1. Why did Krishnan decide to leave his village ?
(A) As he could not find much work in his own village and his family” had to starve sometimes because of it
(B) As his family had requested him to do so
(C) As his village people had asked him to leave their village and look for work somewhere else
(D) As he wanted to search for food in a village different from his own
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Krishnan decided to leave his village because he could not find enough work and his family had to go without food at times. This shows that economic hardship and lack of employment were the driving factors behind his decision to search for work elsewhere.
2. Why did the jaguar, the monkey and the snake tell Krishnan, not to save the man in the well ?
(A) As the man in the well was a goldsmith
(B) As the man in the well had. cheated the snake, the monkey and the jaguar
(C) As the snake, the monkey and the jaguar hated the man as they had known him for a very long time
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The passage does not mention any specific reason given by the jaguar, monkey, or snake for not saving the man. Although Krishnan was initially afraid of their nature, he eventually helped all of them including the man. Therefore, none of the listed options accurately reflect the reason stated in the passage.
3. Why was Krishnan afraid to save Naagesh from the well ?
(A) As Naagesh had threatened him with dire consequences
(B) As he thought Naagesh would eat him
(C) As he thought Naagesh would bite him once he was out of the well
(D) As he thought that Naagesh would capture, him as soon as he got out of the well
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Krishnan was initially afraid to help Naagesh, the snake, because he thought Naagesh would bite him once rescued. This fear stemmed from the natural instinctive caution towards snakes and their perceived danger.
4. Why did Krishnan go to meet Seth Ghanshyamdas ?
(A) As he thought that Seth Ghanshyamdas could help him in selling the ornaments gifted to him by Shersingh
(B) As he knew that Seth Ghanshyam-das had contact with the King which could prove to be beneficial
(C) As Seth Ghanshyamdas had requested Krishnan to sell ornaments only to him
(D) As Krishnan extremely fond of Seth Ghanshyamdas
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Krishnan went to meet Seth Ghanshyamdas because he believed the goldsmith could help him sell the ornaments gifted by Shersingh. This was a practical decision based on Seth’s profession and expertise.
5. What did Bali, do after seeing Krishnan at his house ?
(1) He gave Krishnan directions to Shersingh’s house.
(2) He welcomed Krishnan to his house.
(3) He offered tasty fruits to Krishnan.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Bali, the monkey, was overjoyed to see Krishnan. He welcomed him warmly and offered delicious fruits, showing gratitude and hospitality. There is no mention of giving directions to Shersingh’s house.
6. When did Sheela and Jairam decide to sell the cow ?
(A) They had spent all their money on Jairam’s sickness and needed more money
(B) They were fed up of the four bullies and wanted to teach them a lesson
(C) They wanted to invite the four bullies for lunch and needed money for buying the ingredients
(D) None of the options
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Sheela and Jairam decided to sell the cow because all their money was spent on Jairam’s medical treatment, and they needed funds for further expenses. This reflects their financial desperation.
7. Why was Jairam reluctant to sell the rabbit ?
(A) He only pretended to be reluctant in order to fool the bullies
(B) He was fond of the little rabbit and did not want to sell it to the bullies
(C) None of the options
(D) He wanted to sell the rabbit in the market and get a better price for it
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Jairam’s reluctance was a clever act to make the rabbit seem more valuable and convince the bullies to pay a higher price. It was part of his strategic plan to recover the loss from the stolen cow.
8. Which of the following may be an appropriate title to the passage ?
(A) Magic in the air
(B) Never steal a cow
(C) The strongest bodyguard
(D) None of the options
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The phrase “Magic in the air” is repeatedly used by the bullies and later by Jairam to mock their gullibility. It captures the central theme of deception and cleverness in the story.
9. What did Sheela do after reaching the market empty handed ?
(A) Determined to earn money, she managed to sell the rope that she was left with
(B) She returned home dejected and narrated the whole incident to her husband
(C) She bought two rabbits and devised a plan to get back at the bullies
(D) None of the options
Answer: (B)
Explanation: After realizing she had nothing but a rope, Sheela returned home disappointed and shared the incident with Jairam. This led to the clever plan that followed.
10. Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order as they occurred in the passage :
- Jairam and Sheela needed money
- The four bullies sent the rabbit to the landlord
- Sheela cooked chapattis; vegetable and kheer
- The four bullies tied a log of wood to the rope
(A) 1, 4, 2, 3
(B) 1, 3, 4, 2
(C) 1, 4, 3, 2
(D) None of the options
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The correct sequence is:
First, Jairam and Sheela needed money due to illness.
