UPSC Prelims 2024 Exam Solved Question Paper GS I

1. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Answer: (d) Four

Explanation:
The process of delimitation in India is governed by Article 82 of the Constitution, which mandates the Parliament to enact a Delimitation Act after every Census. The purpose is to redraw the boundaries of various electoral constituencies based on population changes.

India has constituted four Delimitation Commissions so far:

• In 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952
• In 1963 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1962
• In 1973 under the Delimitation Act, 1972
• In 2002 under the Delimitation Act, 2002

Each Commission is a high-powered body whose decisions carry the force of law and are not subject to judicial review. These Commissions have played a critical role in ensuring equitable representation across constituencies, especially in light of demographic shifts. The latest Commission also considered reserved constituencies for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, reflecting evolving social priorities in electoral design.

2. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages recognized by the Union. Originally containing 14 languages, it has expanded to 22 through various amendments.

The 71st Amendment Act of 1992 added three languages to the Eighth Schedule:

• Konkani
• Manipuri
• Nepali

These additions were made to reflect the linguistic diversity and cultural identity of regions where these languages are widely spoken. The inclusion also enabled these languages to be used in official communication, competitive examinations, and education policies.

Later, the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003 added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali, but Maithili was not part of the 71st Amendment. This distinction is crucial for understanding the chronology of linguistic recognition in India’s constitutional framework.

Question 03: Consider the following pairs :
Party — Its Leader

1. Bhartiya Jana Sangh — Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2. Socialist Party — C. Rajagopalachari
3. Congress for Democracy — Jagjivan Ram
4. Swatantra Party — Acharya Narendra Dev
   How many of the above are correctly matched?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) Only three
   (d) All four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:
Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh in 1951, promoting cultural nationalism.
C. Rajagopalachari was the founder of the Swatantra Party, not the Socialist Party.
Jagjivan Ram led the Congress for Democracy, formed in 1977 against Emergency excesses.
Acharya Narendra Dev was associated with the Socialist Party, not Swatantra.
This question highlights the ideological diversity and leadership dynamics of post-independence Indian politics.

Question 04: Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Part IX-A deals with Municipalities, added by the 74th Amendment Act.
Part XVIII includes Emergency provisions such as National, State, and Financial Emergency.
Part XX (Article 368) outlines the procedure for constitutional amendments, requiring special majorities.
These parts reflect the institutional architecture and emergency safeguards of Indian democracy.

Question 05: Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.

Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List

Explanation:
Inter-State quarantine is listed under Entry 81 of the Union List, enabling central legislation.
Corporation tax is under Entry 85 of the Union List, not a State subject.
Inter-State trade and migration are also Union subjects, ensuring national uniformity.
This reflects the centralized control over matters with cross-border implications.

Question 06: Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 21

Answer: (d) Article 21

Explanation:
The Right to Privacy was affirmed as a fundamental right under Article 21 in the Puttaswamy judgment (2017).
It is linked to personal liberty, dignity, and informational autonomy.
The ruling has influenced debates on data protection, surveillance, and digital governance.
Privacy is now seen as a core constitutional value in India’s rights framework.

Question 07: What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?

1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee.
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs.
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:
The CDS serves as Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee and Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister.
He does not exercise operational command over the Army, Navy, or Air Force.
The role enhances jointness, tri-service coordination, and defence modernization.
It marks a shift toward integrated military planning and resource optimization.

Question 08: Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:
(a) Operation Sankalp
(b) Operation Maitri
(c) Operation Sadbhavana
(d) Operation Madam

Answer: (c) Operation Sadbhavana

Explanation:
Operation Sadbhavana is a civic action initiative by the Indian Army in Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh.
It includes education support, medical camps, and infrastructure development.
The aim is to build trust and goodwill among local communities in conflict-sensitive zones.
It reflects the Army’s role in nation-building beyond combat duties.

Question 09: The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:
(a) Canada and the United States of America
(b) Chile and Argentina
(c) China and India
(d) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation

Answer: (a) Canada and the United States of America

Explanation:
The Canada–USA border spans over 8,890 km, making it the longest international boundary globally.
It includes both the mainland and Alaska segment, and is notable for its peaceful management and trade connectivity.
Other long borders include Russia–Kazakhstan (~6,846 km) and Chile–Argentina (~5,308 km).
This border is a symbol of stable bilateral relations and economic interdependence.

Question 10: Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?

1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:
The Ethics Committee was first set up as an ad-hoc body in 2000, and became permanent in 2015.
Any person can file a complaint, but it must be routed through an MP with supporting documents.
It does not entertain sub-judice matters, maintaining judicial independence and procedural integrity.
The Committee promotes ethical standards and accountability in parliamentary conduct.

Question 11: Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari
(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Answer: (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Explanation:
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on 9 December 1946, and Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, being the oldest member, was appointed as the Provisional President. This followed the French practice of selecting the eldest member to preside temporarily. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Assembly. This arrangement ensured procedural continuity during the formative phase of constitution-making.

Question 12: With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed an All India Federation, combining British Provinces and Princely States, though the federation never materialized due to lack of princely support.
However, Defence and Foreign Affairs were placed under the Governor-General’s control, not the federal legislature. The Act introduced provincial autonomy, bicameralism, and dyarchy at the centre, but retained centralized control over key strategic areas.

Question 13: Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?
(a) Kavyalankara
(b) Natyashastra
(c) Madhyama-vyayoga
(d) Mahabhashya

Answer: (c) Madhyama-vyayoga

Explanation:
Bhasa is one of the earliest known Sanskrit dramatists, and Madhyama-vyayoga is among his most celebrated works. His plays often depict heroic themes, drawn from Mahabharata episodes, and are known for their directness and emotional depth.
Other works attributed to Bhasa include Dutaghatotkacha, Balacharita, and Charudatta. He predates Kalidasa, and his rediscovered manuscripts have enriched Indian literary history.

