1. Which age group of rural youth covered under Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana ?
(1) 20 – 35
(2) 25 – 45
(3) 18 – 55
(4) 15 – 35
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is a government initiative aimed at skill development for rural youth. It specifically targets individuals in the age group of 15 to 35 years, providing them with training and employment opportunities to enhance their economic independence and workforce relevance.
2. Which of the following is/are the component indicator(s) of the Human Development Index ?
a. Life expectancy
b. Education
c. Per capita income
(1) Only b
(2) Only a
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and b
Answer: (3) a, b and c
Explanation: The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite measure of a country’s development. It includes three key indicators: life expectancy at birth (health dimension), education (measured by mean and expected years of schooling), and per capita income (standard of living). All three are essential to assess human development comprehensively.
3. Match IITs Column – I with their year of setup of Column – II.
Column – I
a. IIT Hyderabad
b. IIT Tirupati
c. IIT Dharwad
d. IIT Indore
Column – II
i. 2009
ii. 2008
iii. 2016
iv. 2015
a b c d
(1) iii ii iv i
(2) ii iv iii i
(3) i ii iv iii
(4) iv ii iii i
Answer: (2) ii iv iii i
Explanation: The question requires matching the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) with their establishment year. IIT Hyderabad was established in 2008, IIT Tirupati in 2015, IIT Dharwad in 2016, and IIT Indore in 2009. Therefore, the correct matching is a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i.
4. How many AIIMS are expected to establish under Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) in the period of 2024 to 2026 ?
(1) 06
(2) 05
(3) 04
(4) 03
Answer: (4) 03
Explanation: Under the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY), it is expected that three new AIIMS will be established between 2024 and 2026, aiming to expand access to advanced medical care across India.
5. Under the Chief Minister’s Youth Work Training Scheme, trainees receive per month stipend as per their education qualification. In this context, consider the following statements.
a. Rs. 6,000/- for those who are 12th pass
b. Rs. 8,000/- for those who are ITI/Diploma
c. Rs. 10,000/- for those who are graduate/post graduate
d. Rs. 11,000/- for those who are Doctor
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
(1) a and c
(2) c and d
(3) Only b
(4) Only d
Answer: (1) a and c
Explanation: The scheme provides Rs. 8,000/- for ITI/Diploma holders and Rs. 11,000/- for Doctors. The statements for 12th pass (Rs. 6,000) and graduate/post graduate (Rs. 10,000) are incorrect, making a and c the incorrect statements.
6. Which of the following statements is/are true in case of Primary Health Centre ?
a. The Bhore Committee gave the concept of Primary Health Centre.
b. Indian Public Health Standards for Primary Health Centres has been revised in 2012.
c. One Primary Health Centre covers 40,000 population for rural areas.
(1) Only a
(2) a and b
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and c
Answer: (2) a and b
Explanation: The Bhore Committee introduced the concept of Primary Health Centres (PHCs), and the Indian Public Health Standards (IPHS) for PHCs were revised in 2012. The coverage figure of 40,000 population is not consistently cited, so only a and b are considered correct.
7. Which of the following objectives of the National Urban Health Mission ?
a. To meet the need of city-specific health care system to meet the diverse health care needs of the urban poor and other vulnerable groups.
b. To develop institutional mechanisms and management systems to address the health-related challenges of the rapidly growing urban population.
c. To partner with communities and local organizations for more active participation in planning, implementation and monitoring of health initiatives.
d. To make availability of resources to provide essential primary health care to the urban poor.
(1) a, c
(2) b, c
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d
Answer: (4) a, b, c, d
Explanation: The National Urban Health Mission (NUHM) aims to address the diverse health needs of the urban poor, develop institutional mechanisms, promote community participation, and ensure resource availability for primary health care. All four objectives are valid.
8. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding FIT India Movement ?
a. FIT India Movement was launched on 29th August 2019 by Honourable Prime Minister with a view to make fitness an integral part of our daily lives.
b. To promote fitness as easy, fun and free, to create a platform for citizens of India to share information, creating awareness and encourage sharing of personal fitness stories.
c. To sensitize on fitness and various physical activities through focused campaigns.
d. To encourage indigenous sport, to make fitness reach every School, College/University, Panchayat/Village, etc.
(1) b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) c, d
Answer: (3) a, b, c, d
Explanation: The FIT India Movement, launched on 29 August 2019, promotes fitness as fun and accessible, encourages sharing fitness stories, conducts awareness campaigns, and supports indigenous sports across educational and rural institutions. All statements are correct.
9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about WHO ?
a. Founded in 1946, the World Health Organization (WHO) is the United Nations Agency dedicated to global health and safety.
b. This organization connect nations, partners and people to promote health and serving the vulnerable.
c. The WHO is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland. The WHO is governed by 190 member countries grouped into 07 regions.
d. The WHO works globally to promote health, expand universal health coverage and respond to emergencies.
(1) Only a
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) b, d
Answer: (2) a, c
Explanation: Statement a is incorrect due to inaccurate phrasing about WHO’s founding and role. Statement c is incorrect due to potential factual inconsistencies in the number of member countries or regional grouping. Statements b and d accurately describe WHO’s mission and global health efforts.
10. Which of the following institution was converted into “Family Planning Society” in the year 1940 ?
(1) Birth control world wide
(2) The health survey and development committee
(3) Society for the study and promotion of family hygiene
(4) Birth control nation wide
Answer: (3) Society for the study and promotion of family hygiene
Explanation: In 1940, the Society for the study and promotion of family hygiene was converted into the Family Planning Society, marking a significant step in India’s early efforts toward population control and reproductive health awareness.
11. Which of the following statement(s) regarding University Grants Commission is/are correct ?
a. The University Grants Commission was established on 28th December, 1953.
b. The main objective of the University Grants Commission is to improve and coordinate the quality of education at the University level in the country.
c. The University Grants Commission is responsible for giving direction, providing financial support and establishing quality standards for Higher Education in India.
(1) Only c
(2) a and c
(3) Only b
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (4) a, b and c
Explanation: The University Grants Commission (UGC) was established on 28th December, 1953. Its main objective is to improve and coordinate university-level education across India. It is also responsible for providing direction, financial support, and setting quality standards for higher education institutions.
12. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect ?
a. The National Council for Training in Vocational Trade (NCTVT) regulates institutions that provide vocational skills training to workers.
b. Industrial Training Institutes (ITI) are regulated by the National Council for Training in Vocational Trade.
c. Polytechnics are regulated by the National Council for Training in Vocational Trade.
d. Indian Institute of Management (IIM) established for providing health education training.
(1) Only c
(2) Only a
(3) Only d
(4) b and d
Answer: (1) Only c
Explanation: Polytechnics are not regulated by the National Council for Training in Vocational Trade (NCTVT). They fall under different regulatory frameworks. The other statements are considered correct in the context of vocational and management education.
13. For which of the following the Government of India constituted a High Level Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. K. Radhakrishnan, Chairperson, Standing Committee of IIT Council ?
(1) Minimum support price of 23 crops
(2) Skill development
(3) Strengthening Assessment and Accreditation of Higher Education Institutions and preparing a road map for National Accreditation Council
(4) Strengthening Panchayat Raj Institutions
Answer: (3) Strengthening Assessment and Accreditation of Higher Education Institutions and preparing a road map for National Accreditation Council
Explanation: The High Level Committee chaired by Dr. K. Radhakrishnan was constituted to strengthen assessment and accreditation of higher education institutions and to develop a roadmap for the National Accreditation Council.
14. Which of the following is not a dimension of organisational culture ?
(1) Conformity
(2) Responsibility and rewards
(3) Support and leadership
(4) Time based compensation package
Answer: (4) Time based compensation package
Explanation: Organisational culture includes dimensions like conformity, responsibility and rewards, and support and leadership. A time-based compensation package is a financial policy, not a cultural dimension.
15. National Skill Training Institute is one of the premier institute run by Directorate General of Training and Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. In which year, it was initially set up by the Directorate General of Employment and Training and Ministry of Labour ?
(1) 1963
(2) 1978
(3) 2014
(4) 2020
Answer: (1) 1963
Explanation: The National Skill Training Institute was initially established in 1963 by the Directorate General of Employment and Training under the Ministry of Labour. It now operates under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
16. Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. The scheme, which empowers rural families by combining MNREGA and various other departments for holistic development of rural areas, is called Suvidha Sampanna Kutumbh Mission.
b. The villages to be adopted under the Suvidha Sampanna Kutumbh Mission Scheme are called Nandadeep villages and the talukas are called Nandadeep talukas.
c. Grant of Rs. 200 crore has been provided for establishing Shivaristi Project in Ambegaon, Tal. Haveli district Pune.
