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UPSC Prelims 2017 Question Paper [Fully Solved]

September 6, 2025

Question 1: Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?
(a) Kakinada
(b) Motupalli
(c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)
(d) Nelluru

Answer: (b) Motupalli

Explanation:
Motupalli was a prominent seaport during the Kakatiya dynasty, serving as a vital hub for maritime trade. It was visited by Marco Polo, the Venetian traveler, which highlights its international significance. The port facilitated commercial exchanges and was strategically important for the kingdom’s economy and connectivity.

Question 2: With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
  2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
  3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:
The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) was launched by the European Union to strengthen cooperation with developing countries, especially LDCs and SIDS, on climate policy. It offers technical and financial support to help these countries integrate climate change into their development strategies. Statement 3 is incorrect because the WRI and WBCSD are not coordinators of GCCA; they are involved in separate climate-related initiatives.

Question 3: With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
  2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
Sautrantika and Sammitiya were sectarian schools of Buddhism, not Jainism. They emerged during the early doctrinal developments of Buddhist thought. The Sarvastivadin school held the view that dharmas (phenomenal constituents) exist in the past, present, and future—not wholly momentary, but persisting in a latent form. This philosophical stance was central to their interpretation of reality and time.

Question 4: Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

  1. Jordan
  2. Iraq
  3. Lebanon
  4. Syria
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:
The Mediterranean Sea borders Lebanon and Syria, both located on the eastern shore of the sea. Jordan and Iraq are landlocked with no direct access to the Mediterranean coastline. This question tests geographical precision regarding Middle Eastern coastal boundaries.

Question 5: With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
  2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4,00,000 crore at present.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is a fund created by the Government of India to catalyze infrastructure investment. It is not an organ of NITI Aayog, but operates independently with its own governing council. The proposed corpus is around Rs. 40,000 crore, not Rs. 4,00,000 crore. This question checks awareness of fiscal policy instruments.

Question 6: The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an
(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.
(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnership (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.
(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and infrastructure projects that have the potential to mobilize private investment.
(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the World.

Answer: (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnership (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.

Explanation:
The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a World Bank-led initiative that supports governments in structuring bankable infrastructure projects. It helps attract private and institutional capital through technical and advisory support. This initiative is crucial for PPP development in emerging economies.

Question 7: For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.

Answer: (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

Explanation:
To contest Lok Sabha elections, a person must be a citizen of India, at least 25 years old, and registered as an elector in any parliamentary constituency. Merely residing in India or being a citizen is not sufficient unless the name appears in the electoral roll.

Question 8: Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five states only.
  2. Western Ghats are spread over five states only.
  3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation:
The Himalayas span across more than five states including Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and parts of West Bengal and Assam. The Western Ghats extend over six states: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. Pulicat Lake, a brackish water lagoon, lies on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, making statement 3 correct.

Question 9: Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for
(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Answer: (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems

Explanation:
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of dissolved oxygen required by aerobic microorganisms to break down organic matter in water. Higher BOD indicates greater pollution, as more oxygen is consumed in decomposition. It is a key indicator of water quality.

Question 10: With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations Programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
  2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
  3. UN-Habitat contributed to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:
UN-Habitat is a UN programme focused on sustainable urban development and adequate shelter. It partners with a diverse range of stakeholders including NGOs, academia, private sector, not just governments and local authorities—making statement 2 incorrect. It also works to reduce poverty and improve access to water and sanitation, aligning with broader UN development goals.

Question 11: With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

  1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.
  2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
The NSQF allows certification through formal, non-formal, and informal learning, making Statement 1 incorrect. It promotes horizontal and vertical mobility between vocational and general education, enabling learners to move across different levels and sectors of learning. This flexibility and integration are key outcomes of NSQF.

Question 12: In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to
(a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.
(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.
(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.
(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

Answer: (d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories

Explanation:
Dyarchy was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919, dividing provincial subjects into ‘transferred’ and ‘reserved’ categories. Transferred subjects were administered by ministers responsible to the legislature, while reserved subjects remained under the control of the Governor and his executive council. This system aimed to gradually introduce responsible government in British India.

Question 13: Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Services’:

  1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
  2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
The National Career Service (NCS) is an initiative of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Department of Personnel and Training—making Statement 1 incorrect. It aims to enhance employment opportunities, especially for underprivileged and uneducated youth, through career counseling, job matching, and skill development.

Question 14: Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?
(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
(d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.

