1. Match list-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List-I (Person)
A. Nagender Singh
B. A. N. Ray
C. R.K. Trivedi
D. Ashok Desai
List-II (Position)
- Chief Election Commissioner of India
- President, International Court of Justice
- Chief Justice of India
- Attorney General of India
Codes:
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 2 1 3 4
Answer: (b) 2 3 1 4
Explanation:
Nagender Singh served as the President of the International Court of Justice, a prestigious global legal position. A. N. Ray held the post of Chief Justice of India, making him the head of the Indian judiciary. R.K. Trivedi was the Chief Election Commissioner of India, responsible for overseeing electoral processes. Ashok Desai was the Attorney General of India, the chief legal advisor to the government. The matching reflects their authentic historical roles.
2. Consider the following statement:
- The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected light.
- The albedo of Mercury is much greater than the albedo of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
Albedo refers to the reflectivity of a surface; it determines how bright an object appears when illuminated. Statement 1 is correct because an object with higher albedo reflects more light and appears brighter. Statement 2 is incorrect because Mercury has a lower albedo than Earth due to its dark, rocky surface, which absorbs more sunlight. Hence, only the first statement is valid.
3. Consider the following statements about probiotic food :
- Probiotic food contains live bacteria which are considered beneficial to humans.
- Probiotic food helps in maintaining gut flora.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Probiotic foods are rich in live beneficial bacteria that support digestive health. These bacteria help in maintaining gut flora, which is essential for nutrient absorption and immune function. Both statements are scientifically accurate, making option (c) correct.
4. You Kippur War was fought between which sides/countries ?
(a) Turkey and Greece
(b) Serbs and Croats
(c) Israel, and Arab countries led by Egypt and Syria
(d) Iran and Iraq
Answer: (c) Israel, and Arab countries led by Egypt and Syria
Explanation:
The Yom Kippur War (1973) was a conflict where Egypt and Syria launched a surprise attack on Israel during the Jewish holy day of Yom Kippur. It was a major event in Middle Eastern geopolitics, involving territorial disputes and superpower tensions.
5. Norman Ernest Borlaug who is regarded as the father of the Green Revolution in India is from which country?
(a) United States of America
(b) Mexico
(c) Australia
(d) New Zealand
Answer: (a) United States of America
Explanation:
Norman Borlaug, an American agronomist, developed high-yielding crop varieties and promoted modern agricultural techniques. His work led to the Green Revolution, significantly improving food production in countries like India and Mexico.
6. In which one of the following states are Namchik-Namphuk Coalfields located ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Manipur
(d) Mizoram
Answer: (a) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation:
The Namchik-Namphuk Coalfields are located in Arunachal Pradesh, in the northeastern region of India. These coalfields are known for their bituminous coal reserves, contributing to regional energy resources.
7. Which one of the following is correct in respect of Indian football team’s performance in the Olympic Games?
(a) India has never participated in the Olympic Football Tournament
(b) India played only in the First Round
(c) India entered only up to the Quarter Finals
(d) India entered the Semi finals
Answer: (d) India entered the Semi finals
Explanation:
India’s football team reached the semi-finals in the 1948 London Olympics, marking its best performance in Olympic football. This achievement remains a historic milestone in Indian sports.
8. Which was the Capital of Andhra state when it was made a separate State in the year 1953 ?
(a) Guntur
(b) Kurnool
(c) Nellore
(d) Warangal
Answer: (b) Kurnool
Explanation:
When Andhra State was carved out of Madras Presidency in 1953, Kurnool was chosen as its capital. This decision was based on its central location and administrative suitability at the time.
9. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice President of India ?
- Mohammad Hidayatullah
- Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
- Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
- Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the code given below :-
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 1 and 4 only
Explanation:
Mohammad Hidayatullah and Shankar Dayal Sharma both served as Vice Presidents of India. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed and Neelam Sanjiva Reddy were Presidents but never held the Vice President’s office.
10. What is the pH level of blood of normal person?
(a) 4.5–4.5
(b) 6.45–6.55
(c) 7.35–7.45
(d) 8.25–8.35
Answer: (c) 7.35–7.45
Explanation:
The normal pH of human blood ranges between 7.35 and 7.45, indicating a slightly alkaline nature. This range is crucial for enzymatic activity and metabolic stability in the body.
11. C. Rangarajan has been actively involved in the Pan-Asian Commission addressing to which one of the following issues?
(a) Promotion of tourism in the Asian region
(b) Impact of HIV / AIDS in the Asian region
(c) Promotion of free trade in the Asian region
(d) Higher technical education in the universities in the Asian region
Answer: (b) Impact of HIV / AIDS in the Asian region
Explanation:
C. Rangarajan, a noted economist, contributed to the Pan-Asian Commission focused on the impact of HIV/AIDS, addressing its social and economic consequences across Asia. His involvement emphasized policy-level responses to the epidemic.
12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Service/Agency)
A. Foreign Intelligence Service
B. Ministry of State Security
C. Secret Intelligence Service
D. The Mossad
List-II (Country)
- Israel
- Britain
- China
- Russia
Codes:
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
Answer: (c) 4 2 3 1
Explanation:
The Foreign Intelligence Service belongs to Russia, the Secret Intelligence Service is the formal name for Britain’s MI6, Ministry of State Security is China’s top intelligence agency, and The Mossad is the intelligence agency of Israel. The matching reflects accurate geopolitical affiliations.
13. ISRO successfully conducted a rocket test using cryogenic engines in the year 2007. Where is the test-stand used for the purpose, located?
(a) Balasore
(b) Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Karwar
Answer: (c) Mahendragiri
Explanation:
Mahendragiri, located in Tamil Nadu, houses the ISRO Propulsion Complex, where cryogenic engine tests are conducted. These engines are vital for heavy-lift launch vehicles, and the 2007 test marked a technological milestone.
14. In which one of the following is Malta located?
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Mediterranean
(c) Black Sea
(d) North Sea
Answer: (b) Mediterranean
Explanation:
Malta is a small island nation situated in the Mediterranean Sea, south of Italy. Its strategic location has made it historically significant for trade and naval operations.
15. Starting with the Australian Open Lawn Tennis tournament, which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the other three major Lawn Tennis tournaments?
(a) French Open – US Open – Wimbledon
(b) French Open – Wimbledon – US Open
(c) Wimbledon – US Open – French Open
(d) Wimbledon – French Open – US Open
Answer: (b) French Open – Wimbledon – US Open
Explanation:
The Grand Slam calendar begins with the Australian Open, followed by the French Open, then Wimbledon, and finally the US Open. This sequence reflects the official international tennis schedule.
16. Among the following, which one lays eggs and does not produce young ones directly?
(a) Echidna
(b) Kangaroo
(c) Porcupine
(d) Whale
Answer: (a) Echidna
Explanation:
The Echidna is a monotreme, a rare group of mammals that lay eggs. Unlike kangaroos, porcupines, or whales, which give birth to live young, echidnas reproduce via egg-laying, making them biologically unique.
