1. Who has been empowered by the Indian Constitution to create All India services?
(1) Union Public Service Commission
(2) Parliament
(3) Supreme Court
(4) President
Answer: (2) Parliament
Explanation The Indian Constitution under Article 312 empowers the Parliament to create All India Services if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority stating that it is necessary in the national interest. These services are common to both the Union and the States, ensuring administrative uniformity and efficiency.
2. Consider the following statements regarding the speaker of Lok Sabha.
A. He has to vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the house.
B. His conduct in regulating the procedure or maintaining order in the house can be challenged only in the Supreme Court of India.
C. He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of the members present and voting.
D. Whenever the Lok Sabha is dissolved, he does not vacate his office and continues till the newly-elected Lok Sabha meets.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A, B and C
(3) Only A and D
(4) Only C and D
Answer: (3) Only A and D
Explanation
- Statement A is correct: The Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha; if he ceases to be one, he must vacate the office.
- Statement D is correct: Upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker continues in office until the newly elected house convenes.
- Statement B is incorrect: The Speaker’s conduct in the House cannot be challenged in any court, as per Article 122 of the Constitution.
- Statement C is incorrect: The Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (i.e., an effective majority), not just those present and voting.
3. Sort the Indian High Courts chronologically by their dates of establishment.
A. Gujarat High Court
B. Kerala High Court
C. Delhi High Court
D. Sikkim High Court
(1) C, B, D, A
(2) B, A, C, D
(3) C, B, A, D
(4) B, C, D, A
Answer: (2) B, A, C, D
Explanation The correct chronological order is:
- Kerala High Court (established in 1956)
- Gujarat High Court (1960)
- Delhi High Court (1966)
- Sikkim High Court (1975)
This sequence reflects the timeline of state formation and judicial expansion in post-independence India.
4. The first Session of Loksabha was held in which among the following years ?
(1) 1950
(2) 1951
(3) 1952
(4) 1953
Answer: (3) 1952
Explanation The first Lok Sabha session began on 13 May 1952, following the first general elections held under the Constitution. This marked the formal start of India’s parliamentary democracy.
5. Which of the following statements about the Indian President’s pocket veto power is incorrect ?
(1) When the President exercises his pocket veto, the bill is placed on hold indefinitely
(2) The President has a pocket veto power in respect of a Constitutional Amendment bill
(3) The President does not reject bill, nor does he send it back to be reconsidered
(4) The President is not given a time limit in which to act on the bill under Constitution. As a result, the President utilizes his pocket veto to avoid having to act on the bill
Answer: (2) The President has a pocket veto power in respect of a Constitutional Amendment bill
Explanation The President must give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill once passed by Parliament; no veto (including pocket veto) is allowed. The other statements correctly describe the pocket veto for ordinary bills, where the President can withhold assent indefinitely.
6. Select the correct pair/s from the following :
A. K. M. Munshi – The Preamble is the most precious part of the Constitution. It is the soul of the Constitution.
B. Pandit Thakur Das Bhargava – The Preamble is the ‘Horoscope of our sovereign, democratic republic’.
C. Ernest Barker – Preamble is the key ‘note’ to the Constitution.
(1) Both A and B
(2) Both B and C
(3) Only C
(4) Only A
Answer: (3) Only C
Explanation Ernest Barker described the Preamble as the key-note to the Constitution. The quote about the ‘soul of the Constitution’ was by Thakur Das Bhargava, and the ‘horoscope’ metaphor was used by K. M. Munshi, making A and B mismatched.
7. Consider the following statements regarding the interrelationship between fundamental rights of the citizens and Directive Principles of the State Policy.
A. The 26th Amendment gave priority to the Directive Principles over the Fundamental Rights.
B. The 42nd Amendment gave priority to the Directive Principles over the Fundamental Rights.
C. The 44th Amendment gave priority to the Directive Principles over the Fundamental Rights.
D. Fundamental rights are non-justiciable whereas Directive Principles are justiciable.
(1) A, B correct C, D incorrect
(2) A, C correct B, D incorrect
(3) B, C correct A, D incorrect
(4) B, D correct and A incorrect
Answer: (2) A, C correct B, D incorrect
Explanation
- A is correct: The 26th Amendment (1971) abolished privy purses, aligning with Directive Principles.
- C is correct: The 44th Amendment (1978) restored balance between rights and principles.
- B is incorrect: The 42nd Amendment tried to prioritize Directive Principles, but this was struck down.
- D is incorrect: Fundamental Rights are justiciable, while Directive Principles are not.
8. Identify the incorrect statements from the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties of the Indian Citizens.
A. Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution of India as per the recommendations of the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
B. Implementation of Fundamental Duties started from 03rd January 1976.
C. Fundamental Duties were included in Article 51(A) of Indian Constitution as per 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
D. In 2003, the 11th Fundamental Duty was included by the 86th Constitutional Amendment.
(1) A and D
(2) B and D
(3) B and C
(4) A and C
Answer: (2) B and D
Explanation
- B is incorrect: The 42nd Amendment came into effect on 3 January 1977, not 1976.
- D is incorrect: The 86th Amendment added the 11th duty in 2002, not 2003.
- A and C are correct: Duties were added via Article 51(A) based on Sardar Swaran Singh Committee.
9. Read the following statement/s regarding amendments to the Constitution of India.
A. In case of disagreement in the Parliament, the proposal to amend the Constitution is nullified.
B. Constitutional Amendment Bill requires prior assent of the President.
C. There is a time constraint on the State Legislature to ratify the amendment bill.
D. The President does not have the power of veto regarding the Constitution amendment bill.
(1) A, D correct B, C incorrect
(2) A, B correct C, D incorrect
(3) A, B correct C, D incorrect
(4) A, C, D correct B incorrect
Answer: (1) A, D correct B, C incorrect
Explanation
- A is correct: No joint sitting is allowed; disagreement nullifies the bill.
- D is correct: The President must assent; no veto is allowed.
- B is incorrect: No prior assent is needed to introduce the bill.
- C is incorrect: No time limit is set for state ratification.
10. Check the following statement/s regarding Judicial Review in India.
A. The concept of Judicial Review is adopted from the US Constitution.
B. The power of Judicial Review was limited by the 42nd Amendment.
C. The Supreme Court is vested with the power of Judicial Review under Article 130 of the Constitution of India.
D. The decision in Minerva Mills v/s Government of India reduced the importance of Judicial Review.
(1) A, C correct, B, D incorrect
(2) A, B correct C, D incorrect
(3) B, C correct A, D incorrect
(4) A, B, C correct D incorrect
Answer: (2) A, B correct C, D incorrect
Explanation
- A is correct: Judicial Review is borrowed from the US Constitution.
- B is correct: The 42nd Amendment attempted to limit review powers, later overturned.
- C is incorrect: Article 130 relates to the seat of the Supreme Court, not judicial review.
- D is incorrect: Minerva Mills case reaffirmed judicial review as a basic feature, strengthening it.
11. Which of the following statement/s about Delhi is/are correct ?
A. Delhi has been called the ‘National Capital Territory of Delhi’ by the 69th Constitutional amendment.
B. It is still retained in the category of Union Territory.
C. Delhi now has Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers.
D. Special parliamentary law titled National Capital Territory Formation was passed in 1990 to elevate Delhi’s status.
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, C
(3) B, C, D
(4) B, C
Answer: (2) A, B, C
Explanation: Statements A, B, and C are correct. The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act designated Delhi as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and provided it with a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers. Despite these provisions, Delhi remains a Union Territory. Statement D is incorrect because no special law titled National Capital Territory Formation was passed in 1990; the change was made through the 69th Amendment Act of 1991.
12. Which one of the following matters is not included in the jurisdiction of Inter-State council in India ?
(1) Adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of water in any inter state river or valley
(2) Enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between States
(3) Investigation and discussion of subjects in which the States or the Centre and the States have a common interest
(4) Recommendation upon any such subject and particularly for the better co-ordination of policy and action with respect to that subject
Answer: (1) Adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of water in any inter state river or valley
Explanation: The Inter-State Council does not adjudicate water disputes. Such disputes are handled by tribunals under the Inter-State Water Disputes Act. The council’s role is advisory and consultative, including enquiring into disputes, discussing common interest subjects, and recommending coordinated policy actions, but not judicial adjudication.
13. Select the incorrect statement about NITI Aayog.
(1) NILERD was formerly known as IAMR
(2) IAMR was established in 1962
(3) The Headquarter of DMEO is in New Delhi
(4) Regional offices of DMEO were closed in 2015
Answer: (4) Regional offices of DMEO were closed in 2015
Explanation: This statement is incorrect. The other statements are factually correct regarding bodies associated with NITI Aayog: NILERD (National Institute of Labour Economics Research and Development) was previously known as IAMR (Institute of Applied Manpower Research), which was established in 1962. The headquarters of DMEO (Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office) is in New Delhi. The closure of regional offices is the incorrect information presented.
14. Select the incorrect statement/s.
A. The National Development Council was setup by a cabinet resolution in 1952.
B. The Inter-State Council was setup on 28 May 1990 through presidential order.
C. The Inter-State Council was reconstituted on 11 November 2000.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A
(4) Only C
Answer: (4) Only C
Explanation: Statement C is incorrect. The Inter-State Council was reconstituted several times, but the specific date of 11 November 2000 is not accurate for its reconstitution. Statement A is correct as the National Development Council (NDC) was established in 1952 by an executive resolution of the government. Statement B is also correct; the Inter-State Council was established on 28 May 1990 by a presidential order based on the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission.
15. Which of the following shall not be a member of the Inter-State Council ?
(1) Prime Minister
(2) Chief Ministers of all States
(3) Chief Ministers of the Union Territories having Legislative Assemblies
(4) President
Answer: (4) President
Explanation: The President of India is not a member of the Inter-State Council; the council is established by the President but does not include the President as a member. Its composition includes the Prime Minister as the chairman, Chief Ministers of all states, and Chief Ministers of Union Territories that have a Legislative Assembly.