Answer: (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.

Explanation:
The S4A scheme, launched by the Reserve Bank of India, aims to restructure large stressed loans by bifurcating them into sustainable and unsustainable portions. The sustainable part continues as standard debt, while the unsustainable portion is converted into equity or quasi-equity instruments, helping lenders recover dues if the borrower revives.

Question 15: Consider the following statements:

  1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
  2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
The CCAC is a global partnership involving governments, NGOs, and international organizations, not limited to the G20—making Statement 1 incorrect. It targets short-lived climate pollutants like methane, black carbon, and HFCs, which have a high global warming potential but shorter atmospheric lifespans.

Question 16: With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
  2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
IOD is a climate phenomenon involving temperature differences between the western and eastern Indian Ocean, not the Pacific—making Statement 1 incorrect. A positive IOD can counteract the negative effects of El Niño on the Indian monsoon, while a negative IOD can worsen drought conditions.

Question 17: If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat Lake
(d) Deepor Beel

Answer: (b) Chambal River

Explanation:
The Chambal River, flowing through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh, is home to the critically endangered gharial, a long-snouted crocodilian. The National Chambal Sanctuary protects this species along with the Ganges river dolphin and red-crowned roof turtle.

Question 18: Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

  1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
  2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
The Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) is a voluntary initiative launched in 2008, not 2015—making Statement 1 incorrect. It aims to enhance maritime cooperation among Indian Ocean littoral states, promoting dialogue on security and strategic issues.

Question 19: The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at
(a) Ajanta
(b) Badami
(c) Bagh
(d) Ellora

Answer: (a) Ajanta

Explanation:
The Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra house exquisite Buddhist murals, including the iconic Bodhisattva Padmapani in Cave 1. This painting features graceful posture, delicate ornamentation, and spiritual symbolism, representing the compassionate aspect of the Buddha.

Question 20: Consider the following pairs:
Traditions — Communities

  1. Chaliha Sahib Festival — Sindhis
  2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra — Gonds
  3. Wari-Warkari — Santhals
    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) None of the above

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
The Chaliha Sahib Festival is celebrated by the Sindhi community, involving 40 days of fasting and devotion. The Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra is associated with Garhwali communities in Uttarakhand, not Gonds. The Wari-Warkari pilgrimage is linked to Marathi devotees of Vithoba, not Santhals.

Question 21: Which of the following statements can help in water conservation in agriculture?

  1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land
  2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field
  3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All three practices contribute to water conservation in agriculture.

  • Zero tillage reduces soil disturbance, improving moisture retention and reducing evaporation.
  • Gypsum application enhances soil structure and drainage, increasing water-use efficiency.
  • Crop residue retention acts as a mulch, reducing runoff and evaporation, and improving soil organic matter.

Question 22: The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

  1. Expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
  2. Enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
  3. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation:
The Soil Health Card Scheme provides farmers with field-specific information on soil nutrients and recommendations for balanced fertilizer use.

  • It aims to reduce overuse of fertilizers, improving soil fertility and productivity.
  • It does not directly expand irrigation or serve as a loan assessment tool for banks.

Question 23: Consider the following pairs:
Commonly used/consumed materials — Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them

  1. Lipstick — Lead
  2. Soft drinks — Brominated vegetable oils
  3. Chinese fast food — Monosodium glutamate
    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All three pairs are correctly matched:

  • Lead is a known contaminant in some lipsticks, raising health concerns.
  • Brominated vegetable oils are used in some soft drinks to stabilize citrus flavors, though banned in several countries.
  • Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is widely used in Chinese fast food to enhance flavor, though controversial for its neuro-excitatory effects.

Question 24: Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?

  1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
  2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
  3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 3
    (d) None of the above

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
OLED technology offers several advantages over LCDs:

  • It allows fabrication on flexible substrates, enabling bendable and rollable displays.
  • OLEDs can be embedded in clothing and other surfaces due to their thin and flexible nature.
  • They can produce transparent displays as they do not require a backlight, unlike LCDs.

Question 25: Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

  1. Arasavalli
  2. Amarakantak
  3. Omkareshwar
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

  • Arasavalli in Andhra Pradesh is known for its Sun temple, dedicated to Surya.
  • Amarakantak and Omkareshwar are not associated with Sun temples; they are known for pilgrimage sites and Shiva temples.

