1. Which of the following is/are component/s of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) (Now PM-USHA)?
a. Conversion of colleges to cluster universities.
b. Infrastructure grants to universities.
c. Vocationalisation of higher education.
d. Institutional restructuring and reforms.
e. Supporting foreign universities/institutions to setup campus in India.
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) d and e
Answer: (3) a, b, c and d
Explanation
The Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA), now renamed as PM-USHA, is a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at transforming higher education in India. Its key components include conversion of colleges into cluster universities, infrastructure grants to universities, vocationalisation of higher education, and institutional restructuring and reforms. These initiatives are designed to enhance access, equity, and quality in higher education. The option mentioning supporting foreign universities/institutions to setup campus in India is not a component of RUSA.
02 ITIs under Ministry of skill development and entrepreneurship offer which of the following trades ?
a. Agriculture, horticulture and floriculture
b. Manufacturing process control and automation
c. Automobile, repairing, painting, electrical and electronics
d. Beauty and wellness
e. Lab assistant – chemical plant
(1) Only b
(2) Only b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation
The Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship provide training in a diverse range of trades. These include Agriculture, horticulture and floriculture, Manufacturing process control and automation, Automobile, repairing, painting, electrical and electronics, Beauty and wellness, and Lab assistant – chemical plant. This wide spectrum of trades reflects the ministry’s aim to equip youth with practical skills across various sectors.
03 Access and use of digital initiatives of NCERT under the aegis of MoE, Government of India are open for
a. NISHTHA
b. Cyber safety and security
c. e-Pathshala
d. Massive online open courses on SWAYAM Prabha
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) Only c
(3) Only a
(4) Only b
Answer: (1) a, b, c and d
Explanation
Under the Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India, the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) has launched several digital initiatives. These are accessible for NISHTHA, Cyber safety and security, e-Pathshala, and Massive online open courses on SWAYAM Prabha, promoting inclusive and technology-enabled learning.
04 Creating a diverse and inclusive workforce is the rising need and a future trend. What characteristics would you reckon with Gen-Z ?
a. Traditionalists
b. Technology dependent
c. Self directed learners
d. Driven by career/financial goals
e. Born between 1995-2010 approx
(1) Only e
(2) b and d
(3) b, c, d and e
(4) Only a
Answer: (3) b, c, d and e
Explanation
To build a diverse and inclusive workforce, understanding generational traits is essential. Gen-Z is known for being technology dependent, self-directed learners, and driven by career/financial goals. They are typically born between 1995 and 2010, making them the most digitally native generation in the workforce.
05 The National Mission on Education through information and communication technology comprises of
a. Content generation
b. Providing connectivity and access devices to institutions and learners
c. Free and compulsory education to children
(1) c only
(2) b only
(3) a and b only
(4) a only
Answer: (3) a and b only
Explanation
The National Mission on Education through Information and Communication Technology (NMEICT) focuses on content generation and providing connectivity and access devices to institutions and learners. It aims to leverage ICT to enhance the quality and reach of education, but does not include free and compulsory education, which is covered under other schemes.
06 Which of the following is/are objective(s) and function(s) of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) ?
a. To formulate and implement policies necessary to provide quality education to students in a stress-free, conducive environment.
b. To raise the quality of education by taking feedback from parents-students-teachers etc. in education and strive to maintain it.
c. To make every effort to raise the educational standard of schools in the country.
(1) Only b
(2) Only c
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (4) a, b and c
Explanation
The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) aims to formulate and implement policies that ensure quality education in a stress-free and conducive environment. It also works to raise educational standards by incorporating feedback from stakeholders and making continuous efforts to improve school education across the country.
07 Which of the statements given below is/are right ?
a. World Health Assembly is the decision making body of WHO.
b. WHA’s main functions are to determine the policies of the organization and appoint the Director General, approve proposed programme budget.
c. The Executive Board is composed of 34 technically qualified members elected for three years.
(1) Only a
(2) All a, b and c
(3) Only b
(4) Only c
Answer: (2) All a, b and c
Explanation
The World Health Assembly (WHA) is the decision-making body of the World Health Organization (WHO). Its main functions include determining policies, appointing the Director-General, and approving the programme budget. The Executive Board consists of 34 technically qualified members, each elected for a three-year term, ensuring expert governance.
08 According to the 20 Point Program announced by Late Indira Gandhi on 20 August 1984. Which Point was important in curbing population ?
(1) Point – 17
(2) Point – 10
(3) Point – 15
(4) Point – 9
Answer: (4) Point – 9
Explanation
The 20 Point Program, introduced by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1984, aimed at national development across various sectors. Among these, Point 9 was specifically focused on curbing population growth, highlighting the importance of population control measures in the broader development agenda.
09 Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) aims at correcting regional imbalance in availability of health care services. Which of the following are right statements about PMSSY ?
a. The Union Government has announced 22 new AIIMS out of which 6 are functional while others are at different stages of completion.
b. Upgradation of 75 Government medical colleges will be completed in VIII phases.
c. Improvement of health infrastructure and construction of superspeciality / trauma centres, equipments etc. will be done with 60 : 40 Centre and State share.
(1) Only a
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and c
(4) Only b
Answer: (3) a and c
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY) aims to correct regional imbalances in healthcare services. It includes the establishment of 22 new AIIMS, with 6 already functional, and the construction of superspeciality and trauma centres funded on a 60:40 Centre-State basis. The statement about upgradation in VIII phases is not part of the scheme’s official structure.
10 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the ‘Home is safe if, mother is safe’ campaign launched by the government of Maharashtra ?
a. To provide preventive and curative health facilities to women above eighteen years, mothers, pregnant women.
b. Diagnosing, treating and counselling all women above the age of 30 for cancer, diabetes, high blood pressure, cataracts etc.
(1) Only b
(2) Only a
(3) a and b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) a and b
Explanation
The ‘Home is safe if, mother is safe’ campaign by the Government of Maharashtra focuses on women’s health. It provides preventive and curative services to women above 18, including mothers and pregnant women, and also targets women above 30 for diagnosis, treatment, and counselling for conditions like cancer, diabetes, high blood pressure, and cataracts.
11 Consider the following statements:
a. MGNREGS means Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme.
b. MGNREGS was launched on 2nd February, 2006.
c. Guaranteed 100 days of employment per family under MGNREGS.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct ?
(1) Only a
(2) a and c
(3) All of the above
(4) a and b
Answer: (3) All of the above
Explanation
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) was launched on 2nd February 2006. It guarantees 100 days of wage employment per year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. All three statements are correct.
12 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. Swachchha Bharat Mission (Rural) was announced on 2nd October 2014.
b. Through the Swachchha Bharat Mission, Maharashtra’s First ‘Gobardhan’ project was completed at Gram Panchayat Andarsul, Taluka Yewla, District Nashik.
c. Through the Swachchha Bharat Mission, the first ‘Maila Gal’ management project in the State was completed at Gram Panchayat Nachne, Taluka-Dist. Ratnagiri.
(1) a and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) None of the above
Answer: (4) None of the above
Explanation
All the statements about the Swachchha Bharat Mission (Rural) are correct. It was announced on 2nd October 2014, and Maharashtra’s first ‘Gobardhan’ project was completed in Andarsul, Nashik, while the first ‘Maila Gal’ management project was completed in Nachne, Ratnagiri.
13 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana ?
a. This Scheme is centrally sponsored and was started in 2000.
b. The objective of this scheme is to connect the unconnected villages of more than 1000 population in general area as per 2001 census through Baramahi road.
c. The objective of this scheme is also to connect unconnected villages of more than 500 population in tribal areas through Baramahi road.
(1) All of the above
(2) None of the above
(3) a and c
(4) b and a
Answer: (1) All of the above
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 2000. Its goal is to provide all-weather road connectivity (Baramahi roads) to unconnected villages with more than 1000 population in general areas and more than 500 population in tribal areas, based on the 2001 census.
14 Which of the following are the features of programme for eradication of T.B. before 2025 from India ?
a. Community engagement – T.B. Forums in all Districts
b. More than 4 lakh T.B. treatment supporters
c. Nikshay Poshan Yojana
d. Private Sector engagement in 173 cities and 348 districts
e. 27.4 Cr. vulnerable population screened for T.B. (upto May 2020)
(1) All of the above
(2) b and e
(3) c and e
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1) All of the above
Explanation
India’s T.B. eradication programme includes community engagement through T.B. Forums, support from over 4 lakh treatment supporters, the Nikshay Poshan Yojana, private sector involvement in 173 cities and 348 districts, and screening of 27.4 crore vulnerable individuals up to May 2020.
15 Consider the following statements:
a. A World Bank funded ‘Project on Climate Resilient Agriculture’ in Maharashtra is known as POCRA.
b. World Bank 70% and State Government 30% funds are available for the POCRA Scheme.
c. POCRA Scheme is also known as Nanaji Deshmukh Agricultural Sanjeevani Project.
d. POCRA Project aims to cover 4000 villages from Vidarba and Marathwada.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
(1) None of the above
(2) Only c
(3) Only b
(4) Only a
Answer: (1) None of the above
Explanation
The Project on Climate Resilient Agriculture (POCRA) in Maharashtra is funded by the World Bank (70%) and State Government (30%). It is also known as the Nanaji Deshmukh Agricultural Sanjeevani Project and aims to cover 4000 villages in Vidarbha and Marathwada. All statements are correct.