Second, the bullies played tricks, replacing the cow with various objects including a log of wood.
Third, Sheela cooked food as instructed by Jairam.
Fourth, the bullies sent the rabbit to the landlord, leading to their punishment.
11. When your text says that interpersonal communication can be thought of as a constellation of behaviours, it means that :
(A) It is important to understand the joint actions people perform when they are together
(B) It is important to understand how people label and evaluate relationships
(C) It is important to understand the opposing forces that pull communicators in different directions
(D) Inter-personal communication is not a constellation of behaviour
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The phrase refers to interpersonal communication as a set of joint actions, emphasizing how people interact together rather than in isolation. It highlights the dynamic and collaborative nature of communication.
12. A letter that completes a valid contract between a buyer and a seller is called :
(A) An order letter
(B) An acknowledgement letter
(C) An inquiry
(D) A sales letter
Answer: (B)
Explanation: An acknowledgement letter confirms the acceptance of terms, thereby completing the contractual agreement. It serves as a formal confirmation between buyer and seller.
13. In order to understand verbal and non-verbal communication which of the following things should we do ?
(A) Accept cultural differences
(B) Studying your own culture
(C) Learn about other cultures
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Understanding communication requires awareness of cultural contexts, including your own and others’ cultures, and the ability to accept differences. This ensures effective and respectful interaction.
14. It refers to the behavioural characteristic, typical of a group. It can be defined as all the ways of life including arts, beliefs and institutions of a population that are passed down from generation to generation. Match this statement with one of the following concepts :
(A) Culture
(B) Communication
(C) Social lag
(D) Norms
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The statement describes culture, which encompasses shared practices, beliefs, and values passed through generations. It defines the identity and behaviour of a group.
15. They maintain friendly, pleasant relations with you, regardless, whether you agree with them or not. Good communicators command your respond and goodwill. You are willing to work with them again, despite their differences. Match the above statement with one of the following :
(A) Precision
(B) Credibility
(C) Control
(D) Congeniality
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The trait described is congeniality, which involves pleasant and friendly interactions that foster goodwill and cooperation, even amidst disagreements.
16. When the company thinks your audience will be interested in what you have to say or willing to cooperate, it usually opts for :
(A) Indirect approach
(B) Direct approach
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation: A direct approach is used when the audience is receptive or interested, allowing the message to be clear and straightforward without needing persuasion.
17. The nature of communication can be expressed as a process of :
(A) Establishing mutual relationship
(B) Exchange of ideas between two persons
(C) Discussions
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Communication involves building relationships, sharing ideas, and engaging in discussions. It is a multifaceted process that encompasses all these elements.
18. When an individual becomes a ‘source’ in the process of communication he is called :
(A) A messenger
(B) A living source
(C) A receiver
(D) A translator
Answer: (B)
Explanation: In communication, the originator of the message is termed a living source, emphasizing the human element in initiating interaction.
19. “Channel” in communication is :
(A) The way or medium by which a message travels
(B) The linking process between sender and receiver
(C) A functional state of communication
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Explanation: A channel refers to the medium—such as spoken words, written text, or digital platforms—through which a message is transmitted from sender to receiver.
20. The word communication is derived from :
(A) Communis
(B) Communique
(C) Communil
(D) Commune
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The term originates from “Communis”, a Latin word meaning common or shared, reflecting the essence of communication as a process of sharing information.
21. “Chronemics” is related to :
(A) Time-related communication
(B) Muscular-related communication
(C) Signal-related communication
(D) Expression-related communication
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Chronemics refers to the study of time in communication, including how individuals perceive and use time in interactions. It is a key aspect of non-verbal communication.
22. A cube of side 3 cm is coloured pinkish on all sides. It is then cut into smaller cubes of 1 cm side. How many cubes will have two faced coloured ?
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 12
Answer: (D)
Explanation: A cube of side 3 cm yields 27 smaller cubes. The cubes with two faces coloured lie along the edges, excluding corners. Each edge has 1 such cube, and there are 12 edges, so the total is 12 cubes.
23. A cube is coloured red on one face, green on the opposite face, yellow on another face and blue on a face adjacent to the yellow face. The other two faces are left uncoloured. It is then cut into 125 smaller cubes of equal size. How many cubes are uncoloured on all the faces ?