17. The release of which one of the following into ponds and wells helps in controlling the mosquitoes?
(a) Crab
(b) Dogfish
(c) Gambusia fish
(d) Snail
Answer: (c) Gambusia fish
Explanation:
Gambusia fish, also known as mosquito fish, feed on mosquito larvae, making them effective for biological control in water bodies. Their use reduces mosquito-borne diseases like malaria and dengue.
18. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?
(a) Third
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Ninth
Answer: (b) Fifth
Explanation:
The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with Scheduled Areas and Tribes, outlining provisions for their governance and welfare. It empowers the President to declare areas as Scheduled and ensures tribal autonomy.
19. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Answer: (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation:
The Department of Border Management operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs, overseeing border security, infrastructure, and coordination among border guarding forces like BSF and ITBP.
20. For which one of the following reforms was a Commission set up under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India?
(a) Police Reforms
(b) Tax Reforms
(c) Reforms in Technical Education
(d) Administrative Reforms
Answer: (d) Administrative Reforms
Explanation:
The Second Administrative Reforms Commission, chaired by Veerappa Moily, was established to recommend measures for governance improvement, transparency, and efficiency in public administration.
21. Elizabeth Hawley is well-known for her writing relating to which one of the following?
(a) Historical monuments in India
(b) Regional dance in India
(c) Himalayan expeditions
(d) Wildlife in India
Answer: (c) Himalayan expeditions
Explanation:
Elizabeth Hawley was a renowned chronicler of Himalayan mountaineering expeditions, especially in Nepal. Her meticulous records became the unofficial archive for climbers attempting peaks like Everest.
22. In India, how many States share the coastline?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Answer: (c) 9
Explanation:
India has 9 coastal states: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and West Bengal. These states have access to the sea, influencing trade, climate, and biodiversity.
23. Nobel Prize winning scientist James D. Watson is known for his work in which area?
(a) Metallurgy
(b) Meteorology
(c) Environment protection
(d) Genetics
Answer: (d) Genetics
Explanation:
James D. Watson, along with Francis Crick, discovered the double helix structure of DNA, revolutionizing the field of genetics. This discovery laid the foundation for modern molecular biology.
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Board)
A. Coffee Board
B. Rubber Board
C. Tea Board
D. Tobacco Board
List-II (Headquarters)
- Bangalore
- Guntur
- Kottayam
- Kolkata
Codes:
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Answer: (b) 1 3 4 2
Explanation:
The Coffee Board is headquartered in Bangalore, Rubber Board in Kottayam, Tea Board in Kolkata, and Tobacco Board in Guntur. These locations reflect the regional specialization of each commodity.
25. Which one among the following has the maximum number of National Parks?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Meghalaya
Answer: (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Explanation:
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have the highest number of National Parks among the options due to their rich biodiversity and protected ecosystems, including marine and tropical forest reserves.
26. Among the following, which one is not an ape?
(a) Gibbon
(b) Gorilla
(c) Langur
(d) Orangutan
Answer: (c) Langur
Explanation:
Langurs are monkeys, not apes. Unlike apes such as gibbons, gorillas, and orangutans, langurs have tails and belong to a different primate classification.
27. In how many different ways can all of 5 identical balls be placed in the cells shown above such that each row contains at least 1 ball?
(a) 64
(b) 81
(c) 84
(d) 108
Answer: (d) 108
Explanation:
This is a combinatorial problem involving distribution with constraints. The total number of ways to place 5 identical balls in multiple cells ensuring each row has at least one ball is 108, based on partitioning logic.
28. There are 6 different letters and 6 correspondingly addressed envelopes. If the letters are randomly put in the envelopes, what is the probability that exactly 5 letters go into the correctly addressed envelopes?
(a) Zero
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/2
(d) 5/6
Answer: (a) Zero
Explanation:
In permutation theory, it’s impossible for exactly 5 letters to be correctly placed while the sixth is incorrect. If 5 are correct, the sixth must also be correct, making the probability zero.
29. There are two identical red, two identical black and two identical white balls. In how many different ways can the balls be placed in the cells (each cell to contain one ball) shown above such that balls of the same colour do not occupy any two consecutive cells?
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 24
(d) 30
Answer: (c) 24
Explanation:
This is a restricted arrangement problem. The condition that no two same-colored balls are adjacent limits the permutations. The total number of valid arrangements is 24, calculated using combinatorics with constraints.
30. How many different triangles are there in the figure shown above?
(a) 28
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 16
Answer: (a) 28
Explanation:
By counting all possible triangles formed by intersecting lines and shapes in the figure, including small, medium, and large combinations, the total comes to 28 distinct triangles. This involves geometric visualization and enumeration.
31. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
- Francis Collins : Mapping human genome
- Sergey Brin : Google Search Engine
- Jimmy Wals : Wikipedia
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 3 only
Explanation:
Jimmy Wales is the co-founder of Wikipedia, the free online encyclopedia. While Sergey Brin co-founded Google, he is not solely credited with the search engine’s creation. Francis Collins led the Human Genome Project, but the question’s phrasing implies individual credit, which is misleading. Hence, only statement 3 is correctly matched.
32. What does S & P 500 relate to?
(a) Supercomputer
(b) A new technique in e-business
(c) A new technique in bridge building
(d) An index of stocks of large companies
Answer: (d) An index of stocks of large companies
Explanation:
The S&P 500 is a stock market index that tracks the performance of 500 large companies listed on stock exchanges in the United States. It is widely used as a benchmark for the overall U.S. equity market.
33. Rajiv Gandhi National Flying Institute is being established in which State?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala
(d) Orissa
Answer: (b) Maharashtra
Explanation:
The Rajiv Gandhi National Flying Institute was planned to be set up in Maharashtra, aiming to provide advanced pilot training and boost aviation education in India.
34. Who among the following has been the Captain of the Indian team in Cricket Test Matches for the maximum number of times?
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Mansur Ali Khan Pataudi
(c) Saurav Ganguly
(d) Mohammad Azharuddin
Answer: (c) Saurav Ganguly
Explanation:
Saurav Ganguly captained the Indian Test team for the highest number of matches among the options listed. His leadership is credited with revitalizing Indian cricket, especially in overseas conditions.
35. Who among the following wrote the poem, Subh-e Azadi?
(a) Sahir Ludhiyani
(b) Faiz Ahmed Faiz
(c) Muhammad Iqbal
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Answer: (b) Faiz Ahmed Faiz
Explanation:
Faiz Ahmed Faiz, a celebrated Urdu poet, wrote Subh-e Azadi, a poignant reflection on the partition of India and the unfulfilled promises of independence.
36. How can the height of a person who is six feet tall be expressed (approximately) in nanometers?
(a) nanometers
(b) nanometeres
(c) nanometers
(d) nanometers
Answer: (c) nanometers
Explanation:
Six feet is approximately 1.83 meters, which equals 1,830,000,000 nanometers. The correct unit is nanometers, and option (c) reflects the accurate spelling and unit.