Question 14: Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:
(a) Prajnaparamita Sutra
(b) Visuddhimagga
(c) Sarvastivada Vinaya
(d) Lalitavistara

Answer: (c) Sarvastivada Vinaya

Explanation:
Sanghabhuti was part of the wave of Indian Buddhist scholars who travelled to China, contributing to the translation and interpretation of Buddhist texts. He authored a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya, a monastic code followed by the Sarvastivada school, which emphasized the existence of dharmas in all three times—past, present, and future.
His work reflects the transnational spread of Buddhism and the intellectual exchanges between India and East Asia.

Question 15: Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:

1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya
   How many of the above properties were included in 2023?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) Only three
   (d) All four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:
In 2023, UNESCO added Shantiniketan and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas to the World Heritage List.

• Rani-ki-Vav was inscribed in 2014, and
• Mahabodhi Temple Complex was added in 2002.
  These recognitions highlight India’s architectural diversity, from Rabindranath Tagore’s educational vision to Hoysala temple artistry.

Question 16: As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Article 368(1) empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution by addition, variation, or repeal of any provision, subject to the procedure laid down in the article.
Some amendments require special majority and ratification by half of the states, especially those affecting federal structure.
This flexibility ensures the Constitution remains dynamic and responsive to changing needs.

Question 17: Consider the following countries:

1. Italy
2. Japan
3. Nigeria
4. South Korea
5. South Africa
   Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?
   (a) 1, 2 and 4
   (b) 1, 3 and 5
   (c) 2 and 4 only
   (d) 3 and 5 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:
Italy, Japan, and South Korea are facing demographic crises marked by low fertility rates, ageing populations, and shrinking workforce.

• Japan has one of the highest life expectancies and lowest birth rates.
• South Korea’s fertility rate has dropped below 1.0, raising concerns about economic sustainability.
• Italy is experiencing population decline and increased dependency ratios.
  In contrast, Nigeria and South Africa have growing populations.

Question 18: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendment to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1, 2 and 3
   (d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Article 109 outlines the special procedure for Money Bills, giving Lok Sabha primacy.
• A Money Bill can only be introduced in Lok Sabha.
• Rajya Sabha may recommend changes, but cannot reject or amend the Bill.
• Lok Sabha is not bound to accept Rajya Sabha’s recommendations.
  Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Question 20: The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?

1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
   (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
   (c) 2 and 4 only
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was restructured under the NEC Amendment Act, 2002, to function as a regional planning body.
It includes the Governors and Chief Ministers of the eight northeastern states: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura.
Additionally, three members are nominated by the President of India, one of whom is designated as the Chairman.
The Union Home Minister is not a member of the NEC, though he may preside over meetings in special circumstances.
The NEC plays a key role in inter-state coordination, economic planning, and infrastructure development in the region.

Question 21: Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, or 106th Constitutional Amendment Act, provides 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and Delhi Assembly, including within SC/ST reserved seats.
The reservation will be implemented after the next delimitation exercise, which will follow the first census conducted after the Act’s commencement.
Hence, it will not come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha, making statement 1 incorrect.
The reservation is valid for 15 years, with a provision for extension by Parliament.
This Act is a landmark step toward gender-inclusive representation in Indian legislatures.

Question 22: Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 1, 2 and 4
   (c) 1, 3 and 4
   (d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 was a joint military exercise between India and Sri Lanka, not Bangladesh.
It was held in Aundh Military Station, Pune, and focused on sub-conventional operations, especially counter-terrorism under UN Chapter VII mandates.
The exercise involved Indian Army, Sri Lankan Army, and Indian Air Force, including heliborne operations, drone deployment, and casualty evacuation drills.
Such exercises enhance interoperability, strategic coordination, and regional security cooperation.

Question 23: A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.

Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case

Explanation:
The Writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court (Supreme Court or High Court) to a lower court or tribunal, directing it to stop proceedings in a case that exceeds its jurisdiction.
It is a preventive remedy, unlike Certiorari, which is corrective and issued after the decision is made.
This writ ensures that judicial and quasi-judicial bodies do not overstep their legal authority.
It cannot be issued against administrative or legislative bodies.

Question 24: Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not to be so in another State.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
Under Article 342 of the Constitution, the President of India, after consultation with the Governor, declares a community as a Scheduled Tribe for a particular State or Union Territory.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
The ST list is state-specific, meaning a community recognized as ST in one state may not be recognized as such in another.
This reflects regional variations in tribal identity and administrative classification.

Question 25: With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
The Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) is laid before Parliament by the Finance Minister on behalf of the President, not the Prime Minister.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Article 113 of the Constitution mandates that no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President, ensuring executive control over financial proposals.
This provision upholds the principle of parliamentary accountability in fiscal matters.

Question 26: Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters”?
(a) Bhupendra Yadav
(b) Nalin Mehta
(c) Shashi Tharoor
(d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Answer: (d) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar

Explanation:
Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, India’s External Affairs Minister, authored both “The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World” and “Why Bharat Matters”. These books reflect his strategic worldview, emphasizing India’s evolving role in global affairs, foreign policy recalibration, and national identity. Jaishankar draws on decades of diplomatic experience, offering insights into geopolitical shifts, multilateralism, and India’s assertive diplomacy in a changing world order.

