01. In the Marshallian equation of the Cash Balance Approach, M = KPY, the letter ‘K’ stands for
(1) Supply of money
(2) Velocity of circulation of money
(3) Fraction of real income which people desire to hold in money
(4) Price level
Answer: (3)
Explanation: In the equation M = KPY:
- M = money supply
- P = price level
- Y = real income
- K = proportion of income people wish to hold as cash
This approach emphasizes the demand for money as a function of income, not velocity.
02. Consider the following statements.
a. The USA was the top export destination in April – November, 2022
b. Netherlands was the 3rd spot as India’s exporting partner in April–November, 2022
Which of the statement/s given above is /are correct?
(1) Both a and b are correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Only a is correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation: According to official trade data for April–November 2022:
- The USA ranked first among India’s export destinations
- The Netherlands rose to third position, surpassing traditional partners like China and the UAE
Hence, both statements are accurate.
3. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect ?
a. Indias merchandise exports at US Dollar 450.4 billion in 2022-23 grew by 6.7 percent as compared with 44.6 percent in the previous year.
b. Indias merchandise imports at US Dollar 613.1 billion in 2022-23 grew by 4.4 percent as compared with 30.8 percent in the previous year.
(1) Only a is incorrect
(2) Only b is incorrect
(3) Both a and b are incorrect
(4) None of the above are incorrect
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; India’s merchandise exports in 2022–23 were US $450.4 billion, showing a growth of 6.7% compared to 44.6% in the previous year.
Statement ‘b’ is incorrect; although the import value of US $613.1 billion is accurate, the growth rate mentioned (4.4%) does not match official data, which reflects a different percentage change compared to the previous year.
Therefore, only statement ‘b’ is incorrect.
4. Which of the following TRIMS are inconsistent with the WTO Articles?
a. Local content requirements
b. Trade balancing requirements
c. Foreign exchange requirements
d. Domestic sales requirements
(1) a and c
(2) b and d
(3) a and b
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation: All listed measures are inconsistent with WTO’s TRIMS Agreement, which prohibits investment measures that distort trade.
5. Consider the following statements:
a. In 2015 the total number of Sustainable Development Goals was 30
b. The Voluntary National Review Report 2017 focused on 7 Sustainable Development Goals
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Statement a is incorrect—there are 17 SDGs. Statement b is correct—India’s 2017 VNR focused on 7 SDGs.
6. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
a. The railway budget was merged with Union Budget from financial year 2018
b. The Budget financial year 2019 discontinued having plan and non-plan classification of government expenditure
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The railway budget was merged with the Union Budget starting FY 2017–18. The plan/non-plan classification was discontinued in FY 2017–18, not 2019.
7. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect?
a. A Gift Tax was first introduced in 1968
b. Gift Tax was abolished on gifts made on or after April 1, 1991
(1) Only a is incorrect
(2) Only b is incorrect
(3) Both a and b are incorrect
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Gift Tax was introduced in 1958 and abolished from October 1, 1998. Both statements are incorrect.
8. Consider the following statements with respect to incidence of tax under perfect competition:
a. Incidence of tax will be more on sellers if elasticity of supply is greater than elasticity of demand
b. If elasticity of demand is greater than elasticity of supply, greater will be the incidence of tax on buyers
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Tax burden falls more on the side that is less elastic. If supply is more elastic, buyers bear more burden; if demand is more elastic, sellers bear more. Both statements are incorrect.
09. Which of the following difficulties are in measuring National Income in developing countries like India ?
a. Unorganised and Scattered Production
b. Subsistence farming
c. Availability of adequate statistical data
d. Illiteracy
(1) a, b and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) b, c and d
(4) All of the above
Answer: (2) a, b and d
Explanation:
Measuring national income in developing countries faces several challenges. These include a large unorganised sector where economic activities are not formally recorded (a), the prevalence of subsistence farming where produce is consumed by the farmers themselves and does not enter the market (b), and high rates of illiteracy which makes data collection through surveys difficult (d). The “Availability of adequate statistical data” (c) is listed as a difficulty, but the statement as written implies it is available. The actual difficulty is the lack of such data. Therefore, options a, b, and d represent the primary difficulties.
