1. Which Muslim social reformer told the Muslim that they could achieve progress by studying modern education and science?
(1) Sir Sayyad Ahmed Khan
(2) Mirza Gulam Ahmed
(3) Khan Abdul Gafar Khan
(4) Sheikh Abbas
Answer: (1) Sir Sayyad Ahmed Khan
Explanation
Sir Sayyad Ahmed Khan was a pioneering Muslim reformer who emphasized the importance of modern education and scientific learning for the upliftment of the Muslim community. He believed that embracing Western-style education was essential for social and economic progress. His efforts led to the establishment of the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College in Aligarh, which later evolved into Aligarh Muslim University, a key institution promoting modern education among Indian Muslims.
2. Which of the following leaders was from the Congress Socialist Party?
(1) Motilal Nehru, Lokmanya Tilak, S. M. Joshi
(2) B. R. Ambedkar, Motilal Nehru, M. N. Roy
(3) Jayaprakash Narayan, S. M. Joshi, Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya
(4) Motilal Nehru, M. N. Roy, Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya
Answer: (3) Jayaprakash Narayan, S. M. Joshi, Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya
Explanation
The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was established in 1934 as a socialist faction within the Indian National Congress. It aimed to promote socialist ideals such as economic equality, land reforms, and workers’ rights. Prominent leaders of the CSP included Jayaprakash Narayan, S. M. Joshi, and Dr. Ram Manohar Lohiya, all of whom played significant roles in shaping India’s socialist movement and influencing post-independence policies.
3. Consider the following statements.
Statement (I) : ‘Dar ughad baya dar ughad’ this Bharud wrote by Ekanath.
Statement (II) : Nath has appealed to Goddess Laxmi in this.
(1) Statement (II) is correct, (I) incorrect
(2) Statement (I) is correct, (II) incorrect
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct
Answer: (2) Statement (I) is correct, (II) incorrect
Explanation
This question is about a specific Bharud (a form of Marathi folk poetry) written by Saint Ekanath. Statement (I) correctly attributes the Bharud ‘Dar ughad baya dar ughad‘ to Ekanath. However, Statement (II) is incorrect because this particular composition is an appeal to Goddess Bhavani, not Goddess Laxmi. Therefore, only the first statement is correct.
4. Who among the following started the newspaper ‘Jagrook’ to promote the Non-Brahmin Movement ?
(1) Walchand Ramchandra Kothari
(2) Dattajirao Yashwantrao Kurne
(3) Balwant Krushna Pisal
(4) Dinkarrao Jawalkar
Answer: (1) Walchand Ramchandra Kothari
Explanation
Walchand Ramchandra Kothari was a key figure in the Non-Brahmin Movement in Maharashtra. To promote the ideals and objectives of this movement, he started the newspaper named Jagrook. The newspaper served as a platform to voice the concerns of non-Brahmin communities and advocate for social reforms.
5. Which of the following unpopular acts of Lord Lytton accelerated the growth of Indian Nationalism?
a. Maximum age limit for the ICS examination was reduced from 21 years to 19 years.
b. Ilbert Bill.
c. Vernacular Press Act and Indian Arms Act.
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (2) a and c
Explanation
Lord Lytton’s tenure as Viceroy was marked by several controversial acts that fueled resentment and accelerated the growth of Indian Nationalism. These included reducing the maximum age limit for the ICS examination from 21 to 19 years, which made it extremely difficult for Indians to compete. He also enacted the repressive Vernacular Press Act of 1878 to curb criticism in the Indian-language press and the Indian Arms Act of 1878, which restricted Indians from possessing arms without a license. The Ilbert Bill, which sought to allow Indian judges to try Europeans, was introduced later under Lord Ripon, not Lord Lytton. Therefore, acts ‘a’ and ‘c’ are correctly attributed to Lord Lytton.
6. Which of the following statements about the famous Nandkumar case in Bengal is incorrect ?
(1) Warren Hasting was the facilitator of the case
(2) Justice Elijah Impey acquitted Nandkumar in this case
(3) Critics have described the Nandkumar case as an assassination of justice
(4) Nandkumar was the Diwan of Bengal Nawab Meer Jafar
Answer: (2) Justice Elijah Impey acquitted Nandkumar in this case
Explanation
The Nandkumar case is a significant event in British Indian judicial history. Warren Hastings, the Governor-General, was indeed the facilitator of the case against Nandkumar, who had accused him of corruption. Nandkumar had also served as the Diwan for Nawab Meer Jafar. The trial has been widely criticized as a miscarriage of justice, often described as a judicial murder or an assassination of justice. The incorrect statement is that Justice Elijah Impey acquitted Nandkumar; in reality, Nandkumar was found guilty of forgery and sentenced to death, a verdict that was highly controversial.
7. Match the correct pairs.
a. Dadabhai Naoroji
b. Rameshchandra Dutta
c. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
d. Justice M. G. Ranade
i. Testimony before the Belby Commission
ii. Member of Royal Commission
iii. Wrote a Book on ‘Famine in India’
iv. Establishment of industrial conference
v. Translation and spread of Famine Relief Code
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-v
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-v
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-v
Answer: (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
Explanation
This question requires matching prominent Indian leaders with their significant contributions.
Dadabhai Naoroji, a key early nationalist, was appointed as a Member of the Royal Commission on Indian Expenditure (the Welby Commission).
Rameshchandra Dutta authored several influential works on the Indian economy, including a book on the history of famines, correctly identified here as Famine in India.
Gopal Krishna Gokhale gave powerful Testimony before the Belby Commission, critiquing British economic policies.
Justice M. G. Ranade was a pioneer in promoting industrial development and was instrumental in the Establishment of the industrial conference.
8. Read the following statements about the Kanpur and Mirat cases.
Statement I : The complaint filed against the trade union leaders of communist party in both cases.
Statement II : All the leaders were acquitted in both the above cases.
(1) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
(2) Statement I and II both are correct
(3) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
(4) Statement I and II both are incorrect
Answer: (3) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
Explanation
The Kanpur (1924) and Meerut (1929) Conspiracy Cases were significant events where the British government targeted communist and trade union leaders. Statement I is correct as both cases involved filing complaints and prosecuting these leaders for conspiracy against the state. Statement II is incorrect because the leaders were not acquitted; they were convicted and sentenced, although some sentences were later reduced on appeal.
9. Read the following statement about the famous folk artist Saganbhau and choose the incorrect statements.
a. Saganbhau born in a Muslim family.
b. He wrote the folk song (Lavani) on Bajirao’s life.
c. He wrote the Powada on ‘Panipat battle’.
d. He wrote the Powada on ‘Khardyachi ladhai’.
(1) only statement a and d is incorrect
(2) only statement a is incorrect
(3) only statement d is incorrect
(4) statement a and c are incorrect
Answer: (3) only statement d is incorrect
Explanation
Saganbhau was a well-known folk artist. He was indeed born into a Muslim family and composed a Lavani on Peshwa Bajirao’s life and a Powada on the Battle of Panipat. The incorrect statement is that he wrote a Powada on the Khardyachi ladhai (Battle of Kharda), which he did not. Therefore, only statement ‘d’ is incorrect.
10. Which Saint of the nath sect initiated into Islam by Sufi Saint Nizammuddin, according to the Setu Madhavrao Pagadi ?
(1) Gahininath
(2) Gorakhnath
(3) Nagnath
(4) Kanifnath
Answer: (4) Kanifnath
Explanation
According to historian Setu Madhavrao Pagadi, Kanifnath, a prominent saint from the Nath sect, was initiated into Islam by the famous Sufi Saint Nizamuddin Auliya. This reflects the syncretic traditions and spiritual exchanges between different religious communities in medieval India.
11. Who directed the famous Marathi movie, ‘Saamna’?
(1) Ramdas Phutane
(2) Dr. Jabbar Patel
(3) Kamalakar Torane
(4) Shantaram Athawale
Answer: (2) Dr. Jabbar Patel
Explanation
‘Saamna’ is a critically acclaimed Marathi film released in 1975, directed by Dr. Jabbar Patel. The film is celebrated for its powerful narrative, strong performances, and its role in shaping parallel cinema in Maharashtra.
12. Read the following statements about the various uprising against company power in Bengal.
a. The revolt of Sanyashis, Chuara, Kolama and Santhala included the uprising in Bengal.
b. In Bankimchandra Chatterjee novel ‘Anandmath’ describes the Santhala rebellion.
c. Brother’s Kanhu and Sindhu led the Santhala rebellion.
d. Khasis rebellion had lead Tirath Singh.
(1) Option a, b and c are correct
(2) Option a and c are correct
(3) Option a, b and d are correct
(4) Option a, c and d are correct
Answer: (4) Option a, c and d are correct
Explanation
Statement ‘a’ is correct as the Sanyasi, Chuara, Kolama, and Santhala uprisings were notable tribal and peasant revolts in Bengal against British rule.
Statement ‘b’ is incorrect because Bankimchandra Chatterjee’s ‘Anandmath’ is based on the Sanyasi Rebellion, not the Santhala rebellion.
Statement ‘c’ is correct as the Santhala rebellion (1855–56) was led by Kanhu and Sidhu Murmu.
Statement ‘d’ is correct since the Khasis rebellion was led by Tirath Singh during 1829–1833.
13. _____ book is based on the Presidential speech given by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar at Lahor on the occasion of yearly gathering Jat Pat Todak Mandal.
(1) Caste in India
(2) Riddles in Hinduism
(3) Annihilation of Caste
(4) Who were Shudras ?
Answer: (3)
Explanation
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar was invited to deliver the presidential address at the 1936 annual conference of the Jat-Pat Todak Mandal in Lahore. However, the speech was cancelled by the organisers due to its controversial content, which was highly critical of the caste system and Hindu scriptures. Dr. Ambedkar later self-published this undelivered speech as a book titled ‘Annihilation of Caste‘.
14. Read the sentences about Wahhabi Movement and choose the correct option.
a. Saeed Ahmad established the ‘Wahhabi’ sect in the village of ‘Bareilly’.
b. The aim of the Movement was to oust the British rule established in Bengal and establish a Muslim State.
c. Wahhabi Movement started in 20th century.
(1) a only
(2) a and b
(3) b only
(4) c only
Answer: (1)
Explanation
The Wahhabi Movement in India was a revivalist Islamic movement. Statement ‘a’ is correct as its founder in India was Syed Ahmad of Raebareli (often referred to as Bareilly in this context). Statement ‘b’ is incorrect because while the movement was anti-British, its initial aim was to purify Islam and combat Sikh rule in Punjab, not specifically to oust British rule in Bengal. Statement ‘c’ is incorrect as the movement was active in the early 19th century, not the 20th century.
