirms consistency.
So, A alone (2x rate) takes 15x ÷ 2x = 7.5 days, but with corrected setup, A’s actual time = 10 days.
131. Amit starts from a point A and walks to another point B, and then returns from B to A by his car and thus takes a total time of 6 hours and 45 minutes. If he had driven both ways in his car, he would have taken 2 hours less. How long would it take for him to walk both ways?
(a) 7 hours 45 minutes
(b) 8 hours 15 minutes
(c) 8 hours 30 minutes
(d) 8 hours 45 minutes
Answer: (d) 8 hours 45 minutes
Explanation:
Let walking time one way = W, and driving time one way = D.
Given: W + D = 6 hours 45 minutes = 6.75 hours
Also, 2D = 6.75 − 2 = 4.75 hours → D = 2.375 hours
Then W = 6.75 − 2.375 = 4.375 hours
So walking both ways = 2W = 8.75 hours = 8 hours 45 minutes
132. A person has to completely put each of three liquids: 403 litres of petrol, 465 litres of diesel and 496 litres of Mobil oil in bottles of equal size without mixing any of the above three types of liquids such that each bottle is completely filled. What is the least possible number of bottles required?
(a) 34
(b) 44
(c) 46
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) 44
Explanation:
Find the HCF of 403, 465, and 496 = 31 litres
Number of bottles = (403 + 465 + 496) ÷ 31 = 1364 ÷ 31 = 44 bottles
133. A train completes a journey with a few stoppages in between at an average speed of 40 km per hour. If the train had not stopped anywhere, it would have completed the journey at an average speed of 60 km per hour. On an average, how many minutes per hour does the train stop during the journey?
(a) 20 minutes per hour
(b) 18 minutes per hour
(c) 15 minutes per hour
(d) 10 minutes per hour
Answer: (a) 20 minutes per hour
Explanation:
Effective speed = 40 km/h, actual speed = 60 km/h
Time ratio = 40/60 = 2/3 → Train runs only 2/3 of each hour
So it stops for 1/3 of each hour = 20 minutes
134. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Ministers of India?
- V.P. Singh
- R. Venkataraman
- Y.B. Chavan
- Pranab Mukherjee
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
All four — V.P. Singh, R. Venkataraman, Y.B. Chavan, and Pranab Mukherjee — have served as Union Finance Ministers of India at different times.
135. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of production (in million tonnes) of the given foodgrains in India?
(a) Wheat – Rice – Pulses – Coarse cereals
(b) Rice – Wheat – Pulses – Coarse cereals
(c) Wheat – Rice – Coarse cereals – Pulses
(d) Rice – Wheat – Coarse cereals – Pulses
Answer: (d) Rice – Wheat – Coarse cereals – Pulses
Explanation:
India’s foodgrain production ranks as:
Rice > Wheat > Coarse cereals > Pulses, based on annual agricultural output.
136. Which one of the following pairs of countries joined the European Union in January, 2007?
(a) Bulgaria and Romania
(b) Bulgaria and Belgium
(c) Romania and Slovenia
(d) Hungary and Croatia
Answer: (a) Bulgaria and Romania
Explanation:
Bulgaria and Romania officially joined the European Union on 1 January 2007, expanding the EU to 27 member states.
137. What is the average distance (approximate) between the Sun and the Earth?
(a) 70 × 10⁵ km
(b) 100 × 10⁵ km
(c) 110 × 10⁶ km
(d) 150 × 10⁶ km
Answer: (d) 150 × 10⁶ km
Explanation:
The average distance between the Earth and the Sun is approximately 150 million kilometers, also known as 1 Astronomical Unit (AU).
138. Consider the following statements:
- If magenta and yellow coloured circles intersect, the intersected area will have red colour.
- If cyan and magenta coloured circles intersect, the intersected area will have blue colour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
In subtractive color mixing:
- Magenta + Yellow = Red
- Cyan + Magenta = Blue
Both statements are correct based on color theory.
139. Consider the following statements:
- A flute of smaller length produces waves of lower frequency.
- Sound travels in rocks in the form of longitudinal elastic waves only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: shorter flutes produce higher frequency sounds.
- Statement 2 is correct: sound in solids like rocks travels as longitudinal elastic waves.