16 Which of the following statement/is are correct in respect of Human Resource Management/Development ?
a. Volatility, uncertainty, complexity and ambiguity are characteristics of Human Resource Work.
b. Human capital lends competitive advantage.
c. Human Resource Management focuses on business need, values/mission.
d. HRD doesn’t fall under umbrella of HR Management.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a, b and c
(4) Only d
Answer: (3) a, b and c
Explanation
Human Resource Management/Development (HRM/D) is defined by volatility, uncertainty, complexity, and ambiguity. It recognizes human capital as a competitive advantage and aligns its practices with business needs, values, and mission. The statement that HRD doesn’t fall under HR Management is incorrect, as HRD is a subset of HRM.
17 Who of the following defined population policy as group of objectives set by the Government about the size of the population and its structure and the means used to achieve these objectives ?
(1) Hope Eldridge
(2) Spengler and Duncan
(3) Bourne Thompson and Lewis
(4) Kumudini Dandekar
Answer: (2) Spengler and Duncan
Explanation
The definition of population policy as a group of objectives set by the Government regarding the size and structure of the population, and the means to achieve these objectives, is attributed to Spengler and Duncan. Their framework emphasizes governmental planning and demographic control.
18 Which of the following factors influence HR planning ?
a. Type and strategy of organization.
b. The stage of organization’s growth.
c. Political, social and economic changes.
d. Duration of plan in uncertain environment.
e. Type and quality of information used for forecasting job analysis.
(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) e only
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation
Human Resource (HR) planning is influenced by multiple factors including the type and strategy of the organization, its growth stage, political, social, and economic changes, the duration of planning in uncertain environments, and the quality of information used for forecasting and job analysis. These elements ensure effective workforce management.
19 Which elements related to human development are included in the Human Development Index ?
a. Life Expectancy
b. Knowledge dissemination
c. Standard of living
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation
The Human Development Index (HDI) measures human development using three key elements: Life Expectancy, Knowledge dissemination, and Standard of living. These indicators reflect a population’s health, education, and economic well-being.
20 Which of the scheme had drawbacks that caused the state of Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry had differential wages for unskilled male and female workers ?
(1) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
(2) Gram Nirman Yojana
(3) Jawahar Rojgar Yojana
(4) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
Answer: (3) Jawahar Rojgar Yojana
Explanation
The Jawahar Rojgar Yojana faced drawbacks that led to differential wages for unskilled male and female workers in states like Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, and Puducherry. This issue highlighted gender disparities in wage distribution under the scheme.
21 The Mission of MAVIM includes
a. Organising women through SHGs.
b. Promoting women’s initiative for equal opportunities, prosperity and participation in governance.
c. Building grass roots institutions over SHGs as a way forward to sustainable development.
d. Building overall capacities of women.
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) Only b and c
(3) Only a
(4) Only a and b
Answer: (1) a, b, c and d
Explanation
The Mission of MAVIM (Mahila Arthik Vikas Mahamandal) includes organizing women through SHGs, promoting equal opportunities and governance participation, building grassroots institutions for sustainable development, and enhancing women’s capacities. It is a comprehensive empowerment initiative.
22 Match the Schemes in Column – I with their objective in Column – II.
Column – I
a. PM – Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
b. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana
c. PM – FBY (Fasal Bima Yojana)
d. PM – Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana
e. Kisan Credit Card
Column – II
i. Promote farmers to use organic farming practices
ii. To provide credit facility to farmers for buying seeds, fertilizers etc.
iii. Increase farm output and efficient use of water resources
iv. Small, marginal farmers between 18-40 will get monthly income of Rs. 3,000 after the age of 60
v. To offer farmers financial assistance and risk reduction in the event of croploss due to natural disaster, pests
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-v, d-iv, e-ii
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v, e-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-i, e-ii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, e-iii
Answer: (1) a-iii, b-i, c-v, d-iv, e-ii
Explanation
The correct scheme-objective matches are:
PM – Krishi Sinchayee Yojana → Increase farm output and efficient use of water resources
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana → Promote organic farming practices
PM – FBY (Fasal Bima Yojana) → Financial assistance and risk reduction for crop loss
PM – Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana → Monthly income for small, marginal farmers after age 60
Kisan Credit Card → Credit facility for purchasing seeds, fertilizers etc.
23 Which of the following are crucial factors for democratic decentralization ?
a. Transferring of functions, funds and functionaries as per eleventh schedule to PRIs.
b. Strengthening of District Planning Committees.
c. Functional demarcation between three tiers of Panchayat Raj.
d. Top to bottom process of planning and decision making.
(1) a, b and c
(2) a only
(3) b only
(4) d only
Answer: (1) a, b and c
Explanation
Democratic decentralization depends on transferring functions, funds, and functionaries to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) as per the Eleventh Schedule, strengthening District Planning Committees, and ensuring functional clarity across the three tiers of Panchayat Raj. A bottom-up planning approach is preferred over top-down.
24 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Jal Jeevan Mission ?
a. Jal Jeevan Mission was announced on 15th August 2019 through the Union Ministry of Water Power.
b. The motto of this scheme is ‘Har Ghar, Nal Se Jal’.
c. Villages in drought prone areas, villages under Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana, villages in tribal areas, villages with majority of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes have been included for this Mission.
(1) Only b
(2) b and c
(3) Only a
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (4) a, b and c
Explanation
The Jal Jeevan Mission was launched on 15th August 2019 by the Union Ministry of Water Power. Its motto is ‘Har Ghar, Nal Se Jal’, aiming to provide tap water to every household. It prioritizes drought-prone villages, Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana villages, tribal areas, and villages with Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe majorities.
25 Consider the following statements :
a. In Maharashtra, it has been decided to provide the benefit of crop insurance scheme to the farmers for only one rupee for kharif and rabbi season for the period of three years from 2023-24 to 2025-26.
b. Government of Maharashtra has started ‘Namo Shetkari Mahasanman Nidhi Yojana’ on the lines of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sanman Nidhi Yojana.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) Only b
(2) Only a
(3) a and b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) a and b
Explanation
The Government of Maharashtra has introduced a crop insurance scheme for Kharif and Rabbi seasons at a cost of one rupee, valid from 2023-24 to 2025-26. It also launched the ‘Namo Shetkari Mahasanman Nidhi Yojana’, modeled after the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sanman Nidhi Yojana, to support farmers financially.
26 Which of the following statement(s) regarding National Council of Education Research and Training is/are correct ?
a. It is an Apex organization supporting Indian school education.
b. The objective of this council is to implement National curriculum.
c. Improving information technology, assessments and examination.
(1) Only c
(2) Only a
(3) a and b
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (4) a, b and c
Explanation
The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) is an apex organization that supports Indian school education. Its objectives include implementing the National curriculum, and it plays a key role in enhancing information technology, assessment systems, and examination reforms across the education sector.
27 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding All India Council for Technical Education ?
a. The All India Board of Technical Education was established in November 1949.
b. To assist Central Government and State Government in guiding the establishment of Technical Education Institutions.
c. To guide training and research in engineering.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a and b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1) Only a
Explanation
The All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) is responsible for guiding training and research in engineering and assisting both Central and State Governments in establishing technical institutions. However, the statement that the All India Board of Technical Education was established in November 1949 is incorrect, making option (1) the right answer.
28 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect as per year of passing ?
a. Maharashtra Public University Act, 2016
b. National Education Policy, 2020
c. University Grant Commission, 1956
d. Indian Institute of Technology, 1949
(1) Only b
(2) Only c
(3) Only d
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) Only d
Explanation
The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) system was not established in 1949, making statement d incorrect. The other statements are accurate: the Maharashtra Public University Act was passed in 2016, the National Education Policy in 2020, and the University Grants Commission was established in 1956.
29 Which of the following statement(s) regarding National Knowledge Commission is/are correct ?
a. The first National Knowledge Commission was established in 2005.
b. The first National Knowledge Commission was established under the chairmanship of Dr. Sam Pitroda.
c. The Second National Knowledge Commission was established under the Chairmanship of Dr. Arun Nigvekar.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a and b
(4) Only c
Answer: (3) a and b
Explanation
The first National Knowledge Commission was established in 2005 under the chairmanship of Dr. Sam Pitroda. These two statements are correct. The statement about a second commission under Dr. Arun Nigvekar is not officially recognized, making a and b the correct pair.
30 As per U.N. DESA Policy Brief which of the following statements is/are right ?
a. Between 2023-2050, the number of persons aged 65 or over is expected to more than double in India posing challenge to health care and social security.
b. In 2022, India’s birth rate at 2.0 births per woman was just below replacement threshold of 2.1.
c. India’s population was 558 million in 1970 and projected population stands at 1429 million in 2023 overtaking China at 1426 million in 2023.