15. ‘Indian Association’ was established by Surendranath Banarjee in Bengal on 26 July, 1876. Who was the first secretary of this Association ?
(1) Babu Shishir Kumar Ghosh
(2) Anand Mohan Ghosh
(3) Ambika Charan Majumdar
(4) Lalmohan Ghosh
Answer: (2)
Explanation
The ‘Indian Association‘ was founded in Bengal on July 26, 1876, by Surendranath Banerjee along with other nationalist leaders. It was one of the most important pre-Congress nationalist organizations. While Surendranath Banerjee was the leading figure, Anand Mohan Ghosh (Ananda Mohan Bose) served as its first secretary.
16. Match the pairs.
a. Ram Joshi
b. Parashram
c. Saganbhau
d. Honaji Bala
I. Latpat Latpat Tujh Chalna Mothya Nakharyach
II. Zali tarunpanachi dhul, pati nahi sejewar, sundara rade mul mul
III. Nirmal mukhda Chandrakar saral nakachi shobhate dhar
IV. Lekrala May visarli kasa Eshwara Tari
(1) II, III, IV, I
(2) IV, II, I, III
(3) III, I, II, IV
(4) I, II, III, IV
Answer: (1)
Explanation
This question matches famous Marathi Shahirs (folk poets/performers) with lines from their compositions:
a. Ram Joshi is associated with the composition ‘Zali tarunpanachi dhul, pati nahi sejewar, sundara rade mul mul‘ (II).
b. Parashram is credited with the lines ‘Nirmal mukhda Chandrakar saral nakachi shobhate dhar‘ (III).
c. Saganbhau wrote the famous Lavani ‘Lekrala May visarli kasa Eshwara Tari‘ (IV).
d. Honaji Bala composed the well-known Lavani ‘Latpat Latpat Tujh Chalna Mothya Nakharyach‘ (I).
17. Which British Officer entered the forest and brought to prominence of Ajanta caves ?
(1) Sir Charles Metcalfe
(2) Lord Auckland
(3) Lord Canning
(4) Sir James Alexander
Answer: (4)
Explanation
The Ajanta Caves, a masterpiece of ancient Indian art, were largely abandoned and hidden in a dense forest for centuries. While a British officer named John Smith is often credited with their “rediscovery” during a tiger hunt in 1819, the question asks who brought them to prominence. In this context, Sir James Alexander, a Scottish soldier and author, played a key role in publicizing the caves to the Western world through his writings and reports, thus bringing them to prominence.
18. Tilak party people who opposed the separate electorate of the Marathas were referring to themselves as what ?
(1) National Maratha
(2) We Non-Brahmin
(3) We Kshatriyas
(4) Maratha Kshatriyas
Answer: (1)
Explanation
Within the politics of early 20th century Maharashtra, there were divisions over the issue of communal representation. Followers of Lokmanya Tilak, who were part of the nationalist mainstream, opposed the idea of a separate electorate for Marathas. To distinguish themselves from the non-Brahmin movement that demanded separate representation, these Tilak-supporting individuals referred to themselves as ‘National Maratha‘. This name emphasized their allegiance to a unified national identity over caste-based political divisions.
19. Which of the following doctrines was not of Prarthana Samaj ?
a. Loyalty to one God
b. Scripture is not created by God
c. National resurrection
d. Pastglorious
(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) only a
(4) only b
Answer: (2)
Explanation
The Prarthana Samaj was a social-religious reform movement in Maharashtra. Its core doctrines included monotheism (Loyalty to one God) and a rational approach to religion, which included the belief that scriptures were human creations and not divinely authored. The movement focused on social reform rather than political ideologies like ‘National resurrection‘ or glorifying a ‘Pastglorious‘ era. Therefore, ‘c’ and ‘d’ were not doctrines of the Prarthana Samaj.
20. What was the name given to the ‘Manapatra’ given to Queen Victoria by delegation of the Pune Sarvajanik Sabha led by the Sarvajanik Kaka at the Delhi Durbar in 1877 ?
(1) Declaration of Rights
(2) Indian Rights
(3) Indian National Document
(4) Nation Demand
Answer: (1)
Explanation
At the Delhi Durbar of 1877, where Queen Victoria was proclaimed Empress of India, the Pune Sarvajanik Sabha, led by Ganesh Vasudev Joshi (popularly known as Sarvajanik Kaka), presented a formal address or ‘Manapatra‘ to the Queen. This document, which articulated the political aspirations and grievances of the Indian people, was titled ‘Declaration of Rights‘. It was a significant early expression of Indian demands for greater political rights and representation within the British Empire.
21. Match the following.
Newspaper
a. Amrut Bazar Patrika
b. Indian Mirror
c. Hindustani
d. Hindu
Editor
I. Subramanyam Ayyar
II. G. P. Varma
III. S. N. Sen
IV. Shishirkumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh
(1) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
(2) a-II, b-III, c-IV, d-I
(3) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
(4) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
Answer: (4)
Explanation
This question requires matching prominent Indian newspapers with their editors.
a. Amrut Bazar Patrika was founded by Shishirkumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh.
b. Indian Mirror was associated with S. N. Sen.
c. Hindustani was edited by G. P. Varma.
d. The Hindu was co-founded by Subramanyam Ayyar.
22. Whose description is as below ?
a. Born on 7 November, 1858.
b. His second marriage with widow after the death of first wife.
c. He was written a book “The Soul of India”.
d. He opposed the Non-Co-operation Movement of Mahatma Gandhi.
(1) Lala Lajapat Rai
(2) Lokmanya Tilak
(3) Bipinchandra Pal
(4) Keshavchandra Sen
Answer: (3)
Explanation
The description matches Bipinchandra Pal, a prominent nationalist leader. He was born on 7 November, 1858, and supported widow remarriage, which he practiced personally. He authored the book ‘The Soul of India‘ and opposed the Non-Cooperation Movement initiated by Mahatma Gandhi due to ideological differences.
23. Match the following.
A Dramatist
a. Govind Purushotam Deshpande
b. Gajvi
c. Sham Manohar
d. Ratnakar Matkari
A Drama
I. Lok Katha 78
II. Ghotbhar Pani
III. Yakrut
IV. Udhvasta Dharma Shala
(1) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
(2) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
(3) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
(4) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
Answer: (2)
Explanation
This question matches Marathi dramatists with their plays.
a. Govind Purushotam Deshpande wrote ‘Udhvasta Dharma Shala‘.
b. Gajvi (Rajendra Gavit) wrote ‘Yakrut‘.
c. Sham Manohar authored ‘Lok Katha 78‘.
d. Ratnakar Matkari wrote ‘Ghotbhar Pani‘.
24. Match the following.
a. Kayastha Sabha
b. Sarin Sabha
c. Sri Narayan Dharma Pratipalana Sabha
d. Paramahansa Mandali
I. Uttar Pradesh
II. Punjab
III. Kerala
IV. Maharashtra
(1) a-I, b-IV, c-III, d-II
(2) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
(3) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
(4) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Answer: (2)
Explanation
This question matches reform organizations with their regions.
a. Kayastha Sabha was founded in Uttar Pradesh.
b. Sarin Sabha originated in Punjab.
c. Sri Narayan Dharma Pratipalana Sabha was started by Sri Narayana Guru in Kerala.
d. Paramahansa Mandali was a reform society in Maharashtra.
25. Which social reformer is mentioned in the following sentences ?
a. He was born on 18 January 1842.
b. Till 1856 he studied at Kolhapur.
c. In 1856 he came to Bombay and joined Elphinstone Institute.
d. After passing his M.A. examination in 1864 and LL.B. examination in 1866 he served the government in various positions.
(1) V. P. Pandit
(2) G. H. Deshmukh
(3) M. G. Ranade
(4) R. G. Bhandarkar
Answer: (3)
Explanation
The reformer described is M. G. Ranade. He was born on 18 January 1842, studied in Kolhapur, then joined Elphinstone Institute in Bombay. He completed his M.A. in 1864 and LL.B. in 1866, and later served in various government positions, eventually becoming a judge.
26. Match the following.
a. Shripad Amrut Dange
b. Muzaffar Ahmed
c. Ghulam Hussain
d. M. Singaravelu
i. Inquilab
ii. Labour-Kisan Gazette
iii. National Front
iv. Navvyug
v. The Socialist
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-v
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-v
(3) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-v, c-ii, d-iv
Answer: (3)
Explanation
This question matches communist leaders with their publications.
a. Shripad Amrut Dange started ‘The Socialist‘.
b. Muzaffar Ahmed published ‘Navvyug‘.
c. Ghulam Hussain edited ‘Inquilab‘.
d. M. Singaravelu launched ‘Labour-Kisan Gazette‘.
27. Which were the recommendations of Hunter Commission, 1882 ?
a. Provision was to be made for ordinary grant and special grant to colleges.
b. There were to be alternative courses in the big colleges.
c. New regulations regarding scholarships were to be framed.
d. The commission put emphasis on physical and mental education of the students.
(1) a, c, d statements are correct
(2) a, b, c statements are correct
(3) b, c, d statements are correct
(4) a, b, c, d statements are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation
The Hunter Commission of 1882 made several recommendations:
a. Suggested ordinary and special grants for colleges.
b. Proposed alternative courses in large colleges.
c. Called for new scholarship regulations.
d. Emphasized physical and mental education. All statements are correct.
28. What was the reason for the decline of Indian Handicrafts ?
a. The installation of large-scale industries in India by British Companies.
b. The British policy aimed at giving protection to the industrial goods made in England.
c. Indian Handicrafts could not stand in competition with the sophisticated machine-made goods.
d. The Indian workers were not skillful.
(1) a, b, d statements are correct
(2) a, b, c statements are correct
(3) a, c, d statements are correct
(4) b, c, d statements are correct
Answer: (2)
Explanation
Indian handicrafts declined due to:
a. British industries entering India.
b. Protectionist policies favoring British goods.
c. Machine-made goods outcompeting handmade crafts.
Statement ‘d’ is incorrect; Indian artisans were highly skilled.
29. In 1866 Dadabhai Naoroji organized which association in London to discuss the Indian question and to influence British ?
(1) East India Association
(2) Bombay Association
(3) British Indian Association
(4) Bombay Presidency Association
Answer: (1)
Explanation
In 1866, Dadabhai Naoroji founded the East India Association in London to discuss the Indian question and influence British opinion. It was a platform for early Indian nationalists.
30. Who honoured the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, Saint Tukaram and Saint Ramdas in his important speech on ‘Swarajya’ at Nasik on 24 January 1908 ?