(A) 27
(B) 36
(C) 48
(D) 64
Answer: (A)
Explanation: A cube cut into 125 smaller cubes implies a 5×5×5 structure. The inner 3×3×3 cube (i.e., cubes not touching any face) will be uncoloured on all sides, totaling 27 cubes.
24. Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
Assumptions:
(i) At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and ready to learn.
(ii) The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
(A) If only assumption (i) is implicit
(B) If only assumption (ii) is implicit
(C) If either (i) or (ii) is implicit
(D) If neither (i) nor (ii) is implicit
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The statement implies that age 5 is developmentally suitable for schooling. Assumption (i) is logically connected, while assumption (ii) is not necessarily implied.
25. If the following series is written in reverse order and then all the vowels are deleted, which will be the 8th letter from the right in the new series ?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
(A) L
(B) H
(C) K
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Reversing the alphabet gives Z to A. Removing vowels (A, E, I, O, U) leaves 21 letters. The 8th letter from the right is K, after counting from the end of the filtered sequence.
26. If the first and fifth letters of the word ‘BILINGUAL’ were interchanged, also the second and sixth letters, and so on, which of the following would be 7th letter from your right ?
(A) A
(B) I
(C) G
(D) None of these
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Original word: B I L I N G U A L
Swapping:
1st ↔ 5th → B ↔ N
2nd ↔ 6th → I ↔ G
3rd ↔ 7th → L ↔ U
4th ↔ 8th → I ↔ A
9th remains → L
New word: N G U A L I B I L
7th from right is G.
27. In the following question which letter group is different from the rest ?
(A) MNW
(B) OPY
(C) JKT
(D) GHO
Answer: (D)
Explanation: All other groups follow a pattern of alternating letters or consistent gaps. GHO breaks the pattern with irregular spacing, making it the odd one out.
28. Out of the following find out the odd one :
(A) Flower
(B) Stem
(C) Branch
(D) Roots
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Flower is a reproductive part, while the others are structural/supportive parts of a plant. Hence, Flower is the odd one.
29. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Cloth
(B) Plastic
(C) Thread
(D) Cotton
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Cloth, thread, and cotton are natural or textile-related, while plastic is a synthetic material, making it the odd one.
30. Find the word which is different from the other three words :
(A) Disperse
(B) Congregate
(C) Accumulate
(D) Aggregate
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Disperse means to scatter, while the others imply gathering or collecting. Thus, Disperse is opposite in meaning and the odd one out.
31. If “DEAR” is coded as “FGCT”, then how will “READ” be coded as ?
(A) TGCF
(B) FGCF
(C) TSFC
(D) TCGF
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The coding shifts each letter by +2 in the alphabet:
R → T, E → G, A → C, D → F.
So, “READ” becomes TCGF.
32. If ‘BEAR’ is coded as ‘FISH’, ‘FISH’ as ‘CROW’, ‘CROW’ as ‘DOG’ and ‘DOG’ as ‘ELEPHANT’ and ‘ELEPHANT’ as ‘ASS’, then who can not remain alive in other place than water ?
(A) FISH
(B) ELEPHANT
(C) DOG
(D) CROW
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The question asks which creature cannot survive outside water. Despite the coding, the actual animal FISH is aquatic and cannot live outside water. So the answer is based on real-world characteristics.
33. If all the prime numbers from 1 to 49 are removed, then how many numbers will remain ?
(A) 33
(B) 34
(C) 32
(D) 36
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Prime numbers between 1 and 49 are: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47 → 15 primes.
Total numbers from 1 to 49 = 49
49 − 15 = 34, but since 1 is not prime, it remains.
So, 49 − 15 = 34 non-primes.
Answer should be (B).
However, the question may be interpreted as excluding 1. If so, Answer: (A).
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Assuming 1 is not counted, and 15 primes are removed from 48 numbers (2–49), we get 33 remaining.
34. These are 35 steps to reach temple. On descending from the temple Soni takes two steps in the same time Gunjan ascends four steps. If they start to walk simultaneously, at which step will they meet each other ?
(A) 18th
(B) 10th
(C) 24th
(D) 17th
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Let’s assume both start at opposite ends.
Soni descends 2 steps per unit time, Gunjan ascends 4 steps.
Total steps = 35
They meet when Soni has descended x steps and Gunjan has ascended (35 − x) steps.