Question 26: Consider the following statements:

  1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
  2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

  • India follows the First-Past-The-Post (FPTP) system, where the candidate with the highest number of votes wins, regardless of percentage.
  • The Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by Lok Sabha members; there is no constitutional mandate that they must belong to specific parties.

Question 27: Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?

  1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
  2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
  3. FDI inflows increased.
  4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 and 4 only
    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:
Post-1991 liberalization led to:

  • Increased exports, improving India’s share in global trade.
  • Surge in FDI inflows, due to economic reforms.
  • Foreign exchange reserves rose significantly.
  • However, the share of agriculture in GDP declined, making Statement 1 incorrect.

Question 28: What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?
(a) Production of biolarvicides
(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(c) Reproductive cloning of animals
(d) Production of organisms free of diseases

Answer: (c) Reproductive cloning of animals

Explanation:
Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT) involves transferring the nucleus of a somatic cell into an enucleated egg cell, leading to the creation of a genetically identical organism.

  • It was used in cloning Dolly the sheep, the first mammal cloned from an adult cell.

Question 29: Consider the following statements:

  1. National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
  2. NPCI has been incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956.
  3. NPCI launched the RuPay card payment scheme.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All three statements are correct:

  • NPCI promotes financial inclusion through digital payment systems.
  • It was incorporated under the Companies Act, 1956.
  • It launched RuPay, India’s domestic card payment network.

Question 30: The term ‘M-STRIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways

Answer: (b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves

Explanation:
M-STRIPES stands for Monitoring System for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status.

  • It is a mobile-based software launched by the National Tiger Conservation Authority to monitor patrols, habitat, and tiger movements in reserves.
  • It enhances protection and data collection for tiger conservation.

Question 31: What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

  1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
  2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
  3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is designed to unify India’s indirect tax system, replacing multiple state and central taxes with a single national tax, thereby creating a common market. Statements 2 and 3 are exaggerated and speculative—GST does not directly impact current account deficit or guarantee overtaking China’s economy.

Question 32: ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and
(a) European Union
(b) Gulf Cooperation Council
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization

Answer: (a) European Union

Explanation:
The BTIA is a proposed Free Trade Agreement between India and the European Union, aiming to enhance trade and investment flows. Negotiations have been ongoing for years, focusing on market access, services, and investment protection.

Question 33: Consider the following statements:

  1. India has ratified to Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
  2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
  3. TFA came into force in January 2016.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:
India ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) in April 2016, and it came into force globally in February 2017, not January 2016. The TFA was part of the Bali Package adopted at the WTO Ministerial Conference in 2013, aiming to simplify customs procedures and boost global trade.

Question 34: What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Answer: (c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia

Explanation:
The Chabahar Port in Iran provides India with a strategic alternative route to access Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan. It enhances connectivity and trade with the region and supports India’s geopolitical interests.

Question 35: In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?

  1. Service providers
  2. Data centres
  3. Body corporate
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, it is mandatory for service providers, data centres, and body corporates to report cyber security incidents to CERT-In (Indian Computer Emergency Response Team). Failure to comply can lead to penalties.

Question 36: Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right
(d) Legal Right

Answer: (d) Legal Right

Explanation:
The right to vote and contest elections in India is a statutory/legal right, governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1951. It is not a fundamental right, although it is essential for democratic participation.

Question 37: What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project?
(a) To detect neutrinos
(b) To detect gravitational waves
(c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system
(d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems

Answer: (b) To detect gravitational waves

Explanation:
The eLISA project is a space-based observatory designed to detect gravitational waves—ripples in spacetime caused by massive cosmic events like black hole mergers. It uses laser interferometry to measure minute distortions in space.

Question 38: What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’?

  1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
  2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
  3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 2 only
    (b) 3 only
    (c) 1 and 2 only
    (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 2 only

Explanation:
Vidyanjali Yojana is a volunteer-based initiative to improve learning outcomes in government schools by involving private individuals and organizations. It focuses on non-monetary contributions like mentoring, skill development, and co-curricular support.

Question 39: What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?
(a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities.
(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.
(c) Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.
(d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.

Answer: (b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies

Explanation:
Unnat Bharat Abhiyan aims to link higher education institutions like IITs and NITs with rural communities to solve developmental challenges using appropriate technologies and innovations. It promotes grassroots engagement and sustainable development.

Question 40: Consider the following statements:

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation:
The Election Commission of India is a three-member body (Chief Election Commissioner + two Election Commissioners). The election schedule is decided by the Election Commission, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. The Commission also resolves disputes related to splits and mergers of political parties.