37. A person is sitting in a car which is at rest. The reaction from the road at each of the four wheels of the car is R. When the car runs on a straight level road, how will the reaction at either of the front wheels vary?
(a) It will be greater than R
(b) It will be less than R
(c) It will be equal to R
(d) It shall depend on the material of the road
Answer: (c) It will be equal to R
Explanation:
On a straight level road, the load distribution remains unchanged, so the reaction force at each wheel remains equal to R. There is no acceleration or slope to alter the force.
38. With which one of the following rivers is the Omkareshwar Project associated?
(a) Chambal
(b) Narmada
(c) Tapi
(d) Bhima
Answer: (b) Narmada
Explanation:
The Omkareshwar Hydroelectric Project is located on the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh. It is part of the Narmada Valley Development Plan, aimed at power generation and irrigation.
39. Consider the following statements:
- The Nuclear Suppliers Group has 24 countries as the members.
- India is a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
At the time of this exam, the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) had more than 24 members, and India was not a member. Hence, both statements are incorrect.
40. In the context of the Indian defence, what is ‘Dhruv’?
(a) Aircraft-carrying warship
(b) Missile-carrying Submarine
(c) Advanced light helicopter
(d) Intercontinental ballistic missile
Answer: (c) Advanced light helicopter
Explanation:
Dhruv is an Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL). It is used by the Indian Armed Forces for transport, rescue, and reconnaissance missions.
41. ‘Hand-in-Hand 2007’, a joint anti-terrorism military training was held by the officers of the Indian Army and officers of Army of which one of the following countries?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Russia
(d) USA
Answer: (a) China
Explanation:
The ‘Hand-in-Hand’ military exercise was a bilateral anti-terrorism training initiative between India and China, aimed at enhancing cooperation and coordination between the two armies in counter-terror operations.
42. Assertion (A): In human body, liver has an important role in fat digestion.
Reason (R): Liver produces two important fat-digesting enzymes.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (c) A is true but R is false
Explanation:
The liver plays a vital role in fat digestion by producing bile, which emulsifies fats. However, it does not produce fat-digesting enzymes—those are secreted by the pancreas. Hence, Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
43. Assertion (A): In the visible spectrum of light, red light is more energetic than green light.
Reason (R): The wavelength of red light is more than that of green light.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (d) A is false but R is true
Explanation:
Red light has a longer wavelength than green light, but lower energy. Energy is inversely proportional to wavelength, so green light is more energetic. Therefore, Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
44. Assertion (A): Radio waves bend in a magnetic field.
Reason (R): Radio waves are electromagnetic in nature.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Radio waves, being electromagnetic, can be influenced by magnetic fields, especially in ionized environments like the ionosphere. Their electromagnetic nature explains their bending behavior, making both statements true and connected.
45. Assertion (A): The Congress did not accept the decision of the Viceroy to declare war against Germany in the year 1939.
Reason (R): The Congress did not accept the decision of the Viceroy to declare war against Germany in the context of the Second World War.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
In 1939, the Viceroy unilaterally declared India’s involvement in World War II without consulting Indian leaders. The Congress opposed this decision, and the Reason directly explains the Assertion, making both true and linked.
46. Where was the First Session of the Indian National Congress held in December 1885?
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) Delhi
Answer: (b) Bombay
Explanation:
The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay in December 1885, presided over by W.C. Bonnerjee, marking the beginning of organized political activity in colonial India.
47. Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abul Kalam Azad?
(a) Al-Hilal
(b) Comrade
(c) The Indian Sociologist
(d) Zamindar
Answer: (a) Al-Hilal
Explanation:
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad launched Al-Hilal, a Urdu journal, to promote nationalist ideas and criticize British policies. It played a key role in mobilizing public opinion during the freedom movement.
48. Who among the following Gandhian followers was a teacher by profession?
(a) A.N. Sinha
(b) Braj Kishore Prasad
(c) J.B. Kripalani
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: (c) J.B. Kripalani
Explanation:
J.B. Kripalani, a prominent Gandhian leader, was a professor and educator before joining the freedom movement. His background in academia shaped his ideological and political contributions.
49. How much is one barrel of oil approximately equal to?
(a) 131 litres
(b) 159 litres
(c) 257 litres
(d) 321 litres
Answer: (b) 159 litres
Explanation:
One barrel of crude oil is internationally standardized to approximately 159 litres. This unit is used in global oil trade and pricing.
50. Which one of the following pairs of metals constitutes the lightest metal and the heaviest metal, respectively?
(a) Lithium and mercury
(b) Lithium and osmium
(c) Aluminium and osmium
(d) Aluminium and mercury
Answer: (b) Lithium and osmium
Explanation:
Lithium is the lightest metal, while osmium is the densest and heaviest naturally occurring metal. This pair represents the extremes of metallic density.
51. Mixture of which one of the following pairs of gases is the cause of occurrence of most of the explosions in mines?
(a) Hydrogen and oxygen
(b) Oxygen and acetylene
(c) Methane and air
(d) Carbon dioxide and methane
Answer: (c) Methane and air
Explanation:
Methane, when mixed with air, forms an explosive mixture commonly found in coal mines. This combination is highly flammable and responsible for many mine explosions, making safety monitoring essential.
52. Which one of the following is also called Stranger Gas?
(a) Argon
(b) Neon
(c) Xenon
(d) Nitrous oxide
Answer: (c) Xenon
Explanation:
Xenon is referred to as the Stranger Gas due to its rare presence in the atmosphere and inert nature. It belongs to the noble gases group, and its name derives from the Greek word for “strange.”
53. What are Rubies and Sapphires chemically known as?
(a) Silicon dioxide
(b) Aluminum oxide
(c) Lead tetroxide
(d) Boron nitride
Answer: (b) Aluminum oxide
Explanation:
Both rubies and sapphires are varieties of corundum, which is chemically aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃). The color variations arise from trace impurities like chromium (in rubies) and iron or titanium (in sapphires).
54. Consider the following statement:
- A widely used musical scale called diatonic scale has seven frequencies.
- The frequency of the note Sa is 256 Hz and that of Ni is 512 Hz.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
The diatonic scale consists of seven distinct notes, forming the basis of Western music theory. However, the frequencies of Sa and Ni are not fixed at 256 Hz and 512 Hz respectively; they vary by scale and tuning system. Hence, only statement 1 is correct.
55. Which one of the following laser types is used in a laser printer?
(a) Dye laser
(b) Gas laser
(c) Semiconductor laser
(d) Excimer laser
Answer: (c) Semiconductor laser
Explanation:
Laser printers use semiconductor lasers, also known as diode lasers, to produce precise light beams that form images on a photoconductive drum. These lasers are compact, efficient, and ideal for printing applications.
56. Consider the following statements in respect of a jet engine and a rocket:
- A jet engine uses the surrounding air for its oxygen supply and so is unsuitable for motion in space.