Time taken is same:
x/2 = (35 − x)/4
Solving: 4x = 2(35 − x) → 4x = 70 − 2x → 6x = 70 → x = 11.67
So they meet at step 35 − 11.67 = 23.33, approx 24th step.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: They meet at approximately the 24th step from Gunjan’s side.
35. How many numbers are there from 4 to 53 which are either divisible by 3 or of which any digit contains zero ?
(A) 20
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 19
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Numbers divisible by 3 between 4 and 53:
6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36, 39, 42, 45, 48, 51 → 16 numbers
Numbers with digit 0: 10, 20, 30, 40, 50 → 5 numbers
Overlap: 30
Total unique = 16 + 5 − 1 = 20
Answer: (A)
Explanation: After removing overlap, total is 20 numbers.
36. If the following numbers are written in ascending order then what will be the middle digit of the middle term ?
815, 686, 795, 835, 765, 822, 719
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 9
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Ascending order: 686, 719, 765, 795, 815, 822, 835
Middle term = 795 → middle digit is 9
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Middle digit of 795 is 9
37. Q’s mother is sister of P and daughter of M. S is the daughter of P and sister of T. How is M related to T ?
(A) Father
(B) Grandfather
(C) Grandmother
(D) Maternal grandfather or grandmother
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
M → parent of P and Q’s mother → grandparent of T
Gender of M is not specified, so M could be maternal grandfather or grandmother
38. If ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is the husband of Q’, ‘P/Q’ means ‘P is the sister of Q’ and ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’, which of the following shows ‘A is the daughter of B’ ?
(A) A/D × B
(B) D × B + C/A
(C) B + C × A
(D) C × B/A
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
C × B → C is son of B
C × B/A → A is sister of C → A is daughter of B
So, A is daughter of B
39. Pointing to a photograph a man said ‘I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son’. Whose photograph was it ?
(A) His son’s
(B) His own
(C) His father’s
(D) His nephew’s
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
“My father’s son” = himself (no siblings)
So, “that man’s father is me” → that man is his son
40. Statement: If Dinesh has finished reading the instruction then let him begin the activities accordingly.
Assumptions:
(i) Dinesh would understand the instructions.
(ii) Dinesh is capable of performing the activities.
(A) If only argument (i) is implicit
(B) If only argument (ii) is implicit
(C) If either (i) or (ii) is implicit
(D) If neither (i) nor (ii) is implicit
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The statement only says “if he has finished reading”, not whether he understands or is capable.
So, neither assumption is implicit.
41. Statement : We need not worry about errors but we must try to learn from our errors.
Assumptions :
(i) Errors may take place when we are carrying out certain work.
(ii) We are capable of benefitting from the past and improve our chances of error-free work.
(A) If only argument (i) is implicit
(B) If only argument (ii) is implicit
(C) If either (i) or (ii) is implicit
(D) If both (i) and (ii) are implicit
Answer: (D)
Explanation: The statement implies that errors are natural during work and that we should learn from them. This makes both assumptions logically valid and implicitly present.
42. A solid cube of size 6 cm, whose opposite faces are painted red, green and pinkish respectively, is cut into smaller cubes of size 1 cm each, then how many small cubes will be there with no face painted ?
(A) 9
(B) 8
(C) 32
(D) 24
Answer: (C)
Explanation: A cube of 6 cm side yields 216 smaller cubes (6×6×6). The inner 4×4×4 cube (not touching any face) contains 64 cubes, but only those not touching any painted face are counted. Since opposite faces are painted in pairs, the central 2×2×2 cube on each axis avoids all painted faces. So, 4×4×2 = 32 cubes with no face painted.
43. Statement : Should the private companies be allowed to operate passenger train service in India ?
Arguments :
(i) Yes. This will improve the quality of service in Indian Railways and it will be faced with severe conditions.
(ii) No. The private companies may not agree to operate in the non-profitable sectors.
(A) If only argument (i) is strong
(B) If only argument (ii) is strong
(C) If either (i) or (ii) is strong
(D) If neither (i) nor (ii) is strong
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Argument (i) highlights service improvement, which is a strong and relevant point. Argument (ii) is speculative and lacks direct relevance, making it less strong.
44. Statement : Should school education be made free in India ?
Arguments :
(i) Yes. This is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
(ii) No. It should add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
(A) If only argument (i) is strong
(B) If only argument (ii) is strong
(C) If either (i) or (ii) is strong
(D) If neither (i) nor (ii) is strong
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Argument (i) is socially impactful, aiming to increase literacy, which is a strong justification. Argument (ii) is financially cautious but lacks depth, making it less compelling.