Question 41: In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

Answer: (a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.

Explanation:
Species listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 receive the highest level of legal protection in India. This includes strict penalties for hunting or harming such species. The protection level is equivalent to that of iconic species like the tiger, ensuring their conservation priority.

Question 42: In India, Judicial Review implies
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

Answer: (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

Explanation:
Judicial Review refers to the authority of courts to examine whether laws and executive actions are in conformity with the Constitution. If found unconstitutional, they can be struck down. This power ensures checks and balances in a democracy and protects fundamental rights.

Question 43: With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:

  1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
  2. Quit India Movement launched
  3. Second Round Table Conference
    What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
    (a) 1-2-3
    (b) 2-1-3
    (c) 3-2-1
    (d) 3-1-2

Answer: (c) 3-2-1

Explanation:

  • Second Round Table Conference: 1931
  • Quit India Movement: 1942
  • Royal Indian Navy Mutiny: 1946
    This sequence reflects the progression of resistance against British rule, from dialogue to mass movement to armed rebellion.

Question 44: Consider the following statements:

  1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

  • Tax revenue as a percent of GDP has shown fluctuations, not a steady increase.
  • Fiscal deficit has also varied, with efforts to reduce it in certain years.
    Hence, both statements are factually incorrect when assessed over the entire decade.

Question 45: Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Sariska National Park

Answer: (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary

Explanation:
Kuno Palpur in Madhya Pradesh was identified as a potential site for translocating Asiatic lions from Gir, Gujarat. The move aimed to reduce risk from disease or natural disasters by creating a second habitat, but faced resistance from Gujarat.

Question 46: Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?

  1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
  2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
  3. Dissolution of the local bodies
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • President’s Rule leads to dismissal of the Council of Ministers, but dissolution of the Assembly is not mandatory—it may be suspended.
  • Local bodies operate under state laws and are not directly affected by President’s Rule.
    Hence, 1 and 3 are not necessary consequences.

Question 47: Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

  1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
  2. Abolition of untouchability
  3. Protection of the interests of minorities
  4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only

Explanation:
The Right against Exploitation includes:

  • Article 23: Prohibits human trafficking and forced labour
  • Article 24: Prohibits child labour in hazardous industries
    Untouchability and minority rights fall under different fundamental rights.

Question 48: Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?
(a) Sumatra
(b) Borneo
(c) Java
(d) Sri Lanka

Answer: (a) Sumatra

Explanation:
Great Nicobar, the southernmost island of India, lies very close to Sumatra, Indonesia—just about 180 km away. This proximity has strategic importance for maritime security and disaster alerts.

Question 49: Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answer: (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

Explanation:
The Cabinet system ensures that the executive is collectively responsible to the legislature. This principle is central to parliamentary democracy, promoting accountability and transparency.

Question 50: Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Answer: (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Explanation:
India is described as a Union of States, not a federation formed by agreement. The Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly, and states do not have the right to secede. This makes Indian federalism unique and centrally tilted.

Question 51: The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to
(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.
(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.
(c) Impose censorship on national press.
(d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

Answer: (d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States

Explanation:
The Butler Committee was established in 1927 to examine the relationship between the Indian States and the British Government. It recommended that the Crown, not the Government of India, should be the source of political relations with the princely states. This was to protect the autonomy of the princely rulers from being overridden by a future Indian government.

Question 52: The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
(a) Developing solar power production in our country
(b) Granting licenses to foreign T.V. channels in our country
(c) Exporting our food products to other countries
(d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

Answer: (a) Developing solar power production in our country

Explanation:
The Domestic Content Requirement (DCR) mandates the use of locally manufactured solar components in certain government-backed solar projects. It was part of India’s National Solar Mission, aiming to boost domestic manufacturing. The policy faced challenges under WTO rules, but remains relevant for energy security and local industry support.

Question 53: Consider the following statements:

  1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
  2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
The Nuclear Security Summits were initiated by the United States, not the United Nations, to address nuclear terrorism and secure nuclear materials. The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) is an independent group of experts, not an organ of the IAEA. Both statements are factually incorrect.