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) c only
(4) All a, b, c
Answer: (4) All a, b, c
Explanation
According to the U.N. DESA Policy Brief, all three statements are correct. India’s elderly population is expected to more than double by 2050, posing healthcare and social security challenges. In 2022, the birth rate was 2.0, below the replacement threshold of 2.1. India’s population rose from 558 million in 1970 to 1429 million in 2023, surpassing China’s 1426 million.
31 Consider the following statements.
a. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of NITI Aayog.
b. The main objective of NITI Aayog is to increase the participation of State government in deciding the economic policy of the country.
c. The management board of NITI Aayog consists of Chief Ministers of all the states and administrators of the union territories.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
(1) Only c
(2) Only a
(3) a, b and c
(4) None of the above
Answer: (4) None of the above
Explanation
All the statements about NITI Aayog are correct. The Prime Minister is the Chairman, its main objective is to enhance state participation in economic policy-making, and its management board includes Chief Ministers of all states and administrators of union territories, ensuring inclusive governance.
32 Who among the following first coined the term ‘Demography’ ?
(1) Guillard
(2) August Comte
(3) Karl Marx
(4) Sten Ford
Answer: (1) Guillard
Explanation
The term ‘Demography’ was first coined by Guillard, marking the beginning of systematic study of population dynamics, including births, deaths, migration, and structure.
33 National Education Policy 2020 is based on which of the following guiding pillars ?
a. Access
b. Impartiality
c. Quality
d. Accountability
(1) b and d
(2) a, c and d
(3) All of the above
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) All of the above
Explanation
The National Education Policy 2020 is built on guiding pillars such as Access, Impartiality, Quality, and Accountability. These principles aim to ensure inclusive, equitable, and high-standard education across India.
34 Which of the following will be the primary function of NRF in National Education Policy 2020 ?
a. Funding of competitive, peer reviewed grant proposals of all types and disciplines.
b. To initiate develop and facilitate research by guiding universities and colleges where research is in neonatal stage.
c. Acting as a link between researcher and relevant branches of government as well as industry.
d. Honoring outstanding research and progress.
(1) b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) a, b, c and d
Explanation
The National Research Foundation (NRF) under NEP 2020 has multiple functions: funding peer-reviewed research proposals, guiding early-stage research institutions, linking researchers with government and industry, and honoring outstanding research contributions. It aims to strengthen India’s research ecosystem.
35 The National Education Policy of 1986 was revised in 1992 with some changes in which of the following institutions at the national level ?
a. NCERT
b. UGC
c. NIEPA
d. NCVT
e. AICTE
(1) a, d, e
(2) a, b, c
(3) c, d, b
(4) b, c, e
Answer: (2) a, b, c
Explanation
The National Education Policy of 1986, revised in 1992, brought changes to institutions like NCERT, UGC, and NIEPA. These reforms focused on curriculum development, higher education regulation, and educational planning and administration.
36 Which of the following were goals for 2010 as per National Population Policy, 2000 ?
a. Reduce infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.
b. Reduce maternal mortality ratio to below 100 per 100000 live births.
c. Achieve 80% institutional deliveries and 100% deliveries by trained persons.
d. Achieve 100% registration of births, deaths, marriage and pregnancy.
(1) c and d
(2) a and b
(3) All of the above
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) All of the above
Explanation
The National Population Policy, 2000 set ambitious goals for 2010, including reducing infant and maternal mortality, ensuring institutional and trained deliveries, and achieving complete registration of vital events like births, deaths, marriages, and pregnancies.
37 Which of the following statement(s) regarding Janani Suraksha Yojana is/are correct ?
a. Janani Suraksha Yojana was started during 2005-2006 by Government of India.
b. The objective of this scheme is to increase the institutional deliveries in urban and rural areas.
c. The scheme was launched to reduce the maternal mortality and infant mortality among the below poverty line, scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
d. The age of the registered expectant mothers should not be less than 19 years to avail the benefit of this scheme.
(1) Only d
(2) a, b and d
(3) All of the above
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) All of the above
Explanation
The Janani Suraksha Yojana, launched in 2005-2006, aims to promote institutional deliveries and reduce maternal and infant mortality among vulnerable groups. Eligibility requires expectant mothers to be at least 19 years old, ensuring safe childbirth practices.
38 WHO’s Universal Health Coverage Programmes and Partnerships emphasize on
a. Access to primary and preventive health care.
b. Ensuring access to the medicines and health products people need.
c. Workforce training and labour protection for health workers.
d. Partnership in the form of donors.
(1) a and b
(2) Only c
(3) All of the above
(4) a and d
Answer: (3) All of the above
Explanation
The WHO’s Universal Health Coverage (UHC) initiatives focus on primary and preventive healthcare, access to essential medicines, health workforce training and protection, and partnerships with donors to build resilient health systems globally.
39 MJPJAY and Ayushman Bharat PMJAY is a flagship scheme of Government of Maharashtra. Which of the following statements is/are right ?
a. The scheme was known as Rajiv Gandhi Jeevandayee Arogya Yojana and was started from 2nd July, 2012.
b. MJPJAY is fully funded by Government of Maharashtra and AB-PMJAY is jointly funded by the State and Central government sharing 40:60 basis.
c. Cashless health services and insurance based funding for medical treatment (for 1356 types) is provided to specified category of families with insurance cover of Rs. 5 lakh per family per annum.
(1) a is right
(2) b is right
(3) c is right
(4) All of the above are right
Answer: (4)
40 National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) is responsible for –
a. Prescribing qualifications for teachers in all formal schools imparting education at elementary, secondary and senior secondary stages.
b. Developing and designing modalities for National Mission for Mentoring by pooling outstanding professionals.
c. Planning, developing the teacher education curriculum throughout the country.
d. Creating an outstanding Adult Education Curriculum framework.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only d
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (4) a, b and c
Explanation
The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) is responsible for prescribing teacher qualifications across elementary, secondary, and senior secondary levels. It also develops modalities for the National Mission for Mentoring by involving outstanding professionals, and plans and develops teacher education curriculum nationwide. The creation of Adult Education Curriculum is not its core function.
41 According to the Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. Obligation of children to pay maintenance expenses to their parents.
b. Concession on travel fare while travelling by government vehicle.
c. Mandatory to pay pension.
(1) Only c
(2) Only b
(3) b and c
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) b and c
Explanation
The Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 mandates the obligation of children to pay maintenance to their parents. However, it does not mandate travel fare concessions or pension payments, making statements b and c incorrect.
42 Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of socialization ?
a. To inculcate discipline
b. To instill aspirations and cultivating ideals
c. To teach social roles
d. To teach skills
(1) a and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) a, b, c and d
Explanation
Socialization serves multiple objectives: it inculcates discipline, instills aspirations and ideals, teaches social roles, and imparts skills necessary for functioning within society. It is a comprehensive process of cultural integration.
43 Consider the following statements :
a. Social norms are ideals about behaviour.
b. Social norms are abstract.
c. Social norms control the behaviour of individuals.
d. Social norms are the group’s expectation about individuals behaviour.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?
(1) Only d
(2) b and d
(3) All of the above
(4) None of the above
Answer: (4) None of the above
Explanation
All statements about social norms are correct. They are ideals about behavior, abstract in nature, regulate individual behavior, and reflect the group’s expectations. These norms help maintain social order and cohesion.
44 Consider the following statements:
a. Emile Durkheim explained the importance of shared values in terms of social solidarity.
b. According to Talcott Parsons, the main basis of social system is ‘equal values and norms’.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) All of the above
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) All of the above
Explanation
Emile Durkheim emphasized shared values as essential for social solidarity, while Talcott Parsons highlighted equal values and norms as the foundation of a social system. Both perspectives are central to sociological theory.
45 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
a. Socialization is the process by which an individual learns and adopts the behaviour patterns and norms considered appropriate in his or her culture.
b. In socialization, an individual acquires various norms, values and behaviour patterns of the culture.
c. Socialization is seen as an effective tool of social control.
(1) Only c
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) a, b and c
Explanation
Socialization is the process through which individuals learn and adopt cultural norms and behavior patterns. It involves acquiring values and roles, and functions as a tool of social control, guiding individuals to conform to societal expectations.
46 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in 1995 ?
a. To provide financial security to senior citizens living below the poverty line.
b. Under this scheme persons above the age of 50 years are provided with Rs. 200/- per month and Rs. 500/- per month for those above the age of 60 years.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a and b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2) Only b
Explanation
The Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme, launched in 1995, aims to provide financial security to senior citizens below the poverty line. However, the age and pension amounts mentioned in statement b are incorrect, making it the only incorrect statement.
47 Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
a. ‘Tribal Co-operative Marketing Development Federation’ (TRIFED) was set-up to stop tribal exploitation.
b. The Central government has started the ‘Tribal Women Empowerment Scheme’ for poor tribal women since 2003.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a and b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) a and b
Explanation
TRIFED was established to prevent exploitation of tribal communities by promoting fair trade and marketing support. The Tribal Women Empowerment Scheme, launched in 2003, aims to uplift poor tribal women through targeted welfare initiatives. Both statements are correct.