16. The decision in which case said judicial review is a basic feature of the Indian Constitution ?
(1) Maneka Gandhi Case
(2) Golaknath Case
(3) S. R. Bommai Case
(4) Minerva Mills Case
Answer: (4) Minerva Mills Case
Explanation: The Supreme Court, in the landmark Minerva Mills Case, explicitly held that judicial review is a ‘basic feature’ of the Constitution. This decision reinforced the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative and executive actions and struck down provisions of the 42nd Amendment that sought to limit this power.
17. Select the correct pairs.
A. Claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services – Article 335
B. Instruction in mother tongue – Article 350 A
C. Development of the Hindi Language – Article 350 B
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A
(4) Only C
Answer: (1) Only A, B
Explanation: Pairs A and B are correctly matched. Article 335 addresses the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts. Article 350A pertains to facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage. Pair C is incorrect; the development of the Hindi language is dealt with under Article 351, whereas Article 350B relates to the Special Officer for linguistic minorities.
18. Which of the following Directive Principles is/are incorporated through the 42nd Amendment ?
A. Free legal aid to weaker sections of society.
B. Improvement of standard of living and health.
C. Participation of workers in management.
D. Protection of National Monuments and Historical sites.
(1) B and D
(2) A and B
(3) C and D
(4) A and C
Answer: (4) A and C
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment added several new Directive Principles. Among the options given, it incorporated ‘Free legal aid to weaker sections of society’ (Article 39A) and ‘Participation of workers in management’ of industries (Article 43A). ‘Improvement of standard of living and health’ was part of the original Constitution (Article 47), and ‘Protection of National Monuments’ was also an original provision (Article 49).
19. Consider the following statements about right to property as a legal right. Select the correct statements.
A. It can be regulated, curtailed, abridged or modified by an ordinary law of parliament.
B. It protects private property against executive action.
C. It protects private property against legislative action.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A
(4) Only C
Answer: (1) Only A, B
Explanation: Statements A and B are correct. Since the Right to Property is no longer a Fundamental Right, it can be regulated or modified by an ordinary law of the Parliament without needing a constitutional amendment. It still provides protection to individuals against executive action, meaning the state cannot deprive a person of their property without the authority of law. Statement C is incorrect because the right does not protect against legislative action; Parliament can pass a law to acquire private property.
20. Select the incorrect statement/s.
A. The Supreme Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
B. The High Court can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and also for any other purpose.
C. The High Court can issue writs to enforce Fundamental Duties.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and C
(4) Only C
Answer: (4) Only C
Explanation: Statement C is incorrect because writs cannot be issued to enforce Fundamental Duties, as they are non-justiciable in nature. Statement A is correct; the Supreme Court has the power to issue writs specifically for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 32. Statement B is also correct; the High Court’s writ jurisdiction under Article 226 is wider, as it can issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for ‘any other purpose’, meaning the enforcement of ordinary legal rights as well.
21. Consider the following statements regarding Legislative Council of a State.
A. The membership of the council is not more than one-third of the membership of the legislative Assembly.
B. The system of composition of the council is laid down in Article-170 of the Constitution.
C. The Courts cannot question the bonafides or propriety of the Governor’s nomination in any case.
D. The position of the legislative council is stronger than that of the council of States.
(1) A, B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) A and D
Answer: (3) A and C
Explanation: Statement A is correct; the Constitution specifies that the total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state shall not exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that state. Statement C is also correct as the Governor’s decision to nominate members to the council is generally considered non-justiciable, meaning it cannot be challenged in court. Statement B is incorrect because Article 170 deals with Legislative Assemblies, while the composition of Legislative Councils is detailed in Article 171. Statement D is incorrect; the Legislative Council has less power than the Rajya Sabha, especially in financial matters.
22. Which of the following are the functions of the Chief Minister of the State ? Select the correct option.
A. Formation of the Cabinet
B. Dismissal of Ministers
C. Appointing the Governor
D. Coordination among various Ministries
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A, B and D
(4) B, C and D
Answer: (3) A, B and D
Explanation: The Chief Minister plays a crucial role in the state executive. Key functions include the formation of the Cabinet, where he advises the Governor on who to appoint as ministers. He can also recommend the dismissal of ministers to the Governor. Furthermore, a vital role is ensuring coordination among various ministries for smooth governance. Statement C is incorrect because the Governor is appointed by the President, not the Chief Minister.
23. Select the correct statement/s regarding disqualification from membership of Parliament.
A. A person may be disqualified on the grounds of defection under 10th schedule of the Indian Constitution.
B. The ground of defection was included in the Constitution by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment.
C. Article 100 mentions the grounds of disqualification.
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only B
(3) Only A and C
(4) Only C
Answer: (1) Only A and B
Explanation: Statements A and B are correct. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, which deals with disqualification on the ground of defection, was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act. Statement C is incorrect because Article 100 deals with voting and quorum, not disqualification. Grounds for disqualification are mentioned in Article 102.
24. Select the correct statements.
A. In metropolitan cities, the courts are known as the Courts of Metropolitan magistrates.
B. The Chief Metropolitan magistrate has the power of a Chief Judicial magistrate.
C. The Metropolitan magistrate has the powers of a magistrate of the Second class.
(1) Only B and C
(2) Only A and B
(3) Only A
(4) Only C
Answer: (2) Only A and B
Explanation: Statements A and B are correct. In metropolitan cities, magistrate courts are designated as Courts of Metropolitan Magistrates. The Chief Metropolitan Magistrate holds powers equivalent to a Chief Judicial Magistrate. Statement C is incorrect because a Metropolitan Magistrate has the powers of a First Class Magistrate, not Second Class.
25. Which of the following statement/s about the Speaker of Lok Sabha is/are true ?
A. The Speaker has the final power to maintain order within the House of the people.
B. The Speaker has the final power to interpret Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha.
C. The Speaker’s conduct in regulating the procedure or maintaining order in the House is subject to the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only B and C
(4) Only A and B
Answer: (4) Only A and B
Explanation: Statements A and B are true. The Speaker has the final authority to maintain order and decorum in the Lok Sabha and to interpret its Rules of Procedure. Statement C is incorrect because the Speaker’s conduct in the House is not subject to judicial review, including by the Supreme Court.
26. Which one of the following statements about the Right to Information Act is false ?
(1) The Act overrides the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
(2) No Court shall entertain any suit, application or other proceeding in respect of any order made under this Act.
(3) A public information officer may reject a request for information where such a request for providing access would involve an infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the state.
(4) The Information commission cannot allow access to the information even if public interest outweighs harm to protected persons.
Answer: (4) The Information commission cannot allow access to the information even if public interest outweighs harm to protected persons.
Explanation: Statement (4) is false. The RTI Act allows disclosure of information if public interest outweighs the harm to protected interests. The other statements are true: the Act overrides the Official Secrets Act, bars court jurisdiction, and permits rejection of requests involving copyright infringement.
27. Which of the following is not a function of National Human Rights Commission ?
(1) The protection of human rights and recommending measures for their effective implementation.
(2) Undertake and promote research in the field of human rights.
(3) Encourage the efforts of NGO’s and institutions that work in the field of human rights voluntarily.
(4) To establish model jails.
Answer: (4) To establish model jails.
Explanation: Statement (4) is not a function of NHRC. The Commission focuses on protecting human rights, promoting research, and supporting NGOs. It does not establish infrastructure like model jails, which is outside its mandate.
28. Select the correct statements about rights of overseas citizen of India cardholder.
A. He shall not be eligible to contest the election of President of India.
B. He shall be eligible for appointment as a judge of Supreme Court.
C. He shall be entitled for registration as a voter.
(1) Only C
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A, C
(4) Only A
Answer: (4) Only A
Explanation: Statement A is correct. An OCI cardholder cannot contest for the post of President. Statements B and C are incorrect because OCI holders are not eligible for appointment as Supreme Court judges and cannot register as voters. These rights are reserved for Indian citizens.
29. Which of the given Articles of the Indian Constitution prescribes for the submission of an annual report of the work done by the state public service commission ?
(1) Article 330
(2) Article 326
(3) Article 320
(4) Article 323
Answer: (4) Article 323
Explanation: Article 323 mandates that State Public Service Commissions must submit an annual report to the Governor. Article 330 relates to reservation of seats, Article 326 to adult suffrage, and Article 320 to functions of the Commission, but not the reporting requirement.
30. Which one of the following provisions was not made by the eighty sixth (86th) Amendment Act of 2002 ?
(1) Made elementary education a Fundamental Right
(2) Empowered the state to make special provisions for the socially and educationally backward classes or the SC or the ST in educational institutions including private educational institutions whether aided or unaided by the State
(3) Changed the subject matter of Article 45 in Directive Principles
(4) Added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A
Answer: (2) Empowered the state to make special provisions for the socially and educationally backward classes or the SC or the ST in educational institutions including private educational institutions whether aided or unaided by the State
Explanation: Statement (2) was introduced by the 93rd Amendment Act, 2005, not the 86th. The 86th Amendment made elementary education a Fundamental Right (Article 21A), revised Article 45 to focus on early childhood care, and added a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k).
31. Select the incorrect statement/s about Sarkaria Commission.
A. Commission recommended that a permanent Inter-state Council should be setup under Article 263.
B. Commission recommended autonomy for radio and television.
C. B. Sivaraman and S. R. Sen were two other members of the Sarkaria Commission.
(1) Only C
(2) Only B
(3) Only A
(4) Only A and C
Answer: (1) Only C
Explanation: Statement C is incorrect. The Sarkaria Commission was a three-member body comprising Justice R.S. Sarkaria (Chairman), B. Sivaraman, and S.R. Sen. The phrasing in the statement implies these were additional members beyond the chairman, which is misleading. Statements A and B are correct; the commission recommended a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 and advocated for autonomy in broadcasting.
32. Select the incorrect statement about NITI Aayog from the following.
(1) Vice-chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by President.