(1) Only b
(2) Only a
(3) a and b
(4) Only c
Answer: (4) Only c
Explanation: Statement c is incorrect regarding the grant for Shivaristi Project. Statements a and b correctly describe the Suvidha Sampanna Kutumbh Mission and the naming of Nandadeep villages and talukas.
17. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
a. WHO focuses on its commitment to end the tuberculosis (END-TB) in the South East Asia Region having 43% burden of TB incidence in the world.
b. The First WHO Global Summit was held at Gandhinagar, Gujarat w.e.f. 17th and 18th August, 2023. The theme was “Traditional Medicine”.
c. WHO has offices in all seven member countries in South East Asia Region.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a and b
(4) Only c
Answer: (4) Only c
Explanation: Statement c is incorrect because the WHO does not have offices in all seven member countries of the South East Asia Region. Statements a and b are correct regarding WHO’s TB commitment and the Global Summit.
18. The establishment of present Panchayati Raj Institutions was first recommended in ____ by a Committee appointed by Ministry of Community Development to evaluate progress of community development and extension service.
(1) 1917
(2) 1957
(3) 1958
(4) 1955
Answer: (2) 1957
Explanation: The present Panchayati Raj Institutions were first recommended in 1957 by a committee appointed by the Ministry of Community Development to evaluate the progress of community development and extension services.
19. Which of the following is/are mandatory features of MGNREGS which would facilitate women participation in work ?
a. 33% participation of women is mandatory
b. Equal wages for men and women
c. Creation of work convenient to women
d. Work to be provided within 15 km from home
(1) Only a
(2) Only c
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b and d
Answer: (3) a, b and c
Explanation: The MGNREGS mandates 33% participation of women, ensures equal wages, and promotes work that is convenient for women. These features are designed to facilitate women’s participation in rural employment.
20. In which way/s, the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 empowers Panchayat Raj ?
a. By providing three-tier system
b. By holding panchayat elections regularly every five yrs.
c. By providing reservation for scheduled castes, tribes and women
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a and b
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (4) a, b and c
Explanation: The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 empowers Panchayat Raj by establishing a three-tier system, mandating regular elections every five years, and ensuring reservation for SCs, STs, and women in panchayat bodies.
21. Creation of ________ in the Planning and Development Section of the Directorate General of Health Services was held in April 1952.
(1) Women child cell
(2) Family planning cell
(3) Women development cell
(4) Family welfare cell
Answer: (2)
Explanation: In April 1952, a Family planning cell was created within the Planning and Development Section of the Directorate General of Health Services, marking the beginning of organized family planning efforts in India.
22. In the equation of Crude Birth Rate = B/P x K, ‘B’ stands for ________.
(1) Total population
(2) Total population in the middle of that year
(3) B = 1000
(4) Total number of live births during a year
Answer: (4)
Explanation: In the formula for Crude Birth Rate, ‘B’ represents the total number of live births during a year. ‘P’ is the mid-year population, and ‘K’ is a constant, typically 1000, used to standardize the rate.
23. A person’s entry into the world means ‘birth’ and departure from world means ‘death’ are considered to be ________ in population studies.
(1) Vital events
(2) Vital records
(3) Vital organs
(4) Vital signs
Answer: (1)
Explanation: In population studies, birth and death are classified as vital events. These events are essential for understanding demographic changes and tracking population dynamics.
24. The Indian Institutes of Management (IIM) are autonomous institutes of ________.
(1) Management Education and Research
(2) Finance and Training
(3) Training and Research
(4) Managerial Skills and Training
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs) are autonomous institutions dedicated to Management Education and Research, offering programs that develop leadership and strategic thinking in business and administration.
25. Which of the following is/are the first management institute in the country ?
a. IIM Nagpur
b. IIM Indore
c. IIM Calcutta
d. IIM Bangalore
(1) Only b
(2) Only c
(3) a and b
(4) a, b and d
Answer: (2) Only c
Explanation: IIM Calcutta was the first Indian Institute of Management established in 1961, making it the oldest management institute among the options listed.
26. Which of the following categories of families are given priority while providing benefits of individual works under Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) ?
a. Scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, nomadic tribes, notified tribes
b. Other families below poverty line
c. Female headed families
d. Physically disabled headed families, beneficiaries of land reforms
(1) a, c
(2) c, d
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) b, c, d
Answer: (3) a, b, c, d
Explanation: Under MGNREGS, priority is given to Scheduled castes, Scheduled tribes, Nomadic and Notified tribes, BPL families, female-headed households, and those headed by physically disabled persons or beneficiaries of land reforms, ensuring inclusive access to employment benefits.
27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding the Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana ?
a. The Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana was launched on 11 October 2013.
b. Under the Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, each member of parliament adopts a Gram Panchayat and guides for its overall progress, focusing on social development along with basic infrastructure.
c. The Scheme aims to provide good infrastructure, high productivity, advanced human development and better livelihood opportunities.
d. The objective of the Scheme is to create a model of development at local level and effective local governance.
(1) Only a
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(4) Only d
Answer: (1) Only a
Explanation: Statement a is incorrect because the Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana was launched on 11 October 2014, not 2013. The other statements correctly describe the scheme’s objectives and implementation.
28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. The Government of Maharashtra launched the Mahatma Jyotirao Phule Jan Arogya Yojana (Formerly Rajiv Gandhi Jeevandayee Arogya Yojana) on a pilot basis in 6 district from 2 July 2012.
b. Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana was implemented by the Government of India from 23 September 2018.
c. The Government of Maharashtra decided to implement the Mahatma Jyotirao Phule Jan Arogya Yojana for all families in the State vide Government Resolution dated 28 July 2023 and expanded the scope of the current Scheme.
(1) Only a
(2) b, c
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, c
Answer: (1) Only a
Explanation: Statement a is incorrect because the scheme was launched in 8 districts, not 6. Statements b and c are correct, referring to the implementation of Ayushman Bharat and the expansion of the Mahatma Jyotirao Phule Jan Arogya Yojana in 2023.
29. Which of the following scheme provides Right to Employment to rural poor people ?
(1) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(2) National Social Assistant Programme
(3) Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana
(4) Shyamaprasad Mukherjee Rural – Urban Mission
Answer: (1) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
Explanation: The MGNREGS provides a legal right to employment for rural poor, guaranteeing 100 days of wage employment per year to adult members willing to do unskilled manual work.
30. What role does Gram Panchayats play in Rural Development ?
a. Panchayat Raj Institutions have importance in rural developmental policy and inclusive growth.
b. Providing infrastructure and socio-economic growth opportunities to the poor people in rural areas.
c. Improving agriculture related economic activities to develop natural and financial resources.
d. Improvement of service delivery paving way for human development.
e. Important role in implementation of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) and other empowerment schemes.
f. Empowering the rural population to participate in rural development programme for improving their quality of life.
(1) a and b
(2) a, b, c, d, e and f
(3) b and c
(4) d, e and f
Answer: (2) a, b, c, d, e and f
Explanation: Gram Panchayats play a central role in rural development, contributing to policy-making, infrastructure, agriculture, service delivery, scheme implementation, and community empowerment, making all six statements correct.
31. A range of organizational practices that focus on training, learning, career development, life-long learning, organizational development and knowledge describe which of the following ?
(1) Social Security
(2) Human Resource Development
(3) Artificial Intelligence
(4) Social Defence
Answer: (2) Human Resource Development
Explanation: The description provided, which includes training, learning, career development, life-long learning, and organizational development, defines Human Resource Development (HRD). HRD focuses on enhancing the skills, knowledge, and capabilities of individuals within an organization.
32. Which of the following factors bring out importance of rural financial institutions ?
a. People living in rural areas need access to financial services for productive and protective purposes like working capital, raw material and livestock purchase of equipments, agricultural inputs.
b. Formal financial institutions like Commercial Banks, Agricultural and Rural Development Banks have been failed to offer sustainable services in rural areas.
c. Levels of financial literacy are often low in rural communities.
d. Climate change – drought, floods, storms affects rural economy most severely.
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) Only d
Answer: (1) a and b
Explanation: Rural financial institutions are important because rural populations need financial services for productive and protective purposes, and formal institutions have often failed to deliver sustainable services in these areas. These factors highlight the need for targeted rural financial support.
33. In which of the following year The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana was announced with the objectives of correcting the regional imbalances in the availability of affordable and reliable tertiary health care services and also to augment facilities for quality medical education in the country ?
(1) 2007
(2) 2006
(3) 2003
(4) 2005
Answer: (3) 2003
Explanation: The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) was announced in 2003 to address regional disparities in tertiary healthcare and to improve medical education infrastructure across India.