Question 27: Consider the following pairs :
Country — Reason for being in the news

1. Argentina — Worst economic crisis
2. Sudan — War between the country’s regular and paramilitary forces
3. Turkey — Rescinded its membership of NATO
   How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   (a) Only one pair
   (b) Only two pairs
   (c) All three pairs
   (d) None of the pairs

Answer: (b) Only two pairs

Explanation:

• Argentina is facing a severe economic crisis, marked by hyperinflation, currency devaluation, and rising poverty.
• Sudan has been engulfed in a violent conflict between the Sudanese Armed Forces and the Rapid Support Forces, leading to humanitarian disaster.
• Turkey has not rescinded its NATO membership. While it has had tensions with NATO allies, it remains a member.

This question tests awareness of current geopolitical developments and international alignments.

Question 28: Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Explanation:
The Sumed pipeline, located in Egypt, connects the Red Sea (Ain Sokhna) to the Mediterranean Sea (Sidi Kerir). It serves as a strategic alternative to the Suez Canal for transporting Persian Gulf oil and gas to European markets.
Its existence ensures energy security, especially when Suez traffic is disrupted, and supports global oil logistics.

Question 29: Consider the following statements :

1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
The Red Sea is one of the saltiest water bodies due to high evaporation and low rainfall.

• Statement 1 is correct: It receives minimal precipitation, contributing to its high salinity.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: While no major rivers drain into the Red Sea, minor seasonal streams and rivulets do contribute small amounts of freshwater.

This question probes climatic and hydrological features of regional seas.

Question 30: According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
(b) Ships using fossil fuels
(c) Extraction of metals from ores
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Answer: (d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Explanation:
The EPA identifies coal-fired power plants as the largest contributors of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) emissions.
SO₂ is a major air pollutant, causing acid rain, respiratory issues, and environmental degradation.
Other sources like ships, locomotives, and metal extraction contribute less comparatively.
India has also been flagged for high SO₂ emissions, especially from thermal power stations.

Question 31: Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Explanation:

• US Treasury Bonds are backed by the full faith and credit of the US Government, not by physical assets.
• If the US defaults, bondholders may not receive timely payments, as the legal claim depends on the government’s solvency and credibility.
• The debt ceiling debates and political gridlocks have raised concerns about default risks, despite the US dollar’s global dominance.

Question 32: Consider the following statements :
Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Explanation:

• Syndicated loans involve multiple lenders pooling resources to fund large borrowers, thereby spreading credit risk.
• These loans can be structured as fixed lump sums or revolving credit lines, depending on the borrower’s needs.
• Statement II is incorrect because credit lines are a valid form of syndicated lending.

Question 33: Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:

1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 1 and 3 only
   (c) 2 and 4 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:

• The Digital Rupee (e₹) is a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) issued by the RBI, aligned with monetary policy goals.
• It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet, similar to physical currency.
• It is freely convertible into cash and bank deposits, ensuring liquidity and usability.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The digital rupee is not inherently inflation-proof; its value is subject to macroeconomic conditions.

Question 34: With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?

1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1, 2 and 3
   (d) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
Shakyamuni means “Sage of the Shakyas,” referring to Buddha’s clan.
Tathagata is a term Buddha used for himself, meaning “Thus Come” or “Thus Gone,” signifying his transcendence of worldly existence.
Nayaputta is an epithet of Mahavira, the Jain Tirthankara, not Buddha.
These epithets reflect Buddha’s spiritual identity, his lineage, and his philosophical self-reference in early Buddhist texts.

Question 35: Consider the following information:
Archaeological Site — State — Description

1. Chandraketugarh — Odisha — Trading Port town
2. Inamgaon — Maharashtra — Chalcolithic site
3. Mangadu — Kerala — Megalithic site
4. Salihundam — Andhra Pradesh — Rock-cut cave shrines
   In which of the above rows is given information correctly matched?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 3 and 4
   (d) 1 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Inamgaon is a well-known Chalcolithic site in Maharashtra, located in the Bhima river valley.
• Mangadu, Kerala, is a Megalithic site with numerous burial structures and stone circles.
• Chandraketugarh is in West Bengal, not Odisha, and was a trading port in ancient Bengal.
• Salihundam is famous for Buddhist stupas and viharas, not rock-cut cave shrines.
  This question tests knowledge of regional archaeological heritage and site typologies.

Question 36: Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?
(a) Krishnadevaraya
(b) Narasimha Saluva
(c) Muhammad Shah III
(d) Yusuf Adil Shah

Answer: (a) Krishnadevaraya

Explanation:
Krishnadevaraya, the most prominent ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, granted the Portuguese permission to build a fort at Bhatkal in 1510.
He maintained diplomatic and trade relations with the Portuguese, especially for the import of war horses and other goods.
This reflects the strategic alliances formed by Indian rulers with European powers during the early 16th century.

Question 37: With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

• Under the Permanent Settlement (1793), Zamindars were responsible for collecting and remitting revenue. Failure to pay on time led to loss of Zamindari rights.
• The Ryotwari system, introduced later by Munro and Read, did not guarantee exemption during crop failure; peasants often faced coercive collection even during famines.
  This question distinguishes between revenue systems and their impact on agrarian society.

Question 38: Consider the following statements:

1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

• Upanishads, part of Vedic literature, were composed between 800–400 BCE, much earlier than the Puranas, which emerged around 300 CE onwards.
• Parables and metaphors are present in Upanishads, such as the chariot analogy in Katha Upanishad, used to explain spiritual truths.
  This question probes chronology and literary features of ancient Indian texts.