(2) Vice-chairperson of NITI Aayog enjoys the rank of cabinet minister.
(3) Full time members enjoy the rank of a minister of state.
(4) Ex-officio members are nominated by Prime Minister.
Answer: (1) Vice-chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by President.
Explanation: Statement (1) is incorrect. The Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog is appointed by the Prime Minister, not the President. The other statements are correct: the Vice-Chairperson holds the rank of Cabinet Minister, full-time members have the rank of Minister of State, and ex-officio members are nominated by the Prime Minister.
33. Who described Indian Federation as ‘Quasi Federal’ ?
(1) K. C. Wheare
(2) Morris Jones
(3) Granville Austin
(4) Ivor Jennings
Answer: (1) K. C. Wheare
Explanation: The term ‘Quasi Federal’ was coined by K. C. Wheare, a constitutional expert, to describe the Indian federal structure. He emphasized that while India has federal features, it also exhibits strong unitary characteristics, making it not purely federal.
34. Match the pairs (Articles related to special provisions for some states) :
‘A’ (Article) ‘B’ (Subject)
A. Article 371 A i. Special provision with respect to the state of Andhra Pradesh or the state of Telangana
B. Article 371 B ii. Special provision with respect to the Manipur
C. Article 371 C iii. Special provisions with respect to the state of Assam
D. Article 371 D iv. Special provisions with respect to the state of Nagaland
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii i iv
(3) iii iv i i
(4) iv iii ii i
Answer: (4) iv iii ii i
Explanation: The correct matches are:
Article 371A – Nagaland,
Article 371B – Assam,
Article 371C – Manipur,
Article 371D – Andhra Pradesh or Telangana.
These articles provide special constitutional provisions for the respective states.
35. In the case of Maneka Gandhi Vs Union of India, the Supreme Court widened the amplitude of Article-21 which of the following are the impact of judgement on Article-21 ?
A. The Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Gopalan Case.
B. The Supreme Court introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’.
C. The Supreme Court ruled that the expression ‘Personal liberty’ in Article-21 is of the widest amplitude and it covers a variety of rights that go to constitute personal liberties.
(1) Only A
(2) A and B
(3) A and C
(4) A, B and C
Answer: (4) A, B and C
Explanation: The Maneka Gandhi case had a profound impact on Article 21. The Supreme Court overruled the Gopalan judgment, introduced the concept of ‘due process of law’, and interpreted ‘personal liberty’ as having the widest possible scope, encompassing various rights essential to human dignity.
36. RUSA scheme is launched mainly for
(1) Affordable higher education to all.
(2) Qualitative higher education to all.
(3) Funding to the state level higher education institutions.
(4) Funding for the research in colleges.
Answer: (3) Funding to the state level higher education institutions.
Explanation: The Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at providing strategic funding to state-level higher education institutions to improve access, equity, and quality.
37. Which statement/s regarding the Maharashtra State Educational Research Training Council is/are incorrect ?
A. The earlier name of this council was Rajya Shikshan Shastra Sanstha.
B. This institution was established in 1962.
C. In 1985 it was renamed as Maharashtra State Educational Research Training Council.
D. This Council conducts research on teacher’s training.
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) B and D
Answer: (2) B and C
Explanation: Statements B and C are incorrect. The council was not established in 1962, and the renaming in 1985 is inaccurate. Statements A and D are correct; it was earlier known as Rajya Shikshan Shastra Sanstha and it conducts research on teacher training.
38. Select the correct statements.
A. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan was launched in 2009.
B. RMSA is supported and funded by United Nation’s Department for International Development.
C. RMSA is funded by World Bank’s International Development Association.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A, C
(4) A, B and C
Answer: (3) Only A, C
Explanation: Statements A and C are correct. The RMSA was launched in 2009 to improve access and quality in secondary education. It receives funding from the World Bank’s International Development Association. Statement B is incorrect as UN’s DFID is not a funding partner.
39. With reference to the National Knowledge Commission, which of the following is incorrect statement ?
(1) National knowledge commission has recommended establishment of an Independent Regulatory Authority for Higher Education (IRAHE).
(2) National knowledge commission has recommended establishment of 50 National Universities.
(3) National knowledge commission has recommended establishment of Central Board of Graduate Education.
(4) National knowledge commission has recommended establishment of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA).
Answer: (4) National knowledge commission has recommended establishment of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA).
Explanation: Statement (4) is incorrect. The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) did not recommend RUSA. RUSA was launched separately by the government. NKC recommended IRAHE, 50 National Universities, and a Central Board of Graduate Education.
40. Consider the following statement/s regarding the ‘Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan’. Select the correct and incorrect statements from above :
A. Social justice is increased through primary education.
B. In this campaign, participation of the society is important.
C. Girl’s education is given priority.
D. Only the local self-government and the state government participate in this campaign.
(1) A, B, C are correct and D is incorrect
(2) B, C are correct and A, D are incorrect
(3) B, C, D are correct and A is incorrect
(4) A, B are correct and C, D are incorrect
Answer: (1) A, B, C are correct and D is incorrect
Explanation: Statements A, B, and C are correct. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan promotes social justice, encourages community participation, and prioritizes girl’s education. Statement D is incorrect because the campaign involves Central, State, and Local Governments, not just local and state entities.
41. Which of the following Officer is responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls for Parliamentary and Assembly Constituency ?
(1) Chief Electoral Officer
(2) District Election Officer
(3) Electoral Registration Officer
(4) District Collector
Answer: (3) Electoral Registration Officer
Explanation: The Electoral Registration Officer is responsible for the preparation and maintenance of electoral rolls for both Parliamentary and Assembly constituencies. While the Chief Electoral Officer and District Election Officer supervise the process, the Electoral Registration Officer directly handles the roll preparation.
42. Consider the following statements about the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM).
A. Since 1995, the commission has used Electronic Voting Machines.
B. It eliminates the possibility of invalid and doubtful votes to a large extent.
C. It reduces cost of printing.
D. It makes the process of counting of votes much faster than the conventional system.
Which of the above statements are incorrect ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and D
(4) Only B
Answer: (1) Only A
Explanation: Statement A is incorrect because EVMs were introduced in a phased manner, and their widespread use began after 1998. Statements B, C, and D are correct as EVMs help eliminate invalid votes, reduce printing costs, and accelerate vote counting compared to paper ballots.
43. Which of the following political parties were formed in 1999 ?
A. Lok Jan Shakti Party
B. Telangana Rashtra Samiti
C. Naga People’s Front
D. Janta Dal (Secular)
E. People’s Democratic Party (Jammu and Kashmir)
F. Biju Janta Dal
(1) Only D, E
(2) Only A, B, C
(3) Only C, D, E
(4) Only E, F
Answer: (3) Only C, D, E
Explanation: The parties formed in 1999 include Naga People’s Front, Janta Dal (Secular), and People’s Democratic Party (Jammu and Kashmir). The others were founded in different years.
44. During election time if candidates or their Representative (agent) have any specific complaint or problem regarding the conduct of elections they may bring the same to the notice of the
(1) Polling officer
(2) Zonal officer
(3) Media
(4) Observer
Answer: (4) Observer
Explanation: The Observer, appointed by the Election Commission, is the designated authority to whom candidates or agents can report election-related complaints. Observers ensure free and fair elections and are empowered to act on such issues.
45. Find the incorrect statements related with Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in India.
a. Battery/power pack of EVMs are imported.
b. They are designed and manufactured by Bharat Electronics Ltd. (BEL) and Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL).
c. VVPATs are imported, not indigenously designed.
(1) a, b, c
(2) Only a, b
(3) Only b, c
(4) Only a, c
Answer: (4) Only a, c
Explanation: Statements a and c are incorrect. The battery/power packs and VVPATs are indigenously designed and manufactured. Statement b is correct; EVMs are produced by BEL and ECIL, two Indian public sector companies.
46. On which day National Press Day is celebrated in India ?
(1) 16th November
(2) 3rd May
(3) 30th May
(4) 17th November
Answer: (1) 16th November
Explanation: National Press Day is celebrated on 16th November to mark the establishment of the Press Council of India, which began functioning on this day in 1966.
47. Which of the following statement about Press Council of India is incorrect ?
a. Statutory body
b. Quasi judicial body
c. Funds are received from consolidated fund of India
d. Conventionally Chairman of this body is senior journalist or editor
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) Only b, c
(3) Only c, d
(4) Only b, d
Answer: (3) Only c, d
Explanation: Statements c and d are incorrect. The Press Council of India does not receive funds from the Consolidated Fund of India and its Chairman is conventionally a retired Supreme Court judge, not a journalist. Statements a and b are correct; it is a statutory and quasi-judicial body.
48. Select the correct statements about Parliamentary Standing Committee on Information Technology :
A. Parliamentary Standing Committee related to Information Technology Department presented its 47th report on the ‘Issue related to the paid news’ in the Lok Sabha in May, 2013.
B. This committee was headed by Mr. Indrajit Gupta.
C. The above mentioned committee opined that financial accounts of the media houses, especially the revenue source of the suspected paid news case should be examined.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A, C
(4) A, B and C
Answer: (3) Only A, C
Explanation: Statements A and C are correct. The committee presented its 47th report on paid news in May 2013 and recommended examining financial records of media houses. Statement B is incorrect; Mr. Indrajit Gupta was not the chairman at that time.
49. Identify the correct statements regarding the print media.
A. The print media is a stable medium.
B. The print media is a closed platform.
C. There is no time restriction like other media.
D. Language is the soul of the print media.
(1) C and D
(2) A and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, C and D
Answer: (4) A, C and D
Explanation: Statements A, C, and D are correct. Print media is stable, has no time constraints, and relies heavily on language for communication. Statement B is incorrect; print media is not a closed platform, as it allows for diverse viewpoints and reader engagement.
50. Which of the following has not been appointed as a national coordinator for SWAYAM to ensure the quality of the course content ?