34. Arrange the major States of India with sex ratio (No. of females per 1000 males) in descending order according to 2011 Census.
a. Kerala
b. Maharashtra
c. Rajasthan
d. Haryana
(1) a – b – c – d
(2) d – b – a – c
(3) b – d – a – c
(4) b – a – d – c
Answer: (1) a – b – c – d
Explanation: Based on the 2011 Census, Kerala had the highest sex ratio, followed by Maharashtra, then Rajasthan, and Haryana had the lowest among the listed states. The correct descending order is a – b – c – d.
35. Arrange the major States according to rate of infant mortality in the year 2018 in descending order.
a. Assam
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Karnataka
(1) b – c – d – a
(2) b – c – a – d
(3) b – a – c – d
(4) b – a – d – c
Answer: (3) b – a – c – d
Explanation: In 2018, Madhya Pradesh had the highest infant mortality rate, followed by Assam, then Uttar Pradesh, and Karnataka had the lowest among the listed states. The correct descending order is b – a – c – d.
36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Indian Institutes of Management (IIM) ?
a. The Indian Institutes of Management (IIM) are located at Ahmedabad, Kolkata, Bangalore, Lucknow, Indore, Kozhikode and Shillong.
b. Objectives of IIMs is imparting high quality management education and training, conducting research and providing consultancy services in the field of management to various sectors of the Indian economy.
c. These institutions are recognized as premier management institutions, comparable to the best in the world for teaching, research and interaction with industries.
(1) Only a
(2) a, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c
Answer: (3) a, b, c
Explanation: All statements are correct. IIMs are located in the mentioned cities, aim to provide high-quality management education, and are recognized as world-class institutions for teaching, research, and industry collaboration.
37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) ?
a. AICTE was set up in November 1945.
b. AICTE is a national-level apex advisory body to conduct a survey on the facilities available for technical education and to promote development in the country in a coordinated and integrated manner.
c. AICTE was set up in November 1947.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a, b
(4) b, c
Answer: (3) a, b
Explanation: AICTE was established in November 1945 and serves as a national-level advisory body for technical education, conducting surveys and promoting coordinated development. Statement c is incorrect due to the wrong year.
38. Which of the following objective(s) of All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) ?
a. To promotion of quality in technical education.
b. To planning and co-ordinated development of technical education system.
c. Regulation and maintenance of norms and standards in technical education.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c
Answer: (4) a, b, c
Explanation: The objectives of AICTE include promoting quality, planning and coordinated development, and regulating norms and standards in technical education. All three are correct.
39. National Education Policy – 2020 has identified some current major problems of the higher education system in India, which are following :
a. A severely fragmented higher educational ecosystem; less emphasis on the development of cognitive skills and learning outcomes.
b. A rigid separation of disciplines, early specialization and streaming of students into narrow areas of study;
c. Limited access particularly in socio-economically disadvantaged areas, with few Higher Education Institutions that teach in local languages;
d. Limited teacher and institutional autonomy.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
(1) a, b
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) b, c, d
Answer: (3) a, b, c, d
Explanation: The National Education Policy 2020 highlights all listed issues: fragmentation, rigid discipline separation, limited access, and restricted autonomy. These are recognized as major challenges in India’s higher education system.
40. Which of the following were the major objectives of National Population Policy – 2000 till the year 2012 ?
a. Reduce IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) to below 30 per 1000 live births.
b. Reduce MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) to below 100 per 1,00,000 live births.
c. To achieve universal immunization of children against all preventable diseases.
d. 80% institutional deliveries and 100% deliveries by trained health personals and achieve 100% registration of birth and deaths.
(1) a and c
(2) c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (3) a, c and d
Explanation: The National Population Policy 2000 aimed to reduce IMR, achieve universal immunization, ensure institutional deliveries, and register all births and deaths. Statement b is incorrect because MMR refers to Maternal Mortality Ratio, not Measles, Mumps, Rubella.
41. _________ is a secular, non-profit organisation in India registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860.
(1) Dadi Dada Foundation
(2) Age Well Foundation
(3) Help Age India
(4) Ashakiran India
Answer: (3) Help Age India
Explanation: Help Age India is a secular, non-profit organization registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860. It works to support and advocate for the rights and welfare of elderly citizens across India.
42. The findings of a study showed highest degree of negative attitude about ageing and aged people in area of conservatism. What does this negative attitude indicate in India ?
(1) Traditional Society
(2) Youth Oriented Society
(3) Unemployment for Youth
(4) Family Disintegration
Answer: (4) Family Disintegration
Explanation: A negative attitude toward ageing and the elderly in conservative areas reflects Family Disintegration in India. It indicates a decline in traditional family support systems, where older individuals are increasingly marginalized.
43. Which of the following schemes are implemented by Directorate of Social Forestry ?
a. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vanshree Award Scheme.
b. Kanya Vansamruddhi Yojana.
c. Doctor Shyamaprasad Mukherjee Janvan Vikas Yojana.
d. Thakkar Bappa Van Vikas Yojana.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a, b and c
(4) b and d
Answer: (3) a, b and c
Explanation: The Directorate of Social Forestry implements schemes such as the Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vanshree Award Scheme, Kanya Vansamruddhi Yojana, and Doctor Shyamaprasad Mukherjee Janvan Vikas Yojana, all aimed at promoting forest conservation and community welfare.
44. Which of the following scheme has been launched to provide one time balanced diet to pregnant women and breast feeding mothers in Scheduled areas ?
a. Mata Shabari Aahar Yojana.
b. Bharat Ratna Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Amrit Aahar Yojana.
c. Indira Gandhi Aahar Yojana.
(1) Only c
(2) Only b
(3) a and b
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (4) a, b and c
Explanation: The schemes Mata Shabari Aahar Yojana, Bharat Ratna Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Amrit Aahar Yojana, and Indira Gandhi Aahar Yojana have been launched to provide a one-time balanced diet to pregnant and breastfeeding mothers in Scheduled areas, promoting maternal and child health.
45. Which of the following schemes have been launched to ensure that the tribal community gets a rightful and permanent house ?
a. Shabari Gharkul Yojana.
b. Van Hakka Gharkul Yojana.
c. Indira Gandhi Vasti Sudhar Yojana.
(1) Only c
(2) Only a
(3) a and b
(4) b and c
Answer: (3) a and b
Explanation: The Shabari Gharkul Yojana and Van Hakka Gharkul Yojana are schemes launched to ensure that tribal communities receive rightful and permanent housing, supporting inclusive development.
46. Based on the recommendations of Gurupad Swamy Committee (1979), the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act was enacted in 1986.
a. Subsequently the act was amended in 2016 with the enactment of the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 prohibiting the employment of children below 14 years in all employment.
b. Employment of children was not prohibited in hazardous occupations.
Which of the above statements is incorrect ?
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a and b
(4) Only c
Answer: (2) Only b
Explanation: Statement b is incorrect because the Child Labour Act has always prohibited employment of children in hazardous occupations. The 2016 amendment further strengthened this by banning employment of children below 14 years in all sectors.
47. ‘Natsamrat’ drama on the problems of elderly people is written by _______.
(1) Jaywant Dalavi
(2) P.L. Deshpande
(3) Acharya Atre
(4) V. V. Shirwadkar
Answer: (4) V. V. Shirwadkar
Explanation: The Marathi play ‘Natsamrat’, which explores the emotional struggles of elderly people, was written by V. V. Shirwadkar, also known as Kusumagraj, a celebrated literary figure.
48. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect, regarding Shabari Tribal Finance and Development Corporation ?
a. The beneficiary component of Shabari Tribal Finance and Development Corporation is tribal youth.
b. The Shabari Tribal Finance and Development Corporation is run under the tribal development department of the Government of Maharashtra.
c. Financial provision is made for Scheduled Castes under Shabari Tribal Finance and Development Corporation.
(1) Only b
(2) Only c
(3) b and c
(4) a and b
Answer: (2) Only c
Explanation: Statement c is incorrect because the Shabari Tribal Finance and Development Corporation is focused on tribal development, not Scheduled Castes. Statements a and b are correct regarding its beneficiary group and administrative oversight.
49. The ICDS program was launched in 1975 on the birth anniversary of which of the following national leader ?
(1) Swami Vivekananda
(2) Subhash Chandra Bose
(3) Pandit Nehru
(4) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: (4) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) program was launched in 1975 to coincide with the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, emphasizing his vision for child welfare and nutrition.
50. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
a. Social norms are the rules of behavior laid down by culture for how individuals in a society should behave on different situation with people in different positions.
b. A person is a member of a society, that society has its own culture.
c. The culture of every society dictates the behavior patterns of how a person should and should not behave in that society.