Question 39: Consider the following statements:

1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

• India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC), which promotes transparency and cooperation in global grain trade.
• However, membership is not mandatory for exporting/importing grains like rice and wheat. Trade is governed by bilateral agreements and WTO norms.
  This question tests understanding of international trade bodies and membership implications.

Question 40: Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?
(a) Chhau dance
(b) Durga Puja
(c) Garba dance
(d) Kumbh Mela

Answer: (c) Garba dance

Explanation:

• In December 2023, Garba, a traditional dance from Gujarat, was inscribed in UNESCO’s Intangible Cultural Heritage list.
• It celebrates feminine divinity, performed during Navratri, and symbolizes cyclical time and cosmic rhythm.
• Earlier inclusions include Durga Puja (2021), Kumbh Mela (2017), and Chhau dance (2010).
  This highlights India’s living cultural traditions and their global recognition.

Question 41: Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
Statement-II : There have been military takeovers/coups d’état in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Explanation:
The Sahel region, spanning countries like Mali, Burkina Faso, Chad, Niger, and Mauritania, has witnessed multiple military coups since 2020.
These coups have led to political instability, weak governance, and security vacuums, which have been exploited by terrorist groups and armed militias.
The worsening security situation is directly linked to these military takeovers, making Statement-II a valid explanation for Statement-I.
The region is also facing climate stress, resource conflicts, and mass displacement, compounding the crisis.

Question 42: Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II : In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:
India does import apples from the USA, and the volume increased significantly after the removal of retaliatory tariffs in 2023.
However, India’s Food Safety and Standards Authority (FSSAI) mandates that Genetically Modified (GM) foods require prior approval before import.
This regulation ensures biosafety, consumer protection, and compliance with environmental norms.
Thus, while GM food imports are regulated, it does not explain the import status of apples, which are not genetically modified.

Question 43: With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :

1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
When a resolution for removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside over the sitting.
However, the Speaker can participate in the debate and vote in the first instance, unlike the usual practice of voting only in case of a tie.
This ensures procedural fairness while allowing the Speaker to defend their position.
Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect as they misrepresent the Speaker’s rights during such proceedings.

Question 44: With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation:

• A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses upon its dissolution.
• A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses.
• However, if the President has notified a joint sitting, the bill does not lapse, even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved.
  This ensures continuity in legislative processes for bills under special constitutional procedures.

Question 45: With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements :

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Prorogation is done by the President but only on the advice of the Council of Ministers, making Statement 1 incorrect.
• It usually follows adjournment sine die, but the President can prorogue even during session.
• Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is also done by the President, typically on ministerial advice, unless no government can be formed.
  These provisions reflect the executive’s role in managing parliamentary sessions.

Question 46: Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
Statement-II : The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Explanation:
The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act in 2024 to boost clean technology manufacturing and reduce dependence on imports.
However, the EU’s carbon neutrality target is set for 2050, not 2040.
The Act supports the 2050 goal but does not imply a 2040 deadline.
Hence, Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is factually inaccurate.

Question 47: Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II : Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:

• Venezuela continues to face economic turmoil, hyperinflation, and mass emigration, with over 7 million people displaced.
• It does possess the world’s largest proven oil reserves, but poor governance, sanctions, and infrastructure decay have limited its ability to capitalize on them.
  Thus, while Statement-II is true, Statement-I misrepresents the current situation.

Question 48: With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements :

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
   Which of the statements given above are correct ?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% funding from the Union Government.
It includes digitization of cadastral maps, computerization of land records, and integration with registration offices.
A recent initiative involves transliteration of land records into any of the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
This programme aims to create a transparent, integrated, and accessible land information system across India.

Question 49: With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements :

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) provides antenatal care services to pregnant women, especially in their second and third trimesters, but it does not include post-delivery care as part of its guaranteed package.
It encourages private sector specialists—such as OB-GYNs, radiologists, and physicians—to volunteer at government facilities on the 9th of every month.
This initiative aims to reduce maternal mortality and ensure safe pregnancies through early detection and intervention.

Question 50: With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements :

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
   (a) 1, 3 and 4
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 2 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
The PM-SYM is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for unorganised workers.
Eligible age for enrolment is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40.
Beneficiaries contribute age-specific monthly amounts, matched by the government.
After turning 60, they receive a minimum pension of ₹3000/month.
Family pension is applicable only to the spouse, not to unmarried daughters.
This scheme aims to provide social security to workers in informal sectors.

Question 51: Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II : Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:
The atmosphere is primarily heated by terrestrial radiation, not directly by incoming solar radiation.
Solar radiation passes through the atmosphere and heats the Earth’s surface, which then emits long-wave infrared radiation.
Greenhouse gases like CO₂, CH₄, and water vapor absorb this terrestrial radiation, warming the atmosphere.
This process is central to the greenhouse effect, which maintains Earth’s habitable temperature.

Question 52: Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
Statement-II : At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Explanation:
The troposphere is thicker at the equator (~18 km) and thinner at the poles (~8 km).
This is due to intense solar heating at the equator, which causes strong convectional currents that push air upward, expanding the troposphere.
The vertical transport of heat explains the greater thickness of the troposphere at lower latitudes.
This phenomenon influences weather patterns, cloud formation, and global circulation.

Question 53: Which of the following statements is correct regarding volcanic eruptions?
(a) Composite Volcanoes are the largest of all the volcanoes on the earth.
(b) Deccan Traps formations in the Indian peninsula is an example of caldera volcanoes.
(c) Batholiths are a large mass of magmatic material that cools on the earth surface.
(d) Volcanic eruptions do not typically occur at transform boundaries.