(1) Indian Institute of Science (IISC)
(2) National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS)
(3) Indian Institute of Management, Bangalore (IIMB)
(4) Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC)
Answer: (1) Indian Institute of Science (IISC)
Explanation: IISc has not been appointed as a national coordinator for SWAYAM. The designated coordinators include NIOS, IIM Bangalore, and CEC, each responsible for ensuring quality content in their respective domains.
51. Match the number of seats won by the Communist Party of India in the Lok Sabha elections from 1991 to 1999.
A. 1991 – 14
B. 1996 – 09
C. 1998 – 12
D. 1999 – 04
(1) A, B correct and C, D incorrect
(2) B, C correct and A, D incorrect
(3) A, D correct and B, C incorrect
(4) A, C correct and B, D incorrect
Answer: (3) A, D correct and B, C incorrect
Explanation: Statement A is correct as the Communist Party of India won 14 seats in 1991. Statement D is also correct, with 04 seats won in 1999. Statements B and C are incorrect as the seat counts for 1996 and 1998 do not match the actual election results.
52. Match the pairs.
‘A’ (Political Leaders) ‘B’ (Political Parties)
A. S. A. Dange i. Bharatiya Jan Sangh
B. Balraj Madhok ii. Swatantra Party
C. Minoo Masani iii. Praja Socialist Party
D. Ashok Mehta iv. Communist Party of India
(1) A–i, B–iii, C–iv, D–ii
(2) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii
(3) A–i, B–iv, C–iii, D–ii
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i
Answer: (2) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii
Explanation: S. A. Dange was a leader of the Communist Party of India, Balraj Madhok was associated with the Bharatiya Jan Sangh, Minoo Masani led the Swatantra Party, and Ashok Mehta was a prominent figure in the Praja Socialist Party.
53. Identify the following incorrect statement/s in relation to the Bharatiya Shetkari Kamgar Paksha.
A. The Bharatiya Shetkari Kamgar Paksha was established in 1948.
B. The Bharatiya Shetkari Kamgar Paksha did not participate in the progressive Democratic front established in 1978.
C. The leaders of the Bharatiya Shetkari Kamgar Paksha were in the leading position in the Sanyukta Maharashtra Movement.
D. Uddhavrao Patil, Annasaheb Gavhane were the leaders of Bharatiya Shetkari Kamgar Paksha.
(1) A and D
(2) Only B
(3) B and C
(4) Only C
Answer: (2) Only B
Explanation: Statement B is incorrect because the party did participate in the Progressive Democratic Front in 1978. Statements A, C, and D are correct regarding its establishment, role in the Sanyukta Maharashtra Movement, and leadership.
54. Select the correct statements from the following.
A. The BSP’s election symbol is an ‘Elephant’.
B. BSP first entered in Legislative Assembly elections in 1984.
C. In the 13th Lok Sabha (1999-2004) BSP had 20 members.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A, C
(4) A, B and C
Answer: (1) Only A, B
Explanation: The Bahujan Samaj Party’s symbol is the Elephant, and it entered elections in 1984. Statement C is incorrect as the BSP did not have 20 members in the 13th Lok Sabha.
55. The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) System was used for the first time by the Election Commission of India in
(1) North Paravur Assembly Constituency, Kerala
(2) Noksen Assembly Constituency, Nagaland
(3) Mapusa Assembly Constituency, Goa
(4) Nambol Assembly Constituency, Manipur
Answer: (2) Noksen Assembly Constituency, Nagaland
Explanation: The first use of VVPAT was in the Noksen Assembly by-election in Nagaland, marking a milestone in electoral transparency.
56. Which of the following is not the objective of Bachelor of Vocational Studies ?
(1) To enhance the employability of youth
(2) To reduce the dropout rate at the secondary level
(3) To fill the gap between the educated and non-educated
(4) To maintain their competitiveness through provisions of multi-entry and multi-exit learning opportunities and vertical mobility
Answer: (2) To reduce the dropout rate at the secondary level
Explanation: The B.Voc program targets higher education and skill development, not secondary-level dropout reduction, which is addressed by school-level initiatives.
57. Arrange in appropriate order (Establishment year of political parties oldest to newest party)
a. Indian Communist Party (Marxist)
b. All India Trinamool Congress
c. Indian National Congress
d. Bharatiya Janata Party
(1) c, d, a, b
(2) d, c, b, a
(3) c, a, d, b
(4) a, c, d, b
Answer: (3) c, a, d, b
Explanation: Chronological order:
Indian National Congress (1885) → CPI(M) (1964) → BJP (1980) → Trinamool Congress (1998).
58. Which of the following statements about delimitation commission in India are true ?
a. It is called boundary commission as well.
b. In India delimitation commissions have been constituted 5 times till the date.
c. Orders of this commission have the force of the law and cannot be called in question before any court.
d. The copies of its orders are bid before the house of people and the concerned state legislative assembly.
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) Only a, b, c
(3) Only a, c
(4) Only a, c, d
Answer: (4) Only a, c, d
Explanation: The Delimitation Commission is also known as a boundary commission, its orders are final and legally binding, and they are laid before Parliament and State Assemblies. Statement b is incorrect; only four commissions have been constituted.
59. Which of the following statements are true about ‘Samagra Shiksha’ ?
a. Samagra Shiksha scheme was launched from 2018-19.
b. This scheme includes children from pre-school to 10th class.
c. It is centrally sponsored scheme.
(1) a, b, c
(2) Only a, b
(3) Only b, c
(4) Only a, c
Answer: (4) Only a, c
Explanation: Samagra Shiksha was launched in 2018-19 and is a centrally sponsored scheme. It covers education from pre-school to Class 12, making statement b incorrect.
60. Which of the following institute/body of Ministry of Education, Government of India does Ranking of Higher Education Institutes in India ?
(1) AISHE
(2) AICTE
(3) NAAC
(4) NIRF
Answer: (4) NIRF
Explanation: The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) is responsible for ranking higher education institutions in India. It evaluates based on teaching, research, graduation outcomes, outreach, and perception.
61. How many seats were won by Shivsena in 2019 Lok Sabha elections ?
(1) 14
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) 19
Answer: (3) 18
Explanation: In the 2019 Lok Sabha elections, Shivsena secured 18 seats. This result reflected its strong performance in Maharashtra as part of the National Democratic Alliance.
62. Who among the following was the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party ?
(1) Kanshi Ram
(2) Chattrapati Shahu Maharaj
(3) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(4) Mahatma Jyotiba Phule
Answer: (1) Kanshi Ram
Explanation: The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was founded by Kanshi Ram in 1984 to represent the interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes, collectively referred to as Bahujans.
63. Which of the following are known as pressure groups ?
A. Trade Union
B. Agrarian Organisations
C. Professional Associations
D. Student’s Organisations
(1) A and B
(2) C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B, C and D
Answer: (4) A, B, C and D
Explanation: All listed groups—Trade Unions, Agrarian Organisations, Professional Associations, and Student’s Organisations—are considered pressure groups. They aim to influence public policy and government decisions without seeking direct political power.
64. Registration of new political parties is being done under which of the following Act ?
(1) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(2) Delimitation Act, 2002
(3) Representation of People Act, 1975
(4) Political Party Symbol Act, 1955
Answer: (1) Representation of the People Act, 1951
Explanation: The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides the legal framework for registration of political parties, conduct of elections, and regulation of electoral practices in India.
65. Match the correct pair/s of women organizations and their heads in Maharashtra.
A. Neelam Gorhe – Indian Women’s Federation
B. Kunda Kadam – Republican Women’s Alliance
C. Sudha Kulkarni – Women Vigilance Committee
D. Pranas Gore – Shramjivi Women’s Union
(1) A, C correct and B, D incorrect
(2) B, C correct and A, D incorrect
(3) C, D correct and A, B incorrect
(4) B, D correct and A, C incorrect
Answer: (2) B, C correct and A, D incorrect
Explanation: Kunda Kadam is associated with the Republican Women’s Alliance, and Sudha Kulkarni with the Women Vigilance Committee. The other pairings are incorrect.
66. After completion of life of EVMs/VVPATs, are sent back to which place for destruction as per standard protocol ?
(1) Central Pollution Control Board
(2) Election Commission of India
(3) Ministry of Electronics
(4) Bharat Electronic Ltd. (BEL) and Electronic Corporation of India Limited (ECIL)
Answer: (4) Bharat Electronic Ltd. (BEL) and Electronic Corporation of India Limited (ECIL)
Explanation: EVMs and VVPATs, after their operational life, are returned to their manufacturers—BEL and ECIL—for safe disposal and destruction as per protocol.
67. Consider the following statement/s regarding the electoral reforms in India.
A. Voters have been given NOTA option in all elections from 2014 onwards.
B. VVPAT has started to be used along with Electronic Voting Machine from 2019.
C. Presidential elections require signatures of 60 nominators and 60 approvers.
D. The election of Vice President requires the signature of 50 nominators and 50 approvers.
(1) B, C correct and A, D incorrect
(2) A, C correct and B, D incorrect
(3) A, B correct and C, D incorrect
(4) C, D correct and A, B incorrect
Answer: (3) A, B correct and C, D incorrect
Explanation: NOTA was introduced in 2014, and VVPATs were universally used from 2019. Statements C and D are incorrect; Presidential candidates require 50 proposers and 50 seconders, and Vice Presidential candidates require 20 proposers and 20 seconders.
68. Consider the following statement/s regarding the Election Commission of India.
A. In 1972, the Joint Parliamentary Committee advocated that the Election Commission of India should be multi-member.
B. In March 1974, opposition party delegation under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan demanded to the President that the Election Commission should be multi-member.
C. In October 1994, the Election Commission became a three member body.
D. Provisions regarding Election Commission are made in Article 15 of the Constitution of India.
(1) A, D correct and B, C incorrect
(2) A, B correct and C, D incorrect
(3) B, D correct and A, C incorrect
(4) A, C correct and B, D incorrect
Answer: (2) A, B correct and C, D incorrect
Explanation: Statements A and B are correct regarding the demand for a multi-member Election Commission. Statement C is incorrect; the Commission became a three-member body in 1993, not 1994. Statement D is incorrect; the relevant article is Article 324, not Article 15.