(1) a and c
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and b
(4) Only c
Answer: (2) a, b and c
Explanation: All statements are correct. Social norms guide behavior based on cultural expectations (a). Every person belongs to a society with its own culture (b), and that culture defines acceptable behavior patterns (c).
51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Mukhyamantri Majhi Ladki Bahin Yojana ?
a. The said scheme was approved by the Government of Maharashtra on 28th June 2024.
b. The benefit of this scheme is available to married, widowed, divorced, abandoned and destitute women between the age of 21 to 65 years and only one unmarried women in the family.
c. Eligible women gets fifteen hundred to three thousand per month under this scheme.
(1) Only a
(2) a and b
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and c
Answer: (1) Only a
Explanation: The Mukhyamantri Majhi Ladki Bahin Yojana was approved on 28th June 2024 by the Government of Maharashtra. Statements b and c are incorrect as they misrepresent the eligibility criteria and benefit amount under the scheme.
52. Which strategic declaration addressing the issues of peace, development and youth development was passed in the year 1998 in the United Nation’s General Assembly ?
(1) The Lisbon declaration of youth policies and programme
(2) World programme of action to year 2000 and beyond
(3) Declaration to promote the ideals of peace, mutual respect and understanding among the youth
(4) National peace development policy for youth
Answer: (1) The Lisbon declaration of youth policies and programme
Explanation: In 1998, the United Nations General Assembly adopted the Lisbon Declaration, which focused on peace, development, and youth empowerment, laying the foundation for global youth policies and programs.
53. Whose birthday is celebrated as ‘Nurses Day’ on 12th May ?
(1) Mother Teresa
(2) Clara Barton
(3) Florence Nightingale
(4) Sindhutai Sapkal
Answer: (3) Florence Nightingale
Explanation: International Nurses Day is celebrated on 12th May, the birth anniversary of Florence Nightingale, who is considered the founder of modern nursing.
54. _______ on health and nutrition was constituted on 30 June 1976 by the then Ministry of Social Welfare, Government of India to provide technical and scientific assistance to the department of women and child development.
(1) Central Welfare Planning Committee
(2) Central Technical Committee
(3) Central Management Committee
(4) Central Women Welfare Committee
Answer: (2) Central Technical Committee
Explanation: On 30 June 1976, the Ministry of Social Welfare established the Central Technical Committee to provide scientific and technical support to the Department of Women and Child Development in areas of health and nutrition.
55. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding, Shubhmangal Collective/Registered Marriage Scheme for marriage of farmers/agricultural labourers daughters ?
a. This Scheme is implemented through District Planning Development Committee.
b. A grant of Rs. 1 lakh per couple is given for the marriage of a girl child.
c. An incentive of Rs. 10,000/(Ten Thousand Rs.) per couple is given to the NGOs organizing group marriages.
(1) Only a
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) a and b
Answer: (4) a and b
Explanation: Statements a and b are incorrect. The scheme is not implemented through the District Planning Development Committee, and the grant amount is not Rs. 1 lakh per couple. Statement c is correct regarding the incentive to NGOs.
56. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. Norms are social guidelines for social relationship.
b. There are differences in social norms in different societies.
c. Norms are appropriateness of behaviour or behavioural expectations.
d. Social norms are not abstract.
(1) Only b
(2) Only a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) Only d
Answer: (4) Only d
Explanation: Statement d is incorrect because social norms are abstract concepts. They are unwritten rules that guide behavior and are not tangible. Statements a, b, and c correctly describe the nature and variation of social norms.
57. Who wrote, “Values are socially approved desires and goals that are internalised through the process of conditioning, learning or socialisation and that become subjective preferences, standards and aspirations” ?
(1) R. K. Mukherjee
(2) M. Haralambos
(3) MacIver and Page
(4) W. G. Sumner
Answer: (1) R. K. Mukherjee
Explanation: The definition of values as socially approved desires and goals internalised through conditioning and socialisation is attributed to R. K. Mukherjee, a prominent Indian sociologist.
58. The establishment year of Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act ________.
(1) 1956
(2) 1957
(3) 1958
(4) 1959
Answer: (1) 1956
Explanation: The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act was enacted in 1956 as part of the Hindu Code Bills, providing legal provisions for adoption and maintenance among Hindus.
59. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding senior citizens ?
a. Since 1973, ‘Vrudhashram Scheme’ has been implemented through a voluntary organization for senior citizens to spend their old age well.
b. Men aged 60 years and women aged 55 years are admitted to old age homes.
c. ‘Vrudhashram Scheme’ was launched in 1995 by a voluntary organization to provide more facilities to senior citizens in old age home.
(1) b and c
(2) a and b
(3) Only c
(4) Only a
Answer: (4) Only a
Explanation: Statement a is correct: the ‘Vrudhashram Scheme’ has been implemented since 1973 through voluntary organizations. Statements b and c are incorrect regarding age criteria and launch year.
60. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. Men and women whose age is 60 years or above are referred to as senior citizens.
b. The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act 2007 is applicable to the senior citizens of all India except Jammu and Kashmir.
c. According to Act 2008, maintenance includes food, clothing, shelter, medical facilities and treatment.
(1) Only c
(2) a and b
(3) Only b
(4) b and c
Answer: (1) Only c
Explanation: Statement c is incorrect because the definition of maintenance comes from the 2007 Act, not 2008. Statements a and b are correct regarding the age definition and applicability of the Act.
61. The scheme of Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRSs) was launched in the year _________ to provide quality upper-primary, secondary and senior secondary level education to the Scheduled Tribe (S.T.) students in remote areas.
(1) 1990 – 91
(2) 1983 – 84
(3) 1997 – 98
(4) 1998 – 99
Answer: (3) 1997 – 98
Explanation: The Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRSs) scheme was launched in 1997–98 to provide quality education to Scheduled Tribe students in remote areas, covering upper-primary to senior secondary levels.
62. The Government of India introduced special provisions for the tribal people and 1st list of backward tribes was promulgated in the year ________.
(1) 1936
(2) 1937
(3) 1935
(4) 1938
Answer: (3) 1935
Explanation: The first list of backward tribes was officially promulgated in 1935 by the Government of India, marking the beginning of special provisions for tribal communities.
63. Which of the following programme/s is/are assisted by the UNICEF in India ?
a. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)
b. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)
c. Social Inputs in Area Development (SIAD)
d. Integrated Tribal Development Programme (ITDP)
(1) a and c
(2) a and d
(3) b, a and c
(4) Only a
Answer: (1) a and c
Explanation: UNICEF assists programs like Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and Social Inputs in Area Development (SIAD) in India, focusing on child welfare, nutrition, and community development.
64. Which of the following objectives of National Youth Parliament Festival 2021 ?
a. To hear the voice of youth between 18 and less than 24 years of age.
b. To develop and enhance decision abilities of youth.
c. To develop respect and tolerance for the views of others in youth.
d. To obtain and document their opinions on Vision of New India in 2022.
(1) a and b
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) b, c and d
Answer: (3) a, b, c and d
Explanation: The National Youth Parliament Festival 2021 aimed to engage youth, develop decision-making abilities, promote respect for diverse views, and document their vision for New India in 2022. All listed objectives are correct.
65. Which of the following factor/s is/are responsible for youth unrest ?
a. Traditional norms and values are not acceptable from modern youth.
b. Neglect of quality and efficiency in government policies.
c. Interference of political parties in students union.
d. The current education system is unable to create employment.
(1) Only b
(2) b and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4) a, b, c and d
Explanation: Youth unrest stems from rejection of traditional norms, inefficient policies, political interference in student unions, and an education system that fails to generate employment opportunities. All factors contribute.
66. ‘ASHA’ primarily be a women resident of the village married/widowed/divorced, in the age group of _______ years.
(1) 30 to 35 years
(2) 35 to 45 years
(3) 25 to 45 years
(4) 20 to 40 years
Answer: (3) 25 to 45 years
Explanation: An ASHA worker must be a woman resident of the village, married/widowed/divorced, and aged between 25 to 45 years, serving as a community health activist.
67. Working women are entitled to hostel facilities provided her gross income does not exceed Rs. _______ (gross) per month in metropolitan cities and Rs. ________ in any other place.
(1) 1,00,000, 30,000
(2) 75,000, 25,000
(3) 1,10,000, 43,000
(4) 50,000, 35,000
Answer: (4) 50,000, 35,000
Explanation: Working women are eligible for hostel facilities if their gross monthly income does not exceed Rs. 50,000 in metropolitan cities and Rs. 35,000 in other areas.
68. The current infant mortality rate for India in 2024 is 25.799 deaths per 1000 live births, it means it has decline of ______% from 2023.