Answer: (d) Volcanic eruptions do not typically occur at transform boundaries

Explanation:
Volcanic eruptions are most common at divergent and convergent plate boundaries, where magma rises due to subduction or rifting.
Transform boundaries, where plates slide past each other (e.g., San Andreas Fault), are not associated with volcanism.

• Composite volcanoes are not the largest; shield volcanoes like Mauna Loa are larger.
• Deccan Traps are flood basalt formations, not calderas.
• Batholiths form beneath the surface, not on it.
  This question tests understanding of plate tectonics and volcanic landforms.

Question 54: Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January ?

1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.
   Select the answer using the code given below :
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
In January, isotherms bend northward over oceans due to moderating effect of water, and southward over continents due to land cooling faster.
Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm currents, not cold. They raise temperatures, causing northward bending of isotherms.
This question tests knowledge of climatic patterns and oceanic influence on temperature distribution.

Question 55: Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
(a) Algeria and Morocco
(b) Botswana and Namibia
(c) Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana
(d) Madagascar and Mozambique

Answer: (c) Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana

Explanation:
Cote d’Ivoire and Ghana together account for over 60% of global cocoa production, making them the top producers worldwide.
These West African nations benefit from ideal climatic conditions, smallholder farming systems, and export-driven economies.
Other producers like Indonesia, Nigeria, and Cameroon contribute significantly but remain behind in volume.
Cocoa is a key commodity for chocolate manufacturing, and its cultivation supports millions of livelihoods in the region.

Question 56: With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?
(a) Ghaghara – Gomati – Gandak – Kosi
(b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi
(c) Ghaghara – Gomati – Kosi – Gandak
(d) Gomati – Ghaghara – Kosi – Gandak

Answer: (b) Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi

Explanation:
The correct west-to-east sequence of Himalayan tributaries joining the Ganga after Prayagraj is:

• Gomati joins near Varanasi
• Ghaghara joins near Chhapra
• Gandak joins near Sonpur (Patna)
• Kosi joins near Katihar
  This sequence reflects the geographical flow pattern and regional hydrology of the Middle Ganga Plain.

Question 57: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.
Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.
Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
(d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I

Explanation:
Rainfall contributes to chemical weathering through:

• Carbon dioxide dissolved in rainwater forms carbonic acid, which reacts with minerals like calcium carbonate in rocks.
• Atmospheric oxygen in rainwater leads to oxidation, especially of iron-bearing minerals, forming iron oxides that weaken rock structure.
  These processes cause decomposition and disintegration of rocks, especially in humid climates.

Question 58: Consider the following countries:

1. Finland
2. Germany
3. Norway
4. Russia
   How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) Only three
   (d) All four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:
The North Sea borders:

• Germany
• Norway
  Finland borders the Baltic Sea, not the North Sea.
  Russia also borders the Baltic Sea and Arctic Ocean, but not the North Sea.
  Hence, only Germany and Norway share a coastline with the North Sea, which is a key region for maritime trade and offshore energy.

Question 59: Consider the following information:
Waterfall — Region — River

1. Dhuandhar — Malwa — Narmada
2. Hundru — Chota Nagpur — Subarnarekha
3. Gersoppa — Western Ghats — Netravati
   In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
   (a) Only one
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• Dhuandhar Falls is on the Narmada River, but Jabalpur lies in the Mahakoshal region, not Malwa.
• Hundru Falls is correctly matched with Subarnarekha River in the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
• Gersoppa Falls (Jog Falls) is on the Sharavathi River, not Netravati.
  Hence, only rows 1 and 2 are correctly matched in terms of river and waterfall.

Question 60: Consider the following information:
Region — Name of the mountain range — Type of mountain

1. Central Asia — Vosges — Fold mountain
2. Europe — Alps — Block mountain
3. North America — Appalachians — Fold mountain
4. South America — Andes — Fold mountain
   In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) Only three
   (d) All four

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

• Vosges is a block mountain in Europe, not a fold mountain in Central Asia.
• Alps are fold mountains, not block mountains.
• Appalachians and Andes are correctly identified as fold mountains.
  Hence, rows 3 and 4 are correct, and row 2 is partially correct in mountain type but wrong in classification.
  So, three entries are correct in terms of mountain type.

Question 61: The organisms “Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater” are:
(a) Birds
(b) Fish
(c) Insects
(d) Reptiles

Answer: (c) Insects

Explanation:

• Cicadas are known for their periodic emergence and loud mating calls.
• Froghoppers, also called spittlebugs, produce foam to protect their nymphs.
• Pond skaters use surface tension to walk on water and prey on trapped insects.
  All three belong to the insect class, showcasing diverse adaptations in aquatic and terrestrial habitats.

Question 62: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Explanation:
Modern chewing gums often contain synthetic polymers like polyvinyl acetate, which are non-biodegradable.
These plastics contribute to urban litter, especially on pavements and public spaces.
The presence of plastic gum bases explains why chewing gum is considered a source of pollution, making both statements correct and Statement-II a valid explanation.

Question 63: Consider the following pairs:
Country — Animal found in its natural habitat

1. Brazil — Indri
2. Indonesia — Elk
3. Madagascar — Bonobo
   How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) All three
   (d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

• Indri is native to Madagascar, not Brazil.
• Elk are found in North America and Eurasia, not Indonesia.
• Bonobo is native to the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar.
  Hence, none of the pairs are correctly matched, but since Madagascar is mentioned for Bonobo, which is incorrect, the correct answer is only one (Indri-Madagascar, if reinterpreted).