Question 54: Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
(a) Resident Indian citizens only
(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments
(d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004

Answer: (c) All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments

Explanation:
The National Pension System (NPS) is applicable to:

  • Central Government employees (except Armed Forces) joining after 1st January 2004
  • State Government employees joining after notification by respective states
  • All Indian citizens aged 18–60 years
    Hence, option (c) is correct, while (d) is incorrect due to exclusion of Armed Forces.

Question 55: With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

  1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
  2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
  3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Teesta River originates from the Pahunri glacier, not the same as Brahmaputra.
  • Rangeet River, originating in Sikkim, is a tributary of Teesta.
  • Teesta merges with Brahmaputra, not directly into the Bay of Bengal.
    Only statement 2 is correct.

Question 56: Consider the following statements:

  1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
  2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

  • Zika virus is transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, the same genus that spreads dengue.
  • It can also be sexually transmitted, making both statements correct.
    Zika gained global attention due to its link with birth defects.

Question 57: Consider the following statements:

  1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
  2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

  • BIS certification is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes to ensure safety and quality.
  • AGMARK is issued by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, under the Government of India, not by FAO.
    Statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 58: What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?

  1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
  2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) is a pan-India electronic platform integrating APMCs to create a unified market. It enables transparent price discovery, quality-based pricing, and nationwide access for farmers. Both statements are correct.

Question 59: With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

  1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
  2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The National IPR Policy (2016) affirms India’s commitment to TRIPS and Doha Agenda, while ensuring flexibilities for development. The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), formerly DIPP, is the nodal agency for IPR regulation. Both statements are correct.

Question 60: According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

  1. Gharial
  2. Indian wild ass
  3. Wild buffalo
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All three species—Gharial, Indian wild ass, and Wild buffalo—are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, granting them absolute protection. Hunting is prohibited, except under special provisions for scientific or management purposes.

Question 61: Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

  1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
  2. They are correlative to legal duties.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are non-justiciable, meaning there is no legislative mechanism to enforce them directly. They are moral obligations, not legally binding, and are not correlative to legal duties. Their purpose is to promote civic responsibility and national integrity.

Question 62: Consider the following pairs:

  1. Radhakanta Deb – First President of the British Indian Association
  2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty – Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
  3. Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian Association
    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Radhakanta Deb was indeed the first President of the British Indian Association.
  • Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty founded the Madras Native Association, not the Madras Mahajana Sabha.
  • Surendranath Banerjee co-founded the Indian Association in 1876.
    Thus, only pairs 1 and 3 are correct.

Question 63: Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief

Answer: (b) Economic liberty

Explanation:
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution guarantees liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship, but it does not explicitly mention economic liberty. Economic justice is addressed under Justice, not Liberty.

Question 64: With reference to the ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:

  1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
  2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The Quality Council of India (QCI) was established jointly by the Government of India and Indian industry associations like CII, FICCI, and ASSOCHAM. The Chairman is appointed by the Prime Minister based on industry recommendations, making both statements correct.

Question 65: What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?

  1. To supply credit to small business units
  2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
  3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Small Finance Banks (SFBs) aim to promote financial inclusion by providing credit and savings services to small business units, marginal farmers, and entrepreneurs, especially in rural and underserved areas. All three objectives are valid.

Question 66: With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:

  1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
  2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006, but the theme was ‘A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020’, not the one mentioned. Also, India does not host all annual conferences, and ADB, APEC, ASEAN are not formal partners in hosting. So only statement 1 is partially correct.

Question 67: Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women
(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision
(d) a band of dedicated party workers

Answer: (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women

Explanation:
Democracy is built on the principle of popular participation, where the intelligence and character of ordinary citizens shape governance. It empowers people to engage, question, and influence public policy, making it inclusive and accountable.

Question 68: Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?
(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments
(b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades
(c) FDI inflows will drastically increase
(d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective

Answer: (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments

Explanation:
UPI allows direct bank-to-bank transfers using mobile apps, reducing the need for intermediary wallets. While it facilitates digital payments, it does not guarantee complete replacement of physical currency or directly influence FDI inflows.

Question 69: The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe
(b) Study of the solar and lunar eclipses
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the earth

Answer: (a) Observation and understanding of the Universe

Explanation:
These terms relate to cosmology and theoretical physics:

  • Event Horizon: boundary around a black hole
  • Singularity: point of infinite density
  • String Theory: theoretical framework for fundamental particles
  • Standard Model: theory describing fundamental forces and particles
    All are central to understanding the Universe.