- A rocket carries its own supply of oxygen in the gas form, and fuel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
A jet engine relies on atmospheric oxygen, making it inoperable in space. A rocket, on the other hand, carries both fuel and oxidizer, allowing it to function in vacuum conditions. Both statements are accurate.
57. Among the following, which one has the minimum population on the basis of data of Census of India, 2001?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Mizoram
(c) Puducherry
(d) Sikkim
Answer: (d) Sikkim
Explanation:
According to the 2001 Census, Sikkim had the lowest population among the listed options. Its mountainous terrain and limited urbanization contribute to its small demographic size.
58. Who among the following translated the Autobiography of Madam Curie in Hindi?
(a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Choudhary Charan Singh
(d) Gobind Vallabh Pant
Answer: (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Explanation:
Lal Bahadur Shastri, India’s former Prime Minister, translated Madam Curie’s autobiography into Hindi, reflecting his interest in science and education.
59. Who among the following scientists shared the Nobel Prize in Physics with his son?
(a) Max Planck
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) William Henry Bragg
(d) Enrico Fermi
Answer: (c) William Henry Bragg
Explanation:
William Henry Bragg and his son William Lawrence Bragg jointly received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1915 for their work on X-ray crystallography, a rare father-son scientific achievement.
60. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in respect of the Roman numerals—C, D, L and M?
(a) C > D > L > M
(b) M < L > D > C
(c) M > D > C > L
(d) L > C < D > M
Answer: (c) M > D > C > L
Explanation:
In Roman numerals, the values are:
- L = 50
- C = 100
- D = 500
- M = 1000
So the correct descending order is M > D > C > L.
61. What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Sulva Sutra) relate to?
(a) Lengths of sides of a right-angled triangle
(b) Calculation of the value of pi
(c) Logarithmic calculations
(d) Normal distribution curve
Answer: (a) Lengths of sides of a right-angled triangle
Explanation:
The Baudhayan Sulva Sutra contains an early statement of the Pythagorean theorem, describing the relationship between the sides of a right-angled triangle. This ancient Indian text predates Greek formulations and shows mathematical sophistication in geometry.
62. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Theory/Law — Associated Scientist
- Continental Drift : Edwin Hubble
- Expansion of Universe : Alfred Wegener
- Photoelectric Effect : Albert Einstein
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: (b) 3 only
Explanation:
The Photoelectric Effect was explained by Albert Einstein, earning him the Nobel Prize in Physics. The other two are mismatched: Continental Drift was proposed by Alfred Wegener, and Expansion of Universe was observed by Edwin Hubble. Hence, only pair 3 is correct.
63. Which of the following minerals are found in a natural way in the State of Chhattisgarh?
- Bauxite
- Dolomite
- Iron ore
- Tin
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Chhattisgarh is rich in Bauxite, Dolomite, and Iron ore, which are mined extensively. Tin, however, is not naturally abundant in the region. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
64. On which one of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located?
(a) Alaknanda
(b) Bhagirathi
(c) Dhauliganga
(d) Mandakini
Answer: (b) Bhagirathi
Explanation:
The Tehri Hydropower Complex is built on the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand. It is one of India’s largest hydroelectric projects, contributing significantly to power generation and water storage.
65. Which one of the following cities is nearest to the equator?
(a) Colombo
(b) Jakarta
(c) Manila
(d) Singapore
Answer: (d) Singapore
Explanation:
Singapore lies just north of the equator, making it the closest city among the options listed. Its equatorial location influences its climate and biodiversity.
66. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Waterfalls — River
- Kapildhara Falls : Godavari
- Jog Falls : Sharavati
- Sivasamudram Falls : Cauvery
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Jog Falls is on the Sharavati River, and Sivasamudram Falls is on the Cauvery River. Kapildhara Falls, however, is located on the Narmada River, not Godavari. Hence, only pairs 2 and 3 are correct.
67. Which one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line?
(a) Malacca Strait
(b) Bering Strait
(c) Strait of Florida
(d) Strait of Gibraltar
Answer: (b) Bering Strait
Explanation:
The Bering Strait, between Russia and Alaska, is closest to the International Date Line, which runs through the Pacific Ocean, separating calendar days.
68. Which of the following pairs in respect of power generation in India is/are correctly matched?
(Rounded Figure)
- Installed electricity generation capacity : 100000 MW
- Electricity generation : 660 billion kWh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
At the time of the exam, India’s electricity generation was approximately 660 billion kWh, but the installed capacity was more than 100000 MW, making statement 1 incorrect and statement 2 correct.
69. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Irrigation Project — State
- Damanganga : Gujarat
- Girna : Maharashtra
- Pamba : Kerala
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All three irrigation projects are correctly matched:
- Damanganga in Gujarat
- Girna in Maharashtra
- Pamba in Kerala
These projects support agriculture and water management in their respective states.
70. Who among the following rejected the title of knighthood and refused to accept a position in the Council of the Secretary of State for India?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) M.G. Ranade
(c) G.K. Gokhale
(d) B.G. Tilak
Answer: (c) G.K. Gokhale
Explanation:
Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a prominent moderate nationalist, rejected the title of knighthood and declined a position in the Council of the Secretary of State for India, reflecting his principled stand against colonial honors.
71. During the time of which Mughal Emperor did the English East India Company establish its first factory in India?
(a) Akbar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Aurangzeb
Answer: (b) Jahangir
Explanation:
The English East India Company established its first factory at Surat in 1613 during the reign of Emperor Jahangir. He granted trading rights to the British, marking the beginning of formal British presence in India.
72. The term “Prisoner’s Dilemma” is associated with which one of the following?
(a) A technique in glass manufacture
(b) A term used in shipping industry
(c) A situation under the Game Theory
(d) Name of a supercomputer
Answer: (c) A situation under the Game Theory
Explanation:
The Prisoner’s Dilemma is a classic example in Game Theory, illustrating how individual rational choices may lead to a suboptimal outcome for both parties. It’s widely used in economics, politics, and psychology.
73. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who of the following raised an army called ‘Free Indian Legion’?
(a) Lala Hardayal
(b) Rashbehari Bose
(c) Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) V.D. Savarkar
Answer: (c) Subhas Chandra Bose
Explanation:
Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Free Indian Legion in Germany, composed of Indian POWs during World War II. It was part of his broader strategy to liberate India through armed resistance.
74. Which one of the following suggested the reconstitution of the Viceroy’s Executive Council in which all the portfolios including that of War Members were to be held by Indian leaders?
(a) Simon Commission
(b) Simla Conference
(c) Cripps Proposal
(d) Cabinet Mission
Answer: (b) Simla Conference
Explanation:
The Simla Conference of 1945, convened by Lord Wavell, proposed that Indian leaders should hold all portfolios in the Viceroy’s Executive Council, including defence, but the talks failed due to political disagreements.
75. What is Agent Orange?
(a) An ace spying group trained by the Police in London
(b) A weed-killing chemical used by the US Military in the Vietnam War
(c) A technique used in the advanced railway safety procedure
(d) A special chemical used in making alloy steel
Answer: (b) A weed-killing chemical used by the US Military in the Vietnam War
Explanation:
Agent Orange was a herbicide and defoliant used by the US military during the Vietnam War to destroy forest cover and crops. It caused severe health issues due to its toxic dioxin content.