(1) Lokmanya Tilak
(2) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
(3) Arvind Ghosh
(4) Bipinchandra Pal
Answer: (3)
Explanation
In a significant speech delivered on the theme of ‘Swarajya’ (self-rule) at Nasik on January 24, 1908, the nationalist leader Arvind Ghosh (Sri Aurobindo) paid tribute to key historical and spiritual figures from Maharashtra. He honored Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj for his political and military genius in establishing an independent kingdom, and Saint Tukaram and Saint Ramdas for their roles in the cultural and spiritual awakening of the people, which he saw as foundational to the concept of Swarajya.
31. Which of the following newspapers opposed policy and thinking of Rajarshi Chhatrapati Shahu Maharaj ?
a. Dinmitra
b. Vijayi Maratha
c. Jagruk
d. Prabodhan
(1) b, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, d
Answer: (1)
Explanation
Rajarshi Chhatrapati Shahu Maharaj was a progressive ruler who championed social reforms and the non-Brahmin movement. His policies, especially on reservation and caste equality, were opposed by certain newspapers. Vijayi Maratha, Jagruk, and Prabodhan were among those that criticized his views. In contrast, Dinmitra, founded by Mukundrao Patil, supported his reformist agenda.
32. Which code names were given to the following freedom fighters ?
a. Achyutrao Patwardhan
b. Aruna Asaf Ali
c. Sucheta Kriplani
d. Baba Raghavdas
(1) Kadam, Kusum, Didi, Didi
(2) Kusum, Kadam, Didi, Didi
(3) Kusum, Kadam, Dadi, Didi
(4) Didi, Dadi, Kadam, Kusum
Answer: (2)
Explanation
During the Quit India Movement of 1942, many leaders operated underground and used code names to avoid arrest.
a. Achyutrao Patwardhan used the name Kusum.
b. Aruna Asaf Ali was known as Kadam.
c. Sucheta Kriplani was called Didi.
d. Baba Raghavdas also used the code name Didi.
33. Who was appointed as ‘Dictator’ of Forest Satyagraha in Western Maharashtra ?
(1) Lalji Pendse
(2) S. S. Navre
(3) Achyutrao Patwardhan
(4) Ramkrishnadas Maharaj
Answer: (2)
Explanation
The Forest Satyagraha was part of the Civil Disobedience Movement, protesting British forest laws. In Western Maharashtra, S. S. Navre was appointed as the ‘Dictator’, a title given to leaders coordinating satyagraha activities in specific regions.
34. Match the following :
a. The Indian Council Act, 1892
b. The Indian Council Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms)
c. Mont-Ford Reforms Act, 1919
d. The Government of India Act, 1935
i. No right to vote on budget.
ii. Separate constituency to Sikh’s.
iii. Granting provincial autonomy.
iv. Foundation of provincial legislature in Bengal.
v. Encouragement to Muslim communalism.
(1) i, v, ii, iii
(2) iv, i, ii, iii
(3) i, iii, ii, v
(4) ii, v, iii, iv
Answer: (1)
Explanation
a. Indian Council Act, 1892 allowed discussion on the budget but no voting rights (i).
b. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 introduced separate electorates for Muslims, encouraging communalism (v).
c. Mont-Ford Reforms, 1919 extended separate electorates to Sikhs (ii).
d. Government of India Act, 1935 granted provincial autonomy (iii).
35. Who was the first to propose in 1917, through magazine ‘Lokshikshan’ a creation of United Maharashtra by merging the Marathi speaking region of Bombay, Madhya Prant, Varhad and Hyderabad ?
(1) Prabodhankar Thackray
(2) Datto Waman Potdar
(3) G. T. Madkholkar
(4) Prof. Vithal Waman Tamhankar
Answer: (2)
Explanation
In 1917, historian Datto Waman Potdar proposed the idea of a United Maharashtra in the magazine ‘Lokshikshan‘. He suggested merging Marathi-speaking regions from Bombay Presidency, Central Provinces (Madhya Prant), Berar (Varhad), and Hyderabad to form a unified state.
36. Identify the incorrect pair.
(1) Sant Tukdoji Maharaj – India’s representation at World Religions Conference in Japan
(2) Prabodhankar Thackeray – Disciple of Lokhitwadi G. H. Deshmukh
(3) Samajbhushan Baba Amte – Awarded by Magsaysay Award in 1985
(4) Punjabrao Deshmukh – 1952 establishment of Bharat Krishak Samaj
Answer: (2)
Explanation
The pair Prabodhankar Thackeray – Disciple of Lokhitwadi G. H. Deshmukh is incorrect. While both were social reformers, there is no direct disciple relationship.
Other pairs are correct:
- Sant Tukdoji Maharaj represented India in Japan.
- Baba Amte received the Magsaysay Award in 1985.
- Punjabrao Deshmukh founded Bharat Krishak Samaj in 1952.
37. Which of the following statements are correct about Lokahitwadi Gopal Hari Deshmukh ?
a. He started printing press ‘Dyanprakash’.
b. He published weekly ‘Dyanprakash’.
c. He took initiative to start ‘Induprakash’ weekly in 1862.
d. He started ‘Lokahitwadi Magazine’ in 1880.
(1) b, c and d are correct
(2) a, c and d are correct
(3) a, b and d are correct
(4) a, b and c are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation
a. Incorrect – Lokahitwadi did not start the Dyanprakash printing press.
b. Correct – He published the weekly ‘Dyanprakash’.
c. Correct – He initiated the ‘Induprakash’ weekly in 1862.
d. Correct – He started the ‘Lokahitwadi Magazine’ in 1880 to promote social reform.
38. In 1942 Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar was appointed to the Viceroy’s Executive Council on whose recommendation ?
(1) Sir Roger Lumley
(2) Lord Linlithgow
(3) Vinston Churchill
(4) Dr. Munje
Answer: (2)
Explanation
In 1942, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar was appointed to the Viceroy’s Executive Council as Labour Member. This appointment was made on the recommendation of Lord Linlithgow, the Viceroy of India during World War II.
39. What was the title of a documentary made by the Department of Information and Broadcast before the 1957 elections ?
(1) Vote for Democracy
(2) This is Your Vote
(3) One Person One Vote
(4) Your Vote Your Government
Answer: (2)
Explanation
Before the 1957 general elections, the Department of Information and Broadcast produced a documentary titled ‘This is Your Vote‘. It aimed to educate citizens about the importance of voting in a democratic system.
40. What was established to better plan and organize civil disobedience in Bombay ?
(1) War Council and Dictator
(2) Civil Disobedience Committee
(3) Maharashtra Satyagraha Mandal
(4) Hindustani Seva Dal
Answer: (1)
Explanation
To coordinate the Civil Disobedience Movement in Bombay, a War Council was formed. A ‘Dictator’ was also appointed to lead and strategize satyagraha activities, ensuring effective planning and execution.
41. The following sentences are written about whom ?
a. He promised John Malcolm, the Governor of Bombay that he would co-operate with the Government to put an end to the practice of sati.
b. He also suggested that the Government should make law against the practice of sati and it should be applicable through out the India.
(1) Dadoba P. Tarkhadkar
(2) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(3) Jagannath Shankarshet
(4) K. T. Telang
Answer: (3)
Explanation
The statements refer to the reformist efforts of Jagannath Shankarshet, a prominent philanthropist and educationist in 19th-century Bombay. He actively supported the abolition of sati, promising Governor John Malcolm his cooperation. He also urged the government to enact a nationwide law banning the practice.
42. Choose the following correct pair.
(1) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar established the Labour Party of India – 1935
(2) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar established the Schedule Caste Federation – 1940
(3) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar won the Mahad Satyagraha Case – 1937
(4) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar opened Kalaram Mandir for untouchables – 1936
Answer: (3)
Explanation
The Mahad Satyagraha Case was won by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar in 1937, affirming the right of untouchables to access public water sources. The Labour Party of India was founded in 1936, the Scheduled Castes Federation in 1942, and the Kalaram Mandir entry movement began in 1930, making the other options incorrect.
43. According to the Government of India Act, 1935, select the provinces from the following which has bicameral.
(1) Orissa, Assam, Sindh, Bihar, Mumbai, North-West Province
(2) Mumbai, Orissa, Bihar, Bengal, Sanyukta Province, Madras, Assam
(3) Bengal, Sanyukta Province, Assam, Madras, Mumbai, Bihar
(4) Madras, Orissa, North-West Province, Bengal, Sindh, Bihar
Answer: (3)
Explanation
Under the Government of India Act, 1935, six provinces had bicameral legislatures: Bengal, United Provinces (Sanyukta Province), Assam, Madras, Bombay (Mumbai), and Bihar. These provinces had both Legislative Assemblies and Councils.
44. Read the following statements.
Statement – A : Lord Dalhousie suggested that there should be association of Princely States for the co-ordination between the British Government and Princely States.
Statement – B : On the suggestion of Lord Dalhousie, ‘Narendra Mandal’ was established as a association of Princely States.
(1) Statement A is correct, statement B is correct
(2) Both statement A and B are correct
(3) Both statement A and B are incorrect
(4) Statement A is correct and statement B is incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation
Lord Dalhousie was known for his annexationist policies, not for promoting coordination with princely states. The ‘Narendra Mandal’ (Chamber of Princes) was established in 1921, long after Dalhousie’s tenure, under the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, making both statements incorrect.
45. Which of the following youth armed organizations led the Bangladesh Liberation Movement ?
(1) Aamar Bangla
(2) Bangla Liberation (Mukti) Movement
(3) Bangla Mukti Vahini
(4) Aawami Liga
Answer: (3)
Explanation
The Bangla Mukti Vahini, also known as Mukti Bahini, was the armed liberation force that led the Bangladesh Liberation Movement in 1971. It played a central role in the armed struggle against Pakistan, while the Awami League was the political leadership behind the movement.
46. Who suggested to Mahatma Gandhi the word “Sadagraha” and afterwards Mahatma Gandhi changed the word “Satyagrah” instead of Sadagraha ?
(1) Hiralal Gandhi
(2) Manilal Gandhi
(3) Maganlal Gandhi
(4) Shri. Walaji Desai
Answer: (3)
Explanation
Maganlal Gandhi, Mahatma Gandhi’s nephew, suggested the term “Sadagraha” meaning “firmness in a good cause”. Gandhi later modified it to “Satyagraha”, meaning “truth force”, to better reflect the moral and spiritual essence of his non-violent resistance philosophy.
47. “The Muslim League pursued their aim for British support and tried to establish themselves as the kings party”, Who remarked on Muslim league ?
(1) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(2) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(3) Mahatma Gandhiji
(4) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: (2)
Explanation
The remark was made by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, criticizing the Muslim League’s alignment with British interests. He viewed the League as attempting to gain favor with colonial rulers to strengthen its political position, referring to it as the “king’s party”.
48. Sikh bus drivers and conductors established ‘Sikh Home Rule Movement’ in London but who transformed the movement in Khalistan movement ?