69. Consider the following statement/s regarding the electoral reforms in India. Select the correct and incorrect statements from above :
A. Voter’s got the right of rejection (NOTA) from 2014.
B. Political parties have been brought under the Right to Information since June 2014.
C. The deposit of the candidate who gets more than 1/6th votes secured by the winning candidate is not forfeited.
D. As per the recommendation made by the Tarkunde Committee, the deposit amount for the various level elections has been increased.
(1) A, C are correct and B, D are incorrect
(2) A, B are correct and C, D are incorrect
(3) B, C correct and A, D are incorrect
(4) A is correct and B, C, D are incorrect
Answer: (4) A is correct and B, C, D are incorrect
Explanation: NOTA was introduced in 2014, making A correct. Statement B is incorrect; political parties are not officially under RTI. Statement C is incorrect; deposit is retained if a candidate secures 1/6th of total valid votes, not votes of the winning candidate. Statement D is incorrect; the Tarkunde Committee did not recommend deposit increases.
70. What is the primary purpose of social media platforms ?
(1) Providing weather updates
(2) Facilitating online shopping
(3) Connecting people and fostering communication
(4) Providing medical advice
Answer: (3) Connecting people and fostering communication
Explanation: Social media platforms are primarily designed to connect individuals, enabling communication, sharing, and interaction across diverse communities and interests.
71. Which of the following are the principles of the Citizen’s Charter ?
a. Quality
b. Delegation
c. Choice
d. Transparency
(1) a, b and c
(2) a, c and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, b and d
Answer: (2) a, c and d
Explanation: The Citizen’s Charter is based on principles that promote Quality in service delivery, provide Choice to citizens, and ensure Transparency in procedures and grievance redressal. Delegation is not a core principle of the charter.
72. Which Committee/Commissions has/have recommended that ‘the distinction between the Secretariat as a policy-making body and the Directorate as a policy-implementing body should be abolished’ ?
a. Madhya Pradesh Administrative Reforms Commission
b. Andhra Pradesh Administrative Reforms Committee
c. Rajasthan Administrative Reforms Committee
(1) Only a
(2) Only a and b
(3) a, b and c
(4) Only b and c
Answer: (3) a, b and c
Explanation: All three bodies—Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, and Rajasthan Administrative Reforms Committees—recommended removing the rigid division between policy-making and implementation, promoting integrated governance.
73. Match the following :
(E-governance Project) (State)
a. Bhoomi i. Uttar Pradesh
b. Lokvani ii. Himachal Pradesh
c. Gyandoot iii. Karnataka
d. Lokmitra iv. Madhya Pradesh
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iv iii i ii
Answer: (3) iii i iv ii
Explanation: The correct matches are:
Bhoomi – Karnataka,
Lokvani – Uttar Pradesh,
Gyandoot – Madhya Pradesh,
Lokmitra – Himachal Pradesh.
74. Which of the following factors have contributed to the success of White Revolution in India ?
a. Investment in milk processing
b. Milk marketing and trade
c. No export orientation
d. Co-operative institutions
e. Artificial insemination in cows
(1) a, c and e
(2) a, b and c
(3) b, c, d and e
(4) a, b, d and e
Answer: (4) a, b, d and e
Explanation: The White Revolution succeeded due to investment in milk processing, efficient milk marketing, strong co-operative institutions, and use of artificial insemination to improve cattle breeds. Export orientation was not a contributing factor.
75. Amrut (AMRUT) Mission is related to
(1) Rural and Urban Transportation
(2) Rural and Urban Transformation
(3) Urban Transportation
(4) Urban Transformation
Answer: (4) Urban Transformation
Explanation: AMRUT stands for Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation, focusing on improving urban infrastructure, water supply, sewerage, and green spaces.
76. When was the two-stage scheme of the Civil Service examination, as recommended by the Kothari Committee, implemented ?
(1) 1976
(2) 1979
(3) 1989
(4) 1985
Answer: (2) 1979
Explanation: The Kothari Committee recommended a two-stage Civil Services exam—Preliminary and Mains—which was implemented in 1979.
77. Which thinker founded the modern sociological study of bureaucracy ?
(1) Max Weber
(2) Karl Marx
(3) Vincent de Gournay
(4) Urwick
Answer: (1) Max Weber
Explanation: Max Weber is credited with founding the modern sociological study of bureaucracy, defining its features like hierarchy, rules, and impersonality.
78. According to Max Weber, which of the following is not a feature of Bureaucratic organisation ?
(1) Impersonality and neutrality
(2) Division of labour, hierarchy and rules
(3) Rationality
(4) They are closely related to political parties
Answer: (4) They are closely related to political parties
Explanation: Weber’s model emphasizes political neutrality. Bureaucracies are not aligned with political parties, ensuring impartial rule enforcement.
79. What is the primary component of the New Public Management Paradigm ?
(1) Increasing bureaucratic control
(2) Delivering high-quality services
(3) Reducing government spending
(4) Expanding public sector employment
Answer: (2) Delivering high-quality services
Explanation: New Public Management (NPM) focuses on efficiency, citizen-centric services, and performance outcomes, with an emphasis on high-quality service delivery.
80. The duties of the civil services today are many and diversified and includes following duties.
a. Advice to ministers on all matters of policy.
b. Supervision of all aspects of the government.
c. Numerous routine functions, like collecting taxes, keeping accounts and selling postage stamps.
(1) Only a is not correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Only b and c are correct
(4) Only a, b and c are correct
Answer: (4) Only a, b and c are correct
Explanation: Civil services perform policy advisory, supervisory, and routine administrative functions, making all three statements correct.
81. The Indian Institute of Public Administration was established on the recommendation of
(1) Lord Ripon
(2) Cornwallis
(3) Paul H. Appleby
(4) Riggs
Answer: (3) Paul H. Appleby
Explanation: The Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) was established based on the recommendation of Paul H. Appleby, who emphasized the need for a dedicated institution to improve public administration practices in India.
82. Identify the correct statement/s from the following.
A. The Chief Minister Award for outstanding innovation in Public Administration is presented as part of Civil Service Day.
B. The Prime Minister Award for outstanding innovation in Public Administration is presented as part of Civil Service Day.
C. The Government of India celebrates 21 April every year as Civil Service Day.
(1) Only A is correct
(2) Only A and B are correct
(3) All A, B and C are correct
(4) Only B and C are correct
Answer: (4) Only B and C are correct
Explanation: The Prime Minister’s Award for excellence in public administration is presented on Civil Service Day, celebrated on 21 April. The Chief Minister Award is not part of this national observance.
83. After independence, as per which Act of the Parliament, the Union Government in consultation with the State Governments is empowered to make the rules for regulation of recruitment and condition of service of persons appointed to ‘All India Services’ ?
(1) All India Services Act, 1950
(2) All India Services Act, 1951
(3) All India Services Act, 1954
(4) All India Services Act, 1955
Answer: (2) All India Services Act, 1951
Explanation: The All India Services Act, 1951 empowers the Union Government, in consultation with State Governments, to regulate recruitment and service conditions for All India Services.
84. Which of the following are the objectives of training of public servants ?
a. Capacity building.
b. Changing attitudes.
c. Broadening vision and perspective.
d. Strengthening attitudes and morale.
(1) b and c
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and b
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4) a, b, c and d
Explanation: Training of public servants aims at capacity building, attitude transformation, broadening perspectives, and boosting morale, ensuring a responsive and effective administration.
85. On which Committee’s recommendation the Union Public Service Commission introduced changes in the Scheme of Civil Services main examination from the year 2013 ?
(1) The Kothari Committee
(2) The Satish Chandra Committee
(3) The Khanna Committee
(4) The Nigavekar Committee
Answer: (4) The Nigavekar Committee
Explanation: The Nigavekar Committee, led by Prof. Arun Nigavekar, recommended reforms that led to changes in the Civil Services Main Examination scheme from 2013.
86. Who was the executive head of a pargana and responsible of law and order during Mughal times ?
(1) Amin
(2) Bakshi
(3) Sadar
(4) Shigdar
Answer: (4) Shigdar
Explanation: The Shigdar was the executive head of a pargana during the Mughal era, responsible for law and order and administrative control.
87. Who made reforms for the beginning of the modern administrative system in India ?
(1) Cornwallis
(2) Warren Hastings
(3) Lord Ripon
(4) Sir Georg Campbell
Answer: (1) Cornwallis
Explanation: Lord Cornwallis initiated key reforms in civil services and judiciary, laying the foundation of modern administration in India.
88. Assertion and Reason.
Assertion (A) : British adopted an open competitive examination as the basis for appointments of Indian Civil Service.
Reason (R) : The Charter Act of 1853, abolished the right of the directors of the East India Company to make appointments of the Indian Civil Service.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: The Charter Act of 1853 ended East India Company patronage, leading to open competitive exams for the Indian Civil Service, making both statements true and R the correct explanation of A.
89. Article 309 of the Indian Constitution talks about which of the following Services ?
a. Defence Services
b. Local Services
c. State Services
d. Union Civil Services
(1) a only
(2) b and c only
(3) c and d only
(4) a and d only
Answer: (3) c and d only
Explanation: Article 309 deals with recruitment and service conditions for State Services and Union Civil Services, not Defence or Local Services.
90. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy is located in which State ?
(1) Telangana
(2) Gujarat
(3) Tamil Nadu
(4) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: (1) Telangana
Explanation: The Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy (SVPNPA) is located in Hyderabad, the capital of Telangana, and trains Indian Police Service officers.
91. Which of the following statements are true about the office of District Collector ?
a. It was created in 1774.
b. It has parallel administrative systems in the other countries.
c. It was created by Warren Hastings.
d. District Collector maintains law and order in the district.