76. Which two countries follow China and India in the decreasing order of their populations?
(a) Brazil and USA
(b) USA and Indonesia
(c) Canada and Malaysia
(d) Russia and Nigeria
Answer: (b) USA and Indonesia
Explanation:
After China and India, the next most populous countries are the United States and Indonesia, based on global demographic rankings around the time of the exam.
77. Amongst the following States, which one has the highest percentage of rural population (on the basis of the Census, 2001)?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (a) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation:
As per Census 2001, Himachal Pradesh had the highest percentage of rural population, with most of its residents living in villages and hilly settlements, reflecting its agrarian and dispersed geography.
78. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Organization)
A. Amnesty International
B. Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS)
C. Danube Commission
D. European Space Agency
List-II (Associated Convention/Person/Place/Headquarters)
- Peter Benenson
- Visculi
- Belgrade Convention
- Paris
Codes:
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Answer: (a) 3 1 4 2
Explanation:
- Amnesty International was founded by Peter Benenson
- CIS is associated with Visculi
- Danube Commission is linked to the Belgrade Convention
- European Space Agency is headquartered in Paris
The matching reflects accurate organizational associations.
79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Person)
A. K.P. Singh
B. Vikram Pandit
C. Roopa Farooki
D. Kishore Biyani
List-II (Area)
- Banking
- Fiction writing
- Retail business
- Real estate
Codes:
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 1 2 3 4
Answer: (c) 4 1 2 3
Explanation:
- K.P. Singh is known for real estate
- Vikram Pandit is associated with banking
- Roopa Farooki is a fiction writer
- Kishore Biyani is a pioneer in retail business
The pairings reflect their professional domains.
80. Where was the World Summit on Sustainable Development (Rio+10) held?
(a) Davos
(b) Nova Scotia
(c) Johannesburg
(d) Shanghai
Answer: (c) Johannesburg
Explanation:
The World Summit on Sustainable Development, also known as Rio+10, was held in Johannesburg, South Africa in 2002, to review progress since the 1992 Rio Earth Summit and promote global sustainability goals.
81. Consider the following statements:
- Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits is one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms.
- Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to the Annex-I countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is indeed one of the Kyoto Protocol mechanisms, allowing Annex-I countries to invest in emission-reduction projects in developing countries. Statement 2 is incorrect because CDM projects are not limited to Annex-I countries; they are implemented in non-Annex I (developing) countries.
82. Which of the following are among the million-plus cities in India on the basis of data of the Census, 2001?
- Ludhiana
- Kochi
- Surat
- Nagpur
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
As per Census 2001, all four cities—Ludhiana, Kochi, Surat, and Nagpur—had populations exceeding one million, qualifying them as million-plus cities in India.
83. Which of the following are the public sector undertakings of the Government of India?
- Balmer Lawrie and Company Ltd.
- Dredging Corporation of India
- Educational Consultants of India Ltd.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All three entities—Balmer Lawrie, Dredging Corporation of India, and Educational Consultants of India Ltd.—are public sector undertakings under the Government of India, involved in logistics, infrastructure, and education consulting respectively.
84. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?
(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
Answer: (c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
Explanation:
The 92nd Amendment Act (2003) added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santali to the Eighth Schedule, increasing the total number of recognized languages to 22.
85. Consider the following statements:
The Constitution of India provides that:
- The Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.
- A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 2 is correct as per Article 173 of the Constitution, which sets 25 years as the minimum age for Legislative Assembly membership. Statement 1 is incorrect because the maximum strength is 500, not 450.
86. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
Prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs is included under Directive Principles (Article 47). However, prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour is covered under Fundamental Rights (Article 23), not Directive Principles.
87. How is the United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference, wherein the agreements were signed to set up IBRD, GATT and IMF, commonly known?
(a) Bandung Conference
(b) Bretton Woods Conference
(c) Versailles Conference
(d) Yalta Conference
Answer: (b) Bretton Woods Conference
Explanation:
The Bretton Woods Conference (1944) led to the creation of key global financial institutions like the IMF, IBRD (World Bank), and later influenced the formation of GATT, shaping the post-war economic order.
88. Where was the first desalination plant in India to produce one lakh litres freshwater per day based on low temperature thermal desalination principle commissioned?
(a) Kavaratti
(b) Port Blair
(c) Mangalore
(d) Valsad
Answer: (a) Kavaratti
Explanation:
The first low-temperature thermal desalination plant in India was commissioned at Kavaratti, the capital of Lakshadweep, to address freshwater scarcity using ocean thermal energy.
89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Institute — Location
- National Centre for Cell Science : Mysore
- Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics : Hyderabad
- National Brain Research Centre : Gurgaon
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics is located in Hyderabad
- National Brain Research Centre is in Gurgaon
- National Centre for Cell Science is actually in Pune, not Mysore
Hence, only pairs 2 and 3 are correct.
90. With which one of the following is BRIT (Government of India) engaged?
(a) Railway Wagons
(b) Information Technology
(c) Isotope Technology
(d) Road Transport
Answer: (c) Isotope Technology
Explanation:
BRIT (Board of Radiation and Isotope Technology) is a unit under the Department of Atomic Energy, engaged in radioisotope production, radiation processing, and nuclear medicine applications.
91. Who among the following used the phrase ‘Un-British’ to criticize the English colonial control of India?
(a) Anandmohan Bose
(b) Badruddin Tyabji
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Pherozeshah Mehta
Answer: (c) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation:
Dadabhai Naoroji, in his work “Poverty and Un-British Rule in India”, coined the term ‘Un-British’ to highlight the exploitative nature of British colonial policies. He was a pioneer in economic nationalism and a strong advocate for Indian self-rule.
92. Who among the following gave a systematic critique of the moderate politics of the Indian National Congress in a series of articles entitled ‘New Lamps for Old’?
(a) Aurobindo Ghosh
(b) R.C. Dutt
(c) Syed Ahmad Khan
(d) Viraraghavachari
Answer: (a) Aurobindo Ghosh
Explanation:
Aurobindo Ghosh wrote ‘New Lamps for Old’ to critique the moderate approach of the Indian National Congress. He argued for a more assertive and radical strategy in the freedom movement, laying the foundation for extremist politics.
93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Author)
A. Bankimchandra
B. Dinabandhu Mitra
C. Premchand
List-II (Work)
- Shatranj ke Khilari
- Debi Chaudhurani
- Nil-Darpan
- Chandrakanta
Codes:
(a) 2 4 1
(b) 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 3 1 4
Answer: (c) 2 3 1
Explanation:
- Bankimchandra authored Debi Chaudhurani
- Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Nil-Darpan, a play on indigo exploitation
- Premchand penned Shatranj ke Khilari, a story of nobility and decline
The matches reflect their literary contributions.