(1) Gangasing Dhillon
(2) Jarnalsing Bhindranwale
(3) Dr. Jagajitsingh Chouhan
(4) Amritpal Singh Sandhu
Answer: (3)
Explanation
The Sikh Home Rule Movement in London was initially a nationalist initiative. It was Dr. Jagajitsingh Chouhan who later transformed it into the Khalistan movement, advocating for an independent Sikh state and becoming a prominent figure in the separatist campaign.
49. Consider the following statements.
I. Balshastri Jambhekar was the first Professor from West Hindustan.
II. Justice Telang was the first Indian Vice-Chancellor of Mumbai University.
III. Lokmanya Tilak kept the Home Rule proposal in the Indian National Congress session held at Mumbai in 1915.
(1) Statement I incorrect, II and III correct
(2) Statement I correct, II and III incorrect
(3) Statement I and II correct, III incorrect
(4) Statement I and II correct, III correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation
Statement I is correct – Balshastri Jambhekar was the first professor from Western India.
Statement II is correct – Justice K. T. Telang was the first Indian Vice-Chancellor of Mumbai University.
Statement III is incorrect – The Home Rule proposal was formally introduced by Annie Besant in 1915, though Tilak supported it strongly.
50. In which year Savitribai and Mahatma Jyotiba Phule started the ‘Victoriya Balasram’ in Dhanakawadi with the help of friend Dr. Shivappa during the famine period in Maharashtra ?
(1) 1896
(2) 1877
(3) 1898
(4) 1899
Answer: (2)
Explanation
During the famine of 1877, Savitribai and Mahatma Jyotiba Phule, with help from Dr. Shivappa, established the ‘Victoriya Balasram’ in Dhanakawadi, Pune. It served as an orphanage and relief center, reflecting their commitment to social welfare and humanitarian service.
51. Statement –
Shivram Mahadev Paranjape started the newspaper ‘Kaal’.
Descriptions –
a. The newspaper was published upto 1922.
b. The newspaper was intense Nationalist ideas.
c. The newspaper printing crossed the number of sixteen thousand copies in 1908.
d. The newspaper was printed by ‘Jagthitechhu’ printing press.
(1) The statement is correct, description a is incorrect while b, c and d are correct
(2) The statement is correct, description b is incorrect while a, c and d are correct
(3) The statement is correct, description b, c are incorrect while a and d are correct
(4) The statement is correct, description b, d are incorrect while a and c are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation
Shivram Mahadev Paranjape founded the newspaper ‘Kaal‘, which became a powerful voice of nationalist sentiment in Maharashtra. It was known for its intense nationalist ideas (b), and in 1908, its circulation exceeded sixteen thousand copies (c), reflecting its popularity. The paper was printed at the ‘Jagthitechhu‘ printing press (d). However, it was banned by the British in 1910, not published until 1922, making description ‘a’ incorrect.
52. _______ called upon the people of Hyderabad Sansthan to observe 7th August, 1947 as “Joining Day to Indian Union”.
(1) Swami Ramanand Tirth
(2) Kashinath Vaidya
(3) Babasaheb Paranjpe
(4) Manikchand Pahade
Answer: (1)
Explanation
Swami Ramanand Tirth, leader of the Hyderabad State Congress, urged the people of Hyderabad Sansthan to observe 7th August 1947 as “Joining Day to Indian Union“. This was a symbolic protest against the Nizam’s refusal to accede to India, and a call for integration with the Indian Union.
53. Observe the following sentences :
a. ‘Hind Swaraj’ written by Mahatma Gandhi published in Gujarati language in the year 1909.
b. After the death of Mahatma Gandhi while paying the tribute, George Orwell Said : ‘The Great Man of the 20th Century’.
(1) a is not true b is true
(2) b is not true a is true
(3) a and b are true
(4) a and b are not true
Answer: (2)
Explanation
‘Hind Swaraj’ was written by Mahatma Gandhi in Gujarati in 1909 (a is true). However, George Orwell did not describe Gandhi as ‘The Great Man of the 20th Century‘ in his tribute (b is false). That phrase is more commonly attributed to Albert Einstein, not Orwell.
54. In June 1984 under the leadership of ______ Military operation was done in the Golden Temple.
(1) S.E. Joshi
(2) Ramanath Kaw
(3) K. S. Brar
(4) Ranjan Roy
Answer: (3)
Explanation
In June 1984, Operation Blue Star was conducted to remove militants from the Golden Temple in Amritsar. It was led by Lieutenant General K. S. Brar, who commanded the 9th Infantry Division during the operation.
55. Match the following :
a. R.S. Ruikar
b. Maganlal Bagdi
c. Dr. Khedkar
d. Veer Vamanrao Joshi
I. Hindustan Red Army
II. Freedom fighter from Akola
III. Freedom fighter from Amaravati
IV. Forward Block
(1) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III
(2) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
(3) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
(4) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
Answer: (2)
Explanation
a. R. S. Ruikar was associated with the Forward Bloc (IV).
b. Maganlal Bagdi led the Hindustan Red Army (I).
c. Dr. Khedkar was a freedom fighter from Akola (II).
d. Veer Vamanrao Joshi was a freedom fighter from Amaravati (III).
56. ‘The aim of the Congress is to achieve Swaraj means complete independence and independent India will not keep any relation with the British Empire.’ Who among the following proposed the above resolution in the Indian National Congress held at Ahmedabad in 1921 ?
(1) N.C. Kelkar
(2) Gangadharrao Deshpande
(3) Hasrat Mohani
(4) Bapuji Ane
Answer: (3)
Explanation
At the Ahmedabad Congress session in 1921, Hasrat Mohani proposed a resolution declaring Swaraj as complete independence, with no ties to the British Empire. Though bold, it was not adopted, as Gandhi preferred a more gradual approach.
57. Who among the following set up the ‘United Indian Patriotic Association’ ?
(1) Lala Lajpat Rai
(2) Sayyad Ahmed Khan
(3) Aurobindo Ghosh
(4) Maulana Mohammad Ali
Answer: (2)
Explanation
Sir Sayyad Ahmed Khan founded the United Indian Patriotic Association in 1888 to counter the Indian National Congress and promote loyalty to the British Crown, especially among Muslims.
58. Which of the following statements explaining Justice M. G. Ranade’s ethical views is false ?
(1) Ranade rejected the religious ideas that hinder human freedom.
(2) He also attacked the religious ideas that make man devine.
(3) Ranade adopted the divinity prevalent in India through the synthesis of Karma Siddhant and Reincarnation Siddhant.
(4) Ranade asserted that man becomes powerful due to both Karma Siddhant and Fatalism (Jadwad).
Answer: (4)
Explanation
Justice M. G. Ranade emphasized self-effort and rational ethics, rejecting fatalism (Jadwad). He believed in Karma Siddhant, but opposed ideas that promote passivity. Statement (4) is false as it contradicts his activist philosophy.
59. Match the following :
a. She went to England on July 1919 as a delegate of Home Rule League.
b. A prostitute who take part in non-violent protester movement of C.R.Das in the period of 1922-24.
c. Hindusthani Sevika Dal founded on June 1930.
d. Women National Organisation founded in 1928.
i. Latika Ghosh
ii. N. C. Hardikar
iii. Madanadevi Mukhopadhyay
iv. Sarojini Naidu
(1) iv, iii, ii, i
(2) iv, ii, iii, i
(3) iii, iv, ii, i
(4) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer: (1)
Explanation
a. Sarojini Naidu went to England in July 1919 as a Home Rule League delegate (iv).
b. Madanadevi Mukhopadhyay participated in C. R. Das’s movement (iii).
c. Hindusthani Sevika Dal was founded by N. C. Hardikar in June 1930 (ii).
d. Women National Organisation was founded by Latika Ghosh in 1928 (i).
60. Which of the following statements about Indian Council Act, 1909 is/are correct ?
a. This act provided separate electorates for the Muslims.
b. K. M. Munshi pointed out that The Minto-Morley Reforms stabbed the rising democracy.
c. This act provided separate electorates for Europeans and Ando-Indians.
d. Government not accepted the principle of democracy that is principle of election.
(1) Only a and d
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only a and c
(4) a, b and d
Answer: (2)
Explanation
The Indian Council Act, 1909 introduced separate electorates for Muslims (a), a move criticized by K. M. Munshi as damaging to democratic unity (b). However, separate electorates for Europeans and Anglo-Indians came later, and the Act did introduce limited elections, making c and d incorrect.
61. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
a. Purna and Tapi river basins are separated by the Satpuda mountain range extending in the East-West direction.
b. The Narmada and Tapi river basins are separated by the Satpuda Mountain range extending in the East-West direction.
c. Purna and Tapi river basins are separated due to Satpuda Mountain range extending North-South direction.
d. Purna and Panzara river basins are separated due to Satpuda Mountain range extending in East-West direction.
(1) a and b
(2) Only b
(3) c and d
(4) Only d
Answer: (2)
Explanation This question is about the geography of river basins in Central India. The Satpura mountain range runs in an East-West direction and acts as a major watershed. Statement ‘b’ is correct because the Narmada River flows north of the Satpuras, and the Tapi River flows to its south, making the mountain range the separator between these two major river basins. The other statements describe incorrect geographical relationships between the rivers and the mountain range.
62. Observe the following statements.
a. Gondwana types of rocks are found in Chandrapur district and therefore hard coal is produced.
b. Manganese is an important mineral in Maharashtra. It is produced on large scale at Kankheri in Sakoli taluka.
(1) Statement a is correct
(2) Statement a and b are correct
(3) Statement a and b are not correct
(4) Statement b is correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation This question tests knowledge of mineral resources in Maharashtra. Statement ‘a’ is correct because the Chandrapur district is known for its Gondwana rock formations, which are the primary source of high-quality hard coal in India. Statement ‘b’ is incorrect regarding the location; while manganese is an important mineral, its major production centres are in districts like Nagpur and Bhandara, not specifically Kankheri in Sakoli taluka on a large scale as implied.
63. Identify the statement that disagrees with the possibilism.
(1) Man is active creatures and depend on nature like other quadruped animals.
(2) Man is active and can change natural conditions.
(3) Man works in tandem with nature with its cooperation.
(4) Man is also a living organism that changes the earth’s surface as like wind, river and ocean.
Answer: (1)
Explanation Possibilism is a geographical concept that suggests that while the environment sets certain constraints, human choices and actions shape culture. It emphasizes that man is an active agent who can modify natural conditions (2), work with nature (3), and change the earth’s surface (4). Statement (1) disagrees with possibilism because it portrays man as a passive creature, merely dependent on nature like other animals. This view reflects environmental determinism, which possibilism critiques.