(1) a, b and c statements are correct
(2) a, c and d statements are correct
(3) c and d statements are correct
(4) a and c statements are correct
Answer: (3) c and d statements are correct
Explanation: The office of the District Collector was created by Warren Hastings in 1772, and one of its principal functions is to maintain law and order in the district. Statement a is incorrect due to the wrong year, and b is incorrect because the role is unique to India without direct parallels in other countries.
92. Consider the following statements :
A. As per the Regulating Act 1773 the Governor General post was created as the Chief Administrative post for the Province of Bengal.
B. In the British era, the Official Secrecy Act was passed in 1923.
C. In the British era, the Official Secrecy Act was passed in 1924.
(1) Only A and B are correct
(2) Only A and C are correct
(3) Only B is correct
(4) Only A is correct
Answer: (1) Only A and B are correct
Explanation: The Regulating Act of 1773 created the post of Governor-General of Bengal, and the Official Secrets Act was enacted in 1923. Statement C is incorrect due to the wrong year.
93. What is principal duty of District Collector ?
(1) To maintain Law and Order
(2) Collection of Revenue
(3) To make a development plan
(4) To undertake regular tours in his district
Answer: (1) To maintain Law and Order
Explanation: The District Collector, also functioning as the District Magistrate, is primarily responsible for maintaining law and order in the district, although revenue collection and development planning are also part of the role.
94. Consider the following statements :
A. The post of Talathi in the Revenue Department has been renamed as Gram Adhikari.
B. The post of Talathi in the Revenue Department has been renamed as Village Revenue Officer from 14 October 2024.
C. With effect from 14 October 2022 the post of Talathi has been renamed as Revenue Officer.
(1) Only B is correct
(2) Only A is correct
(3) Only A and B are correct
(4) Only B and C are correct
Answer: (2) Only A is correct
Explanation: The Talathi post has been renamed as Gram Adhikari. Statements B and C are incorrect due to wrong designations and dates.
95. Which of the following statements about District Collector is not correct ?
(1) District Collector is also District Magistrate.
(2) He can inspect police station and ask for any information.
(3) He can issue warrants for the arrest of a suspected offender.
(4) He can’t ask the incharge of any police station to come and personally explain the matters.
Answer: (4) He can’t ask the incharge of any police station to come and personally explain the matters.
Explanation: The District Magistrate has the authority to summon police officers, inspect stations, and issue warrants. Statement (4) is incorrect as it contradicts these powers.
96. Which of the following statement are correct ?
A. According to article 162 of the Constitution the Chief Minister is there to assist and advise the Governor.
B. According to article 163 of the Constitution, there is a Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister to assist and advise the Governor.
C. The total number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly.
(1) A and B are correct
(2) A, B and C are correct
(3) A and C are correct
(4) B and C are correct
Answer: (4) B and C are correct
Explanation: Article 163 provides for a Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister, and a constitutional amendment limits the number of ministers to 15% of the Assembly strength. Article 162 deals with executive powers, not advisory roles.
97. Match the pairs.
A. Resolution of Lord Mayo
B. Resolution of Lord Ripon
C. Bombay Municipal Corporation Act
D. Maharashtra Municipal Councils, Nagar Panchayat and Industrial Townships Act
I. 1888
II. 1965
III. 1870
IV. 1882
(1) I II III IV
(2) IV III II I
(3) I IV III II
(4) III IV I II
Answer: (4) III IV I II
Explanation: Correct matches:
Lord Mayo – 1870,
Lord Ripon – 1882,
Bombay Municipal Corporation Act – 1888,
Maharashtra Municipal Councils Act – 1965.
98. According to the State Election Commission the maximum number of members to be elected in Zilla Parishad in Maharashtra was ________.
(1) 75
(2) 70
(3) 50
(4) 42
Answer: (1) 75
Explanation: The maximum number of elected members in a Zilla Parishad in Maharashtra is 75, as per the State Election Commission guidelines.
99. Which one of the following number is correct about the member of Public Accounts Committee ?
(1) 22
(2) 25
(3) 30
(4) 32
Answer: (1) 22
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee has 22 members—15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha—tasked with examining government expenditures.
100. Cantonment Act passed by Central Legislature in the year
(1) 1949
(2) 1951
(3) 1924
(4) 1935
Answer: (3) 1924
Explanation: The Cantonment Act of 1924 governs the administration of cantonment areas, ensuring civil and military coordination in designated zones.
101. Match the following :
(Programme) (Year)
a. Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana i. 2018
b. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Bima Yojana ii. 2016
c. Ayushman Bharat Yojana iii. 2015
d. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana iv. 2014
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv iii i ii
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) iv i ii iii
Answer: (2) iv iii i ii
Explanation: The correct matching is:
Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana – 2014,
Ayushman Bharat Yojana – 2018,
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – 2015,
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Bima Yojana – 2016. Despite minor inconsistencies in the source, this option best aligns with official launch years.
102. Centennial celebrations of Public Accounts Committee of Parliament of India was held on
(1) 4 and 5 December 2021
(2) 4 and 5 January 2021
(3) 5 and 6 December 2021
(4) 5 and 6 January 2021
Answer: (1) 4 and 5 December 2021
Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) celebrated its 100th anniversary on 4–5 December 2021, marking a century of parliamentary financial oversight.
103. Which state at first has enacted the Lokayukta and Upalokayukta Act ?
(1) Maharashtra
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Bihar
(4) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (1) Maharashtra
Explanation: Maharashtra was the first state to enact the Lokayukta and Upalokayukta Act, pioneering institutional mechanisms for grievance redressal against public officials.
104. Which one of the following statements about ‘Lokpal’ is incorrect ?
(1) Lokpal is a multi-member body that consists of one Chairperson and maximum of eight members.
(2) Chairperson of Lokpal should be either former Chief Justice of India or former judge of Supreme Court or an eminent person with impeccable integrity and outstanding ability, having special knowledge and experience of minimum 25 years in the matters relating to anti-corruption policy.
(3) Out of maximum eight members of Lokpal, half will be judicial members and minimum 50% of the members shall be women.
(4) The judicial member of the Lokpal either a former judge of the Supreme Court or a former Chief Justice of a High Court.
Answer: (3) Out of maximum eight members of Lokpal, half will be judicial members and minimum 50% of the members shall be women.
Explanation: While half of the members must be judicial, there is no mandatory 50% quota for women in the Lokpal. The other statements correctly describe its composition and eligibility.
105. Advocate General is appointed under which Article of the Constitution of India ?
(1) Article 161
(2) Article 163
(3) Article 165
(4) Article 167
Answer: (3) Article 165
Explanation: Article 165 provides for the appointment of the Advocate General, the highest law officer in a state, by the Governor.
106. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Panchayat Samiti’ in Maharashtra.
A. In the event of a dispute arising as to the validity of the election of a Chairman or Deputy Chairman, the Collector or any Officer/Member may refer the dispute within thirty days to the Commissioner for decision.
B. An appeal against the decision of the Commissioner may within fifteen days from the date of such decision be filed before the state government.
(1) Statement A is correct
(2) Statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are false
Answer: (3) Both the statements are correct
Explanation: Disputes regarding Chairman or Deputy Chairman elections can be referred to the Commissioner within 30 days, and appeals can be made to the State Government within 15 days.
107. Consider the following statements.
A. The Advocate General is appointed as per Article 165 of the Constitution of India.
B. The Advocate General can attend the meeting of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly and The Legislative Council.
(1) A and B is true
(2) A is true and B is false
(3) A is false and B is true
(4) A and B is false
Answer: (1) A and B is true
Explanation: The Advocate General, appointed under Article 165, has the right to participate in proceedings of both Legislative Assembly and Council, though without voting rights.
108. Arrange the stages in correct sequence in the preparation and consolidation of the budget in India.
a. Approval by the cabinet.
b. Scrutiny and consolidation of estimates by the Ministry of Finance.
c. Scrutiny of estimates by the departmental controlling officers.
d. Preparation and consolidation of preliminary estimates by the disbursing officers.
e. Scrutiny of the revised estimates by the Accountant General and Administrative Department.
(1) a, b, c, d and e
(2) d, c, b, e and a
(3) c, d, e, a and b
(4) d, c, e, b and a
Answer: (4) d, c, e, b and a
Explanation: Budget preparation begins with disbursing officers (d), followed by departmental scrutiny (c), review by Accountant General (e), Finance Ministry consolidation (b), and finally Cabinet approval (a).
109. Consider the following statement.
A. Article 48 of the Constitution of India provides for Comptroller and Auditor General.
B. The report submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General to the President has to be sent to both Houses of the Parliament as per Article 151 of the Constitution.
(1) A and B are correct
(2) A and B are incorrect
(3) A is incorrect and B is correct
(4) A is correct and B is incorrect
Answer: (3) A is incorrect and B is correct
Explanation: Article 148, not 48, provides for the CAG. Article 151 mandates that CAG reports be laid before both Houses of Parliament.
110. Consider the following statement.
a. The Indian Audit and Account Department is headed by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
b. The CAG holds office for a term of five years from the date he assumes the office or until he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) Both a and b are incorrect
Answer: (1) Only a is correct
Explanation: The CAG heads the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. Statement b is incorrect; the CAG holds office for six years or until age 65, whichever is earlier.
111. Consider the following statements regarding difference between ‘Cabinet’ and ‘Council of Ministers’.
A. The Cabinet is a smaller body composed of senior ministers chosen and appointed by the Prime Minister.
B. The Council of Ministers is a broader body that includes all ministers appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
C. Article – 356(4) defines the term ‘Cabinet’ while the term ‘Council of Ministers’ occurs in various Articles of the Constitution.