51 Consider the following statements
a. National Service Scheme (NSS) was launched in 1969.
b. The objective of National Service Scheme is to develop the personality and character of student youth through voluntary community service.
c. The motto of National Service Scheme is ‘NOT ME, BUT YOU’.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect ?
(1) Only c
(2) b and c
(3) a and b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (4) None of the above
Explanation
All statements about the National Service Scheme (NSS) are correct. It was launched in 1969, aims to develop personality and character through community service, and its motto is ‘NOT ME, BUT YOU’, emphasizing selflessness and social responsibility.
52 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. First National Policy on Skill Development – 2009
b. National Skill Development Corporation – 2010
c. Science and Technology Policy – 1958
d. First Industrial Policy Notified – 1950
(1) Only b
(2) b and d
(3) a and b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2) b and d
Explanation
Statements b and d are incorrect. The National Skill Development Corporation was established in 2008, not 2010. The First Industrial Policy was notified in 1948, not 1950. The other statements about the Skill Development Policy (2009) and Science and Technology Policy (1958) are correct.
53 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
a. The Tribal TB Initiative Programme was launched on 26th March 2021.
b. The Tribal TB Initiative Programme was jointly launched by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a and b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) a and b
Explanation
The Tribal TB Initiative Programme was launched on 26th March 2021 as a joint initiative by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. It aims to eliminate TB among tribal populations through targeted interventions.
54 Which of the following development corporation is/are working to provide support to tribal enterpreneurs ?
a. Shabri Tribal Finance and Development Corporation.
b. Thakkar Bappa Tribal Finance and Development Corporation.
c. Birsa Munda Tribal Finance and Development Corporation.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only c
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1) Only a
Explanation
The Shabri Tribal Finance and Development Corporation is the only listed entity actively working to support tribal entrepreneurs. It provides financial assistance and development support to promote economic self-reliance among tribal communities.
55 What is the name of the Central government sponsored English medium residential school scheme for providing education in English to Scheduled Tribe students ?
a. Eklavya Model Residential Ashram School
b. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Ashram School
c. Forest School
d. Baba Amte Residential Ashram School
(1) Only b
(2) Only d
(3) Only a
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) Only a
Explanation
The Eklavya Model Residential Ashram School is a Central government sponsored scheme that provides English medium education to Scheduled Tribe students through residential schooling, promoting inclusive and quality education.
56 Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
a. Under normal circumstances there should be a sex ratio of 1050 girls to 1000 boys.
b. The sex ratio was 941 in 1961 which came down to 914 in 2011.
c. The gestational diagnostic test affects the sex ratio.
(1) a and c
(2) b and c
(3) a and b
(4) All of the above
Answer: (1) a and c
Explanation
Statements a and c are correct. The normal biological sex ratio is around 1050 girls to 1000 boys, and gestational diagnostic tests can lead to sex-selective practices, affecting the sex ratio. Statement b is incorrect as the sex ratio in 1961 was 941, but it rose to 943 in 2011, not declined.
57 Match pairs of Act and its years.
Act
a. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
b. Sati (Prevention) Act
c. The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act
d. The Dowry Prohibition Act
Year
i. 2013
ii. 1961
iii. 1987
iv. 2005
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
Answer: (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Explanation
The correct matches are:
The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act – 2005,
Sati (Prevention) Act – 1987,
Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act – 2013,
Dowry Prohibition Act – 1961. These Acts address key issues in women’s rights and protection.
58 Which of the following is/are the objectives of the National Youth Policy 2014 ?
a. To develop the youth into a productive workforce, by providing them the right education and skills and promoting entrepreneurship.
b. To develop a strong and healthy generation through effective health care, promotion of a healthy life style and sports.
c. To promote social values and spirit of community service among the youth.
(1) Only c
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) a, b and c
Explanation
The National Youth Policy 2014 aims to empower youth by promoting education, skill development, entrepreneurship, healthcare and sports, and social values and community service, fostering a productive and responsible generation.
59 Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in the context of National Career Service Scheme ?
a. Launched a web portal called National Career Service Portal.
b. Web portal is useful for both job seekers and employers.
c. Information of private, Government and contract sector jobs available on the portal.
(1) Only a
(2) a and b
(3) a and c
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation
The National Career Service Scheme includes a web portal that serves both job seekers and employers, offering job listings across private, government, and contract sectors, making it a comprehensive employment platform.
60 Consider the following statements :
a. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports was initially set up as the Department of Sports in 1982 at the time of organization of the ninth (IX) Asian Games in New Delhi.
b. The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports name was changed to the Department of Youth Affairs and Sports during celebration of the International Youth year 1985.
c. Department of Youth Affairs and Sports become a Ministry on 27th May 2008.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only a
(2) Only c
(3) a and b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) a and b
Explanation
The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports began as the Department of Sports in 1982 during the IX Asian Games, and was renamed in 1985 during the International Youth Year. It became a full ministry later, but statement c is incorrect in this context.
61 Who among the following are beneficiaries of Integrated Child Development Scheme ?
a. Children below 6 years of age
b. Pregnant and lactating mothers
c. Teenager
d. Other women aged 15 to 45
(1) Only d
(2) Only a
(3) All of the above
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) All of the above
Explanation
The Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) benefits children under 6, pregnant and lactating mothers, teenagers, and women aged 15 to 45, aiming to improve nutrition, health, and early childhood development.
62 Consider the following statements :
a. Values are the basis of behavioral norms or social norms.
b. Values are part of a person’s personality.
c. Values in any society are organized and a value system is made up of inter related values.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) only c
(4) b and c
Answer: (2) a, b and c
Explanation
Values form the foundation of social norms, are integral to personality, and are organized into interrelated systems within society, guiding individual and collective behavior.
63 Public Health Department’s first Neonatal Ambulance to reduce neonatal mortality in tribal areas in Maharashtra State was inaugurated by who among the following ?
(1) Chief Minister Uddav Thackery
(2) Shree Rajesh Tope
(3) Shree Uday Samant
(4) Shree Tanaji Sawant
Answer: (2) Shree Rajesh Tope
Explanation
The first Neonatal Ambulance in Maharashtra, aimed at reducing neonatal mortality in tribal areas, was inaugurated by Shree Rajesh Tope, reflecting the state’s commitment to tribal healthcare.
64 A women worker working in rural areas under the National Rural Health Mission is called as which of the following ?
a. Anganwadi servent
b. Anganwadi worker
c. Asha worker
d. Nurse
(1) Only a
(2) a and b
(3) Only c
(4) c and d
Answer: (3) Only c
Explanation
Under the National Rural Health Mission, a female health worker in rural areas is called an ASHA worker, which stands for Accredited Social Health Activist, playing a key role in community health outreach.
65 Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
a. As per Global Gender Gap Report (2021) amongst countries showing gender equality performance India is ranked 140 among 156 countries.
b. As per Global Gender Gap Report in South Asia Bangladesh ranked 65, Nepal 106, Pakistan 153, Afganistan 156, Bhutan 130 and Sri Lanka 116.
c. In Global Gender Gap Index as per 2020 report India ranked 112th among 153 countries.
(1) a and c
(2) b and c
(3) a only
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation
All statements are correct. In the 2021 Global Gender Gap Report, India ranked 140th out of 156 countries. South Asian rankings included Bangladesh (65), Nepal (106), Pakistan (153), Afghanistan (156), Bhutan (130), and Sri Lanka (116). In 2020, India ranked 112th among 153 countries.
66 Match pairs of Act and its years.
Act
a. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act
b. Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act
c. The Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act
d. The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
Year
i. 1994
ii. 1986
iii. 2015
iv. 2005
(1) i, iii, ii, iv
(2) ii, iv, i, iii
(3) iii, ii, iv, i
(4) iv, i, iii, ii
Answer: (2) ii, iv, i, iii
Explanation
Correct matches are:
Child Labour Act – 1986,
Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act – 2005,
Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act – 1994,
Juvenile Justice Act – 2015. These Acts address child protection, rights, and welfare.
67 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a. The Central Government has changed the name of Rajiv Gandhi National Nursery Scheme to National Nursery Scheme.
b. The National Nursery Scheme is implemented by the Women and Child Development Department of Central Government.
c. Integrated Child Development Service Scheme is a centrally sponsored scheme being implemented by the Department of Women and Child Development.
d. Nursery Schools running under the Rajiv Gandhi Nursery Scheme have been included under the Integrated Child Development Services Scheme.
(1) Only a
(2) a and d
(3) c and d
(4) None of the above
Answer: (4) None of the above
68 Which of the following children are given the benefit of Child Care Scheme ?
a. Orphans or children whose parents are unaddressed and cannot be adopted.
b. Children born to single parents as well as unmarried mothers.
c. School going child laborers rescued and certified by the Labour Department.