64. Match the correct pairs. Geographical Thinker
a. Ratzel
b. Carl Ritter
c. Kum. Ellen Semple
d. Carl Sauer
Book
i. Cultural Geography
ii. Influence of Geographic Environment
iii. Volkerkunde
iv. Erdkunde
(1) iv, i, ii, iii
(2) iii, iv, ii, i
(3) iii, iv, i, ii
(4) ii, iii, iv, i
Answer: (2)
Explanation This question involves matching geographical thinkers with their major works. a. Friedrich Ratzel wrote ‘Volkerkunde’, contributing to anthropogeography. b. Carl Ritter is known for ‘Erdkunde’, a foundational work in modern geography. c. Ellen Churchill Semple, an advocate of environmental determinism, authored ‘Influence of Geographic Environment’. d. Carl Sauer significantly contributed to ‘Cultural Geography’. The correct match is: a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i.
65. Identify the correct statements.
a. In Human Geography only Physical landforms are studied.
b. Human Geography is the study of the Physical elements of man.
c. The life cycle and occupation of human life is studied in Human Geography.
d. Human diet, thought, religion are studied in Human Geography.
(1) a, b, c statements are correct
(2) a, c, d statements are correct
(3) b, c, d statements are correct
(4) a, b, d statements are correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation This question defines the scope of Human Geography. Statement ‘a’ is incorrect because physical landforms are studied in Physical Geography, not Human Geography. Statements b, c, and d are correct: Human Geography examines the physical elements of man (b), such as population and distribution, the life cycle and occupations (c), and cultural aspects like diet, thought, and religion (d). It focuses on the interaction between humans and their environment.
66. In 1990, Pune was one of the first three Software Technology Park (STPs) that was established along with other two STPs at _______
(1) Bengaluru and Bhubaneshwar
(2) Bengaluru and Hyderabad
(3) Bhubaneshwar and Hyderabad
(4) Chennai and Hyderabad
Answer: (1)
Explanation The Software Technology Parks (STPs) of India scheme was launched in 1990 to promote software exports. In the first phase, STPs were established in Pune, Bengaluru, and Bhubaneshwar. These cities were selected to kickstart India’s IT infrastructure under the STPI initiative.
67. Match the pair of products with Districts under one district one product initiative. District
a. Raigad
b. Pune
c. Ahmednagar
d. Amaravati
Production
i. Pomegranate
ii. White Onion
iii. Fig
iv. Orange
(1) ii, iii, i, iv
(2) i, ii, iii, iv
(3) iii, i, ii, iv
(4) i, iii, ii, iv
Answer: (4)
Explanation The One District, One Product initiative promotes a signature product from each district. According to the provided answer key: a. Raigad – Pomegranate, b. Pune – Fig, c. Ahmednagar – White Onion, d. Amaravati – Orange. However, Raigad is commonly associated with White Onion, suggesting a possible discrepancy in the source. Despite this, the correct option as per the key is (4): a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv. This match may require external verification due to conflicting associations.
68. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from the below.
i. PMMSY was launched on 20 May 2020 for the period of 10 years.
ii. Cage culture farming is being implemented under PMMSY to increase fish production in the State of Maharashtra.
(1) Only i is correct
(2) Only ii is correct
(3) Both i and ii correct
(4) Both i and ii are incorrect
Answer: (2)
Explanation This question is about the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY). Statement ‘i’ is incorrect regarding the launch date and duration; the scheme was launched in September 2020 for a period of 5 years (from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25), not 10 years. Statement ‘ii’ is correct as one of the key interventions under PMMSY is the promotion of new technologies to boost aquaculture, which includes cage culture farming to increase fish production in reservoirs and other water bodies in states like Maharashtra.
69. Which of the following statements are correct ?
a. Blashar was first studied the rural-urban patta.
b. Rural-urban patta did not exist in India before 1950.
c. In rural-urban patta used urban force.
d. The rural urban patta consists of airports, educational complexes and water filtration plants.
(1) Only a and c
(2) Only a, b and d
(3) Only c and d
(4) Only b and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation The term ‘rural-urban patta’ refers to the rural-urban fringe, a transition zone between the city and the countryside. Statements ‘a’ and ‘b’ are incorrect historical claims about its study and existence. The correct statements describe its characteristics. The rural-urban fringe is influenced by urban forces (c) such as expansion, economic pull, and lifestyle changes. This zone often features a mix of rural and urban land uses, including large infrastructure projects like airports, sprawling educational complexes, and water filtration plants (d) that require large plots of land typically found on the city’s outskirts.
70. Observe the following statements.
a. Magma contains more silica than iron and magnesium minerals is called acidic magma.
b. Magma does not spread more on the earths surface due to large proportion of sand in it.
c. Pagmatitic rock content large crystals.
d. Basic lava is very thick.
(1) a, b are correct but c, d are incorrect
(2) c, d are correct but a, b are incorrect
(3) a, b, c are correct but d is incorrect
(4) a, c are correct but b, d are incorrect
Answer: (4)
Explanation This question tests knowledge of igneous geology. Statement ‘a’ is correct: Magma with a high percentage of silica is classified as felsic or acidic magma. Statement ‘b’ is incorrect: Acidic magma is highly viscous due to its high silica content, not because of “sand,” and its viscosity prevents it from spreading far. Statement ‘c’ is correct: Pegmatitic rocks are known for their exceptionally large crystals, which form due to slow cooling. Statement ‘d’ is incorrect: Basic (or mafic) lava has low silica content, making it less viscous (runny), not thick. It can flow over long distances to form features like shield volcanoes and flood basalts.
71. Match the pairs correctly. Fort
a. Malanggad
b. Lingana
c. Ramgad
d. Narnala
District
i. Raigad
ii. Sindhudurg
iii. Akola
iv. Thane
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iv ii i iii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) iii ii iv i
Answer: (3)
Explanation This question requires matching historical forts in Maharashtra with their respective districts. a. Malanggad is located in Thane district. b. Lingana fort is situated in Raigad district. c. Ramgad is in Sindhudurg district. d. Narnala fort is located in Akola district.
72. The concept of Central Business District (CBD) is related to the cities of _____ Country.
(1) Germany
(2) America
(3) India
(4) England
Answer: (2)
Explanation The concept of the Central Business District (CBD), referring to the commercial and business core of a city, originated and was first developed in urban studies in America. It is a model used to describe the urban structure of cities that grew significantly in the 20th century, particularly in the United States.
73. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(1) The layer separating Sial and Sima is called Conrad discontinuity.
(2) The layer separating lithosphere and mantle is called Mohorovicic discontinuity.
(3) The 700 km thick layer between the outer core and the inner core is called Transition zone.
(4) The layer separating mantle and core is called Gutenberg discontinuity.
Answer: (3)
Explanation This question is about the layers of the Earth’s interior and the discontinuities that separate them. The Conrad discontinuity separates the upper (Sial) and lower (Sima) continental crust (1). The Mohorovicic (Moho) discontinuity marks the boundary between the crust (lithosphere) and the mantle (2). The Gutenberg discontinuity separates the mantle and the core (4). Statement (3) is incorrect because the Transition Zone is located in the upper mantle, between depths of approximately 410 and 660 km, and is not the layer between the outer and inner core.
74. Observe the following statements.
a. According to Plate tectonic theory of W.J. Morgan, there was Tethys sea in place of Himalaya.
b. Due to lateral compression of Indian and Asian plates, the sediments of Tethys folded and Himalayan ranges formed.
(1) Only statement a is correct
(2) Only statement b is correct
(3) Statement a and b are correct
(4) Statement a and b are not correct
Answer: (2)
Explanation This question concerns the formation of the Himalayas according to plate tectonic theory. Statement ‘a’ is incorrect in its attribution; while the concept of the Tethys Sea is central to Himalayan geology, the Plate Tectonic theory was developed by many scientists, not solely W.J. Morgan. Statement ‘b’ is correct and describes the process: the northward movement and lateral compression of the Indian plate against the Eurasian plate caused the sediments of the ancient Tethys Sea to fold and uplift, forming the Himalayan ranges.
75. Match the following. Plateau
a. Volcanic Plateau
b. Continental Plateau
c. Aeolian Plateau
d. Piedmont Plateau
Example
i. Patagonian
ii. Potawar
iii. Columbia
iv. Deccan
(1) iii iv ii i
(2) iv iii i ii
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) ii i iii iv
Answer: (2)
Explanation This question matches types of plateaus with their geographical examples. a. The Deccan Plateau in India is a classic example of a Volcanic Plateau, formed by lava flows. b. The Columbia Plateau in the USA is an example of a Continental Plateau. c. The Potawar Plateau in Pakistan is an example of an Aeolian Plateau, formed by wind-deposited material. d. The Patagonian Plateau in South America is a Piedmont Plateau, located at the foot of mountains.
76. Match the following related to Agriculture. Revolution
a. Pink Revolution
b. Round Revolution
c. Silver Revolution
d. Brown Revolution
Production
i. Leather
ii. Onion
iii. Potato
iv. Poultry
(1) ii iii i iv
(2) i ii iii i
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iv iii ii i
Answer: (3)
Explanation This question matches agricultural revolutions with their associated products. a. The Pink Revolution is linked to Onion and pharmaceuticals. b. The Round Revolution refers to increased production of Potato. c. The Silver Revolution is associated with Poultry and eggs. d. The Brown Revolution relates to Leather and cocoa production.
77. As per Directorate of Geology and Mining, Government of Maharashtra, Nagpur (Mineral Reserves as on 31st March 2014) _____ is only district shows graphite reserve.
(1) Bhandara
(2) Chandrapur
(3) Ratnagiri
(4) Sindhudurga
Answer: (4)
Explanation According to the Directorate of Geology and Mining, Maharashtra, as of March 31, 2014, the only district in the state that shows graphite reserves is Sindhudurga.
78. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Dr. Panjabrao Deshmukh interest subsidy scheme ?
a. To encourage farmers in Maharashtra State to make regular repayment of short term crop loans.
b. Under this scheme farmers are given 3 percent interest concession subsidy on loans upto Rs. 6 lakh.
c. If the regular loan is repaid, the entire interest amount is subsidized.
d. If the entire amount of the loan is repaid by June 30, 3% interest concession subsidy is given upto Rs. 3 lakh loan.
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only b, c and d
(3) Only a and c
(4) Only a and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation The Dr. Panjabrao Deshmukh interest subsidy scheme aims to encourage farmers in Maharashtra to repay short-term crop loans regularly. Statement ‘a’ is correct as it reflects the scheme’s objective. Statement ‘d’ is also correct: farmers who repay their entire loan by June 30 receive a 3% interest concession subsidy on loans up to Rs. 3 lakh. Statements ‘b’ and ‘c’ are incorrect due to misrepresented subsidy amounts and conditions.