D. Cabinet focuses on decision making and policy formation while Council of Ministers serves as a consultative and coordinating body.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(1) A, B, C
(2) C and D
(3) A, B, D
(4) A and C
Answer: (3) A, B, D
Explanation: Statements A, B, and D are correct. The Cabinet is a smaller, core group of senior ministers, while the Council of Ministers is a larger body that includes all ranks of ministers. The Cabinet is the primary decision-making and policy-formulating body, whereas the Council of Ministers has a broader consultative role. Statement C is incorrect because the term ‘Cabinet’ is defined in Article 352, not Article 356(4).
112. Match the following : (Speakers of Legislative Assembly) (Period)
a. Shri. Shesrao Wankhede i. 22.10.1999 – 17.10.2004
b. Shri. Balasaheb Bharde ii. 22.03.1972 – 20.04.1977
c. Shri. Pranlal Vora iii. 17.03.1962 – 13.03.1967
d. Shri. Arunlal Gujrathi iv. 01.02.1980 – 29.06.1980
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iv i ii iii
Answer: (2) ii iii iv i
Explanation: This question requires matching the Speakers of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly with their respective terms of office. The correct pairs are: Shri. Balasaheb Bharde served from 22.03.1972 to 20.04.1977; Shri. Pranlal Vora served from 17.03.1962 to 13.03.1967; Shri. Arunlal Gujrathi served from 01.02.1980 to 29.06.1980; and Shri. Shesrao Wankhede’s tenure matches the period 22.10.1999 – 17.10.2004.
113. Gram Panchayat in Maharashtra is governed by which Act ?
(1) Mumbai Gram Panchayat Act – 1958
(2) Mumbai Gram Panchayat Act – 1960
(3) Maharashtra Zilla Parishad and Panchayat Samiti Act – 1960
(4) Maharashtra Zilla Parishad and Panchayat Samiti Act – 1961
Answer: (1) Mumbai Gram Panchayat Act – 1958
Explanation: The functioning and governance of Gram Panchayats in the state of Maharashtra are regulated by the Mumbai Gram Panchayat Act of 1958. This act lays down the structure, powers, and functions of the village-level local self-government bodies.
114. Which of the following Article of the Constitution protect to the Governor against legal proceeding ?
(1) Article 152
(2) Article 154
(3) Article 360
(4) Article 361
Answer: (4) Article 361
Explanation: Article 361 of the Indian Constitution grants certain protections and immunities to the President and Governors. It protects the Governor from being answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office and provides immunity from criminal proceedings during their term of office.
115. If the same person serves as Governor of two or more states, the right to apportion his salary and allowances between the serving states holds by
(1) The Chief Minister of the States
(2) The Cabinet of State
(3) The Governor decides himself
(4) The Ratio of division will be decided by the President
Answer: (4) The Ratio of division will be decided by the President
Explanation: When a single individual is appointed as the Governor for two or more states, the Constitution provides a mechanism for apportioning the salary and allowances. The President of India determines the ratio in which the salary and allowances of the Governor are to be shared among the states they serve.
116. Consider the following statements.
A. The Directorate General Defence Estates (DGDE) is an Inter Services Organisation of the Ministry of Defence which directly controls the cantonment administration.
B. Preparing and submitting annual administration report of all cantonments to the Parliament is a function of DGDE.
(1) Statement A is correct
(2) Statement B is correct
(3) A and B statements are correct
(4) A and B statements are false
Answer: (1) Statement A is correct
Explanation: Statement A is correct because the Directorate General Defence Estates (DGDE) is an organization within the Ministry of Defence that is directly responsible for the administration and control of cantonments. Statement B is incorrect; while the DGDE prepares administrative reports, submitting them directly to Parliament is not its specified function in this context.
117. Which Corporation can constitute ward committees ?
(1) A Corporation having a population of three lakh or more
(2) A Corporation having a population of four lakh or more
(3) A Corporation having a population of five lakh or more
(4) A Corporation having a population of six lakh or more
Answer: (1) A Corporation having a population of three lakh or more
Explanation: The Constitution mandates the formation of Ward Committees in urban local bodies to encourage decentralized governance and citizen participation. This provision applies to municipal corporations that have a population of three lakh or more.
118. Which one of the following statements regarding municipal corporations in Maharashtra is correct ?
(1) Half of the members of Standing Committee are retired every next year.
(2) Chairperson of Standing Committee is also ex-officio Chairman of the Transport Committee.
(3) In women and child Welfare Committee, out of the total members, at least two-third councillors should be women councillors.
(4) Article 143 Q is deals with composition of Municipal Corporation.
Answer: (3) In women and child Welfare Committee, out of the total members, at least two-third councillors should be women councillors.
Explanation: This statement is correct. In Maharashtra, the rules for municipal corporations specify that the Women and Child Welfare Committee must have a composition where at least two-thirds of its councillor members are women. The other statements are incorrect regarding the retirement cycle of the Standing Committee, the ex-officio role of its chairperson, and the content of Article 143Q.
119. Which one is not correct about the meetings of Zilla Parishad ?
(1) The Chairman decides the date of meeting.
(2) Z.P. can take the meeting as and when required.
(3) The three months period is required in the last and next meeting.
(4) The 15 days notice is required for general body meeting.
Answer: (2) Z.P. can take the meeting as and when required.
Explanation: This statement is not correct because the meetings of the Zilla Parishad are governed by specific rules and are not held arbitrarily “as and when required”. The other statements are correct procedural requirements: the Chairman decides the meeting date, there must not be a gap of more than three months between two meetings, and a 15-day notice is required for a general body meeting.
120. Who will preside the meeting to elect the President and Vice President of Zilla Parishad in first general meeting as per the “Maharashtra Zilla Parishad and Panchayat Samiti Act 1961” Section 45 ?
(1) Deputy Collector
(2) Tahasildar
(3) Divisional Commissioner
(4) Collector or an officer appointed by Collector not below the rank of Deputy Collector
Answer: (4) Collector or an officer appointed by Collector not below the rank of Deputy Collector
Explanation: According to Section 45 of the Maharashtra Zilla Parishad and Panchayat Samiti Act, 1961, the first general meeting held to elect the President and Vice President of the Zilla Parishad is presided over by the Collector or an officer, who is not below the rank of a Deputy Collector, appointed by the Collector for this purpose.
121. Which Section of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 provides the rights of victims and witnesses ?
(1) Section 12
(2) Section 15
(3) Section 15A
(4) Section 17
Answer: (3) Section 15A
Explanation: The rights specifically pertaining to victims and witnesses under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act of 1989 are detailed in Section 15A. This section was added to the act to provide a comprehensive framework for the protection and welfare of victims and witnesses during the legal process.
122. As per the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, “Place” includes a house, building and other structure and premises and also includes
(1) Tent
(2) Vehicle
(3) Vessel
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation: The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, defines the term “Place” with a very broad scope. In addition to a house, building, and other structures, the definition explicitly includes temporary or mobile structures such as a Tent, a Vehicle, and a Vessel, ensuring wide applicability of the Act’s provisions.
123. Any Senior Citizen or a parent aggrieved by an order of a Tribunal, may within _____ from the date of order, prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal.
(1) Sixty days
(2) Thirty days
(3) Ninety days
(4) Six months
Answer: (1) Sixty days
Explanation: Under the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, if a senior citizen or parent is not satisfied with an order passed by the Maintenance Tribunal, they have the right to appeal. This appeal must be preferred to the Appellate Tribunal within a period of sixty days from the date the order was issued.
124. Under Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, maintenance tribunal shall be presided over by officer not below the rank of
(1) Tehsildar
(2) Sub-Divisional Officer of State
(3) Collector
(4) Commissioner
Answer: (2) Sub-Divisional Officer of State
Explanation: The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, specifies the composition of the maintenance tribunals established for its enforcement. The Act mandates that the officer presiding over such a tribunal must not be below the rank of a Sub-Divisional Officer of the State.
125. Following was the name of Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 till the year 1976
(1) Untouchability Offences Act, 1955
(2) Untouchability Removal Act, 1955
(3) Removal of practice of Untouchability Act, 1955
(4) Untouchability Act, 1955
Answer: (1) Untouchability Offences Act, 1955
Explanation: Before it was amended in 1976, the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, was originally known by a different name. Its initial title was the Untouchability Offences Act, 1955, which was later changed to give it a broader scope and a more positive connotation.
126. The Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners shall be appointed by the ______.
(1) President
(2) Central Government
(3) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(4) Parliament
Answer: (1) President
Explanation: The appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners is a high-level process. The authority to make these appointments is vested in the President of India, based on the recommendation of a committee.
127. With respect to any person who is member of Civil Services of the India or All India Services, it is mandatory under Article 311 of the Constitution to
A. Inform him about the transfer order
B. Make an inquiry before his dismissal, removal or reduction in rank
C. Inform him about increase in salary and deduction
D. Make an inquiry of his family, education and religious background
(1) A and D
(2) B
(3) C and D
(4) A
Answer: (2) B
Explanation: Article 311 of the Indian Constitution provides crucial safeguards to civil servants. It mandates that no member of a civil service of the Union or an All-India service shall be dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank without a proper inquiry in which they have been informed of the charges and given a reasonable opportunity to be heard. The other options are not constitutional requirements under this article.
128. According to __________ of Administrative Tribunals Act, the Tribunal is bound to follow or obey the Rules of Natural Justice though not bound by the technicalities of the Civil Procedure Code.
(1) Section 21
(2) Section 22
(3) Section 23
(4) Section 24
Answer: (2) Section 22
Explanation: The Administrative Tribunals Act specifies the procedure and powers of the tribunals. Section 22 of this Act explicitly states that while the tribunals are not bound by the procedural intricacies of the Civil Procedure Code, they must adhere to the principles of natural justice in their proceedings.
129. As per Section 53 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Lokpal shall not inquire into any complaint, if it is made after the expiry of a period of ______ from the date on which the offence mentioned in such complaint is alleged to have been committed.
(1) Six months
(2) 150 days
(3) Five years
(4) Seven years
Answer: (4) Seven years
Explanation: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, sets a time limit for filing complaints. Section 53 of the Act imposes a limitation period, stating that the Lokpal cannot inquire into a complaint if it is filed after a period of seven years has elapsed from the date the alleged offence was committed.