94. Where are Tapovan and Vishnugarh Hydroelectric Projects located?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Rajasthan
Answer: (c) Uttarakhand
Explanation:
The Tapovan and Vishnugarh Hydroelectric Projects are located in Uttarakhand, harnessing the Himalayan rivers for power generation. These projects are part of India’s push for renewable energy in the northern hill regions.
95. How is Sarosh Zaiwalla well-known?
(a) A leading theatre personality
(b) A leading wildlife photographer
(c) A leading international legal expert
(d) A leading orthopedic surgeon
Answer: (c) A leading international legal expert
Explanation:
Sarosh Zaiwalla is a prominent international lawyer, known for his work in arbitration and global legal affairs, especially in London’s legal circles. His clients have included governments and major corporations.
96. Bimbavati Devi is a well-known dancer of which type of dance?
(a) Manipuri
(b) Bharatnatyam
(c) Kuchipudi
(d) Odissi
Answer: (a) Manipuri
Explanation:
Bimbavati Devi is an acclaimed exponent of Manipuri dance, a classical form from Manipur, known for its graceful movements, mythological themes, and devotional expression.
97. Consider the following statements:
- Chikmagalur is well-known for sugar production.
- Mandya is well-known as a coffee-production region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
- Chikmagalur is famous for coffee, not sugar
- Mandya is known for sugarcane cultivation, not coffee
Hence, both statements are incorrect.
98. Ebrahim Alkazi is an eminent personality in which one of the following areas?
(a) Heart surgery
(b) Civil aviation
(c) Theatre
(d) Transport engineering
Answer: (c) Theatre
Explanation:
Ebrahim Alkazi was a legendary figure in Indian theatre, known for his role as Director of the National School of Drama and for modernizing stagecraft in India.
99. Consider the following statements:
- Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
- Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 only
Explanation:
Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was a Supreme Court judge, not the Chief Justice of India. He played a pioneering role in developing PIL, making justice accessible to the marginalized. Hence, only statement 2 is correct.
100. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Sabyasachi Mukherjee
B. Aniruddha Bahal
C. Vikram Akula
D. Yusuf Hamied
List-II (Area)
- Microfinance loans
- Pharmaceuticals
- Fashion designing
- Investigative journalism
Codes:
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 3 2 1 4
Answer: (b) 3 4 1 2
Explanation:
- Sabyasachi Mukherjee is a renowned fashion designer
- Aniruddha Bahal is known for investigative journalism (Tehelka)
- Vikram Akula is associated with microfinance (SKS Microfinance)
- Yusuf Hamied is a leader in pharmaceuticals (Cipla)
The pairings reflect their professional achievements.
101. For India, China, the UK and the USA, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the median age of their populations?
(a) China < India < UK < USA
(b) India < China < USA < UK
(c) China < India < USA < UK
(d) India < China < UK < USA
Answer: (b) India < China < USA < UK
Explanation:
India has the youngest population among the four, followed by China, then USA, and UK with the highest median age. This sequence reflects demographic transitions and aging trends in developed nations.
102. Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha constituency?
(a) Kangra
(b) Ladakh
(c) Kachchh
(d) Bhilwara
Answer: (b) Ladakh
Explanation:
Ladakh is the largest Lok Sabha constituency by area in India, covering vast mountainous terrain and sparse population, making it unique in electoral geography.
103. Consider the following statements:
- Ajman is one of the seven Emirates of the UAE.
- Ras al-Khaimah was the last Sheikhdom to join the UAE.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Ajman is indeed one of the seven Emirates of the United Arab Emirates. Ras al-Khaimah joined the UAE last, in 1972, after initial hesitation. Both statements are historically accurate.
104. India is a member of which of the following?
- Asian Development Bank
- Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
- Colombo Plan
- Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
India is a member of the Asian Development Bank and the Colombo Plan, but not a member of APEC or OECD. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
105. Which of the following countries share borders with Moldova?
- Ukraine
- Romania
- Belarus
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Moldova shares borders with Ukraine and Romania. It does not border Belarus, which lies further north. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
106. Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, four have been recognized on the World Network by UNESCO. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Sunderbans
Answer: (b) Kanchenjunga
Explanation:
As of the time of the exam, Kanchenjunga was not yet included in UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves, while Gulf of Mannar, Nanda Devi, and Sunderbans were recognized.
107. What is the purpose of the US Space Agency’s Themis Mission, which was recently in the news?
(a) To study the possibility of life on Mars
(b) To study the satellites of Saturn
(c) To study the colourful display of high latitude skies
(d) To build a space laboratory to study stellar explosions
Answer: (c) To study the colourful display of high latitude skies
Explanation:
The THEMIS Mission by NASA was designed to study auroras, the colourful light displays in high-latitude skies, caused by solar wind interactions with Earth’s magnetic field.
108. In which one of the following locations is the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) Project to be built?
(a) Northern Spain
(b) Southern France
(c) Eastern Germany
(d) Southern Italy
Answer: (b) Southern France
Explanation:
The ITER Project, a major international collaboration for nuclear fusion research, is being constructed in Cadarache, Southern France, aiming to develop clean energy through fusion technology.
109. Which one of the following is a spacecraft?
(a) Apophis
(b) Cassini
(c) Spitzer
(d) TechSar
Answer: (b) Cassini
Explanation:
Cassini was a spacecraft launched by NASA to study Saturn and its moons. Apophis is an asteroid, Spitzer is a space telescope, and TechSar is an Indian spy satellite.
110. What is the approximate percentage of persons above 65 years of age in India’s current population?
(a) 14–15%
(b) 11–12%
(c) 8–9%
(d) 5–6%
Answer: (c) 8–9%
Explanation:
At the time of the exam, the elderly population (65+) in India was approximately 8–9%, reflecting a gradual demographic shift toward aging, though still lower than in developed countries.
111. In the year 2007, an earthquake led to massive radioactive water leakage in the largest nuclear plant in the world. In which country did it occur?
(a) Germany
(b) Canada
(c) Japan
(d) USA
Answer: (c) Japan
Explanation:
In 2007, an earthquake near Kashiwazaki-Kariwa, the world’s largest nuclear power plant, caused a radioactive water leak in Japan. This incident raised concerns about nuclear safety in seismic zones.
112. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Rowlatt Act was passed?
(a) Lord Irwin
(b) Lord Reading
(c) Lord Chelmsford
(d) Lord Wavell
Answer: (c) Lord Chelmsford
Explanation:
The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919 during the tenure of Lord Chelmsford. It allowed the British government to detain individuals without trial, sparking widespread protests and unrest, including the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
113. Cristina Kirchner succeeded her husband to become President of a South American country. Which is that country?
(a) Chile
(b) Argentina
(c) Colombia
(d) Venezuela
Answer: (b) Argentina
Explanation:
Cristina Fernández de Kirchner became President of Argentina in 2007, succeeding her husband Néstor Kirchner. She was the first elected female president of Argentina and served two terms.