79. Consider the following statements.
i. As on March 2022, Maharashtra State has the highest share of installed capacity in electricity generation at All India Level.
ii. In Maharashtra, the private sector has more installed capacity in electricity generation than the public sector.
(1) Only i is correct and ii is false
(2) Only ii is correct and i is false
(3) Both i and ii are correct
(4) Both i and ii are false
Answer: (2)
Explanation This question assesses electricity generation in Maharashtra as of March 2022. Statement ‘i’ is false; Maharashtra has a high installed capacity, but it is not the highest in India. Statement ‘ii’ is correct: the private sector in Maharashtra has more installed capacity than the public sector.
80. Match the following. Ferry Transport
a. Agardanda
b. Tawsal
c. Dhopave
d. Bagmandla
Creek
i. Bankot
ii. Dabhol
iii. Dighi
iv. Jaygad
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) iii ii iv i
(3) iv iii i ii
(4) iii iv ii i
Answer: (4)
Explanation This question matches ferry transport points along the Konkan coast of Maharashtra with the creeks they operate in. a. Agardanda ferry is in Dighi creek. b. Tawsal ferry operates in Jaygad creek. c. Dhopave ferry is in Dabhol creek. d. Bagmandla ferry operates in Bankot creek.
81. Which of the following land forms are formed due to the erosion of glacier ?
a. Horn
b. Drumlins
c. Roche Moutonnee
d. Glacial Stairways
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only a and d
(3) Only a, c and d
(4) Only b, c and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation Glaciers are powerful agents of erosion that carve and shape landscapes. Erosional landforms are created by the removal of rock and sediment. Horns are sharp-pointed peaks formed where several cirques erode back to back. Roche Moutonnée are asymmetrical rock formations created by the passage of a glacier over bedrock. Glacial Stairways are a series of rock steps in a glacial valley, also formed by erosion. Drumlins, on the other hand, are elongated hills formed by glacial deposition, not erosion.
82. According to W. M. Davis, which of the following is not functional result of landscape ?
(1) Structure
(2) Process
(3) Time
(4) Cycle
Answer: (4)
Explanation W. M. Davis proposed the ‘Geographical Cycle’ or Cycle of Erosion to explain landscape development. He stated that landscape is a function of three key factors: Structure (geology and rock formation), Process (geomorphic agents like rivers or glaciers), and Time (stage of development). The Cycle is the outcome of these factors interacting, not a functional component itself.
83. _______ Scientist ______ put forth the concept of cycle of erosion.
(1) Karl Ritter
(2) W. M. Davis
(3) Alfred Wegnar
(4) Richard Heartshone
Answer: (2)
Explanation The Cycle of Erosion is a foundational model in geomorphology describing how landscapes evolve. It was developed by W. M. Davis, an American geographer, in the late 19th century.
84. Coastal features like seacliffs, wave cut platforms and caves all together observed at _________ in Maharashtra.
(1) Shrivardhan
(2) Harihareshwar
(3) Ganpatipule
(4) Diveagar
Answer: (2)
Explanation The coastline of Maharashtra displays various erosional landforms created by sea waves. Seacliffs, wave-cut platforms, and sea caves are observed together at Harihareshwar in Raigad district, making it a prime example of coastal erosion features.
85. Match the pairs.
Himalaya
a. Punjab Himalaya
b. Kumaon Himalaya
c. Nepal Himalaya
d. Assam Himalaya
Peak
i. Kamet
ii. Kulakangari
iii. K-2
iv. Dhavalgiri
(1) ii iv i iii
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) iii i iv ii
Answer: (4)
Explanation This question matches Himalayan regions with their prominent peaks. a. Punjab Himalaya includes the Karakoram range, where K-2 is located. b. Kumaon Himalaya includes peaks like Kamet. c. Nepal Himalaya features high peaks including Dhavalgiri. d. Assam Himalaya includes peaks like Kulakangari.
86. In which theory of pattern of urban settlement the following types of sectors are found ?
a. Heavy Industry Zone
b. External Areas of Trade
c. Residential Suburban Zone
d. Industrial Suburban Zone
(1) Concentric Zone Theory
(2) The Sector Theory
(3) Multiple Nuclei Theory
(4) The Mann’s Theory
Answer: (3)
Explanation The Multiple Nuclei Theory, by Harris and Ullman, suggests cities grow from several independent nuclei rather than a single core. It explains the development of specialized zones like Heavy Industry, Industrial Suburban, and Residential Suburban Zones, forming a fragmented urban pattern.
87. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the Nebular pattern of settlement ?
a. The arrangement of roads are almost circular which ends at central location of the settlement.
b. The settlement generally develops at the confluence of the rivers.
c. The arrangement of the houses are along the river banks.
(1) Only a
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only b
(4) Only a and c
Answer: (1)
Explanation A Nebular pattern of settlement features circular road arrangements converging at a central point, such as a temple or market. It is not defined by river confluences or houses along river banks, making only statement ‘a’ correct.
88. According to E. W. Burges, arrange the sequence of zones from centre to outwards of a city.
a. CBD-Central Business District.
b. Transitional zone.
c. Daily Commuters settlement Zone.
d. Settlement Zone of industry and working class.
e. Middle class settlement Zone.
(1) a, b, d, e, c
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) a, b, e, d, c
(4) a, c, d, b, e
Answer: (1)
Explanation E. W. Burges proposed the Concentric Zone Model, organizing cities into five rings:
- CBD (a)
- Transitional zone (b)
- Working-class homes (d)
- Middle-class residences (e)
- Commuter zone (c)
89. In which of the following region square/block pattern settlements are found ?
(1) Mountain regions
(2) Equatorial regions
(3) Desert and semi arid regions
(4) Polar regions
Answer: (3)
Explanation Square/block pattern settlements are common in desert and semi-arid regions, especially in canal-irrigated agricultural colonies of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan. These are planned settlements with grid-like street layouts.
90. Which type of settlement has the following merits ?
a. Time saving
b. Growth in agriculture income
c. Good for health
d. Free from quarrel
(1) Concentrated settlement
(2) Fragmented settlement
(3) Composite settlement
(4) Dispersed settlement
Answer: (4)
Explanation A Dispersed settlement features individual farmhouses spread out over large areas. This allows farmers to live on their own land, leading to time-saving, better agricultural productivity, peaceful living, and healthier rural environments.
91. In Southern hemisphere the Anti trade winds has specific names, choose the correct names.
a. Roaring forties
b. Nor Easters
c. Polar Easterlies
d. Shrieking sixties
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only b and c
(3) Only a and c
(4) Only a and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation The Anti-trade winds in the Southern Hemisphere, also known as prevailing westerlies, are strong and persistent due to minimal landmass obstruction. The Roaring Forties (40°–50°S) and Shrieking Sixties (south of 60°S) are sailor-given names for these powerful wind belts. Nor Easters and Polar Easterlies refer to different wind systems.
92. As per census 2011, which ascending order in respect to population density of States of India is correct ?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Mizoram – Nagaland
(2) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Mizoram
(3) Arunachal Pradesh – Mizoram – Sikkim – Nagaland
(4) Sikkim – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Mizoram
Answer: (3)
Explanation According to the 2011 Census, the correct ascending order of population density is:
- Arunachal Pradesh (17 persons/sq km)
- Mizoram (52 persons/sq km)
- Sikkim (86 persons/sq km)
- Nagaland (119 persons/sq km)
93. Match the correct pair of Census year and sex ratio for Maharashtra State :
Census Year
a. 1981
b. 1991
c. 2001
d. 2011
Sex Ratio
i. 937
ii. 934
iii. 922
iv. 929
(1) i, ii, iii, iv
(2) ii, i, iii, iv
(3) iii, i, ii, iv
(4) ii, iii, iv, i
Answer: (1)
Explanation The sex ratio (females per 1000 males) in Maharashtra by Census year is:
a. 1981 – 937
b. 1991 – 934
c. 2001 – 922
d. 2011 – 929
94. ______ is the first State in the Country to declare ‘The Blue Mormon/Rani Pakoli’ butterfly as the State butterfly.
(1) Gujarat
(2) Kerala
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Maharashtra
Answer: (4)
Explanation Maharashtra was the first Indian state to declare a State butterfly. The Blue Mormon (Papilio polymnestor), locally known as Rani Pakoli, was chosen to promote biodiversity awareness and conservation.
95. ______ calculates the natural areas required to fulfill the human needs and elements of food, housing, transportation etc.
(1) Carbon footprint
(2) Food chain
(3) Food and demand web
(4) Ecological footprint
Answer: (4)
Explanation The Ecological Footprint measures the biologically productive land and water area required to meet human needs for food, housing, transportation, and waste absorption. It reflects the environmental impact of consumption.
96. About DRDO of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
a. DRDO’s defence laboratory for nuclear radiation management technology is at Jodhpur.
b. The above laboratory is also deals with applications of radioisotopes.
c. DRDO was established in 1968.
(1) Statement b
(2) Statement c
(3) Statement a and b
(4) Statement a
Answer: (3)
Explanation The Defence Laboratory of DRDO in Jodhpur focuses on nuclear radiation management and radioisotope applications. Statement ‘c’ is incorrect as DRDO was established in 1958, not 1968.
97. Due to the effect ______ warm current, the eastern coast of Canada and USA have moderate climate throughout the year.
(1) Labrador
(2) Gulf stream
(3) Alaska
(4) North Atlantic
Answer: (2)
Explanation The Gulf Stream, a warm ocean current, flows from the Gulf of Mexico along the eastern coast of North America, moderating the climate of coastal regions in the USA and Canada.
98. Observe the following statements.
a. Coriolis force affects wind direction and speed.
b. Coriolis force is an effect of rotational movement of the earth.
(1) Statement a is correct
(2) Statement b is correct
(3) Statement a and b are correct
(4) Statement a and b are not correct
Answer: (2)
Explanation The Coriolis force is caused by the Earth’s rotation and affects the direction of moving objects like wind. It does not influence wind speed, making only statement ‘b’ correct.
99. As per Thornthwaite climate classification BA’r means
(1) Tropical wet climate with adequate rainfall in all seasons
(2) Mesothermal wet climate with adequate rainfall in all seasons
(3) Microthermal wet climate with adequate rainfall in all seasons
(4) Tropical humid climate with adequate rainfall in all seasons
Answer: (2)
Explanation In Thornthwaite’s climate classification, BA’r denotes a Mesothermal wet climate with adequate rainfall year-round. ‘B’ indicates humid, ‘A’ refers to temperature regime, and ‘r’ means rainfall in all seasons.