(1) Only c
(2) a and b
(3) a and c
(4) b and c
Answer: (2) a and b
Explanation
The Child Care Scheme supports vulnerable children, including orphans or those whose parents are unaddressed and cannot be adopted, and children born to single parents or unmarried mothers. These groups are prioritized for rehabilitation and welfare services.
69 Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ Scheme ?
a. This scheme was started in 2016 at Panipat in Haryana.
b. This scheme was launched to improve the child sex ratio.
c. The aim of this scheme was to increase the number of girls for every thousand boys in the country.
(1) Only a
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1) Only a
Explanation
The ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ Scheme was launched in 2015, not 2016, making statement a incorrect. Its goals include improving the child sex ratio and promoting the survival, protection, and education of girls, aligning with statements b and c.
70 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
a. The primary function of teaching the social values and maintaining culture continuity is through family.
b. Mahatma Gandhi emphasized the importance of labour culture.
c. Value education has gained special importance in the National Education Policy.
(1) a and b
(2) Only b
(3) Only a
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1) a and b
Explanation
Family plays a central role in transmitting social values and cultural continuity, and Mahatma Gandhi emphasized the significance of labour culture in education and society. While value education is important, its prominence in the National Education Policy is not explicitly confirmed here.
71 The most useful thing for Human Resource Development means
(1) Population control
(2) Literacy development
(3) Odd planning of man power
(4) Development of various abilities of man
Answer: (4) Development of various abilities of man
Explanation
Human Resource Development focuses on the enhancement of human capabilities, including skills, knowledge, and attitudes. The most comprehensive approach is the development of various abilities, which supports personal growth and national progress.
72 Which type of ‘Homework’ is recommended in NCF – FS 2022 for students at the foundational stage ?
I. Students should do writing practice.
II. Observe the ‘Rangoli’ drawn outside your house and try to draw same in the school.
III. Recitation of the poem taught in the school.
IV. Help your mother and talk about it at school.
(1) Only I and II
(2) Only III and IV
(3) Only I and III
(4) Only II and IV
Answer: (4) Only II and IV
Explanation
The National Curriculum Framework for Foundational Stage (NCF-FS) 2022 encourages experiential homework. Activities like observing Rangoli and helping parents foster creativity, observation, and communication, aligning with real-life learning.
73 Match the pair :
Group A
a. This industry has been defined as any industry located in a rural area which produces any goods, renders any service with or without the use of power and in which the fixed capital investment perhead or artisan or worker is specified by the central government from time to time
b. This industry is also known as rural industry or traditional industry. This is not defined by capital investment criteria as in the case of other scale industries
Group B
i. Urban Industries
ii. Cottage Industries
iii. Village Industries
(1) a – iii, b – ii
(2) a – i, b – ii
(3) a – ii, b – iii
(4) a – ii, b – i
Answer: (1) a – iii, b – ii
Explanation
Village Industries are defined by location and capital investment criteria, while Cottage Industries are traditional rural industries not bound by such criteria. This distinction helps in policy formulation and support mechanisms.
74 Vocational education and training needs a concerted rebranding effort to
(1) Increase its value and ability to command higher incomes
(2) Establish vocational training institute
(3) Develop proper program
(4) Increase its impact on society
Answer: (1) Increase its value and ability to command higher incomes
Explanation
Rebranding vocational education aims to enhance its perceived value, making it a viable career path that can command better incomes. This shift is essential for attracting talent and improving outcomes.
75 Which of the following is not a key feature of National Vocational Education Qualification Framework ?
(1) Provides closer integration of learning and work
(2) Encourages continuous upgradation of knowledge and skills
(3) Supports inclusive growth by providing equal access of vocational education training to all
(4) Provide self study material
Answer: (4) Provide self study material
Explanation
The National Vocational Education Qualification Framework (NVEQF) focuses on integrating learning with work, continuous skill upgradation, and inclusive access to vocational education. However, providing self-study material is not a defined feature of the framework itself.
76 Maharashtra State Skill Development Society (MSSDS) have initiated PMKUVA for all the districts. MSSDS have also initiated Government of India’s National Urban Livelihoods Mission for few selected cities in Maharashtra. Maharashtra’s youth can get skill training under this schemes free of cost. What is PMKUVA ?
(1) Pradhan Mantri Karmanishtha Udyojak Vikas Abhiyan
(2) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Unnat Vikas Aalekh
(3) Pradhan Mantri Kushal Udyojak Vikas Abhiyan
(4) None of these
Answer: (4) None of these
Explanation
The PMKUVA initiative launched by MSSDS does not match any of the expansions listed in the options. It provides free skill training under various schemes, but the full form of PMKUVA is not among the given choices.
77 ‘Nipun Bharat’ mission is related to which of the following statements ?
(1) Capacity building programme for improving quality of school education
(2) Mission to achieve the goal of universal proficiency in foundational literacy
(3) To promote reading culture among students
(4) Giving annual library grants to school
Answer: (2) Mission to achieve the goal of universal proficiency in foundational literacy
Explanation
The ‘Nipun Bharat’ mission aims to ensure universal proficiency in foundational literacy and numeracy for children by Grade 3, promoting early learning outcomes.
78 What is/are the main aim(s) of PM evidya?
I. To deliver high quality education to all students.
II. To offer multifarious educational resources in multiplatform mode.
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Both I and II
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) Both I and II
Explanation
PM eVIDYA is designed to deliver high-quality education and provide diverse educational resources across multiple platforms, ensuring inclusive and accessible learning.
79 In 1994, inclusive education was finalized in a conference held at Salmanca, Spain. What matters are included in the memorandum that was passed in this meeting ?
A. Every child can be educated in general education till the maturity of his capacity.
B. All childrens should be considered when planning and designing school programs.
C. Inclusive education system in school helps to make education process effective.
(1) Only ‘A’
(2) ‘A’ and ‘B’
(3) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’
Explanation
The Salamanca Statement (1994) emphasized that every child has the right to education, inclusive planning is essential, and inclusive systems improve educational effectiveness.
80 This programme aims to provide states and districts with catalytic support to improve the skill development programme delivery and create a cadre of development professionals, who will be available to district skill committees for comprehensive skill development planning and implementation in their respective districts.
(1) Atal Yojana
(2) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Fellowship
(3) Mahatma Gandhi National Fellowship
(4) None of these
Answer: (3) Mahatma Gandhi National Fellowship
Explanation
The Mahatma Gandhi National Fellowship supports district-level skill development planning by creating a cadre of trained professionals to assist district skill committees.
81 Full form of ‘SAMADHAN’ is
(1) Software Application for Maintaining and Disposal, Handling of Disputes/Claims/General Complaints
(2) Software Application for Monitoring and Disposal, Handling of Industrial Disputes/Claims/General Complaints
(3) Software Application for Maintaining and Install, Handling of Industrial Disputes/Claims/General Complaints
(4) Software Application for Monitoring and Disposal, Handling of Disputes/Claims/General Complaints
Answer: (2) Software Application for Monitoring and Disposal, Handling of Industrial Disputes/Claims/General Complaints
Explanation
SAMADHAN stands for Software Application for Monitoring and Disposal, specifically designed to handle industrial disputes, claims, and complaints, improving grievance redressal efficiency.
82 National Council of Educational Research and Training has first time prepared the National curricular and Pedagogical framework for the programme as per NEP 2020.
(1) Primary education
(2) Early childhood care and education
(3) Education for special needs students
(4) Education for gifted children
Answer: (2) Early childhood care and education
Explanation
Under NEP 2020, NCERT developed the National Curricular and Pedagogical Framework for Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE), focusing on foundational learning.
83 As per the National Policy on Education 2020 ‘PARAKH’ is proposed
(1) National Guidance Centre
(2) National Knowledge Centre
(3) National Assessment Centre
(4) National Curriculum Development Centre
Answer: (3) National Assessment Centre
Explanation
PARAKH stands for Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development, proposed as the National Assessment Centre under NEP 2020.
84 The National Education Policy 2020 recommended to redesignate Ministry of Human Resource Development as Ministry of Education to focus on
(1) Education and learning
(2) Increase the access of students in education
(3) Quality of education
(4) Learning and teaching
Answer: (1) Education and learning
Explanation
NEP 2020 recommended renaming the Ministry of Human Resource Development to Ministry of Education to refocus on education and learning as the core mission.
85 ‘Samarth’ the scheme to skill the youth for gainful and sustainable employment comes under ministry.
(1) Ministry of Textile
(2) Ministry of Rural Development
(3) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(4) Ministry of Minority
Answer: (1) Ministry of Textile
Explanation
The ‘Samarth’ scheme, under the Ministry of Textile, aims to skill youth for gainful and sustainable employment in the textile sector.
86 Which of the following disabilities are included in the ‘Right of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016’?
a. blindness
b. low vision
c. dwarfism
d. mental illness
e. cerebral palsy
f. specific learning disabilities
g. acid attack victim
(1) a, b, f, g
(2) a, b, d, e
(3) a, b, c, e, f
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation
The Right of Persons with Disabilities Act 2016 includes a comprehensive list of disabilities, covering blindness, low vision, dwarfism, mental illness, cerebral palsy, specific learning disabilities, and acid attack victims, ensuring legal protection and support.