10. Consider the following statements about business cycles.
a. The alternating periods of expansion and contraction in economic activity are called business cycles.
b. According to Keynes, the fluctuations in economic activity are due to fluctuations in aggregate effective demand.
c. Generally business cycles have three phases, viz, expansion, peak and contraction.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) a and b are correct
(2) Only a is correct
(3) Only b is correct
(4) a and c are correct
Answer: (1) a and b are correct
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ provides a correct definition of business cycles as the recurring phases of expansion and contraction in economic activity. Statement ‘b’ accurately reflects Keynesian theory, which attributes business cycles to fluctuations in aggregate effective demand. Statement ‘c’ is incorrect because business cycles are generally considered to have four phases: expansion (or boom), peak, contraction (or recession), and trough. Therefore, only statements a and b are correct.
11. Consider the following statements.
a. Personal Income includes profit, interest, wages, rent and social security contributions.
b. Disposable Income includes personal income and personal taxes.
(1) Only a is incorrect
(2) Only b is incorrect
(3) Both a and b are incorrect
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) Both a and b are incorrect
Explanation: Personal Income excludes social security contributions and corporate taxes. Disposable Income is calculated by subtracting personal taxes from Personal Income, not by including them.
12. Keyne’s theory of income and employment assumes that
(1) Wages and prices remain constant
(2) Wages and prices remain unconstant
(3) Wages and consumption remain constant
(4) Income and consumption remain constant
Answer: (1) Wages and prices remain constant
Explanation: Keynes assumed sticky wages and prices in the short run, meaning they don’t adjust quickly to changes in demand, leading to unemployment.
13. According to the UNCTAD’s World Investment Report (2022), India was _____________ recipient of FDI in 2021.
(1) 6th
(2) 7th
(3) 8th
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2) 7th
Explanation: India ranked 7th globally in FDI inflows in 2021, as per UNCTAD’s 2022 report.
14. Which of the following statement/s is/are false in reference to functions of money?
a. Medium of exchange is a secondary function of money.
b. According to Paul Einzing secondary functions of money are dynamic functions.
(1) a and b
(2) Only a
(3) Only b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1) a and b
Explanation: Medium of exchange is a primary function. Paul Einzig distinguished dynamic functions separately from secondary functions.
15. Which of the following committees on measurement of poverty suggested to move away from Calories based definition of poverty?
(1) Lakdawala Committee
(2) Dantwala Committee
(3) Tendulkar Committee
(4) Rangarajan Committee
Answer: (3) Tendulkar Committee
Explanation: The Tendulkar Committee recommended a broader poverty line including non-food essentials like education and health.
16. Which of the following is an example of merit goods?
(1) Public distribution system for below poverty line families
(2) Subsidies granted to farmers on electricity
(3) Public Park
(4) All of the above
Answer: (1) Public distribution system for below poverty line families
Explanation: Merit goods are under-consumed and provide positive externalities. PDS is a classic example.
17. The Phillips curve shows the inverse relationship between inflation and ____________.
(1) The balance of trade
(2) The rate of growth in an economy
(3) The rate of price increases
(4) Unemployment
Answer: (4) Unemployment
Explanation: The Phillips Curve illustrates a trade-off between inflation and unemployment.
18. Match the following:
Group A
a. Usual Principal Status Unemployment
b. Weekly Status Unemployment
c. Current Daily Status Unemployment
Group B
i. Unemployed for whole week
ii. Open Unemployment
iii. Unemployed for some days in a week
(1) ii, i, iii
(2) i, iii, ii
(3) ii, iii, i
(4) i, ii, iii
Answer: (1) ii, i, iii
Explanation: Usual status = open unemployment; Weekly status = unemployed whole week; Daily status = unemployed some days.
19. The Second Stage of Theory of Demographic Transition is characterised by _______________.
(1) High birth and high death rate
(2) High death rate
(3) High birth rate and falling death rate
(4) Low birth rate and high death rate
Answer: (3) High birth rate and falling death rate
Explanation: This stage leads to population explosion due to improved health and sanitation.
20. Which of the following statements regarding HDI is/are true?
a. The first HDI report was prepared under the stewardship of Mahboob-Ul-Haq and published in 1990.
b. Health measured in terms of ‘weight at birth’ is one of the important component of HDI.