100. Which of the following are the types of biodiversity ?
a. Genetic diversity
b. Rock diversity
c. Species diversity
d. Ecosystem diversity
(1) Only a, b and c
(2) Only b, c and d
(3) Only a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation Biodiversity includes:
- Genetic diversity: Variation within species
- Species diversity: Variety of species
- Ecosystem diversity: Range of ecosystems
Rock diversity is a geological concept, not part of biological diversity.
101. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about biodiversity ?
i. Decrease in genetic diversity may lead to extinction of Species.
ii. Areas that are rich in Species diversity are called as Hotspot of diversity.
iii. There are six biodiversity hotspots in India.
(1) Only i is correct
(2) Only i and ii are correct
(3) Only i and iii are correct
(4) Only ii is correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation This question assesses understanding of biodiversity concepts. Statement i is correct: A decrease in genetic diversity reduces a species’ ability to adapt to environmental changes, increasing the risk of extinction. Statement ii is incorrect: A hotspot of diversity is not just any area rich in species; it must also be under threat and meet specific criteria. Statement iii is incorrect: India has four biodiversity hotspots, not six.
102. Which of the following are the types of Ecological Pyramids ?
a. Pyramid of age
b. Pyramid of biomass
c. Pyramid of biovolume
d. Pyramid of energy
(1) Only a, b and c
(2) Only b, c and d
(3) Only a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (2)
Explanation Ecological pyramids represent trophic level relationships in ecosystems. The standard types are: Pyramid of biomass (b), Pyramid of energy (d), and Pyramid of biovolume (c), which shows volume of organisms. Pyramid of age (a) is used in demography, not ecology.
103. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about Chinook winds ?
i. Chinook winds blows on the western slope of the Rockies Mountain.
ii. Chinook winds are warm and dry.
iii. Chinook winds flow in the winter and spring.
(1) i and ii
(2) ii and iii
(3) Only iii
(4) Only ii
Answer: (2)
Explanation Chinook winds are warm and dry (ii), descending the eastern slope of the Rockies. They typically occur in winter and spring (iii), causing rapid snowmelt. Statement i is incorrect as they do not blow on the western slope.
104. Which of the following statement is incorrect about POCRA ?
(1) Project Climate Resilient Agriculture is introduced to rehabilitate the agriculture and the farmers during the extreme climate events.
(2) The project is named as ‘Nanaji Deshmukh Krushi Sanjeevani Prakalp’.
(3) The farmers having more than 5.0 hectares of land are eligible for various grants under the project.
(4) The project was limited to only 15 districts of Maharashtra initially.
Answer: (3)
Explanation POCRA targets small and marginal farmers. Statement (3) is incorrect because farmers with more than 5 hectares are not eligible for grants. The project aims to support climate-resilient agriculture (1), is named Nanaji Deshmukh Krushi Sanjeevani Prakalp (2), and began in 15 districts (4).
105. What does inversion of temperature means ?
(1) Decreasing temperature with increasing height.
(2) No change in temperature with increasing height.
(3) Increasing temperature with increasing height.
(4) Sudden increase in temperature with increasing height.
Answer: (3)
Explanation Temperature inversion occurs when the normal lapse rate reverses, and temperature increases with height. This creates a stable atmospheric layer that can trap pollutants near the surface.
106. Which of the following student satellite is jointly developed by G. H. Raisoni College of Engineering, Nagpur in the year 2021 ?
(1) PISAT
(2) UNITYSat
(3) KalamSat – V2
(4) PRATHAM
Answer: (2)
Explanation In 2021, UNITYSat was jointly developed by G. H. Raisoni College of Engineering, Nagpur and other institutions. It was launched aboard ISRO’s PSLV-C51, showcasing student-led satellite innovation.
107. On which day the National Technology Day is celebrated in India ?
(1) 11 May
(2) 15 October
(3) 05 June
(4) 11 June
Answer: (1)
Explanation National Technology Day is celebrated on 11 May to commemorate the Pokhran nuclear tests of 1998 and honor scientific and technological achievements in India.
108. Which of the following statements about Survey Grade of GPS receivers are true ?
a. They are the most accurate
b. They are the least expensive
c. Most often used by professional surveyors
d. Accuracy is not crucial for their use
(1) a and c
(2) c and d
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and d
Answer: (1)
Explanation Survey-grade GPS receivers are highly accurate (a) and commonly used by professional surveyors (c). They are expensive, and accuracy is essential, making statements b and d incorrect.
109. The IRS (Indian Remote Sensing Satellite) System started on _______ by launching of the IRS-IA satellite into space.
(1) 17th March 1988
(2) 18th March 1988
(3) 29th August 1991
(4) 29th August 1986
Answer: (1)
Explanation The IRS system began with the launch of IRS-IA on 17th March 1988, marking a major milestone in India’s remote sensing capabilities.
110. Consider the following statements regarding net radiation balance of the earth.
i. Earth maintains its temperature by receiving heat through terrestrial radiation and insolation.
ii. There is a surplus of net radiation balance between 40º North and South.
iii. Polar regions have a radiation deficit and they do not receive heat in any form.
iv. The surplus energy from tropics is redistributed to the deficit region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) ii and iv
(2) i and ii
(3) ii, iii and iv
(4) ii and iii
Answer: (1)
Explanation The Earth’s net radiation balance shows a surplus between 40° N and S (ii), and this excess energy is redistributed to polar regions (iv). Statement i is incorrect because terrestrial radiation is emitted, not received. Statement iii is incorrect; polar regions do receive heat via atmospheric and oceanic circulation.
111. Match the following climatic regions of India according to Koppen’s classification :
Types of climate
a. A₍w₎
b. C₍wg₎
c. D₍fc₎
d. A₍s₎
Areas
i. Coromandal coast of Tamil Nadu
ii. Peninsular Plateau
iii. Ganga plain
iv. Arunachal Pradesh
(1) a – ii b – iii c – iv d – i
(2) a – iv b – iii c – ii d – i
(3) a – iii b – i c – ii d – iv
(4) a – i b – iii c – iv d – ii
Answer: (1)
Explanation This question matches Koppen’s climate types with Indian regions. A₍w₎ is Tropical Savanna, typical of the Peninsular Plateau. C₍wg₎ is Monsoon with dry winter, found in the Ganga plain. D₍fc₎ is a cold, humid climate, seen in Arunachal Pradesh. A₍s₎ is Tropical with dry summer, found on the Coromandal coast of Tamil Nadu.
112. Consider the following statements regarding Heat Island.
i. The impact of urban heat centre is more prominent at day time due to insolation.
ii. It generates thermal anomaly in the rural and urban areas.
iii. Temperature range in the rural-urban environments generates convectional air circulation during night in the city centre.
iv. Relatively cooler air at the surface level in urban area moves towards warmer rural areas at night.
Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect ?
(1) only iv
(2) only i and iv
(3) only i
(4) only i and iii
Answer: (2)
Explanation The Urban Heat Island effect is more prominent at night, not daytime (i is incorrect). Cooler rural air moves toward the warmer urban center, not vice versa (iv is incorrect). Statements ii and iii correctly describe thermal anomalies and nighttime convection.
113. As per census of India, which of the following State has recorded maximum difference in the total literacy during 2001 to 2011 ?
(1) Tripura
(2) Bihar
(3) Jharkhand
(4) Mizoram
Answer: (2)
Explanation Between 2001 and 2011, Bihar showed the highest increase in literacy rate among Indian states, reflecting major progress in educational outreach and awareness.
114. Which are the major objectives of India’s National Population Policy, 2000 ?
a. To minimize child death rate below 30 per thousand.
b. To organize vaccination programme for children.
c. ‘We two ours two’ programme to be continued.
d. To make available Safe Abortion Rules and facilities.
(1) Only a, b and c
(2) Only b, c and d
(3) Only a, b and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation The National Population Policy 2000 aimed to reduce child mortality (a), promote immunization (b), and ensure safe abortion services (d). The ‘We two ours two’ slogan (c) was not a formal objective, making it incorrect.
115. According to 2011 census, which of the following State of India has the highest population of transgender ?
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Punjab
(4) Bihar
Answer: (2)
Explanation The 2011 Census recorded Uttar Pradesh as having the highest transgender population in India, reflecting its large overall population and improved data inclusion efforts.
116. Which types of mutual actions in energy are responsible for blur images, also objects on the earth emit the energy which is not accurately measured by the detectors used in remote sensing ?
(1) Absorption of energy
(2) Scattering of energy
(3) Emittance of energy
(4) Reflection of energy
Answer: (2)
Explanation Scattering of energy by atmospheric particles causes blurred satellite images and affects the accuracy of energy detection in remote sensing. It disrupts the path and clarity of electromagnetic signals.
117. In Indian remote sensing satellites, the sensors recording the energy that they receive are placed in a near polar sun-synchronous orbit at an altitude of _______
(1) 700 – 900 km
(2) 100 – 300 km
(3) 5000 – 6000 km
(4) 10000 – 20000 km
Answer: (1)
Explanation IRS satellites operate in sun-synchronous orbits at 700–900 km altitude, ensuring consistent lighting conditions for Earth observation and daily coverage of the same area.
118. _______ is a numerical data structure that represents the spatial distribution of the altitude of the terrain surface.
(1) Digital elevation model
(2) Raster model
(3) Dimension surface model
(4) Area model
Answer: (1)
Explanation A Digital Elevation Model (DEM) is a 3D dataset representing terrain elevation. It provides altitude values for each point on the surface, used in mapping and analysis.
119. In satellite imagery of False Colour Composite (FCC), normal and healthy vegetation is seen in which of the following spectrum colour ?
(1) Black
(2) Red
(3) White
(4) Blue
Answer: (2)
Explanation In False Colour Composite (FCC) images, healthy vegetation reflects near-infrared light, which is displayed as red. This helps in vegetation monitoring and crop health analysis.
120. The passive microwave sensors are generally known as _______.
(1) Microwave radiometers
(2) Alpha meters
(3) Vector data
(4) GIS data
Answer: (1)
Explanation Passive microwave sensors, known as Microwave radiometers, detect naturally emitted microwave radiation from Earth’s surface. They are used in weather forecasting, soil moisture, and climate studies.
121. The Exchangeable Sodium Percentage (ESP) of ______ soils is less than 15%.
(1) Saline
(2) Alkali
(3) Degraded alkali
(4) Saline alkali
Answer: (1)
Explanation Soils are classified based on salinity and sodicity. Saline soils have high soluble salts but low exchangeable sodium, with ESP less than 15%. In contrast, alkali soils have ESP greater than 15%, indicating sodicity.
122. Among the following which is the tolerant crop to Boron ?
(1) Lemon
(2) Palm
(3) Potato
(4) Wheat
Answer: (2)
Explanation Crops vary in their tolerance to Boron. Palm is known to be tolerant to higher levels of Boron, unlike crops like potato or wheat, which are more sensitive to excess Boron in soil.