87 Types of learning disabilities relate to four domains of intelligence. The three learning disabilities associated with these four areas of intelligence are 1) Input 2) Memory 3) Output. The fourth related learning disability is
(1) Sight related understanding
(2) Hearing related understanding
(3) Integration
(4) None of these
Answer: (3) Integration
Explanation
Learning disabilities are categorized into four domains: Input, Memory, Output, and Integration. The Integration domain involves the ability to process and organize information, which is essential for comprehension and expression.
88 To focus on fundamental literacy and numeracy what will school do from the following ?
a. Plan for ‘language weeks’ and ‘mathematics weeks’.
b. Conduct school assemblies.
c. Arrange regular ‘language melas’ and ‘mathematics melas’.
d. Conduct weekly activities around the library.
(1) a
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) b
(4) a and c
Answer: (2) a, b, c and d
Explanation
To strengthen fundamental literacy and numeracy, schools conduct language and mathematics weeks, school assemblies, language and mathematics melas, and weekly library activities. These promote engagement, creativity, and foundational skills.
89 Which of the following are required to implement evaluation procedures according to the Right to Education Act (RTE) 2009 ?
A. All round development of the child.
B. Children need to be given homework regularly.
C. Comprehensive and continuous evaluation.
D. Communicate children’s progress to other family members.
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only C and D
(3) Only A and C
(4) Only B and D
Answer: (3) Only A and C
Explanation
The Right to Education Act (2009) emphasizes all-round development and Comprehensive and Continuous Evaluation (CCE). These ensure holistic learning and regular assessment, without stressing on homework or external communication.
90 Which of the following are the features of the National Education Policy 2020 ?
a. Promotion of holistic development of each child.
b. Focus on learning for exam.
c. Focus on summative evaluation.
d. Foster ethics and human constitutional values.
e. Neglect early childhood care and education.
f. Free and compulsory education for students of 3 to 18 years of age.
(1) a, c, d
(2) a, d, f
(3) b, c, e
(4) All of the above
Answer: (2) a, d, f
Explanation
NEP 2020 promotes holistic development, ethics and constitutional values, and free and compulsory education from ages 3 to 18. It discourages exam-centric learning and summative-only evaluation, and prioritizes early childhood care.
91 In Yashpal Committee Report (1993) following recommendations were made for primary education
A. Practice of holding tests and interviews for admissions to nursery classes should be abolished.
B. In Primary classes children should not be given any homework.
C. To give a boost to co-operative learning in schools.
D. Primary schools should be provided grants liberally.
(1) All A, B, C and D are correct
(2) A and B are correct
(3) A, B and C are correct
(4) A and D are correct
Answer: (3) A, B and C are correct
Explanation
The Yashpal Committee Report (1993) recommended abolishing nursery admission tests, no homework in primary classes, and promoting cooperative learning. The suggestion for liberal grants was not a primary recommendation.
92 Which of the following branch of philosophy emphasise on child centred education ?
I. Naturalism
II. Pragmatism
III. Idealism
IV. Realism
(1) I, III, IV
(2) II, III, IV
(3) I, II, IV
(4) I, II, III
Answer: (3) I, II, IV
Explanation
Naturalism, Pragmatism, and Realism emphasize child-centered education, focusing on experiential learning, individual development, and practical engagement. Idealism is more teacher-centered and abstract.
93 Which of the following are the characteristics of social constructivism ?
a. Active involvement of learners.
b. Emphasis on child’s memorization for learning.
c. Teacher acts as a facilitator.
d. Students make meaning from their own experiences.
e. Focus on drill and practice.
(1) a, b, c
(2) c, d, e
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, d, e
Answer: (3) a, c, d
Explanation
Social constructivism encourages active learner involvement, teachers as facilitators, and meaning-making through personal experiences. It moves away from memorization and drill-based learning, promoting collaborative and contextual understanding.
94 The Geogebra screen is mainly divided into three sections to show mathematical concepts. The two sections are given below. Find out the third section from options.
- Graphic view
- Algebra view
(1) Stat bar
(2) Input bar
(3) Geometry view
(4) None of these
Answer: (2) Input bar
Explanation
The Geogebra interface includes Graphic view, Algebra view, and the Input bar, which allows users to enter expressions, equations, and commands, facilitating interactive mathematical visualization.
95 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about exceptional children ?
I. Children with higher intellectual capacities are also called exceptional children.
II. The children whose needs are very different from the majority of children in society are also called exceptional children.
(1) Only statement I
(2) Only statement II
(3) Both statements I and II
(4) Both statements I and II are wrong
Answer: (3) Both statements I and II
Explanation
Exceptional children include those with higher intellectual capacities as well as those whose needs differ significantly from the majority. This term encompasses both gifted learners and those with special educational needs, reflecting diverse learning profiles.
96 Brain-storming method is more appropriate to
(1) Teach difficult/complex concepts
(2) Solve mathematical problems
(3) Find out new ideas to solve problems
(4) Teach adult persons
Answer: (3) Find out new ideas to solve problems
Explanation
The brainstorming method is ideal for generating new ideas, encouraging creative thinking, and problem-solving. It allows learners to explore multiple possibilities without judgment, fostering innovation and collaboration.
97 Recognise correct option/options from the following. Characteristics of creative person as per psychology –
a. Capability of divergent thinking
b. Foresight
c. Flexibility and originality of ideas
d. Good memory and intelligence
e. Ethical sensitiveness
f. Enthusiasm for solution of problems
g. Disability to work out details of a plan
(1) a, b, c, d, f are correct
(2) a, b, c, d, e, f are correct
(3) a, b, c, d, f are correct
(4) d, e, f, g are correct
Answer: (2) a, b, c, d, e, f are correct
Explanation
A creative person demonstrates divergent thinking, foresight, flexibility, originality, intelligence, ethical awareness, and enthusiasm for problem-solving. These traits support innovative and socially responsible thinking.
98 Which of the following are the characteristics of attention ?
A. Attention process is continuing while sleeping also.
B. Attention focuses on a single thing at a time.
C. Children’s attention concentrates on a single thing for long period of time.
D. Interest is a dormant attention.
E. Highly intelligent children have good attention.
(1) A, C, E
(2) C, D, E
(3) B and D
(4) A, B, C, D and E
Answer: (3) B and D
Explanation
Attention is characterized by focus on a single object or task at a time, and interest is considered a dormant form of attention. These traits help in selective concentration and engagement during learning.
99 If a student fails in an examination, then his home situation, environment, friends and family, school, his behaviour in school, guidance received, student’s habits, attitude, method of study, comprehension, intelligence are assumptions made to interpret the incident by various ways. Which is this way of thinking ?
(1) Convergent thinking
(2) Divergent thinking
(3) Creative thinking
(4) Critical thinking
Answer: (4) Critical thinking
Explanation
Critical thinking involves analyzing multiple factors to understand a situation. In the case of a student’s failure, considering environmental, behavioral, and cognitive aspects reflects a reasoned and evaluative approach.
100 Take proper decision regarding following two statements given on learning.
Statement I : Learning means reflective activities of a person.
Statement II : Learning means permanent change in the behaviour through training and practice.
(1) Statements I and II both are correct
(2) Statement I is correct and II is wrong
(3) Statements I and II both are wrong
(4) Statement I is wrong and II is correct
Answer: (4) Statement I is wrong and II is correct
Explanation
Learning is defined as a permanent change in behavior resulting from training and practice. While reflection may support learning, it is not the core definition, making Statement II correct and Statement I incorrect.
101. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by which International Organisation ?
(1) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO)
(2) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(3) United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)
(4) World Health Organisation (WHO)
Answer: (3) United Nations General Assembly (UNGA)
Explanation
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 10 December 1948 in Paris. It is a foundational document that outlines basic human rights and freedoms to be universally protected.
102. Which of the following are examples of the Human Rights of the third generation ?
a. Right to Peace
b. Right to Development
c. Right to Humanitarian Assistance
d. Right to Free Career Guidance
(1) Only a and b are correct
(2) Only a, b and c are correct
(3) Only c and d are correct
(4) All of these are correct
Answer: (2) Only a, b and c are correct
Explanation
Third-generation human rights, also known as solidarity rights, emphasize collective well-being and global cooperation. These include the Right to Peace, Right to Development, and Right to Humanitarian Assistance. The Right to Free Career Guidance is not typically categorized under this generation of rights.
103. The dominant discourse of globalisation considers Human Rights to be compatible with the needs of __________ .
(1) Multinational Corporations
(2) United Nations Organisation
(3) United States of America
(4) Global Society
Answer: (1) Multinational Corporations
Explanation
In the dominant globalisation narrative, Human Rights are often framed as compatible with the interests of Multinational Corporations (MNCs). This alignment supports economic liberalisation, market expansion, and corporate-led development, though it remains controversial and contested.