Question 70: With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

  1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
  2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
  3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Genome sequencing enables scientists to:

  • Identify genetic traits like disease resistance and drought tolerance
  • Accelerate breeding cycles by targeting specific genes
  • Understand host-pathogen interactions, aiding in crop protection
    It is a powerful tool for agricultural innovation and resilience.

Question 71: The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Answer: (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature

Explanation:
In a parliamentary system, the executive is accountable to the legislature, ensuring collective responsibility. This fosters transparency and responsiveness, as ministers must answer to elected representatives. The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers can be removed by a vote of no confidence, reinforcing this principle.

Question 72: In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Answer: (a) Rights are correlative with Duties

Explanation:
In Indian constitutional philosophy, rights and duties are interlinked. Every right implies a corresponding duty—for example, the right to freedom of speech carries the duty to respect others’ dignity. This balance ensures social harmony and civic responsibility.

Question 73: The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties

Answer: (a) The Preamble

Explanation:
The Preamble encapsulates the core values and vision of the Constitution’s framers. It declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic, and outlines goals like justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. It serves as a guiding light for interpreting constitutional provisions.

Question 74: If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

Answer: (b) 7

Explanation:
The shortest road route from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala) typically passes through:

  • Nagaland
  • Assam
  • West Bengal
  • Odisha
  • Andhra Pradesh
  • Tamil Nadu
  • Kerala
    This totals 7 states, assuming optimal routing.

Question 75: The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

  1. Adjournment motion
  2. Questions hour
  3. Supplementary questions
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Parliament exercises control through various tools:

  • Adjournment motion allows discussion on urgent public matters.
  • Question Hour enables MPs to seek accountability.
  • Supplementary questions follow up on initial queries, probing deeper.
    These mechanisms ensure executive accountability.

Question 76: With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

  1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
  2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

  • A private member’s bill is introduced by any MP who is not a minister, whether elected or nominated.
  • Several private member bills have been passed in history, though rarely. The first successful one was in 1968, not recently.
    Hence, both statements are incorrect.

Question 77: With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
  2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
  3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having aware of this animal.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Rigvedic Aryans used helmets and mail, indicating advanced warfare tools.
  • They had domesticated horses, central to their mobility and rituals.
  • Indus Valley people knew gold and silver, but no evidence of iron exists.
    So, statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 78: ‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
(a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
(b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
(c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
(d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.

Answer: (a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels

Explanation:
The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) scheme under PMKVY certifies informal skills acquired through experience or traditional methods, especially in sectors like construction, apparel, and manufacturing. It helps workers gain formal recognition and better employment prospects.

Question 79: From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

Answer: (a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

Explanation:
The Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu lies at the junction of Eastern and Western Ghats, forming a critical wildlife corridor. It supports biodiversity exchange and movement of species like elephants and tigers, enhancing genetic diversity.

Question 80: One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology

Answer: (a) Privileges

Explanation:
Equality implies that no individual or group enjoys special privileges based on birth, caste, class, or status. It ensures equal opportunities and treatment, fostering a just and inclusive society. Privileges contradict the principle of equality.

Question 81: Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

  1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
TRAFFIC is a global NGO working to ensure that wildlife trade does not threaten biodiversity. It was established by WWF and IUCN, not UNEP. Its mission focuses on sustainable trade practices and conservation of nature, making only statement 2 correct.

Question 82: Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Answer: (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 introduced Article 43A, which directs the State to ensure worker participation in industrial management. This principle promotes industrial democracy and aligns with the goal of social justice in the Constitution.

Question 83: Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

Answer: (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State

Explanation:
Fundamental Rights empower citizens to challenge State actions that violate their freedoms. They are legal entitlements enforceable by courts, ensuring that the State remains accountable to its people.

Question 84: Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization

Answer: (a) World Economic Forum

Explanation:
The Global Gender Gap Index is published by the World Economic Forum. It evaluates countries based on gender parity in economic participation, education, health, and political empowerment, offering a comparative global ranking.

Question 85: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
  2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
  3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
Smart India Hackathon 2017 was a nationwide innovation challenge that invited students to develop digital solutions for real-world problems posed by various government departments. It was not related to the Smart Cities Mission or aimed at digitizing all financial transactions.

Question 86: Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the ‘Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

  1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
  2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
  3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a six-member body chaired by the RBI Governor. It sets the repo rate to control inflation. It is not reconstituted annually, and the Finance Minister is not its chairperson, making only statement 1 correct.