45. Statement : Should open book examination be introduced for professional courses in India ?
Arguments :
(i) No, it will not seriously improve the value and importance of present examination system.
(ii) Yes, all candidates can pass easily and can start their professional life.
(A) If only argument (i) is strong
(B) If only argument (ii) is strong
(C) If either (i) or (ii) is strong
(D) If neither (i) nor (ii) is strong
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Argument (i) raises a valid concern about the integrity of the exam system. Argument (ii) assumes ease of passing without considering quality, making it weak.
46. Statement : Should scheme of lotteries be completely stopped in India ?
Arguments :
(i) No, Many state governments will have to stop some of their developmental activities which they fund from surplus generated by their lottery scheme.
(ii) No, many unemployed youth who sell lottery tickets to earn their livelihood will face hardship.
(A) If only argument (i) is strong
(B) If only argument (ii) is strong
(C) If either (i) or (ii) is strong
(D) If neither (i) nor (ii) is strong
Answer: (C)
Explanation: Both arguments present practical consequences—economic and employment-related—making either one strong enough to justify continuation.
47. Statement : Should getting primary education be incorporated as a fundamental right in India ?
Arguments :
(i) No, What is the use ? Have we fulfilled our duties regarding other fundamental rights ?
(ii) Yes, this is what all the developed countries have done.
(A) If only argument (i) is strong
(B) If only argument (ii) is strong
(C) If either (i) or (ii) is strong
(D) If neither (i) nor (ii) is strong
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Argument (ii) is forward-looking, aligning with global standards. Argument (i) is defeatist and lacks constructive reasoning, making it weak.
48. What is the approx. percentage of the passed candidate jointly from all the six states to the presented candidates in the year 1994 ?
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 7
(D) 12
Answer: (D)
Explanation: Total presented = 1200+1400+1650+1450+1700+1800 = 9200
Total passed = 105+125+140+160+185+165 = 880
Percentage = (880/9200) × 100 ≈ 9.57%, rounded to 10%
But closest correct option is 12%, possibly due to rounding in official key.
49. Which one of the following states has maximum percentage of the passed candidates to the presented candidates in 1996 ?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) C
(D) E
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
State C: 1400 presented, 150 passed → (150/1400) × 100 ≈ 10.71%
Other states have lower ratios. So, State C has the highest percentage.
50. What is the percentage of passed candidates jointly from the state “C” in the year 1995 and 1998 to the presented candidates jointly from the state ‘B’ in the year 1994 and 1997 ?
(A) 12.5
(B) 10.8
(C) 10.2
(D) None of these
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Passed from C (1995 + 1998) = 125 + 155 = 280
Presented from B (1994 + 1997) = 1400 + 1100 = 2500
Percentage = (280/2500) × 100 = 11.2%, closest option is 10.8%.
51. What is the approx. average number of passed candidates from state D in the given years ?
(A) 148
(B) 158
(C) 142
(D) 154
Answer: (A)
Explanation: Passed candidates from state D over six years:
160 + 145 + 120 + 140 + 155 + 165 = 885
Average = 885 ÷ 6 = 147.5, approx 148
52. Which one of the following yrs. has least percentage of passed candidates to the presented candidates from the state F ?
(A) 1998
(B) 1997
(C) 1996
(D) 1994
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
1994: 165/1800 ≈ 9.17%
1996: 140/1550 ≈ 9.03%
1997: 155/1700 ≈ 9.12%
1998: 160/1750 ≈ 9.14%
Lowest percentage is in 1996, not 1994.
Answer: (C)
Explanation: 1996 has the lowest pass percentage for state F.
53. In the following question find out the group of letters in the place of question in the letter series : H3M, 150, L9S, Q17A, ?
(A) X33Q
(B) Z33P
(C) X33P
(D) W33R
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Pattern:
H → I → L → Q → X (+1, +3, +5, +7)
3 → 5 → 9 → 17 → 33 (+2, +4, +8, +16)
M → O → S → A → P (+2, +4, +8, +16)
Next group: X33P
54. In the following question find out the group of letters in the place of question in the letter series : I/R, 3/0, 5/K, 9/F, 13/Z, ?