104. Which of the following are included in the first generation of Human Rights ?
a. Right to Life
b. Right to Liberty
c. Right to Freedom from Harassment
d. Right to Freedom from Mental Illness
(1) All of these
(2) Only a, b and c
(3) Only c and d
(4) Only a and b
Answer: (2) Only a, b and c
Explanation
First-generation human rights focus on civil and political liberties, such as the Right to Life, Liberty, and Freedom from Harassment. The Right to Freedom from Mental Illness is more aligned with health and welfare, making it a second-generation right.
105. Under the UN Charter, the prohibition on the use of force is found in which Article ?
(1) Article 2(i)
(2) Article 2(ii)
(3) Article 2(iii)
(4) Article 2(iv)
Answer: (4) Article 2(iv)
Explanation
Article 2(4) of the UN Charter prohibits the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any state. It is a core principle of international law and peaceful coexistence.
106. Which of the following statements about the UN refugee convention are true ?
a. It includes the right to work.
b. It includes the right to education.
c. It was adopted in 1945.
d. It includes the refugees’ obligations to host countries.
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only a, b and d
(3) Only a, c and d
(4) Only a and d
Answer: (2) Only a, b and d
Explanation
The 1951 UN Refugee Convention guarantees rights to work and education and outlines refugees’ obligations to host countries. It was not adopted in 1945, making statement c incorrect.
107. Champions of the Earth award, that recognises outstanding environmental leaders from the public and private sectors was established by which of the following organisations ?
(1) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
(2) Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO)
(3) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
(4) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Answer: (4) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Explanation
The Champions of the Earth award, established by UNEP in 2005, honors environmental leaders whose actions have had a transformative impact on the planet.
108. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAFTA (South Asian Free Trade Area) ?
(1) India
(2) Bangladesh
(3) Sri Lanka
(4) Myanmar
Answer: (4) Myanmar
Explanation
SAFTA includes SAARC member states: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka. Myanmar, a member of ASEAN, is not part of SAFTA.
109. What did Pt. Nehru insist for each member of the commonwealth when India became independent and decided to remain a member of the British Commonwealth ?
(1) Each member state should be free to devise its own foreign policy
(2) Each member state should be a full-fledged member of the United Nations
(3) Each member state should be free to devise its own economic policy
(4) Each member should join the non-aligned movement
Answer: (1) Each member state should be free to devise its own foreign policy
Explanation
Jawaharlal Nehru emphasized that Commonwealth members must retain sovereignty, including the freedom to pursue independent foreign policies, affirming India’s autonomy post-independence.
110. Which one of the following statements about the European Union is incorrect ?
a. It is a political and economic union of European countries.
b. Twenty seven countries are members of European Union.
c. The capital of European Union is at Paris.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only c
(4) None
Answer: (3) Only c
Explanation
The European Union is a politico-economic union of 27 countries. Its institutions are based in Brussels, Luxembourg, and Strasbourg. Paris is not the capital, making statement c incorrect.
111. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution is related to death in police custody ?
(1) 17
(2) 21
(3) 30
(4) 35
Answer: (2) 21
Explanation
Article 21 guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Custodial death violates this right, as interpreted by the Supreme Court, which includes protection from torture and abuse.
112. Which of the following rights is not included in the second-generation Human Rights ?
(1) Right to Education
(2) Right to Health
(3) Right to be free from torture
(4) Right to Shelter
Answer: (3) Right to be free from torture
Explanation
Second-generation rights include social, economic, and cultural rights like education, health, and shelter. The Right to be free from torture is a first-generation civil right, protecting against state abuse.
113. The HDI is calculated based on three key dimensions, of which the following is not one of these dimensions ?
(1) Life expectancy at birth
(2) Mean years of schooling
(3) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
(4) Expected years of schooling
Answer: (3) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
Explanation
The Human Development Index (HDI) uses life expectancy, education (mean and expected years of schooling), and Gross National Income (GNI) per capita. GDP is not used in HDI calculations.
114. Select the correct statement(s) regarding the gap in sex ratio in rural and urban India as per census 2011.
a. It has been increasing
b. It has been decreasing
c. It is large in Gujarat
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) b and c
(4) a and c
Answer: (1) Only a
Explanation
As per Census 2011, the rural sex ratio (949) was higher than the urban sex ratio (929), and the gap has widened since 2001. Hence, statement a is correct.
115. The ‘Jan Sunwai’ (Public Hearing) process is an important strategy used by human rights activists in India, what is its primary purpose ?
(1) To hold the government accountable for its actions
(2) To promote tourism in rural areas
(3) To facilitate cultural exchange programs
(4) To encourage foreign investment in India
Answer: (1) To hold the government accountable for its actions
Explanation
Jan Sunwai is a public hearing mechanism used for social audits, allowing citizens to question officials and ensure transparency and accountability in government actions and expenditures.
116. Which among the following is not a people to people mechanism in BRICS ?
(1) Parliamentary forum
(2) Civil forum
(3) Sustainable development forum
(4) Film festival
Answer: (3) Sustainable development forum
Explanation: While BRICS promotes various people-to-people mechanisms like the Parliamentary Forum, Civil BRICS Forum, and Film Festival, the Sustainable Development Forum is typically a formal, expert-level engagement rather than a direct people-to-people initiative.
117. Select the correct statements from the following :
A. The OPEC Secretariat is located in Vienna, it also functions as the Headquarter of the Organization.
B. The Secretariat of OPEC was originally established in 1961 in Geneva.
C. The OPEC Fund for International Development was established in 1978.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A, C
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1) Only A, B
Explanation: The OPEC Secretariat was first established in Geneva in 1961 and moved to Vienna in 1965. The OPEC Fund for International Development was actually established in 1976, not 1978.
118. Which of the following countries was not a founder member of ASEAN ?
(1) Thailand
(2) Malaysia
(3) Singapore
(4) Vietnam
Answer: (4) Vietnam
Explanation: ASEAN was founded in 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand. Vietnam joined later in 1995.
119. ‘Apartheid’ term came to be linked with a practice of discrimination in which of the following countries ?
(1) South Africa
(2) South America
(3) Tanzania
(4) Mozambique
Answer: (1) South Africa
Explanation: Apartheid was a system of racial segregation enforced in South Africa from 1948 to the early 1990s, targeting the non-white majority population.
120. Who is the chair of the BRICS for the year 2023 ?
(1) Brazil
(2) Russia
(3) India
(4) South Africa
Answer: (4) South Africa
Explanation: BRICS chairmanship rotates annually. In 2023, South Africa chaired BRICS and hosted the 15th summit.
121. Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
A. National Commission for Women Act, 1990 provided for the establishment of National Commission for Women to study and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and legal rights and safeguards of women.
B. Sexual harassment of Women at work-place (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 provides protection to women from sexual harassment at all work places both in public and private sector, whether organised or unorganised.
(1) Statement A is correct
(2) Statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are false
Answer: (3) Both the statements are correct
Explanation: The 1990 Act established the National Commission for Women to monitor women’s rights. The 2013 Act ensures protection against sexual harassment in all workplaces.
122. Which States have a higher female literacy rate than the national average ?
a. Madhya Pradesh
b. Orissa
c. Punjab
d. Manipur
(1) a and d
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) b and d
Answer: (3) c and d
Explanation: As per Census 2011, the national female literacy rate was 65.46%. Punjab (70.7%) and Manipur (70.3%) exceeded this average, while Madhya Pradesh and Odisha were below it.
123. State of Arunachal Pradesh V/s Khudiram Chakma case of 1994 is related to which of the following ?
(1) Minorities
(2) Refugees
(3) S.Cs and S.Ts
(4) Torture
Answer: (2) Refugees
Explanation: This case affirmed that refugees like the Chakma community are entitled to protection under Article 21 of the Constitution and cannot be evicted without due process.
124. Which Indian Law guarantees maternity benefits and provides for paid leave to working women ?
(1) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(2) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(3) Factories Act, 1948
(4) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
Answer: (4) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
Explanation: This Act provides paid maternity leave and regulates employment conditions for women before and after childbirth.
125. Study the following statements and choose the correct option.
A. The second generation of Human Rights are affirmative in nature.
R. These economic and social rights require provision of resources and active enforcement on the part of the governments.
(1) A is correct, R is incorrect
(2) R is correct, A is incorrect
(3) Both A and R are correct
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the reason for A
Answer: (4) Both A and R are correct and R is the reason for A
Explanation: Second-generation rights require proactive state involvement, making them affirmative in nature.
126. Study the following statements :
a. Deforestation is a cause of landslides.
b. Maharashtra has several settlements in landslide prone areas.
c. Most of the times, the Government response is a knee jerk reaction when an incident of landslide happens.
Which are correct statements ?
(1) All are correct
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only a
(4) Only b and c
Answer: (1) All are correct
Explanation: All three statements reflect environmental and administrative realities in landslide-prone regions.
127. Select the correct statement/s :
A. POSCO signed a MoU with the Government of Uttar Pradesh in 2005.
B. People resisting the land acquisition feared loss of livelihood.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and B
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2) Only B
Explanation: The MoU was signed with Odisha, not Uttar Pradesh. Resistance was due to livelihood concerns.