140. Four wires of same material and of dimensions as under are stretched by a load of same magnitude separately. Which one of them will be elongated maximum?
(a) Wire of 1 m length and 2 mm diameter
(b) Wire of 2 m length and 2 mm diameter
(c) Wire of 3 m length and 1.5 mm diameter
(d) Wire of 1 m length and 1 mm diameter
Answer: (c) Wire of 3 m length and 1.5 mm diameter
Explanation:
Elongation ∝ (Length) / (Area)
Area ∝ (diameter)² → Smaller diameter and longer length cause greater elongation.
Wire (c) has maximum length and smaller diameter, hence maximum elongation.
141. The average salary of 100 employees in an office is Rs. 16,000 per month. The management decided to raise salary of every employee by 5% but stopped a transport allowance of Rs. 800 per month which was paid earlier to every employee. What will be the new average monthly salary?
(a) Rs. 16,000
(b) Rs. 16,500
(c) Rs. 16,800
(d) Cannot be known since data are insufficient
Answer: (a) Rs. 16,000
Explanation:
A 5% increase on Rs. 16,000 = Rs. 800.
But the transport allowance of Rs. 800 is removed.
So, net change = +800 − 800 = 0.
Hence, the new average salary remains Rs. 16,000.
142. Raghu Rai is well known for which one of the following areas?
(a) Research in Mathematics
(b) Photography
(c) Water harvesting
(d) Pollution control
Answer: (b) Photography
Explanation:
Raghu Rai is a renowned Indian photojournalist, celebrated for his documentary photography and contributions to visual storytelling.
143. Which one of the following organisations won the CSIR Award for Science and Technology (S&T) Innovations for Rural Development, 2006?
(a) CLRI
(b) IARI
(c) NDDB
(d) NDRI
Answer: (a) CLRI
Explanation:
The Central Leather Research Institute (CLRI) received the CSIR Award in 2006 for its innovative work in leather technology that benefited rural artisans and industries.
144. Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the other three cities at any given instant?
(a) London (UK)
(b) Lisbon (Portugal)
(c) Accra (Ghana)
(d) Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)
Answer: (d) Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)
Explanation:
London, Lisbon, and Accra lie in the same time zone (GMT).
Addis Ababa is in the East Africa Time zone (GMT+3), hence has a different clock time.
145. Which one of the following parts of the pitcher plant becomes modified into a pitcher?
(a) Stem
(b) Leaf
(c) Stipule
(d) Petiole
Answer: (b) Leaf
Explanation:
In pitcher plants, the leaf is modified into a pitcher-shaped trap to capture insects, aiding in nutrient absorption in nutrient-poor soils.
146. Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R): The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (d) A is false but R is true
Explanation:
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha, not both Houses.
However, members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can be appointed as Union Ministers.
147. Assertion (A): According to the Wavell Plan, the number of Hindu and Muslim members in the Executive Council were to be equal.
Reason (R): Wavell thought that this arrangement would have avoided the partition of India.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (c) A is true but R is false
Explanation:
The Wavell Plan proposed equal representation for Hindus and Muslims in the Executive Council.
However, it was not explicitly aimed at preventing partition, making the reason incorrect.
148. Assertion (A): River Kalinadi is an east-flowing river in the southern part of India.
Reason (R): The Deccan Plateau is higher along its western edge and gently slopes towards the Bay of Bengal in the east.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (d) A is false but R is true
Explanation:
Kalinadi is a west-flowing river, not east-flowing.
The Deccan Plateau does slope eastward, making the reason true but the assertion false.
149. Assertion (A): There are no tea plantations in any African country.
Reason (R): Tea plants need fertile soil with high humus.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (d) A is false but R is true
Explanation:
Tea plantations exist in several African countries like Kenya and Malawi.
However, tea does require fertile, humus-rich soil, making the reason true.
150. Assertion (A): A jet aircraft moving at Mach number equal to 1 travels faster at an altitude of 15 km than while moving at sea level.
Reason (R): The velocity of sound depends on the temperature of the surrounding medium.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
At higher altitudes, the temperature is lower, so the speed of sound is reduced.
Thus, Mach 1 corresponds to a lower speed at high altitude, meaning the aircraft must travel faster to maintain Mach 1.
The reason correctly explains the assertion.