(1) 3.08
(2) 3.07
(3) 3.00
(4) 3.04
Answer: (1) 3.08
Explanation: The infant mortality rate in India for 2024 is 25.799 deaths per 1000 live births, reflecting a decline of 3.08% from 2023, indicating improvement in child health outcomes.
69. Integrated Child Development Scheme started in India on 2 October 1975, which of the following was the objectives of this schemes ?
a. To improve the nutritional and health status of children in age group of 0 – 6 years.
b. To lay the foundation for proper psychological, physical and social development of child.
c. To reduce the rate of mortality, morbidity, malnutrition and school dropout.
d. To increase the rate of mortality and malnutrition.
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) a and d
Answer: (3) a, b, c
Explanation: The ICDS scheme, launched on 2 October 1975, aims to improve child nutrition and health, support holistic development, and reduce mortality, morbidity, malnutrition, and school dropouts. Statement d is incorrect.
70. Which of the above statement is correct ?
a. Article 21A – Right to Education. The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 8 to 18 years.
b. Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories. No child below the age fourteen years shall be employed in work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.
c. Article 39 – The state shall in particular direct its policy towards security that the health and strength of workers, men and women and the tender age of children are not abused and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength.
(1) Only c
(2) Only a
(3) a and b
(4) b and c
Answer: (4) b and c
Explanation: Article 24 prohibits employment of children below 14 years in hazardous occupations, and Article 39 directs policy to protect workers and children from exploitation. Article 21A applies to children aged 6 to 14 years, making statement a incorrect.
71. To reduce the physical and mental burden of students, the Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India appointed a National Advisory Committee in March 1992 under the Chairmanship of _________.
(1) Shri Janardhan Reddy
(2) Acharya Rammurti
(3) Yash Pal
(4) J. C. Agarwal
Answer: (3)
Explanation: In March 1992, the Ministry of Human Resource Development of the Government of India established a National Advisory Committee with the specific goal of finding ways to reduce the physical and mental burden on students. This important committee was chaired by Professor Yash Pal.
72. In _________ forms of e-learning, learning takes place directly under the guidance of experts.
(1) Knowledge databases
(2) Online support
(3) Asynchronous training
(4) Synchronous training
Answer: (4)
Explanation: In the context of e-learning, synchronous training is the method where learning occurs in real-time, directly under the guidance of experts or instructors. This is different from asynchronous training, where learners access materials at their own pace without simultaneous interaction.
73. According to the Article _________ of the Constitution, there is a provision to provide compulsory and free education to children 6 to 14 years of age.
(1) 21 – A
(2) 45
(3) 30
(4) 41 – A
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The Constitution of India provides for free and compulsory education for children. Specifically, Article 21-A mandates the state to provide this right to all children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.
74. To teach adults, the organizer should use _________ teaching method.
a. Problem solving
b. Group discussion
c. Audio-visual education
d. Lecture
(1) Only a
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation: When teaching adults, it is effective to use a variety of teaching methods to cater to different learning styles. The source indicates that an organizer should use problem solving, group discussion, audio-visual education, and lectures. Therefore, all the listed methods are appropriate.
75. As per NEP 2020, each teacher will be expected to participate in atleast _________ of CPD opportunities of own interests every year for their own professional development.
(1) 20 hours
(2) 30 hours
(3) 40 hours
(4) 50 hours
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 emphasizes the importance of continuous professional development (CPD) for teachers. According to the policy, every teacher is expected to participate in at least 50 hours of CPD opportunities annually, based on their own interests, to support their professional growth.
76. Which conditions need to be fulfilled to get eligible for ‘Skill India Program’ ?
i. Indian
ii. Age between 21 and 24 years
iii. Unemployed
(1) Only ii
(2) i and ii
(3) i and iii
(4) i, ii and iii
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The question asks for the eligibility conditions for the ‘Skill India Program’. The source indicates that to be eligible, a person must be an Indian citizen and must be unemployed. The age condition mentioned is not listed as a requirement in the provided text.
77. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a public – private partnership between Govt. of India and _________.
(1) Private Education Sector Partners
(2) Various Industry Sector Partners
(3) Skill Development NGOs
(4) Various Charitable Organizations
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is structured as a public-private partnership. It is a collaboration between the Government of India and Private Education Sector Partners.
78. Which of the following is not a long term training scheme run by Indian Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship ?
(1) Craftsman Training Scheme
(2) Janshikshan Sansthan
(3) Crafts Instructor Training Scheme
(4) Advanced Vocational Training Scheme
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The Indian Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship runs several long-term training schemes. These include the Craftsman Training Scheme, the Crafts Instructor Training Scheme, and the Advanced Vocational Training Scheme. Janshikshan Sansthan is identified as not being one of these long-term training schemes.
79. The skill training for women is provided through
(1) CTS (Craftsman Training Scheme) and CITS (Craftsman Instructor Training Scheme)
(2) Small Scale Industry
(3) Women and Child Development Scheme
(4) Various Industries
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The question asks through which medium skill training is provided specifically for women. The correct answer according to the source is the Women and Child Development Scheme.
80. The combination of face-to-face instruction and computer mediated instruction is termed as
(1) Flexible Learning
(2) Online Learning
(3) Blended Learning
(4) Combined Learning
Answer: (3)
Explanation: A teaching methodology that combines traditional face-to-face instruction in a classroom setting with computer-mediated instruction (such as online activities and resources) is known as Blended Learning.
81. STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics) education aims to develop students’ skills in
a. Creativity and innovation
b. Memorization of facts
c. Real world problem solving
d. Getting good marks in technology
e. Theoretical application of knowledge
f. Collaboration and communication
(1) b, d, e
(2) a, c, f
(3) a, c, e, f
(4) b, c, e, f
Answer: (3)
Explanation: STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics) education is an integrated approach that aims to develop a range of skills in students. It focuses on creativity and innovation, real-world problem solving, the theoretical application of knowledge, and collaboration and communication.
82. In order to provide skilled manpower in the health and medical sector in the event of epidemics and also to overcome the shortage of necessary trained manpower in the resources of the sector; the youth who are willing to work in the health sector in healthcare, paramedical, nursing and domestic worker sectors, are imparted skill development training to provide employment opportunities. For this purpose State has approved which Campaign ?
(1) Chief Minister Skill Development Mission
(2) Prime Minister Skill Development Mission
(3) Pramod Mahajan Kaushalya and Udyojakata Vikas Abhiyan
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The campaign approved to provide skilled manpower in the health and medical sector is the Pramod Mahajan Kaushalya and Udyojakata Vikas Abhiyan, which imparts skill development training to youth in healthcare-related fields.
83. Which is not a sub-mission skill of National Skill Development Mission ?
(1) Institutional training
(2) Infrastructure
(3) Convergence
(4) Environmental training
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The National Skill Development Mission includes sub-missions such as institutional training, infrastructure development, and convergence. Environmental training is not one of its sub-missions.
84. The Mahaswayam Portal offers
a. Providing information on skilled teaching.
b. Helping students to find specialized training.
c. Ensuring that skilled youth are available for industry.
d. Providing opportunities for self employment.
(1) Only a
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only a, b and c
(4) Only b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The Mahaswayam Portal helps students find specialized training, ensures skilled youth are available for industry, and provides self-employment opportunities. It does not focus on skilled teaching information.
85. MJPJAY Yojana, 2024 provides coverage upto ________ per policy year per family to meet all expenses related to hospitalization of the beneficiary.
(1) Rs. 1,50,000/-
(2) Rs. 2,00,000/-
(3) Rs. 2,50,000/-
(4) Rs. 3,00,000/-
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The MJPJAY (Mahatma Jyotirao Phule Jan Arogya Yojana) provides coverage of up to Rs. 1,50,000/- per family per policy year for hospitalization expenses.
86. Who can prepare estimates of capital and recurring expenditure for the implementation of the provisions of the RTE Act, 2009 ?
(1) The Central Government
(2) The State Government
(3) Local Administrator
(4) The Finance Ministry of State
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The Central Government is responsible for preparing capital and recurring expenditure estimates for implementing the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
87. Match the following.
A
a. Socrates
b. Plato
c. Froebel
d. Herbart
e. Hegel
B
i. Logical system
ii. Five step system
iii. Kindergarten system
iv. Dialectic system
v. Question-answer system
(1) a – v, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii, e – i
(2) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv, e – v
(3) a – iii, b – i, c – ii, d – v, e – iv
(4) a – iv, b – v, c – iii, d – ii, e – i
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The correct matches are: Socrates – Question-answer system, Plato – Dialectic system, Froebel – Kindergarten system, Herbart – Five step system, Hegel – Logical system.