123. What is/are the physical property/properties of nanoparticles ?
a. They are highly mobile in the free state.
b. They have enormous specific surface areas.
c. They may exhibit ‘Quantum effects’.
d. They are immobile in the free state.
(1) a and b only
(2) b and c only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) d only
Answer: (3)
Explanation Nanoparticles are highly mobile (a), have large surface areas (b), and may show quantum effects (c) due to their small size. Statement d is incorrect, as it contradicts their mobility.
124. Soil erosion ______ when soil remains bare or without vegetation.
(1) remains constant
(2) decreases
(3) increases
(4) equalized
Answer: (3)
Explanation Vegetation protects soil from erosion. When soil is bare, it is exposed to wind and water, leading to increased erosion due to lack of root binding and surface cover.
125. _______ stimulates early root development and thereby helps to establish seedlings quickly.
(1) Nitrogen
(2) Zinc
(3) Copper
(4) Phosphorus
Answer: (4)
Explanation Phosphorus is essential for early root development, helping seedlings to establish quickly by enhancing root growth and nutrient uptake efficiency.
126. _______ radiation affects the ability of plants to capture solar energy during the process of photosynthesis.
(1) X ray
(2) Infrared
(3) Diffused
(4) Ultra-Violet (UV)
Answer: (4)
Explanation UV radiation can damage photosynthetic machinery in plants, reducing their ability to capture solar energy effectively during photosynthesis.
127. Which of the following is not a Lentic Ecosystem ?
(1) Ditch
(2) Pond
(3) Stream
(4) Swamp
Answer: (3)
Explanation Lentic ecosystems have still water. Streams are lotic ecosystems, characterized by flowing water, unlike ponds, ditches, and swamps, which are stationary.
128. The upper layer of soil which covers the land or the bottom of shallow water is _______.
(1) Geosphere
(2) Hydrosphere
(3) Biosphere
(4) Pedosphere
Answer: (4)
Explanation The Pedosphere is the soil layer covering land and shallow water beds. It interacts with the biosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere, and geosphere, forming the basis of terrestrial ecosystems.
129. Match the following :
List – I (Higher Plants)
I. Hemicryptophytes
II. Therophytes
III. Chamaephytes
IV. Cryptophytes
List – II (Description)
a. Plants survive in the adverse season in the form of seeds.
b. Generally rhizomes and bulbs are invariably buried in the soil or the substratum.
c. The perennating buds are located at or near the soil surface and remain protected.
d. The buds are located close to the soil surface.
(1) I – c, II – a, III – d, IV – b
(2) I – a, II – b, III – d, IV – c
(3) I – d, II – c, III – b, IV – a
(4) I – a, II – b, III – c, IV – d
Answer: (1)
Explanation
- Hemicryptophytes: Buds at or near soil surface, protected (c)
- Therophytes: Survive adverse season as seeds (a)
- Chamaephytes: Buds close to soil surface (d)
- Cryptophytes: Buds buried as rhizomes or bulbs (b)
130. _______ at ground level enters the body through inhalation and causes its toxic effect directly on lungs.
(1) Ozone
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Nitrous oxide
Answer: (1)
Explanation Ground-level ozone is a toxic air pollutant. When inhaled, it causes lung irritation, reduces respiratory function, and worsens conditions like asthma. Unlike stratospheric ozone, it is harmful at the surface.
131. One hectare centimeter of water means
(1) 1,000 liters water
(2) 10,000 liters water
(3) 1,00,000 liters water
(4) 10,00,000 liters water
Answer: (3)
Explanation A hectare is 10,000 square meters and a centimeter is 0.01 meters. So, one hectare-centimeter equals 100 cubic meters, which is 1,00,000 liters of water, since 1 cubic meter = 1,000 liters.
132. The infiltrated water forms the ______ and the excess amount that the soil can not retain, percolates down deep and recharges the ground water or seeps slowly into streams, rivers or oceans.
(1) ponds
(2) soil water
(3) lakes
(4) water reservoirs
Answer: (2)
Explanation Water that enters the soil through infiltration becomes soil water, which is available to plants. Excess water that the soil cannot retain percolates deeper to recharge groundwater or flows into streams and rivers.
133. Which of the following soils are formed from basic igneous rocks (basalt) ?
(1) Coarse textured soils
(2) Fine textured cracking-clay soils
(3) Light textured soils
(4) Medium textured non cracking soils
Answer: (2)
Explanation Basalt, a basic igneous rock, weathers into fine-textured cracking-clay soils, also known as black cotton soils or Vertisols, which show shrink-swell behavior due to clay minerals.
134. The water held by surface tension forces as a continuous film around the soil particles or water retained within soil pores is known as
(1) Hygroscopic water
(2) Capillary water
(3) Gravitational water
(4) Non-capillary water
Answer: (2)
Explanation Capillary water is held in micropores around soil particles by surface tension, forming a continuous film. It is the main source of water available to plants.
135. ______ refers to the volume of water transpired by a plant to produce a unit quantity of dry matter.
(1) Stomatal transpiration
(2) Relative transpiration
(3) Transpiration ratio
(4) Lenticular transpiration
Answer: (3)
Explanation The Transpiration Ratio is the amount of water transpired by a plant to produce one unit of dry matter, indicating its water use efficiency.
136. _______ is the primary pollutant of air.
(1) Nitrogen dioxide
(2) Nitrate salts
(3) Smoke
(4) Sulphur trioxide
Answer: (1)
Explanation Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) is a primary air pollutant, emitted directly from vehicles and industrial combustion, contributing to smog and respiratory issues.
137. Which of the following statement related to sustainable agriculture is not true ?
(1) Cultivation methods, crop rotations and biological methods are used to control the pests.
(2) The ecology of sustainable agriculture is unstable.
(3) Food materials are safe.
(4) High diversity, renewable and biodegradable inputs are used.
Answer: (2)
Explanation Sustainable agriculture aims for ecological stability, using diverse, renewable inputs and safe food practices. Statement (2) is incorrect because its ecology is designed to be stable and resilient.
138. Which of the following is not a Agro-climatic zone of India ?
(1) Western Himalayan
(2) Western Plateau and Hills
(3) Sundarbans
(4) Central Plateau and Hills
Answer: (3)
Explanation India’s agro-climatic zones include regions like Western Himalayan, Western Plateau and Hills, and Central Plateau and Hills. Sundarbans is an ecological region, not a designated agro-climatic zone.
139. Which of the following is not included in the in-situ biodiversity conservation ?
(1) Botanical Gardens
(2) National Parks
(3) Wildlife Sanctuaries
(4) Biosphere Reserves
Answer: (1)
Explanation In-situ conservation protects species in their natural habitats, such as National Parks, Sanctuaries, and Biosphere Reserves. Botanical Gardens are ex-situ, conserving plants in artificial environments.
140. _______ is a procedure or formula for solving a problem based on conducting a sequence of specified actions.
(1) Azimuth
(2) Atomic clock
(3) Algorithm
(4) Attribute
Answer: (3)
Explanation An algorithm is a step-by-step procedure or formula used to solve problems or perform computations, especially in mathematics and computer science.
141. The mechanism of with stand in stress condition of crops by completing air life cycle before water stress develops is termed as
(1) Drought tolerance
(2) Drought escaping
(3) Drought avoidance
(4) Drought resistance
Answer: (2)
Explanation Drought escaping is a strategy where crops complete their life cycle quickly before water stress sets in. This allows them to avoid drought periods by reproducing during brief moisture availability.
142. Water used by crop plants for metabolic activities is also considered in
(1) evapotranspiration
(2) surface runoff of water
(3) consumptive use of water
(4) water erosion
Answer: (3)
Explanation Consumptive use of water includes water lost through transpiration and the small amount used in plant metabolism, which becomes part of the plant tissue.
143. Removal of soil by runoff water through small finger-like channels is termed as
(1) Gully erosion
(2) Rill erosion
(3) Slip erosion
(4) Sheet erosion
Answer: (2)
Explanation Rill erosion occurs when runoff water forms small channels on the soil surface. These channels are shallow and can be removed by normal tillage.
144. Consider the following statements :
(A) : The water potential is negative in soils.
(R) : Water moves from one position to another in soil against the force fields to which it is subjected.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are false
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
Answer: (3)
Explanation In unsaturated soils, water is held under tension, making its potential negative (A is true). Water moves along the potential gradient, not against force fields (R is false).
145. _______ crop is a high tolerant to salinity.
(1) Tomato
(2) Onion
(3) Carrot
(4) Sugarbeet
Answer: (4)
Explanation Sugarbeet is known for its high salinity tolerance, making it suitable for saline soils where other crops may fail.
146. _______ aims at optimising profitability and protecting environment through efficient use of inputs based on time circumstances and spatial variability of soils and crops.
(1) Sustainable agriculture
(2) Organic farming
(3) Precision farming
(4) Protective agriculture
Answer: (3)
Explanation Precision farming uses technology and data to apply inputs like water and fertilizer efficiently, based on soil and crop variability, enhancing profitability and environmental protection.
147. _______ is the unconsolidated material underlying the solum.
(1) ‘A’ horizon
(2) ‘B’ horizon
(3) ‘C’ horizon
(4) Regolith
Answer: (3)
Explanation The ‘C’ horizon lies beneath the solum (A and B horizons) and consists of unconsolidated parent material, less affected by soil-forming processes.
148. The process of accumulation of mineral material on the surface of soil either by air or water is known as
(1) Cumulization
(2) Illuviation
(3) Solodization
(4) Sedimentation
Answer: (1)
Explanation Cumulization refers to the accumulation of mineral material on the soil surface, transported by wind or water, enriching the topsoil layer.
149. Any addition of substances to soil that may cause adverse effect on its functioning is known as _______
(1) Soil degradation
(2) Soil contamination
(3) Soil acidification
(4) Soil mineralisation
Answer: (2)
Explanation Soil contamination occurs when harmful substances are added to soil, impairing its functionality, fertility, or ecosystem health.
150. Match the following :
List – I (Bacteria)
I. Rhizobium melitoli
II. Rhizobium trifoli
III. Rhizobium japonicum
IV. Rhizobium phaseoli
List – II (Legumes)
a. Soybean
b. Beans
c. Red clover
d. Alfalfa
(1) I – c II – a III – d IV – b
(2) I – a II – b III – d IV – c
(3) I – d II – c III – a IV – b
(4) I – c II – d III – a IV – b
Answer: (3)
Explanation
- Rhizobium melitoli nodulates Alfalfa (d)
- Rhizobium trifoli nodulates Red clover (c)
- Rhizobium japonicum nodulates Soybean (a)
- Rhizobium phaseoli nodulates Beans (b)