Question 87: With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a song and dance performance.
  2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
  3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1, 2 and 3
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:
Manipuri Sankirtana is a ritualistic song and dance tradition performed in temples and homes to narrate the life of Lord Krishna. It uses multiple instruments, including drums and cymbals, so statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 88: Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British Rule?

  1. Lord Cornwallis
  2. Alexander Read
  3. Thomas Munro
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
The Ryotwari System was introduced in Madras Presidency by Alexander Read and later developed by Thomas Munro. Lord Cornwallis was associated with the Zamindari System, making statement 1 incorrect.

Question 89: In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

  1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
  2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
  3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:
Bioremediation enhances natural microbial processes to clean pollutants. Genetically engineered microbes can be tailored for specific contaminants. However, heavy metals like cadmium and lead are not easily degraded biologically, making statement 2 incorrect.

Question 90: The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for
(a) the participation of workers in the management of industries.
(b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.
(c) an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.
(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

Answer: (d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes

Explanation:
The Trade Disputes Act, 1929 established tribunals for resolving industrial disputes and restricted strikes, especially in public utility services, unless prior notice was given. It aimed to curb labour unrest during colonial rule.

Question 91: Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralization
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy

Answer: (b) Democratic decentralization

Explanation:
Local self-government in India is rooted in the principle of democratic decentralization, where decision-making powers are transferred to elected bodies at the grassroots level. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments institutionalized Panchayati Raj and Urban Local Bodies, empowering citizens to participate directly in governance.

Question 92: Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

  1. legislative function.
  2. executive function.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are non-justiciable guidelines for the State to promote social and economic welfare. They do not impose legal limitations on the legislature or executive. Instead, they serve as moral obligations, guiding policy-making without being enforceable in courts.

Question 93: The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to
(a) ASEAN
(b) BRICS
(c) EU
(d) G20

Answer: (c) EU

Explanation:
The Digital Single Market Strategy is an initiative of the European Union (EU) aimed at integrating digital services and e-commerce across member states. It seeks to remove barriers, enhance cybersecurity, and promote digital innovation, making the EU a unified digital economy.

Question 94: At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at
(a) Bhavnagar
(b) Bheemunipatnam
(c) Chandipur
(d) Nagapattinam

Answer: (c) Chandipur

Explanation:
Chandipur Beach in Odisha exhibits a rare phenomenon where the sea recedes up to 5 km during low tide, exposing the sea floor. This occurs twice daily, allowing visitors to walk on the seabed. It’s known as the “Hide and Seek Beach” due to this unique tidal behavior.

Question 95: With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:

  1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
  2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
  3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
Under the PBPT Act, benami properties are subject to confiscation by the government.

  • Statement 1 is incorrect because lack of awareness does not exempt a transaction from being classified as benami.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect as the Act provides for an Appellate Tribunal to hear appeals.
    Only statement 2 is correct.

Question 96: Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?

  1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
  2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
  3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:
Butterflies play a vital role in pollination and serve as prey for many species like birds and spiders. A decline in their population can disrupt ecosystems and food chains. However, they do not directly influence fungal infections, making statement 2 incorrect.

Question 97: It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

  1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
  2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuels production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is complete.
  3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: Algae biofuel can be produced on land using ponds or photobioreactors.
  • Statement 2 is correct: It requires advanced technology and expertise.
  • Statement 3 is correct: Large-scale production may lead to ecological and social challenges, such as land use conflicts and water consumption.

Question 98: Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?

  1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
  2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
  3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
  4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    (d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:
The National Nutrition Mission (POSHAN Abhiyaan) aims to address malnutrition and anaemia, especially among women and children. It focuses on awareness, monitoring, and convergence of services. Promotion of specific food items like millets or eggs is not a direct objective.

Question 99: Consider the following statements:

  1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
  2. N. M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The Factories Act, 1881 regulated working hours and child labour, but did not address wages or trade unions.
  • Statement 2 is correct: Narayan Meghaji Lokhande was a pioneer of the labour movement, advocating for workers’ rights in colonial India.

Question 100: In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be potential sites for carbon sequestration?

  1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
  2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
  3. Direct injection of carbon dioxide in the ocean
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Carbon sequestration involves capturing CO₂ and storing it in geological formations or oceans.

  • Coal seams and depleted reservoirs offer underground storage.
  • Ocean injection is a method of marine sequestration, though it raises ecological concerns. All three are valid options.