Question 64: Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:

1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 2 only
   (b) 3 only
   (c) 1 and 2
   (d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 2 only

Explanation:
The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is a global non-profit organization, not a UN agency.
It launched initiatives like World Toilet Day, World Toilet Summit, and World Toilet College to promote sanitation awareness and education.
Its primary role is advocacy and capacity building, not fund disbursement.
It works to improve toilet access, hygiene standards, and public health, especially in underserved communities.

Question 65: Consider the following statements:

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:
Lions breed throughout the year, often synchronizing births within a pride.
Cheetahs lack the vocal anatomy to roar; they produce chirps, growls, and purrs instead.
Leopards, like lions, mark territory using scent, including urine, feces, and scrape marks.
Territorial marking is common among solitary big cats to avoid conflict and establish range.

Question 66: Which one of the following is the correct description of “100 Million Farmers”?
(a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
(b) It is an international alliance and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry.
(c) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely.
(d) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products.

Answer: (a) It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.

Explanation:
The 100 Million Farmers initiative, launched by the World Economic Forum, aims to transform agriculture by promoting climate-resilient practices, nature-positive farming, and carbon neutrality.
It supports policy makers, agribusinesses, and farmers in adopting sustainable models that reduce emissions and improve soil health and water efficiency.
It is not a blockchain platform or focused on organic animal husbandry.

Question 67: Consider the following:

1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
   How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) Only three
   (d) All four

Answer: (d) All four

Explanation:
Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) are small-scale energy systems located close to where energy is used.
They include:

• Battery storage for grid balancing and backup
• Biomass generators for localized power from organic waste
• Fuel cells for clean electricity generation
• Rooftop solar units for decentralized solar power
  DERs enhance energy access, grid stability, and renewable integration.

Question 68: Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?
(a) Fig
(b) Mahua
(c) Sandalwood
(d) Silk cotton

Answer: (a) Fig

Explanation:
Fig trees have a mutualistic relationship with fig wasps, where each fig species is pollinated by a specific wasp species.
The wasp lays eggs inside the fig while pollinating it, and the fig provides a nursery and food for the larvae.
This coevolutionary bond ensures exclusive pollination, making it a classic example of obligate mutualism in nature.

Question 69: Consider the following:

1. Butterflies
2. Fish
3. Frogs
   How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) All three
   (d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:

• Some butterflies, like the Monarch and Papilio antimachus, are toxic due to cardiac glycosides.
• Venomous fish like the Stonefish and Lionfish possess potent toxins delivered via spines.
• Poison dart frogs and venomous frogs like Bruno’s casque-headed frog produce skin toxins or inject venom.
  These adaptations serve defensive and predatory functions in diverse ecosystems.

Question 70: Consider the following:

1. Cashew
2. Papaya
3. Red sanders
   How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) All three
   (d) None

Answer: (a) Only one

Explanation:

• Cashew is native to Brazil, introduced to India by the Portuguese.
• Papaya originated in Central America, not India.
• Red Sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) is native to India, especially Andhra Pradesh, and is valued for its timber and medicinal properties.
  Only Red Sanders is indigenous to India.

Question 71: Consider the following airports:

1. Donyi Polo Airport
2. Kushinagar International Airport
3. Vijayawada International Airport
   In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• Donyi Polo Airport in Arunachal Pradesh and Kushinagar Airport in Uttar Pradesh are Greenfield projects, built from scratch.
• Vijayawada Airport is a brownfield development, upgraded from an existing airstrip.
  Greenfield airports are developed on undeveloped land, with new infrastructure and facilities.

Question 72: With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

• Water vapour concentration decreases with altitude, being highest near the Earth’s surface.
• It is most abundant in tropical regions, not at the poles.
• In polar regions, cold temperatures limit evaporation, resulting in low humidity.
  Water vapour plays a key role in weather systems and greenhouse effect.

Question 73: Consider the following description:

1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm.
   What is this type of climate?
   (a) Equatorial climate
   (b) China type climate
   (c) Humid subtropical climate
   (d) Marine West coast climate

Answer: (d) Marine West coast climate

Explanation:

• Marine West Coast climate features mild temperatures, low temperature range, and year-round precipitation.
• Found in northwest Europe, Pacific Northwest, and New Zealand, influenced by westerlies and ocean currents.
• Rainfall ranges from 50 to 250 cm, often with cloudy skies and drizzle.
  This climate supports temperate forests and dense vegetation.

Question 74: With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the Equator.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
The Coriolis force arises due to the rotation of the Earth and affects the direction of moving objects, especially winds.
It increases with wind velocity and is maximum at the poles, not at the equator.
At the equator, the Coriolis effect is zero, which is why cyclones do not form there.
This force is crucial in shaping global wind patterns and ocean currents.

Question 75: On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?

1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 3 and 4
   (d) 2 and 4

Answer: (d) 2 and 4

Explanation:
On June 21, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted maximally towards the sun, marking the Summer Solstice. The Tropic of Cancer receives direct solar rays, resulting in longer daylight hours. The Arctic Circle experiences 24-hour daylight, known as the Midnight Sun, due to the Earth’s axial tilt. The Equator maintains nearly equal day and night throughout the year, and the Tropic of Capricorn, being in the Southern Hemisphere, receives less sunlight on this date. Therefore, Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle experience more than 12 hours of sunlight.

Question 76: One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Congo Basin
(c) Kikon Basin
(d) Rio de la Plata Basin

Answer: (b) Congo Basin

Explanation:
The Cuvette Centrale peatlands in the Congo Basin represent the largest tropical peatland complex globally, storing an estimated 29 billion tonnes of carbon—equivalent to three years of global fossil fuel emissions. These peatlands are carbon-rich wetlands, formed over thousands of years, and are vital for climate regulation. Their destruction due to deforestation, drainage, or oil exploration could release massive amounts of greenhouse gases, accelerating global warming. The Congo Basin spans multiple Central African countries and remains one of the most ecologically sensitive and under-researched regions.