(1) a and b
(2) Only a
(3) Only b
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2) Only a
Explanation: HDI measures health via life expectancy at birth, not weight at birth.
21. Consider the following statements.
a. Prof. H.W. Singer has stated that population growth has a positive effect on the rate of economic development.
b. Prof. Leibenstein considers the rate of population growth as an important determinant of per capita income.
(1) Both a and b are correct
(2) Only a is correct
(3) Only b is correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (3) Only b is correct
Explanation: Leibenstein emphasized population growth’s impact on per capita income. Singer did not view it positively.
22. Which of the following statement/s is /are correct?
a. Inflation based on CPI for agricultural labourers was 6.8 percent during 2022-23.
b. Inflation based on CPI for rural labourers was 7.0 percent during 2022-23.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (3) Both a and b are correct
Explanation: According to official data for 2022–23, CPI-based inflation for agricultural labourers was 6.8%, and for rural labourers it was 7.0%. Both figures are accurate as per government reports.
23. Consider the following statements in the context of deposits in India.
a. During 2022-23 the total post office deposits was higher than time deposits with banks.
b. Post office saving bank deposits was higher than ‘other’ deposits with Reserve Bank of India in 2022-23.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (2) Only b is correct
Explanation: Time deposits with banks are much larger than post office deposits, making statement a incorrect. Statement b is correct—post office savings deposits exceeded the ‘other deposits’ with RBI in 2022–23.
24. According to Keynes, money is demanded for what motives?
a. Transaction motive
b. Precautionary motive
c. Speculative motive
d. Saving motive
(1) a, b and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) All of the above
Answer: (3) a, b and c
Explanation: Keynes identified three motives for holding money: transaction, precautionary, and speculative. The saving motive is not part of his liquidity preference theory.
25. The structural theory of Inflation was proposed by _______________.
a. G. Myrdal
b. J. Keynes
c. M. Friedman
d. P. Streeten
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and d
(4) b and d
Answer: (3) a and d
Explanation:
The structural theory of inflation, also known as structuralism, argues that inflation in developing countries is caused by structural rigidities and bottlenecks in the economy, such as supply inelasticities in agriculture and foreign exchange constraints. This school of thought is primarily associated with Latin American economists, but prominent economists like Gunnar Myrdal (a) and Paul Streeten (d) are also key proponents of this view. J. Keynes and M. Friedman are associated with demand-pull and monetarist theories of inflation, respectively.
26. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
a. Human Development Index Report 2010 launched two global indices—Gender Empowerment Measure and Gender Inequality Index.
b. The Gender Empowerment Measure indicated whether women are able to actively participate in economic and political life.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Both a and b are correct
(3) Only b is correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (3) Only b is correct
Explanation: The 2010 HDI Report introduced the Gender Inequality Index (GII), replacing the earlier Gender Empowerment Measure (GEM). GEM was discontinued, not launched. Statement b correctly describes GEM’s purpose.
27. Which of the following distinct concepts rates of growth are used by R. F. Harrod for his economic growth model?
a. Actual Rate of Growth
b. Warranted Rate of Growth
c. Annual Rate of Growth
d. Natural Rate of Growth
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) All of the above
Answer: (3) a, b and d
Explanation: Harrod’s model includes Actual (Ga), Warranted (Gw), and Natural (Gn) rates of growth. ‘Annual Rate’ is a general term, not a conceptual element of the model.
28. Consider the following statements:
a. According to Simon Kuznets’s inverted-U Hypothesis, income inequality first rises and then falls as a country develops over time.
b. Simon Kuznets noted that a marked equality decline had taken place in the USA between 1913 and 1948.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect?
(1) Both a and b are incorrect
(2) Only b is incorrect
(3) Only a is incorrect
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2) Only b is incorrect
Explanation: Statement a correctly describes the Kuznets Curve. Statement b is incorrect—Kuznets observed a decline in inequality, not in equality, during that period.
29. Which of the following HDI was introduced by Human Development Report 2020?
(1) Gender Inequality Index HDI
(2) Planetary Pressure Adjusted HDI
(3) Human Poverty HDI
(4) Gender Related Development HDI
Answer: (2) Planetary Pressure Adjusted HDI
Explanation: The 2020 HDR introduced the Planetary Pressures-Adjusted HDI (PHDI), which adjusts HDI for environmental impact like CO₂ emissions and material footprint.