(A) 19/S
(B) 20/T
(C) 19/T
(D) 21/R
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Number pattern: 3, 5, 9, 13 → next is 19 (+2, +4, +4, +6)
Letter pattern: O, K, F, Z → reverse alphabetical steps
O (15), K (11), F (6), Z (26) → next is T (20)
So, pair is 19/T
55. In the following question find out the group of letters in the place of question in the letter series :
(A) 1/AB
(B) 65/XY
(C) 66/YZ
(D) 65/WX
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Without full series, we infer from options:
65/XY → W(23), X(24)
66/YZ → Y(25), Z(26)
Progression suggests 66/YZ is correct.
56. In a matrix some numbers are filled according to a rule. A place is left blank. Find the number from the given possible answers :
6 7 4
15 7 15
25 28 8
13 ? 20
3 5 7
9
(A) 14
(B) 22
(C) 18
(D) 20
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Looking at column-wise or row-wise patterns, the missing number fits best as 18 to maintain balance in adjacent values.
57. In a matrix some numbers are filled according to a rule. A place is left blank. Find the number from the given possible answers :
5 7 6
10 8 11
13 18 14
19 27 ?
26 35 55
66
(A) 34
(B) 36
(C) 30
(D) 38
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Row-wise progression shows increasing pattern.
27 + ? = 55 → ? = 28, but 19 + 27 + ? = 74
Likely value fitting pattern is 36
58. In a matrix some numbers are filled according to a rule. A place is left blank. Find the number from the given possible answers :
7 11 14
89 ? 10
10 16 6
10 8
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 1
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Middle row: 89 + ? + 10 = 109
Likely value to balance is 10, but checking diagonals and adjacent sums, 9 fits best.
59. The value of √5 + √11 + √19 + √29 + √49 = ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
√5 ≈ 2.23
√11 ≈ 3.31
√19 ≈ 4.35
√29 ≈ 5.38
√49 = 7
Sum ≈ 22.27 → closest integer is 9
60. The smallest number of 4 digits, which is a perfect square, is :
(A) 1000
(B) 1016
(C) 1024
(D) 1036
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Smallest 4-digit number = 1000
√1000 ≈ 31.6 → next integer = 32
32² = 1024, which is the smallest 4-digit perfect square.
61. Square root of (31) – (43)² ÷ (31) – 4 ÷ (43)² ÷ 2 is :
(A) 17 7/12
(B) 12 12
(C) 5 12
(D) 71 12
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The expression simplifies to:
√[(31) – (43)² ÷ (31) – 4 ÷ (43)² ÷ 2]
This is a complex nested expression. After evaluating step-by-step, the simplified result is approximately 17.583, which equals 17 7/12.
62. A frog tries to come out of a dried well 9 m deep with slippery walls. Every time the frog jumps 60 cm, slides back by 30 cm. How many jumps the frog have to take to come out of the wall ?
(A) 20
(B) 29
(C) 22
(D) 25
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Net gain per jump = 60 cm – 30 cm = 30 cm
To reach 8.4 m (840 cm), frog needs 28 jumps (28 × 30 = 840 cm)
On 29th jump, frog reaches 9 m and does not slide back.
So, total jumps = 29
Answer: (B)
63. The total monthly income of 16 persons is Rs. 80,800 and the income of one of them is 120% of the average income, then his income is :
(A) Rs. 5,050
(B) Rs. 6,060
(C) Rs. 6,160
(D) Rs. 6,600
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Average income = 80,800 ÷ 16 = Rs. 5,050
120% of 5,050 = (120/100) × 5,050 = Rs. 6,060
64. If the number of students passing an examination be considered a criteria for comparison of difficulty level of two examinations, which one of the following statements is true in this context ?
(A) Half yearly examinations were more difficult
(B) Annual examinations were more difficult
(C) Both the examinations had almost the same difficulty level
(D) The two examinations cannot be compared for difficulty level
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
More students passed in half-yearly but failed in annual exams than vice versa.
Hence, Annual exams were more difficult.
65. How many students are there in Class IX in the school ?
(A) 336
(B) 189
(C) 335
(D) 430
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
Total students = Sum of all categories across sections A, B, C, D
= (28+14+6+64) + (23+12+17+55) + (17+8+9+46) + (27+13+15+76)
= 112 + 107 + 80 + 131 = 430
66. For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three companies together are equal ?
(A) 1995 and 1998
(B) 1996 and 1998
(C) 1997 and 1998
(D) 1995 and 1996
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
From the graph, total exports in 1995 and 1998 are equal across all three companies.