Question 77: With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging material.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
PFAS, known as forever chemicals, are synthetic compounds used in non-stick cookware, water-repellent clothing, firefighting foams, and food packaging. They are highly persistent, resisting environmental degradation due to strong carbon-fluorine bonds. PFAS have been detected in drinking water, soil, and human blood samples globally. Their bioaccumulative nature means they build up in the tissues of animals and humans, leading to potential health effects such as thyroid disorders, immune suppression, and developmental issues. Regulatory bodies worldwide are now pushing for monitoring and phased elimination of PFAS from consumer products.

Question 78: Consider the following:

1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasps
   Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kinds of organisms?
   (a) Only two
   (b) Only three
   (c) Only four
   (d) All five

Answer: (b) Only three

Explanation:
Parasitoids are organisms that live in or on a host, ultimately killing it. They are commonly found among flies (especially tachinid flies), wasps (notably ichneumonids and braconids), and some beetles like carabids, which exhibit parasitoid behavior in specific ecological contexts. Centipedes are predators, not parasitoids, and termites are social decomposers, playing no role in parasitism. Thus, flies, wasps, and carabid beetles are the correct examples of organisms with parasitoid species.

Question 79: Consider the following plants:

1. Groundnut
2. Horse-gram
3. Soybean
   How many of the above belong to the pea family?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) All three
   (d) None

Answer: (c) All three

Explanation:
All three—Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea), Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum), and Soybean (Glycine max)—belong to the Fabaceae family, commonly known as the pea or legume family. These plants are known for their nitrogen-fixing ability, thanks to symbiotic Rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules. They play a crucial role in sustainable agriculture, improving soil fertility and reducing the need for synthetic fertilizers. Their seeds are rich in protein, making them important for human and livestock nutrition.

Question 80: Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?
(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
(c) Long duration energy storage
(d) Rainwater harvesting system

Answer: (c) Long duration energy storage

Explanation:
Pumped-storage hydropower (PSH) is a grid-scale energy storage system that stores energy by pumping water to a higher elevation during periods of low electricity demand and releasing it to generate power during peak demand. It is considered the most efficient and mature technology for long-duration energy storage, especially in integrating renewable energy sources like solar and wind, which are intermittent. PSH helps in load balancing, frequency regulation, and reducing reliance on fossil fuels, making it a key component of clean energy transition strategies.

Question 81: The total fertility rate in a economy is defined as:
(a) the number of children born per 1000 people in the population in a year.
(b) the number of children born to couple in their lifetime in a given population.
(c) the birth rate minus death rate.
(d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.

Answer: (d) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age

Explanation:
The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is a demographic measure indicating the average number of children a woman is expected to bear during her reproductive years, assuming current age-specific fertility rates remain constant. A TFR of 2.1 is considered the replacement level, ensuring population stability. A lower TFR signals population decline, while a higher rate suggests growth pressure. TFR is crucial for policy planning, especially in areas like healthcare, education, and labor force projections.

Question 82: Consider the following statements:

1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 3 only
   (c) 1, 2 and 3
   (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is primarily available to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Primary Dealers, not to regular NBFCs. Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) are permitted to invest in Government Securities, subject to regulatory caps. Stock Exchanges like NSE and BSE have launched dedicated debt platforms, enabling transparent trading in corporate bonds and G-Secs, thereby deepening India’s bond market ecosystem.

Question 83: In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?

1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All listed entities—Insurance Companies, Pension Funds, and Retail Investors—can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities. Institutional investors dominate the debt market, while Retail Direct Scheme by RBI allows individuals to invest directly in G-Secs. Retail investors also access corporate bonds via brokers and exchanges, promoting financial inclusion and diversification of investment portfolios.

Question 84: Consider the following:

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap
   Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1, 2 and 3
   (d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:
Financial instruments are contracts representing monetary value or claims, such as securities and derivatives. ETFs are marketable securities traded on exchanges. Currency swaps are derivative contracts used for hedging or speculative purposes. Motor vehicles, though valuable, are physical assets, not financial instruments, as they do not represent a financial claim or contract.

Question 85: With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Economic activity : Sector

1. Storage of agricultural produce : Secondary
2. Dairy farm : Primary
3. Mineral exploration : Tertiary
4. Weaving cloth : Secondary
   How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) Only three
   (d) All four

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

• Storage of agricultural produce is a tertiary activity, involving services.
• Dairy farming is a primary activity, based on natural resource extraction.
• Mineral exploration involves surveying and consultancy, hence tertiary sector.
• Weaving cloth is a manufacturing process, part of the secondary sector.
  Thus, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Question 86: Consider the following materials:

1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste
   Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 3 and 4 only
   (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) is derived from renewable biomass and waste materials. All listed feedstocks—agricultural residues, corn grain, wastewater sludge, and wood mill waste—can be processed into SAF. These alternatives reduce carbon emissions, support circular economy, and enhance energy resilience in aviation. SAF is a key component in achieving net-zero aviation goals.

Question 87: With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Items : Category

1. Farmer’s plough : Working capital
2. Computer : Fixed capital
3. Yarn used by the weaver : Fixed capital
4. Petrol : Working capital
   How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) Only three
   (d) All four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

• Farmer’s plough is a fixed capital asset used repeatedly.
• Computer is also fixed capital, used over multiple production cycles.
• Yarn is a raw material, hence working capital.
• Petrol is consumed during production, making it working capital.
  Correct matches: 2 and 4.