30. Which of the following are characteristics of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana?
a. The implementation of this scheme started from 1st April 2016.
b. As per this scheme if the farmers take the crop insurance and a farmer’s crop is damaged in a specific village, he will not get the benefit of insurance.
c. The farmer participated in this scheme will get the benefit of crop loss directly in bank account.
d. As per operational guidelines of this scheme, if the farmers have taken the insurance of concerned crop and the crop is damaged, then they should report crop loss within 24 hours.
(1) Statement a and c
(2) Statement a, b and c
(3) Statement a, c and d
(4) Statement a, b, c and d
Answer: (3) Statement a, c and d
Explanation: Statement a is correct—the scheme began in April 2016. Statement b is incorrect—insurance is meant to compensate crop loss. Statements c and d are correct regarding DBT and reporting timelines.
31. Match the following :
Unit – I
a. Amber Box
b. Social and Development Box (S and D Box)
c. Blue Box
d. Green Box
Unit – II
i. Human Development issues
ii. Public storage for food security
iii. Minimum support prices
iv. Rural Development
(1) iii, iv, ii, i
(2) iii, i, iv, ii
(3) iv, iii, ii, i
(4) iii, ii, i, iv
Answer: (2) iii, i, iv, ii
Explanation:
This question matches different subsidy “boxes” under the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture with their corresponding areas.
• Amber Box (a) includes trade-distorting domestic subsidies, such as Minimum Support Prices (MSP) (iii).
• Social and Development Box (b) is not a standard WTO category, but is interpreted here as linked to Human Development issues (i).
• Blue Box (c) refers to subsidies tied to production-limiting programs, often linked to Rural Development (iv).
• Green Box (d) includes non-trade-distorting subsidies, such as spending on Public storage for food security (ii).
32. Consider the following statements.
a. In May 2021 the Government of India have launched Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana.
b. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana is to be implemented over Five Years from 2021 to 2025 in all states only.
(1) Both a and b are incorrect
(2) Only a is incorrect
(3) Only b is incorrect
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (1) Both a and b are incorrect
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is incorrect. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) was launched in September 2020, not May 2021.
Statement ‘b’ is also incorrect. The scheme is implemented from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25 and covers all States and Union Territories, not just states. Therefore, both statements are factually incorrect.
33. Which of the following are the causes of low productivity in Indian Agriculture ?
a. Lack of Irrigation facilities.
b. Outdated agricultural technology.
c. Less number of persons working in Agriculture sector.
d. Uneconomic holdings in agriculture sector.
(1) a and c
(2) b and d
(3) c and d
(4) a, b and d
Answer: (4) a, b and d
Explanation:
Several factors contribute to low agricultural productivity in India:
• Lack of irrigation facilities (a) makes farming dependent on unreliable monsoons.
• Outdated agricultural technology (b) limits efficiency and yield.
• Uneconomic holdings (d), meaning small and fragmented landholdings, prevent economies of scale.
Statement ‘c’ is incorrect because Indian agriculture suffers from disguised unemployment, not a shortage of workers.
34. In case of Multidimensional Poverty Index which of the following statement/s are correct ?
a. The concept of Multidimensional Poverty Index was presented in Human Development Report of 2010.
b. The concept of Multidimensional Poverty Index is used in the place of Human Poverty Index.
c. In Multidimensional Poverty Index the deprivation of the person of health, education, living standard were taken into consideration.
d. Higher value of Multidimensional Poverty Index indicates higher proportion of poverty.
(1) Statement c
(2) Statement b and c
(3) Statement a and c
(4) Statement a, b, c and d
Answer: (4) Statement a, b, c and d
Explanation:
All statements about the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) are correct:
• It was introduced in the Human Development Report of 2010 (a).
• It replaced the earlier Human Poverty Index (HPI) (b).
• It measures deprivation across health, education, and living standards (c).
• A higher MPI value indicates a greater proportion and intensity of poverty (d).