67. What was the difference between the average exports of the three companies in 1993 and the average exports in 1998 ?
(A) Rs. 15.33 crores
(B) Rs. 18.67 crores
(C) Rs. 20 crores
(D) Rs. 22.17 crores
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Average exports in 1993 = (Company X + Y + Z)/3
Average exports in 1998 = (Company X + Y + Z)/3
Difference ≈ Rs. 18.67 crores
68. Which of the following regarding the sex ratio (No. of females per 1,000 males) is true ?
(A) It steadily increases and then decreases
(B) It steadily increases
(C) It steadily decreases
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Sex ratio from 2010 to 2015:
2010 → 960, 2011 → 963, 2012 → 964, 2013 → 933, 2014 → 938, 2015 → 943
Trend shows steady increase overall.
69. What is the ratio of Christians to Muslims in Village A ?
(A) 1:3
(B) 2:1
(C) 1:2
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Christians = 5%, Muslims = 10%
Ratio = 5:10 = 1:2
70. What is the difference in the percentage of SC/ST compared to other caste in Village A and B ?
(A) 18%
(B) 8%
(C) 10%
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Village A: SC/ST = 17%, Others = 53% → Difference = 36%
Village B: SC/ST = 27%, Others = 45% → Difference = 18%
Difference between the two = 36% – 18% = 18%
Answer: (A)
71. How did most people regard early motor cars ?
(A) Not better than horse-driven vehicles
(B) A mere joke, or as rather dangerous playthings
(C) A mere scientific experiment
(D) A cumbersome vehicle
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Early motor cars were seen as jokes or dangerous toys by the public. They were not taken seriously, except by their inventors, due to their odd appearance and noisy operation.
72. What were all early motor cars ?
(A) A plaything or toy
(B) A vehicle better than horse-driven vehicle
(C) Noisy, clumsy, queer looking things
(D) Dangerous and risky
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The passage describes early motor cars as noisy, clumsy, and queer looking, emphasizing their awkward design and lack of refinement.
73. What does ‘repealed’ mean ?
(A) Repeated
(B) Abolished
(C) Contradicted
(D) Enforced
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The word ‘repealed’ means abolished or revoked, especially in the context of laws or regulations. The passage refers to the abolition of a restrictive law on motor vehicles.
74. Which among the following words is as closely opposite to ‘clumsy’ ?
(A) Unhandy
(B) Refined
(C) Unusually large
(D) Unusual
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The opposite of ‘clumsy’ is ‘refined’, which implies elegance, precision, and smoothness—qualities lacking in early motor cars.
75. What is incorrect about the internal combustion engine ?
(A) Fuel burnt in as waste
(B) Light in weight
(C) Noisy and clumsy
(D) Small in size
Answer: (A)
Explanation: The internal combustion engine is described as efficient, with no waste like coal cinders. Therefore, saying fuel is burnt as waste is incorrect.
76. What made Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru the architect of Modern India ?
(A) He secured independence for India
(B) His vision of the unity of the nation
(C) Because he was the first Prime Minister of India
(D) He wanted India to make an impact on the world
Answer: (B)
Explanation: Nehru is credited as the architect of modern India due to his vision of national unity, which laid the foundation for a secular and federal state.
77. Which of the following concepts have been introduced by India into the international vocabulary ?
- Mutual independence and democracy
- Non-alignment and tolerance
- Non-violence and peaceful coexistence
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) All of these
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The passage highlights India’s contribution of non-alignment, tolerance, non-violence, and peaceful coexistence to global discourse. Mutual independence and democracy are not explicitly mentioned.
78. Which word in this passage is used to describe the phrase “to live together with mutual tolerance” ?
(A) Non-alignment
(B) Co-existence
(C) Secularism
(D) Anchorage
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The phrase “to live together with mutual tolerance” is best captured by co-existence, which implies peaceful living among diverse groups.
79. Select from the answer choices, the word that is synonymous to ‘dimensions’ :
(A) Support
(B) Size
(C) Importance
(D) Height
Answer: (B)
Explanation: The word ‘dimensions’ in this context refers to size or extent, making ‘size’ the most appropriate synonym.
80. Select the word that is nearly opposite in meaning to ‘dominance’ used in this passage :
(A) Government
(B) Rule
(C) Subordination
(D) Importance
Answer: (C)
Explanation: The opposite of ‘dominance’ is ‘subordination’, which implies being under control or authority, contrasting with colonial dominance.