114. In order of their distance from the Sun, which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?
(a) Earth and Jupiter
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Saturn and Earth
(d) Saturn and Neptune
Answer: (b) Jupiter and Saturn
Explanation:
The correct planetary sequence from the Sun is:
Mars → Jupiter → Saturn → Uranus
Hence, the planets between Mars and Uranus are Jupiter and Saturn.
115. Which one of the following countries won the Euro Football Tournament, 2004 held in Portugal?
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Greece
(d) Portugal
Answer: (c) Greece
Explanation:
In a surprise victory, Greece won the UEFA Euro 2004 held in Portugal, defeating the host nation in the final match. It was one of the biggest upsets in football history.
116. Near which one of the following cities are Palitana Temples located?
(a) Bhavnagar
(b) Mount Abu
(c) Nasik
(d) Ujjain
Answer: (a) Bhavnagar
Explanation:
The Palitana Temples, a major Jain pilgrimage site, are located near Bhavnagar in Gujarat. The temple complex on Shatrunjaya Hill features hundreds of intricately carved temples.
117. Ogaden region has been a source of conflict between which countries?
(a) Morocco and Algeria
(b) Nigeria and Cameroon
(c) Angola and Zambia
(d) Ethiopia and Somalia
Answer: (d) Ethiopia and Somalia
Explanation:
The Ogaden region, located in eastern Ethiopia, has been a point of territorial dispute and ethnic conflict between Ethiopia and Somalia, especially during the Ogaden War of 1977–78.
118. Kim Dae-Jung won the Nobel Prize for Peace. He is from which one of the following countries?
(a) Vietnam
(b) Cambodia
(c) South Korea
(d) Japan
Answer: (c) South Korea
Explanation:
Kim Dae-Jung, the President of South Korea, won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2000 for his efforts to promote democracy and reconciliation with North Korea, including the Sunshine Policy.
119. Who among the following discovered heavy water?
(a) Heinrich Hertz
(b) H.C. Urey
(c) Bengali
(d) Malayalam
Answer: (b) H.C. Urey
Explanation:
Harold C. Urey, an American chemist, discovered heavy water (D₂O) in 1931, earning him the Nobel Prize in Chemistry. Heavy water is used in nuclear reactors as a neutron moderator.
120. Among the Indian languages, which one is spoken maximum in the world after Hindi?
(a) Telugu
(b) Tamil
(c) Bengali
(d) Malayalam
Answer: (c) Bengali
Explanation:
Bengali is the second most spoken Indian language globally after Hindi, due to its widespread use in India and Bangladesh, making it one of the top languages by native speakers worldwide.
121. Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?
(a) Passion flower plant
(b) Pitcher plant
(c) Night queen
(d) Flame of the forest
Answer: (b) Pitcher plant
Explanation:
The Pitcher plant is a classic example of an insectivorous plant. It traps insects in its pitcher-shaped leaves, which contain digestive enzymes to absorb nutrients, especially nitrogen, from prey.
122. For which one of the following snakes is the diet mainly composed of other snakes?
(a) Krait
(b) Russell’s viper
(c) Rattlesnake
(d) King cobra
Answer: (d) King cobra
Explanation:
The King cobra is unique among snakes for being ophiophagous, meaning it feeds primarily on other snakes, including venomous species. This behavior makes it a top predator in its habitat.
123. In which one of the following kinds of organisms is the phenomenon found wherein the female kills the male after copulation?
(a) Dragonfly
(b) Honeybee
(c) Spider
(d) Pit viper
Answer: (c) Spider
Explanation:
In certain spider species, especially black widows, the female often kills and consumes the male after mating. This behavior is known as sexual cannibalism, and is observed in arthropods.
124. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer: (b) 3
Explanation:
As of the exam year, three High Courts in India had jurisdiction over more than one State:
- Bombay High Court (Maharashtra, Goa)
- Guwahati High Court (Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh)
- Punjab and Haryana High Court (Punjab, Haryana)
125. Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world?
(a) Brazil
(b) China
(c) India
(d) USA
Answer: (c) India
Explanation:
India has the largest livestock population globally, including cattle, buffaloes, goats, and poultry. This is due to its agrarian economy and cultural practices involving animals.
126. Consider the following statements:
- Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
- Shrew and tapir are found in the Western Ghats of the Malabar region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
Salt-water crocodiles are found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. However, tapirs are not native to India; they are found in South America and Southeast Asia, making statement 2 incorrect.
127. Consider the following statements:
Tributary River — Main River
- Chambal : Narmada
- Sone : Yamuna
- Manas : Brahmaputra
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only
Explanation:
- Manas is a correct tributary of the Brahmaputra
- Chambal is a tributary of the Yamuna, not Narmada
- Sone is also a tributary of the Ganga, not Yamuna
Hence, only pair 3 is correctly matched.
128. Which of the following hills are found where the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats meet?
(a) Anaimalai Hills
(b) Cardamom Hills
(c) Nilgiri Hills
(d) Shevaroy Hills
Answer: (c) Nilgiri Hills
Explanation:
The Nilgiri Hills lie at the junction of the Eastern and Western Ghats, forming a biodiversity hotspot with rich flora and fauna. They are located in Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka.
129. Which one of the following is not essentially a species of the Himalayan vegetation?
(a) Juniper
(b) Mahogany
(c) Silver fir
(d) Spruce
Answer: (b) Mahogany
Explanation:
Mahogany is a tropical hardwood species, typically found in rainforests, not in Himalayan vegetation. The others—Juniper, Silver fir, and Spruce—are common in temperate Himalayan forests.
130. What is the number of spokes in the Dharma Chakra in the National Flag of India?
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 22
(d) 24
Answer: (d) 24
Explanation:
The Ashoka Chakra in the Indian National Flag has 24 spokes, symbolizing 24 virtues such as justice, courage, patience, and peace, derived from Buddhist philosophy.
131. Consider the following:
- Rice fields
- Coal mining
- Domestic animals
- Wetlands
Which of the above are sources of methane, a major greenhouse gas?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Methane emissions arise from multiple natural and human activities.
- Rice fields emit methane due to anaerobic decomposition in flooded soils.
- Coal mining releases methane trapped in coal seams.
- Domestic animals, especially ruminants, produce methane during digestion.
- Wetlands are natural methane sources due to microbial activity in waterlogged soils. All four are valid contributors.
132. From which one of the following did India buy the Barak anti-missile defence systems?
(a) Israel
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) USA
Answer: (a) Israel
Explanation:
India procured the Barak missile defence system from Israel, designed to intercept incoming missiles and aircraft. It enhances naval defence capabilities and reflects India-Israel strategic cooperation.
133. Selene-1, the lunar orbiter mission belongs to which one of the following?
(a) China
(b) European Union
(c) Japan
(d) USA
Answer: (c) Japan
Explanation:
Selene-1, also known as Kaguya, was a Japanese lunar orbiter mission launched by JAXA. It aimed to study the Moon’s surface and gravity, contributing to planetary science.
134. Recently, the manuscripts of which one of the following have been included in the UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register?