128. New Resettlement and Rehabilitation Policy, 2007 formulated by Ministry of Rural Development focuses on ___________.
a. Policy covers all involuntary displacement.
b. Social impact assessment introduced for 400/200 or more families in plain/ tribal areas.
c. Principle of rehabilitation before displacement.
d. Housing for all families including the landless.
e. STs to get free of cost land for community and religious gathering.
(1) All of the above
(2) b and c
(3) d and e
(4) a and c
Answer: (1) All of the above
Explanation: The policy includes all listed provisions to ensure fair and inclusive rehabilitation.
129. Thousands of Rohingya refugees have arrived from Myanmar’s ______________ state in Bangladesh since 2017.
(1) Rakhine
(2) Mandalay
(3) Yangon
(4) Bago
Answer: (1) Rakhine
Explanation: The Rohingya exodus was triggered by military action in Myanmar’s Rakhine State.
130. Which of the following state has started for the first time website based migration tracking system application in India ?
(1) Karnataka
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Kerala
(4) Gujarat
Answer: (2) Maharashtra
Explanation: Maharashtra launched the Migration Tracking System to monitor seasonal migrant workers and ensure ICDS benefits.
131. Match the pairs : Colour of UDID Cards (A) – Severity of Disability (B)
a. White Card i. Disability above 80%
b. Yellow Card ii. Disability between 40% and 80%
c. Blue Card iii. Disability below 40%
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
Answer: (1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
Explanation: White Card indicates disability below 40%, Yellow for 40–80%, and Blue for above 80%.
132. Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the state to make effective provision for securing the right to work, education and public assistance in cases of disablement ?
(1) Article 41
(2) Article 15(4)
(3) Article 16
(4) Article 19(1)
Answer: (1) Article 41
Explanation: Article 41, under Directive Principles, mandates state support for work, education, and assistance in cases of disablement.
133. ‘United Nations Decade of Disabled Persons’ was proclaimed by the UN General Assembly from ___________.
(1) 1995–2004
(2) 1983–1992
(3) 2000–2010
(4) 1973–1982
Answer: (2) 1983–1992
Explanation: Following the International Year of Disabled Persons in 1981, the UN General Assembly declared 1983–1992 as the Decade of Disabled Persons to promote global action for equal opportunities and rights.
134. What are the important obligations of United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities, 2006 on each state party ?
A. Implementation of the provisions of the convention
B. Harmonization of the country laws with the convention
C. Preparation of a country report
D. To help disabled persons realise their rights
(1) Only A, B, D
(2) Only B, C, D
(3) Only A, B, C
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation: The UNCRPD obligates states to implement its provisions, align national laws, submit reports, and ensure persons with disabilities can fully enjoy their rights.
135. Which of the following the Chief programmes for the education and training of crippled children in India are included ?
a. Bedside teaching in hospital
b. School units in hospital
c. Special residential school for crippled children
d. Special day-school for crippled children
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) b and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d
Answer: (1) a, b, c and d
Explanation: All listed programmes—hospital-based teaching, residential and day schools—are part of India’s inclusive approach to educating children with physical disabilities.
136. Match the pairs : Bonded Labour Name (A) – Name of the State (B)
a. Sagri – iii. Rajasthan
b. Gothi – ii. Odisha
c. Halpati – i. Gujarat
d. Vetti – v. Andhra Pradesh
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-v
Answer: (1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-v
Explanation: Sagri is associated with Rajasthan, Gothi with Odisha, Halpati with Gujarat, and Vetti with Andhra Pradesh—each representing local forms of bonded labour.
137. Select the correct statements from the following.
A. In 2018, the Prime Minister’s Shram Awards were given in 3 categories: Shram Bhushan, Shram Veer/Veerangana, and Shram Shree/Shram Devi.
B. In 2018, Vishwakarma Rashtriya Puruskar awards were given in three categories: A, B, and C.
C. The Prime Minister’s Shram Awards were instituted in 1990.
(3) Only A, B
Answer: (3) Only A, B
Explanation: Statements A and B are correct. Statement C is incorrect—the Shram Awards were instituted in 1985, not 1990.
138. According to the Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, under _______________ dependant means widow, legitimate son, unmarried legitimate daughter, widowed mother.
(1) Section 2(1)(d)
Answer: (1) Section 2(1)(d)
Explanation: Section 2(1)(d) defines ‘dependant’ for compensation eligibility, listing immediate family members of the deceased workman.
139. National helpline for Senior Citizen has been set up by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India. The number of this helpline is
(2) 14567
Answer: (2) 14567
Explanation: The toll-free helpline ‘Elder Line’ (14567) offers support and intervention for senior citizens across India.
140. Consider the following statement about Bonded Labour.
A. The Bonded Labour system stands abolished throughout the country with effect from 25.10.1975.
B. Offences under the Act are punishable with imprisonment up to five years.
(2) Only B
Answer: (2) Only B
Explanation: Statement A is correct. Statement B is incorrect—the maximum imprisonment is three years, not five.
141. Central Government Scheme ‘SEED’ for DNT community has four components. Which is not correctly mentioned?
(3) To provide education loan for higher education in India as well as abroad
Answer: (3) To provide education loan for higher education in India as well as abroad
Explanation: SEED focuses on free coaching, health insurance, livelihood support, and housing—not education loans for higher studies abroad.
142. What role do NGOs play in India?
(2) All of the above
Answer: (2) All of the above
Explanation: NGOs engage in outreach to vulnerable groups, health awareness, skill education, and attract foreign funding to address social issues.
143. Match the following Non Governmental Organisations with their details.
a. Ashadeep Foundation – iv. Persons with Mental Disorders
b. Sense International India – iii. Deaf blind children and Adults
c. Blind Welfare Council – i. Dahod, Gujarat
d. Samarthanam Trust – ii. Cricket Association for the Blind in India (CABI)
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Answer: (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Explanation: Each NGO is matched with its specific focus area or location, confirming the correct pairings.
144. Select the correct statements from the following.
A. Article 338 provided for a Special Officer for SCs and STs.
B. 65th Amendment Act of 1990 established a multi-member National Commission.
C. The Commission presents a monthly report to the President.
(1) Only A, B
Answer: (1) Only A, B
Explanation: Statements A and B are correct. Statement C is incorrect—the Commission submits an annual report, not monthly.
145. Select the correct statement/s:
A. Four radio programmes on untouchability were telecast under “Sanwarti Jayein Jivan ki Rahen”.
B. Untouchability-prone areas in Maharashtra in 2017 included Akola, Bhandara, Parbhani.
(3) Both A and B
Answer: (3) Both A and B
Explanation: Both statements are accurate, reflecting government awareness initiatives and identified districts with caste-based issues.
146. Match the following regarding definitions under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019:
a. Section 2(5) – C. Complaint
b. Section 2(7) – B. Consumer’s Rights
c. Section 2(9) – D. Director General
d. Section 2(14) – A. Consumer
(1) a-B, b-A, c-D, d-C
(2) a-B, c-A, c-D, d-D
(3) a-C, b-B, c-D, d-A
(4) a-C, b-A, c-D, d-B
Answer: (3)
Explanation: While the official definitions are:
- Section 2(5): Complainant
- Section 2(6): Complaint
- Section 2(7): Consumer
- Section 2(9): Consumer Rights
- Section 2(14): Director General
The answer key aligns with:
a = Complaint, b = Consumer’s Rights, c = Director General, d = Consumer — matching option (3), despite the internal inconsistencies.
147. Limitation period to file complaint under Consumer Protection Act, 2019 is
(1) 1 year
(2) 2 years
(3) 3 years
(4) 6 months
Answer: (2)
Explanation: A consumer must file a complaint within two years from the date of cause of action under Section 69 of the Act.
148. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 the following rights are conferred upon him:
a. Right to safety
b. Right to be informed
c. Right to consumer awareness
d. Right to seek redressal
(1) Option a and b are correct
(2) Option b and d are correct
(3) Option c and d are correct
(4) All options are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation: All listed rights are part of the six consumer rights defined under the Act, including safety, information, education, and redressal.
149. According to ___________ of Consumer Protection Act, 2019, ‘National Commission’ means the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission established under Sub Section (1) of Section 53.
(1) Section 2(30)
(2) Section 2(28)
(3) Section 2(31)
(4) Section 2(29)
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Section 2(29) defines the term ‘National Commission’ as the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission.
150. In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires “Consumer means”:
a. Any person who buys goods for a consideration, which has been paid or promised or partly paid and partly promised
b. Hires or avails of any service for a consideration which has been paid or promised or partly paid and partly promised
c. A person who avails services for commercial purpose
d. Who avails services free of cost
(1) Option a and b are correct
(2) Option b and c are correct
(3) Option a and d are correct
(4) Option c and d are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The Act defines a consumer as someone who buys goods or avails services for consideration. It excludes commercial use and free services. Only options a and b are correct.