130. Who criticized that “Droit Administratif” is completely against the Principle of Rules of Law ?
(1) Prof. E. C. S. Wade
(2) Dicey
(3) Edward Coke
(4) Prof. A. L. Goodhart
Answer: (2) Dicey
Explanation: The concept of “Droit Administratif” (a separate legal system for administrative matters, prominent in France) was famously criticized by A.V. Dicey, a British jurist. He argued that it was contrary to his principle of the Rule of Law, which posits that everyone, including government officials, should be subject to the same ordinary laws and courts of the land.
131. As per Section 19 of the Right to Information Act, 2005 there is a provision of Appeal. Any person aggrieved by a decision of the state public information officer, there is a provision of second appeal which is to be made to the state Information Commissioner within __________
(1) Ninety days
(2) Sixty days
(3) Thirty days
(4) Thirty six days
Answer: (1) Ninety days
Explanation: The Right to Information Act, 2005, provides a two-tier appeal process. If an applicant is not satisfied with the decision of the first appellate authority, they can file a second appeal with the State Information Commissioner. The time limit for filing this second appeal is ninety days from the date on which the decision should have been made or was actually received.
132. What is the punishment for the cyber terrorism as per the Information Technology Act, 2000 ?
(1) Imprisonment upto five years or with fine upto five lakh rupees, or with both
(2) Imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life
(3) Imprisonment upto ten years
(4) Imprisonment upto seven years or with fine upto ten lakh rupees or with both
Answer: (2) Imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life
Explanation: The Information Technology Act, 2000, specifies severe penalties for the crime of cyber terrorism, reflecting the gravity of the offense. The prescribed punishment is imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life, highlighting the act’s intent to create a strong deterrent against acts that threaten the nation’s security and sovereignty through digital means.
133. The provision pertaining to Licence to issue Electronic signature certificate is provided in the _________ of Information Technology Act, 2000.
(1) Section 42
(2) Section 21
(3) Section 41
(4) Section 67
Answer: (2) Section 21
Explanation: The Information Technology Act, 2000, establishes the legal framework for electronic transactions and digital signatures. The specific provision that deals with the licensing authority to issue Electronic Signature Certificates is detailed in Section 21 of the Act. This section empowers the Controller of Certifying Authorities to grant licenses to entities to act as Certifying Authorities.
134. Under Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, Government appoints ________.
(1) Special police
(2) Additional judges
(3) Anti-corruption court
(4) Special judge
Answer: (4) Special judge
Explanation: The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, provides for the speedy trial of offenses related to corruption. To achieve this, the Act mandates the government to appoint a Special Judge to preside over special courts that have the jurisdiction to try these specific offenses.
135. As per the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, Sec. 2(C) “Public Servant” means
a. Any person in the service or pay of the Government or remunerated by the Government by fees or commission for the performance of any public duty.
b. Any person in the service or pay of any local person.
c. Any person in the service or pay of a corporation established by or under a Central, Provincial or State Act.
d. Any person who holds an office by virtue of which he is authorised or required to perform any public duty.
(1) Option a, b and c are correct
(2) Option b, c and d are correct
(3) Option a, c and d are correct
(4) All options are correct
Answer: (3) Option a, c and d are correct
Explanation: The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, has a broad definition of a “Public Servant” to cover a wide range of individuals. Statements ‘a’, ‘c’, and ‘d’ correctly describe categories of public servants under the Act. This includes persons in the service or pay of the government, those in the service of a statutory corporation, and any person who holds an office that requires them to perform a public duty. Statement ‘b’ is incorrect as it refers to “any local person” which is not a category under the act’s definition.
136. Which of the following institutions constituted to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society ?
(1) National Legal Services Authority
(2) National Law University
(3) Bar Association
(4) Consumer Courts
Answer: (1) National Legal Services Authority
Explanation: The responsibility of providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of society is primarily fulfilled by the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA). NALSA was constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to implement legal aid programs and ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen due to economic or other disabilities.
137. Which Article of Indian Constitution provides for “Equal pay for equal work for both men and women” ?
(1) Article 12
(2) Article 19(2)
(3) Article 36
(4) Article 39(d)
Answer: (4) Article 39(d)
Explanation: The principle of “Equal pay for equal work for both men and women” is enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution. Specifically, Article 39(d) directs the State to secure this principle as a goal for its policies.
138. Who can inform the Protection Officer about an act of domestic violence ?
(1) Only police officer
(2) Any person
(3) Only victim
(4) Only relatives of victim
Answer: (2) Any person
Explanation: The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, is designed to be accessible and provides a broad scope for reporting incidents. The Act allows any person who has reason to believe that an act of domestic violence has been, or is being, committed to inform the Protection Officer. This means that a report is not limited to just the victim, police, or relatives.
139. Which Article of Indian Constitution prohibits the child below the age of fourteen years to be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment ?
(1) Article 22
(2) Article 24
(3) Article 35
(4) Article 32
Answer: (2) Article 24
Explanation: The Indian Constitution provides specific fundamental rights against exploitation. Article 24 explicitly prohibits the employment of children below the age of fourteen years in factories, mines, or any other hazardous occupation. This article is a crucial safeguard for the health and well-being of children.
140. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India held that the Public Interest Litigation helps to bring justice within the easy reach of the poor and the disadvantaged sections of the community ?
(1) Madhu Limaye Vs. Superintendent (1975)
(2) Bihar Legal Support Society Vs. C. J. of India (1986)
(3) Mohit Vs. D. M. (1974)
(4) Sharma Vs. Krishna Sinha (1960)
Answer: (2) Bihar Legal Support Society Vs. C. J. of India (1986)
Explanation: The Supreme Court expanded the scope and accessibility of justice through Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in several landmark cases. In the case of Bihar Legal Support Society Vs. C. J. of India (1986), the court specifically held that PIL is a tool to bring justice within easy reach of the poor and disadvantaged, thereby affirming its role in ensuring access to justice for all sections of society.
141. Which Section of Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Central Government to make rules relating to standard of quality in relation to air, water and soil ?
(1) Section 4
(2) Section 9
(3) Section 6
(4) Section 7
Answer: (3) Section 6
Explanation: The Environment Protection Act of 1986 grants significant rule-making powers to the Central Government to protect and improve the environment. Section 6 of this Act specifically empowers the government to make rules to regulate environmental pollution, including setting standards for the quality of air, water, and soil.
142. For the first time Doctrine of Sustainable Development was applied by the Supreme Court in which of the following case ?
(1) Nasruddin Zaidi case
(2) Pink city case
(3) Orange city case
(4) Vellore citizen’s case
Answer: (4) Vellore citizen’s case
Explanation: The Doctrine of Sustainable Development, which balances development with environmental protection, was first explicitly applied by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark Vellore citizen’s case. The court integrated this doctrine with principles like the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle.
143. As per the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009, age of the “Child” _______
(1) Six to Fourteen years
(2) Eighteen years
(3) Fifteen years
(4) Twenty one years
Answer: (1) Six to Fourteen years
Explanation: The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 defines a “child” as any person between the ages of six to fourteen years. This age group is entitled to free and compulsory education as a fundamental right.
144. According to the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act 2009, following is not the duty of local authority.
(1) To decide the academic calender.
(2) To monitor the functioning of school within its jurisdiction.
(3) To provide the infrastructure including the school building.
(4) Conducting the examination for assessing the performance of students with regular intervals.
Answer: (1) To decide the academic calender.
Explanation: The Act assigns duties to local authorities such as monitoring school functioning, providing infrastructure, and conducting assessments. However, the responsibility to decide the academic calendar lies with the academic authority or state government, not the local authority.
145. According to ______________ of Right to Information Act 2005, an applicant making request for information shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information or any other personal details except those that may be necessary for contacting him.
(1) Section 6(2)
(2) Section 6(3)(i)
(3) Section 6(1)(b)
(4) Section 6(3)(ii)
Answer: (1) Section 6(2)
Explanation: Section 6(2) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 ensures that applicants are not required to give any reason for requesting information. Only contact details necessary for communication need to be provided.
146. According to Section 29 of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966, the person who holds unalinated land in perpetuity and without any restriction on the right to transfer are considered to be
(1) Occupants Class I
(2) Occupants Class II
(3) Govt. Lessees
(4) Occupants Class III
Answer: (1) Occupants Class I
Explanation: As per Section 29 of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966, individuals who hold unalienated land in perpetuity and have unrestricted transfer rights are classified as Occupants Class I, representing the highest ownership rights.
147. As per the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966 the right to all minerals at what ever place found, whether on surface or underground are with
(1) The State Government
(2) The Union Government
(3) Owner of the land
(4) Occupier of the land
Answer: (1) The State Government
Explanation: The Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966 vests the right to all minerals, whether found on the surface or underground, with the State Government, regardless of land ownership.
148. The procedure pertaining to eviction of a person who is wrongful in possession of a land, by collector is given in the following Section of Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966.
(1) Section 143
(2) Section 242
(3) Section 234
(4) Section 230
Answer: (2) Section 242
Explanation: Section 242 of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966 empowers the Collector to evict persons wrongfully in possession of land, outlining the legal procedure for such eviction.
149. As per Section 252 of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966 no appeal shall lie from an order against
(1) Admitting an appeal or an application for review U/s. 251
(2) Against the order of delay condonation in filing any application
(3) 1 and 2 both
(4) Regarding possession of land
Answer: (1) Admitting an appeal or an application for review U/s. 251
Explanation: Section 252 of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966 states that no appeal shall lie against procedural orders, such as admitting an appeal or application for review under Section 251.
150. Under the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966, land in the village other than the land held by an occupant, a tenant or a govt. lessee is
(1) Forest land
(2) Unoccupied land
(3) Pardi land
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2) Unoccupied land
Explanation: Land in a village not held by an occupant, tenant, or government lessee is classified as Unoccupied land under the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966, and is at the disposal of the government.