(a) Abhidhamma Pitaka
(b) Mahabharata
(c) Ramayana
(d) Rig-Veda
Answer: (d) Rig-Veda
Explanation:
The Rig-Veda manuscripts were recognized by UNESCO’s Memory of the World Register for their historical and cultural significance, being among the oldest known texts in Indo-European languages.
135. Consider the following statements:
- Orange Prize is awarded to a work of published fiction in English by a woman.
- Pulitzer Prize is awarded by the Commonwealth Foundation to a citizen of any Commonwealth country for any literary work in English.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only
Explanation:
The Orange Prize (now Women’s Prize for Fiction) is awarded to female authors for fiction in English. The Pulitzer Prize is awarded by Columbia University, USA—not the Commonwealth Foundation—making statement 2 incorrect.
136. In the series AABABCABCDABCDE…, which letter occupies the 100th position?
(a) H
(b) I
(c) J
(d) K
Answer: (b) I
Explanation:
The pattern adds one new letter per segment:
- AAB (3), ABC (3), ABCD (4), ABCDE (5)…
This forms an arithmetic progression. Calculating cumulative lengths, the 100th character falls in the segment ending with I, making I the correct answer.
137. What is the number of terms in the series 117, 120, 123, 126, …, 333?
(a) 72
(b) 73
(c) 76
(d) 79
Answer: (b) 73
Explanation:
This is an arithmetic progression with:
- First term (a) = 117
- Last term (l) = 333
- Common difference (d) = 3
Using the formula:
n = ((l – a)/d) + 1 = ((333 – 117)/3) + 1 = 73
So, there are 73 terms.
138. In how many different ways can four books A, B, C and D be arranged one above another in a vertical order such that the books A and B are never in continuous position?
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 16
Answer: (b) 12
Explanation:
Total arrangements of 4 books = 4! = 24
Arrangements where A and B are together = 2! × 3! = 12
So, arrangements where A and B are not together = 24 – 12 = 12
139. Carpenter A can make a chair in 6 hours, Carpenter B in 7 hours and Carpenter C in 8 hours. If each carpenter works for 8 hours per day, how many chairs will be made in 21 days?
(a) 61
(b) 67
(c) 73
(d) 79
Answer: (c) 73
Explanation:
Daily output:
- A: 8/6 = 1.33 chairs
- B: 8/7 ≈ 1.14 chairs
- C: 8/8 = 1 chair
Total per day ≈ 3.47 chairs
In 21 days: 3.47 × 21 ≈ 73 chairs
140. A person purchases 100 pens at a discount of 10%. The net amount spent is Rs. 600. Selling expenses are 15% on net cost price. What should be the selling price for 100 pens to earn a profit of 25%?
(a) Rs. 802.50
(b) Rs. 811.25
(c) Rs. 862.50
(d) Rs. 875
Answer: (c) Rs. 862.50
Explanation:
Net cost = Rs. 600
Selling expenses = 15% of 600 = Rs. 90
Total cost = 600 + 90 = Rs. 690
Desired profit = 25% of 690 = Rs. 172.50
Selling price = 690 + 172.50 = Rs. 862.50
141. A schoolteacher has to select the maximum possible number of different groups of 3 students out of a total of 6 students. In how many groups will any particular student be included?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Answer: (c) 10
Explanation:
Total number of 3-student groups from 6 students =
(^6C_3 = 20) groups
Each student appears in (^5C_2 = 10) combinations with other two students.
So, any particular student is included in 10 groups.
142. In an examination, 70% of the students passed in Paper I, and 60% passed in Paper II. 15% failed in both papers while 270 students passed in both. What is the total number of students?
(a) 600
(b) 580
(c) 560
(d) 540
Answer: (a) 600
Explanation:
Let total students = x
Passed in both = 270
Failed both = 15% of x = 0.15x
So, passed in at least one = x − 0.15x = 0.85x
Also, passed in at least one = Passed in I + Passed in II − Passed in both = 0.7x + 0.6x − 270 = 1.3x − 270
Equating: 0.85x = 1.3x − 270 → 0.45x = 270 → x = 600
143. What is Bisphenol A (BPA)?
(a) A medical test for detecting cancer
(b) A test for testing the use of drugs to improve performance by athletes
(c) A chemical used for the development of food-packaging materials
(d) A special type of alloy steel
Answer: (c) A chemical used for the development of food-packaging materials
Explanation:
Bisphenol A (BPA) is an industrial chemical used in plastic and resin manufacturing, especially in food containers and packaging. It has raised health concerns due to its estrogen-mimicking properties.
144. Which of the following pairs about India’s economic indicator and agricultural production (all in rounded figures) are correctly matched?
- GDP per capita (current prices): Rs. 37,000
- Rice: 180 million tons
- Wheat: 75 million tons
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- GDP per capita was approximately Rs. 37,000
- Wheat production was around 75 million tons
- Rice production was closer to 90–100 million tons, not 180
Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
145. March 1, 2008 was Saturday. Which day was it on March 1, 2002?
(a) Thursday
(b) Friday
(c) Saturday
(d) Sunday
Answer: (b) Friday
Explanation:
From 2002 to 2008, there are 6 years, including 2 leap years (2004, 2008).
Total extra days = 4 (normal years) + 2 (leap years) = 6 days
So, March 1, 2002 = Saturday − 6 days = Friday
146. In August 2006, the Government of India notified the Rural Electrification Policy. This policy aims at provision of access to all households by which year?
(a) 2008
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) 2012
Answer: (b) 2009
Explanation:
The Rural Electrification Policy (2006) targeted universal household access to electricity by 2009, aiming to improve rural infrastructure and quality of life.
147. As per India’s National Population Policy, 2000, by which one of the following years is it our long-term objective to achieve population stabilization?
(a) 2025
(b) 2035
(c) 2045
(d) 2055
Answer: (c) 2045
Explanation:
India’s National Population Policy (2000) set the long-term goal of achieving population stabilization by 2045, ensuring sustainable development and resource management.
148. Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Answer: (d) Ministry of Rural Development
Explanation:
The Biodiesel Mission was coordinated by the Ministry of Rural Development, focusing on jatropha cultivation and biofuel production to promote rural employment and energy security.
149. Consider the following statements with reference to Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS):
- All persons of 60 years or above belonging to households below poverty line in rural areas are eligible.
- The Central Assistance under this Scheme is at the rate of Rs. 300 per month per beneficiary. Under the Scheme, States have been urged to give matching amounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
- IGNOAPS applies to all BPL persons aged 65 and above, not 60
- The central assistance was Rs. 200 per month, not Rs. 300
Hence, both statements are incorrect.
150. What is the name of the scheme which provides training and skills to women in traditional and non-traditional trades?
(a) Kishori Shakti Yojana
(b) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
(c) Swayamsiddha
(d) Swawlamban
Answer: (d) Swawlamban
Explanation:
The Swawlamban Scheme aims to empower women by providing vocational training in both traditional and non-traditional trades, enhancing their economic independence and employability.