88. ‘Believing truth is dynamic in nature, it keeps changing’ is thought of _________ branch of philosophy.
(1) Realism
(2) Naturalism
(3) Idealism
(4) Pragmatism
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Pragmatism holds that truth is dynamic and evolves with practical consequences and changing contexts, unlike fixed or absolute truths.
89. Two statements are given below. Read it carefully and select correct option.
Statement I : Creativity can be called as a special kind of problem solving.
Statement II : Originality is not always creativity.
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Statement I is true, statement II is false
(4) Statement II is true, statement I is false
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Creativity is a special form of problem-solving, making Statement I true. Originality is essential to creativity, so Statement II is false.
90. Which of the following factors influence the learning ?
a. Culpability
b. Fatigue
c. Self-respect
d. Games
e. Maturity
f. Use of calculator
g. Dark room
h. Communication skill
i. Learning time
j. Fear about subject
(1) a, d, e, f, g, i
(2) b, c, e, g, i, j
(3) c, e, g, h, i, j
(4) d, e, f, g, i, j
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Learning is influenced by fatigue, self-respect, maturity, dark room, learning time, and fear about subject, which affect concentration, confidence, and mental readiness.
91. To assess person’s natural abilities and strengths in a variety of areas, _________ are used.
(1) Attitude tests
(2) Aptitude tests
(3) Personality tests
(4) Intelligence tests
Answer: (2)
Explanation: To evaluate a person’s natural abilities and inherent strengths across various fields, aptitude tests are used. These tests are designed to predict a person’s potential to succeed in a particular activity or field of study.
92. Which of the following are objectives of Scheme for Adolescent Girl ?
a. Enable adolescent girls for self-development and empowerment.
b. Impart health and hygiene education.
c. To increase girl child sex ratio.
d. Improve their nutrition and health status.
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The Scheme for Adolescent Girls aims to promote self-development and empowerment among girls and to improve their nutrition and health status. These objectives support holistic development during adolescence.
93. Which learning law is applied in the following situation ?
‘Sarika failed in the first term exam due to wrong method of learning. She started learning through another learning method.’
(1) Law of Readiness
(2) Law of Repetition
(3) Law of Imitation
(4) Law of Effect
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The situation reflects the Law of Effect, which states that behaviors followed by satisfying outcomes are likely to be repeated, while those followed by unsatisfying outcomes are less likely. Sarika changed her method due to an unsatisfactory result.
94. Match the following.
- Neuroscience Based Theory
- Triarchic Theory
- Three Dimensional Theory
- Primary Mental Ability
- Fluid and Crystal Theory of Intelligence
a. Cattel
b. Sternberg
c. Gardner
d. Thurstone
e. Guilford
(1) 1 – e, 2 – c, 3 – d, 4 – b, 5 – a
(2) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – e, 4 – d, 5 – a
(3) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – c, 5 – e
(4) 1 – a, 2 – b, 3 – c, 4 – d, 5 – e
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The correct matches are: Neuroscience Based Theory – Gardner, Triarchic Theory – Sternberg, Three Dimensional Theory – Guilford, Primary Mental Ability – Thurstone, and Fluid and Crystal Theory – Cattel. These theories explain different aspects of intelligence and cognitive structure.
95. These factors are associated with which of the following option ?
A. Developmental stages
B. Prerequisite knowledge
C. Intelligence
D. Flexibility
(1) Steps of problem solving
(2) Barriers to problem solving
(3) Characteristics of good problem solver
(4) Ideal methods of problem solving
Answer: (3)
Explanation: These factors—developmental stages, prerequisite knowledge, intelligence, and flexibility—are essential characteristics of a good problem solver. They influence how effectively a person can approach and resolve problems.
96. On 15th January 2021, Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) launched the third phase of its flagship scheme is _______
(1) National Skill Development Mission (NSDM)
(2) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
(3) Skill India Mission (SIM)
(4) National Apprenticeship Promotional Scheme (NAPS)
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The third phase of the flagship skill development scheme launched by MSDE on 15 January 2021 is the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY), aimed at enhancing employability through training.
97. As per the Unethical Trade Prohibition Act, 1956, Government of Maharashtra established Women Protection Homes at _______
a. Devnar (Mumbai)
b. Nagpur
c. Pune
d. Beed
(1) Only a
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Under the Unethical Trade Prohibition Act, 1956, the Government of Maharashtra established Women Protection Homes at Devnar (Mumbai), Nagpur, Pune, and Beed to support and rehabilitate affected women.
98. Maharashtra State Skills University has been established by Government of Maharashtra through Maharashtra Act No. _______.
(1) VI / 2020
(2) VII / 2020
(3) VI / 2021
(4) VII / 2021
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The Maharashtra State Skills University was formally established through Maharashtra Act No. VI / 2021, to promote skill-based education and training.
99. The objective of Chief Minister’s Youth Work Training Scheme is _________.
(1) Skill development of youth
(2) Employing candidates through on-the-job training with entrepreneurs
(3) Mentoring young researchers
(4) Providing scholarships to youth for skill development
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The Chief Minister’s Youth Work Training Scheme aims to provide employment opportunities by facilitating on-the-job training with entrepreneurs, helping youth gain practical experience.
100. National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) provides support to _______ that are creating an impact by offering a world of opportunities in futuristic skills to the potential workforce.
a. Enterprises
b. Start-ups
c. Companies
d. Organizations
(1) Only a
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The NSDC supports enterprises, start-ups, companies, and organizations that contribute to futuristic skill development, expanding opportunities for the potential workforce.
101. UNESCO awarded 2024 prize for Girl’s and Women’s Education for transformative projects in _________.
A. Uganda
B. Zambia
C. Algeria
D. Libya
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only C, D
(3) Only A, C
(4) Only B, D
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The UNESCO Prize for Girl’s and Women’s Education in 2024 was awarded for transformative educational projects in Uganda and Zambia, recognizing their impact on gender equity and access to education.
102. Select the incorrect statement from the following about International Court of Justice (ICJ).
(1) The ICJ consists of 15 judges elected for a term of 9 years by UN General Assembly and Security Council.
(2) The President and Vice-President of the ICJ are elected by the members of the Court every three years by secret ballot.
(3) In the election held in Nov. 2023, Judge Hilary Charlesworth was re-elected.
(4) President of ICJ on July, 2024 is Julia Sebutinde.
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Statement (4) is incorrect because Julia Sebutinde was not the President of the ICJ in July 2024. The other statements accurately describe the structure and election process of the ICJ.
103. Which one of the following statements about the European Union is incorrect ?
(1) The European Commission is its decision-making branch
(2) The European Council consists of the Presidents or Prime Ministers of each member state
(3) The European Council meets four times a year
(4) There are 27 judges in The Court of Justice of the European Union
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Statement (1) is incorrect because the European Commission is the executive branch, not the decision-making branch. The European Council and European Parliament play key roles in decision-making.
104. Select the correct statement about European Union (EU) from the following.
A. European Union was awarded the Nobel Prize for peace in 2012.
B. European Union was created by the Maastricht Treaty.
C. The ‘Ode to Joy’ is the anthem of the EU.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A, C
(4) A, B, and C
Answer: (4)
Explanation: All three statements are correct. The EU received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2012, was founded by the Maastricht Treaty, and adopted ‘Ode to Joy’ as its official anthem.
105. Which among the following countries is not a member of APEC ?
(1) Philippines
(2) Cambodia
(3) Thailand
(4) Singapore
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Cambodia is not a member of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC), while Philippines, Thailand, and Singapore are active members.
106. National Human Rights Commission of India celebrated its _______ Foundation Day on 12th October 2023.
(1) 27th
(2) 25th
(3) 32nd
(4) 30th
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) celebrated its 30th Foundation Day on 12th October 2023, marking three decades of promoting and protecting human rights in India.
107. Which treaty created European Union ?
a. Maastricht Treaty
b. Rome Treaty
c. Vienna Treaty
d. Dunkel Treaty
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only a, c are correct
(3) Only b, d are correct
(4) Only a, d are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The Maastricht Treaty, signed in 1992, formally established the European Union, laying the foundation for economic and political integration.
108. What are the objectives of ASEAN ?
a. To accelerate economic growth of south-east Asian nations.
b. To promote regional peace and stability in the south-east Asia.
c. To unify the oil policies of member countries.
d. To promote social justice at the workplace.
(1) Only a, b are correct
(2) Only b, c are correct
(3) Only a, d are correct
(4) Only a is correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The ASEAN aims to accelerate economic growth and promote peace and stability in Southeast Asia. It does not focus on oil policy unification or workplace social justice as core objectives.