Question 88: Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote “an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items”?
(a) Big data analytics
(b) Cryptography
(c) Metaverse
(d) Virtual matrix

Answer: (c) Metaverse

Explanation:
The Metaverse is a shared digital space combining virtual reality, augmented reality, and blockchain technologies. Users interact via avatars, own virtual assets, and participate in economic and social activities. It supports interoperability, property rights, and persistent environments, making it a transformative concept in digital interaction and commerce.

Question 89: With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:

1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:
RBI mandates a minimum capital requirement of ₹500 crore for wholly owned subsidiaries (WOS) of foreign banks. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
To ensure local governance and compliance, RBI requires that at least 50% of board members in WOS be Indian nationals, making statement 2 correct.

Question 90: With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:

1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
CSR rules under the Companies Act, 2013 clearly state that activities benefiting employees directly are excluded from CSR classification. However, companies meeting specified thresholds must spend at least 2% of their average net profits over the past three years on CSR. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 91: With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:

1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs) are compact power systems that convert heat from radioactive decay (typically of Plutonium-238) into electricity using thermocouples. They are not miniature fission reactors, as they do not involve chain reactions. RTGs are widely used in space missions like Voyager, Cassini, and Mars rovers, where solar power is impractical. Plutonium-238, used in RTGs, is a by-product of nuclear weapons programs, making it suitable for long-duration missions due to its high energy density and long half-life.

Question 92: Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Explanation:
Giant stars have larger masses and hotter cores, which lead to faster nuclear fusion rates. Despite having more fuel, they burn it rapidly, resulting in shorter lifespans compared to dwarf stars, which burn fuel slowly and live longer. The greater rate of nuclear reactions in giants explains their brighter luminosity but also their quick demise, often ending in supernovae or black holes.

Question 93: Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?
(a) Nitric oxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Nitrogen dioxide
(d) Nitrogen pentoxide

Answer: (a) Nitric oxide

Explanation:
Nitric oxide (NO) is a naturally synthesized molecule in the human body, especially by endothelial cells lining blood vessels. It acts as a vasodilator, relaxing smooth muscles and increasing blood flow. It plays a vital role in cardiovascular health, regulating blood pressure, and preventing clot formation. Unlike nitrous oxide (N₂O), which is an anesthetic gas, nitric oxide is a biological signaling molecule.

Question 94: Consider the following activities:

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2. Monitoring of precipitation
3. Tracking the migration of animals
   In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) All three
   (d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:
Radar systems are extensively used for monitoring precipitation (e.g., Doppler radar) and tracking animal migration, especially birds and bats, using weather surveillance radars. However, identification of narcotics at airports relies on X-ray scanners, millimeter wave scanners, and chemical detection, not radar. Thus, radar is applicable in activities 2 and 3, but not in 1.

Question 95: Consider the following aircraft:

1. Rafael
2. MIG-29
3. Tejas MK-1
   How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
   (a) Only one
   (b) Only two
   (c) All three
   (d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:
Fifth-generation fighter aircraft are defined by features like stealth, advanced avionics, supercruise, and networked warfare capabilities.

• Rafale is a 4.5 generation multirole fighter.
• MIG-29 is a 4th generation Soviet-era jet.
• Tejas MK-1 is an indigenous 4+ generation aircraft.
  India’s proposed AMCA project aims to develop a true fifth-generation fighter.

Question 96: In which of the following are hydrogels used?

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Hydrogels are water-absorbing polymeric materials with diverse applications:

• In medicine, they are used for controlled drug delivery due to their biocompatibility and tunable release properties.
• In air-conditioning, hydrogels help in moisture regulation and cooling.
• In industrial settings, hydrogels serve as lubricants, offering low friction and wear resistance. Their versatility stems from their porous structure and high water content.

Question 97: Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?
(a) Hydrogen peroxide
(b) Hydronium
(c) Oxygen
(d) Water vapour

Answer: (d) Water vapour

Explanation:
Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) powered by hydrogen generate electricity through electrochemical reactions in a fuel cell. The only by-product is water vapour, making them zero-emission vehicles. Unlike internal combustion engines, FCEVs do not emit carbon dioxide, nitrogen oxides, or particulate matter, making them ideal for clean transportation.

Question 98: Recently, the term “pumped-storage hydropower” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?
(a) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
(b) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
(c) Long duration energy storage
(d) Rainwater harvesting system

Answer: (c) Long duration energy storage

Explanation:
Pumped-storage hydropower (PSH) is a grid-scale energy storage technology that stores energy by pumping water to a higher elevation during low demand and releasing it to generate electricity during peak demand. It is crucial for balancing renewable energy sources like solar and wind, offering long-duration storage, grid stability, and load management.

Question 99: “Membrane Bioreactors” are often discussed in the context of:
(a) Assisted reproductive technologies
(b) Drug delivery nanotechnologies
(c) Vaccine production technologies
(d) Wastewater treatment technologies

Answer: (d) Wastewater treatment technologies

Explanation:
Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) combine biological treatment with membrane filtration to treat wastewater. They offer high-quality effluent, compact design, and efficient removal of organic matter and pathogens. MBRs are increasingly used in urban sewage treatment, industrial effluent management, and water recycling systems, especially in space-constrained environments.

Question 100: With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations” are the instruments of:
(a) Bond market
(b) Forex market
(c) Money market
(d) Stock market

Answer: (c) Money market

Explanation:
Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO) are money market instruments operated by Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (CCIL). They facilitate secured lending and borrowing among market participants using government securities as collateral. CBLOs are used by banks, mutual funds, and financial institutions for short-term liquidity management.