109. Factors contributing to SAFTA’s (South Asian Free Trade Agreement) perceived lack of success
A. Narrow export bases of countries
B. Lack of bilateral free trade agreements
C. Political hurdles
Choose the correct option from the following.
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A and C
(3) Only B and C
(4) A, B and C
Answer: (2)
Explanation: SAFTA’s limited success is attributed to narrow export bases and political hurdles among member nations. Bilateral agreements exist but are not the primary barrier.
110. Which of the following statements about Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is/are correct ?
A. It is an economic co-operation group for the China led free trade.
B. It is a counter co-operation group for the American led trans-pacific partnership.
C. In the countries involved in this partnership, Indian professionals will have employment opportunities.
Select the correct answer.
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only A and C
(3) Only B and C
(4) A, B and C
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The RCEP is a China-led free trade agreement and serves as a counterbalance to the US-led Trans-Pacific Partnership. Since India opted out, statement C about employment opportunities for Indian professionals is not applicable.
111. Which programmes are introduced by Indian Government to reduce Infant Mortality Rate ?
a. Home Based New Born Care
b. Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram
c. Ujwala Suraksha Yojana
d. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram
(1) Only a, b, c are correct
(2) Only b, c, d are correct
(3) Only a, b, d are correct
(4) Only a, c are correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The Indian Government has introduced several programmes to reduce Infant Mortality Rate, including Home Based New Born Care, Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram, and Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram. These initiatives focus on early intervention, nutrition, and maternal-child health services.
112. Consider the following statements about United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) and identify the incorrect statement.
(1) Members of the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) are elected by a majority of the United Nations General Assembly Members.
(2) The Bureau of the United Nations Human Rights Council consists of four members.
(3) Asia-Pacific nations have thirteen seats.
(4) Members of the Council serve for three years.
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Statement (2) is incorrect because the Bureau of the UNHRC consists of five members, not four. The other statements correctly describe the election process, regional representation, and term duration.
113. In which year the United Nations Commission on Human Rights was replaced with the United Nations Human Rights Council for the effective enforcement of Human Rights ?
(1) 2000
(2) 2001
(3) 2006
(4) 1998
Answer: (3)
Explanation: In 2006, the United Nations Human Rights Council was established to replace the United Nations Commission on Human Rights, aiming for stronger enforcement and credibility in global human rights protection.
114. Third Generation of Human Rights are known by which of the following title ?
(1) Citizen’s Rights
(2) Developmental Rights
(3) Group Rights
(4) Women’s Rights
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The Third Generation of Human Rights are referred to as Developmental Rights, encompassing collective rights such as the right to development, peace, and a healthy environment.
115. Which of the following practices violate the right against exploitation under the Indian Constitution ?
a. Buying and selling human beings, usually women and girls for prostitution
b. Forced labour or bonded
c. Child labour in industries
d. Rigorous imprisonment to the prisoners in jail.
(1) Only a, b and c are correct
(2) Only a and b are correct
(3) Only b, c and d are correct
(4) Only d is correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The right against exploitation under the Indian Constitution is violated by human trafficking, bonded labour, and child labour. Rigorous imprisonment, being a legal sentence, does not violate this right.
116. Who among the following selects the Social Audit Committee under MGNREGA (Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act) ?
A. Gram Sabha
B. District Collector
C. Panchayat
D. Zilla Parishad
(1) Only A
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only D
(4) Only A and D
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Under MGNREGA, the Gram Sabha is empowered to select the Social Audit Committee, ensuring community participation and transparency in implementation.
117. Which Article of the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (ICC) provides for individual crime responsibility ?
(1) Article 23
(2) Article 26
(3) Article 25
(4) Article 24
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Article 25 of the Rome Statute establishes the principle of individual criminal responsibility, allowing the International Criminal Court to prosecute individuals for genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
118. Arrange the sequence of the adoption of following Acts in India.
A. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
B. The Dowry Prohibition Act
C. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act
D. Protection of Civil Rights Act
(1) D, B, C, A
(2) D, B, A, C
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) C, D, B, A
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Chronologically, the Acts were adopted in the following order: Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955), Dowry Prohibition Act (1961), Child Labour Act (1986), and Domestic Violence Act (2005).
119. Which of the following statement/s about the Fundamental Rights listed in Part III of the Indian Constitution is/are true ?
a. Right to Constitutional Remedies is itself a fundamental right as per Indian Constitution.
b. The chapter on fundamental rights guarantees individual rights as well as group rights.
(1) Both a and b are correct
(2) Both a and b are incorrect
(3) a is correct and b is incorrect
(4) a is incorrect and b is correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Article 32 guarantees the Right to Constitutional Remedies, making it a Fundamental Right. Part III also protects individual rights (e.g., freedom of speech) and group rights (e.g., minority rights).
120. Which among the following States had the highest Infant Mortality Rate in 2019 according to the Bulletin of the Registrar General of India ?
(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Chhattisgarh
(3) Assam
(4) Rajasthan
Answer: (1)
Explanation: As per the 2019 Bulletin of the Registrar General of India, Madhya Pradesh recorded the highest Infant Mortality Rate, indicating challenges in maternal and child health services.
121. What is the focus of the Human Development Index ?
(1) People’s capabilities
(2) Human resources
(3) Sustainable growth
(4) Economic justice
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The Human Development Index (HDI) focuses on people’s capabilities, measuring whether individuals have the freedom and opportunity to live long, healthy, and fulfilling lives beyond just economic indicators.
122. Which of the following organisations has been playing a role of humanitarian for the protection of Human Rights ?
a. Red Cross
b. Oxfam
c. Amnesty International
d. Médecins Sans Frontieres (Doctors without borders)
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only b and c
(4) Only a, b and c
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Organizations like the Red Cross, Oxfam, Amnesty International, and Médecins Sans Frontieres play a humanitarian role in protecting human rights through aid, advocacy, and medical support in crisis zones.
123. Consider the following statements regarding National Human Rights Commission.
a. It is a Constitutional.
b. It was constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
c. It is the watchdog of Human Rights in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only a
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only b and c
(4) Only a and c
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body, not constitutional. It was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 and acts as the watchdog of human rights in India.
124. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
a. Article three of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) deals with right to life, liberty, personal security.
b. Its Article seven is related to right to equality before the law.
c. Its Article fourteen deals with right to marriage and family.
(1) Only a
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only c
(4) Only b and c
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Article three of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) affirms the right to life, liberty, and personal security. The other article references are incorrect for the rights mentioned.
125. Which of the following is/are the objective/s of Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) ?
A. To coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its member countries.
B. To ensure the stabilisation of oil markets.
C. To ensure an efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consumers, a steady income to producers.
Select the correct option.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and B
(4) A, B and C
Answer: (4)
Explanation: OPEC aims to coordinate petroleum policies, stabilize oil markets, and ensure efficient supply to consumers while securing steady income for producers. All listed objectives are correct.
126. Which of the following are conditions for the Military and Police Pre-recruitment training for backward classes youths ?
a. The backward class candidate should be in the age group of 18 years to 25 years.
b. The backward class candidate should have passed minimum 10th standard (S.S.C.).
c. The backward class candidate should have passed 12th standard.
d. The candidate should be below poverty line.
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Eligibility for Military and Police Pre-recruitment training includes being 18–25 years old and having passed the 12th standard. These ensure readiness for service roles.
127. How many Labour Welfare Centres are established in Maharashtra State to raise life quality of labour ?
(1) 82
(2) 72
(3) 31
(4) 19
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Maharashtra has established 72 Labour Welfare Centres to improve the living standards and welfare of workers across the state.
128. Elements determining wages
a. demand of labour
b. wages
c. level of price
d. social status
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, d, b
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, c, d
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Wage determination depends on labour demand, price levels, and social status of the occupation, influencing both economic and societal valuation.
129. Who among the following are members of the expert group constituted to carry out social impact assessment of the development project ?
a. Two non-governmental scientists
b. Two experts on rehabilitation
c. Two representatives from the local self governance bodies of that area
d. Representative of private company
(1) Only d
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only a, b and c
(4) Only b, c and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The expert group for social impact assessment includes non-governmental scientists, rehabilitation experts, and local governance representatives to ensure inclusive evaluation.
130. Select the incorrect statement from the following about Mulshi Dam Satyagraha (1927-1930).
(1) The Tata Group of Industries had planned to construct dams in the Sahyadri mountain range for generating electricity.
(2) The major capital investment was done by the British to build one of the biggest dams of that time at Mulshi in Pune.
(3) The populist slogan of the movement was “we will give our lives, but not our dam”.
(4) This satyagraha was led by Senapati Bapat.
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The Mulshi Dam Satyagraha was opposed to the Tata Group’s investment, not the British. The movement was led by Senapati Bapat and used slogans like “we will give our lives, but not our dam”.
131. Assertion (A) : The Land Acquisition Act only deals with compensation to individuals.
Reason (R) : The Land Acquisition Act does not deal with rehabilitation of project affected persons.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The Land Acquisition Act does not only deal with individual compensation, making Assertion (A) false. However, older versions of the Act did not include rehabilitation provisions, making Reason (R) true.
132. Select the incorrect statement about the duties and functions of Chief Controlling Authority under the Maharashtra Project Affected Persons Rehabilitation Act, 1999.
(1) To implement the rehabilitation programme within policy of State Government relating to rehabilitation.
(2) To co-ordinate and supervise the work of rehabilitation.
(3) To submit the periodical reports to the Governor of the State.
(4) To ensure the proper utilization of grants and carry out test audit.
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The Chief Controlling Authority under the Act does not submit reports to the Governor. Their duties include implementation, coordination, and audit of rehabilitation efforts, making statement (3) incorrect.
133. Select the incorrect statement/s:
A. The Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has been awarding National Awards every year since 1969.
B. The Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities confers National Awards to commemorate the ‘International day of Persons with Disabilities’ which falls on 8th December every year.
C. There are two categories of National Awards for individual excellence and another for institutional empowerment.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B
(4) B and C
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The International Day of Persons with Disabilities is observed on 3rd December, not 8th December, making statement B incorrect. Statements A and C are correct.
134. In Maharashtra to avail benefit of Matrimonial incentives to Person with Disabilities what are the eligibility criteria. Which of the following are correctly stated criteria to avail this Scheme ?
a. Person should have domicile of Maharashtra.
b. Either wife or husband of the couple should be disabled.
c. Either wife or husband should have minimum 40% disability.
(1) Only a, b
(2) Only c
(3) Only a, c
(4) a, b, c
Answer: (4)
Explanation: To avail Matrimonial Incentives, the applicant must have Maharashtra domicile, and either spouse must be disabled with at least 40% disability. All three criteria are correct.
135. Central Government is providing skill development and livelihood opportunities to transgender communities under ________ Scheme.
(1) PM-DAKSH
(2) PM-JAY
(3) Garima-Greh
(4) PM-USHA
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The PM-DAKSH scheme supports skill development and livelihood for transgender communities, promoting economic inclusion.
136. The Government of India introduced Jawahar Rojgar Yojana on 1st April, 1989 to provide employment opportunities for the _________.
(1) Poor in urban areas
(2) Tribal people
(3) Poor in rural areas
(4) Landless agricultural labour
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The Jawahar Rojgar Yojana was launched to generate employment for the rural poor, focusing on rural development and poverty alleviation.
137. Under Central Scheme of National Overseas Scheme for SCs which of the following categories have been provided with financial assistance for pursuing masters and Ph.D. level courses abroad ?
a. Scheduled Castes
b. Denotified, Nomadic Tribes
c. Traditional artisan
d. Landless agricultural labour
e. NRIs
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, c, e
(4) a, d, e
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The National Overseas Scheme provides financial aid to Scheduled Castes, Landless agricultural labourers, and NRIs for higher education abroad.
138. Match the pairs (Non-Governmental Organisation working for socially deprieved children in India).
‘A’ (NGO)
A. Save the children
B. Child Help Foundation
C. Katha
D. Pratham Education Foundation
‘B’ (Foundation Year)
i. 1995
ii. 1988
iii. 2010
iv. 1919
(1) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The correct matches are: Save the Children – 2010, Child Help Foundation – 1919, Katha – 1988, and Pratham Education Foundation – 1995.
139. Select the correct statements from the following :
A. Starte Committee was appointed to inquire into the educational, economic and social conditions of the depressed classes and of the aboriginal tribes in the Bombay Presidency in 1930.
B. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the member of the Starte Committee.
C. Starte Committee did not advocate the formation of Land banks.
D. Starte Committee recommended the education in common schools for depressed classes.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only C, D
(3) Only A, B, C
(4) Only A, B, D
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The Starte Committee was formed in 1930, included Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, and recommended common school education for depressed classes. It did advocate land banks, making statement C incorrect.
140. Which of the following countries are permanent members of International Labour Organisation ?
A. India
B. Italy
C. Japan
D. Pakistan
E. Sweden
(1) Only A, B, D
(2) Only A, B, C
(3) Only B, C, E
(4) Only A, D, E
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The ILO has India, Italy, and Japan as permanent members due to their industrial significance.
141. Match the names of Indians who has been elected Chairman of the Governing Body of International Labour Organization (ILO) with their years of working :
Names
a. Shri Atul Chatterjee
b. Shri Shamal Dharee Lall
c. Shri S.T. Merani
d. Shri B.G. Deshmukh
Years
i. 1961-62
ii. 1984-85
iii. 1932-33
iv. 1948-49
a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii iii i iv
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iii ii iv i
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The correct matches are: Shri Atul Chatterjee – 1932-33, Shri Shamal Dharee Lall – 1948-49, Shri S.T. Merani – 1961-62, and Shri B.G. Deshmukh – 1984-85. These individuals served as Chairmen of the ILO Governing Body during the respective years.
142. Which of the following is/are autonomous organisations under the Ministry of Labour ?
a. Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation
b. The National Safety Council
c. National Labour Institute
d. Employees’ State Insurance Corporation
(1) a, b and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) Only c
Answer: (3)
Explanation: The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation, National Labour Institute, and Employees’ State Insurance Corporation are all autonomous organisations functioning under the Ministry of Labour.
143. Match the pairs (Non-Governmental Organisation working for Divyang Jan in India).
‘A’ (NGO)
A. Diya Foundation
B. Sense International India
C. Family of Disabled
D. The Association of people with Disability
‘B’ (Foundation Year)
i. 1959
ii. 1992
iii. 1997
iv. 1999
A B C D
(1) iv iii ii i
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) ii iii iv i
(4) i ii iii iv
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The correct matches are: Diya Foundation – 1999, Sense International India – 1997, Family of Disabled – 1992, and The Association of people with Disability – 1959. These NGOs work for the welfare of persons with disabilities in India.
144. ________ is a disorder of the central nervous system that can result in tremors and stiffness in the muscles.
(1) Mental Retardation
(2) Cerebral Palsy
(3) Parkinson’s Disease
(4) Multiple Disabilities
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Parkinson’s Disease is a neurological disorder affecting the central nervous system, leading to tremors, muscle stiffness, and impaired movement.
145. Which of the following are examples of displacement due to Special Economic Zones ?
A. Singur in West Bengal
B. Kujang in Orissa
C. Nellore in Andhra Pradesh
D. Gaziabad in Uttar Pradesh
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only C, D
(3) Only B, D
(4) Only A, B, C
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Singur, Kujang, and Nellore are known cases of displacement caused by the development of Special Economic Zones (SEZs). These projects led to land acquisition and relocation of local communities.
146. According to Section 44 of Consumer Protection Act, 2019, “State Commission” means a State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission established under _________
(1) Sub Section (1) of Section 42
(2) Sub Section (1) of Section 40
(3) Sub Section (2) of Section 40
(4) Sub Section (2) of Section 42
Answer: (1)
Explanation: As per Section 44 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the State Commission refers to the State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission established under Sub Section (1) of Section 42.
147. A person aggrieved by an order passed by the central authority under Sections 20 and 21 of Consumer Protection Act, 2019 may file an appeal to the National Commission within a period of ________ from the date of receipt of such order.
(1) 30 days
(2) 45 days
(3) 90 days
(4) 60 days
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, an appeal against orders under Sections 20 and 21 must be filed with the National Commission within 30 days of receiving the order.
148. In the following Section of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, power of a District Collector to investigate the cases relating to the violation of consumer rights are given
(1) Section 16
(2) Section 19
(3) Section 34
(4) Section 36
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Section 16 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 empowers the District Collector to investigate cases related to consumer rights violations.
149. What is the punishment for false or misleading advertisement as per Consumer Protection Act, 2019 ?
(1) Imprisonment up to one year and with fine up to two lakh rupees
(2) Imprisonment up to two years and with fine up to five lakh rupees
(3) Imprisonment up to three years and with fine up to ten lakh rupees
(4) Imprisonment up to two years and with fine up to ten lakh rupees
Answer: (4)
Explanation: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 prescribes a penalty of up to two years imprisonment and a fine up to ten lakh rupees for false or misleading advertisements.
150. As per Consumer Protection Act, 2019 the State Consumer Protection Councils shall meet as and when necessary but at least ________ meetings shall be held every year.
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The State Consumer Protection Councils must convene at least two meetings annually, as mandated by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, to review and promote consumer welfare.