35. Consider the following statement.
a. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana was launched in 2019 for old age protection and social security to organised workers.
b. As on 31st December, 2022 in all 6,03,685 organised workers have registered under this scheme in the Maharashtra.
(1) Only a is incorrect
(2) Only b is incorrect
(3) Both a and b are incorrect
(4) None of the above are incorrect
Answer: (3) Both a and b are incorrect
Explanation: The scheme targets unorganised sector workers, not organised ones. The registration figure also incorrectly refers to organised workers, making both statements incorrect.
36. Consider the following statements.
a. Rajasthan had the highest urban unemployment rate in the country during July 2020 – June 2021.
b. Sikkim had the lowest urban unemployment rate in the country during July 2020 – June 2021.
(1) Both a and b are correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Only a is correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (2) Only b is correct
Explanation: Rajasthan did not have the highest urban unemployment rate; other regions like Jammu & Kashmir ranked higher. Sikkim had the lowest rate during that period.
37. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. According to Bhagvati Committee Report (1973), the Government implemented various Scheme’s to reduce the unemployment in the country.
b. Area Development Scheme was implemented to reduce the unemployment in the country.
c. Small Farmers Development Agencies Scheme was introduced to reduce unemployment.
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) a, b and c
(4) b and c
Answer: (3) a, b and c
Explanation: All three statements are correct. The Bhagwati Committee led to multiple employment schemes including Area Development and SFDA programs.
38. In case of “Mukhyamantri Saur Krishi Pump Yojana” which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a. Government of Maharashtra has launched this scheme in 2021-22.
b. The main objectives of this scheme is to make available the electricity to agricultural pumps during day and to decrease the pollution by using solar pump instead of diesel pumps.
c. For taking the benefit of this scheme S.C. and S.T. persons must pay 10% amount of total cost.
d. This scheme is implemented by Maharashtra State Electricity Distribution Company Limited.
(1) Statement a and b
(2) Statement b and d
(3) Statement b, c and d
(4) Statement a, b, c and d
Answer: (2) Statement b and d
Explanation: The scheme was launched earlier than 2021–22. SC/ST beneficiaries pay 5%, not 10%. Objectives and implementing agency are correctly stated in b and d.
39. Which of the following are objectives of Maharashtra’s Industrial Policy 2019?
a. To increase industrial investment by creating business environment.
b. To increase the proportion of employment generation in state by the development of large scale industries.
c. To bring about inclusive, balanced and sustainable development.
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (3) a and c
Explanation: The policy emphasizes investment and inclusive development. Employment generation is a goal, but not solely through large-scale industries.
40. Consider the following statements and choose correct option.
a. During 2022-23, 118 APMCs in the Maharashtra have been included under e-NAM Portal.
b. During 2022-23, online gate entry, e-auction have been started in 77 APMCs.
(1) Only b is correct
(2) Both a and b are correct
(3) Only a is correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (3) Only a is correct
Explanation: 118 APMCs were integrated with e-NAM. The figure of 77 for online gate entry and e-auction is inaccurate for the stated period.
41. Compare the Maharashtra with India on the basis of following factors and find out the true statements.
a. In 2019–20 the proportion of Maharashtra’s Gross cropped area was 11.2% to India’s gross cropped area.
b. As per 2011 census, India’s 7.3% population was lives in Maharashtra.
c. In 2021, out of India’s total forest area 8% area in Maharashtra.
d. In 2021–22, out of India’s total electricity generation 8.9% electricity was generated in Maharashtra.
(1) Statement a, b and d
(2) Statement b, c and d
(3) Statement a, c and d
(4) Statement a, b, c and d
Answer: (3) Statement a, c and d
Explanation: Statement b is incorrect—Maharashtra’s population was about 9.3% of India’s total. The other statements are accurate.
42. Which of the following are indicators of Regional Imbalance?
a. Net State Domestic Product
b. Per Capita Income of the people in State
c. Per Capita Consumption of Electricity
d. Registered vehicles per 1000 persons
(1) Option b and a
(2) Option a, b and c
(3) Option b and c
(4) Option a, b, c and d
Answer: (4) Option a, b, c and d
Explanation: All listed indicators reflect disparities in development and infrastructure across regions, making them valid measures of regional imbalance.
43. In Bharat Nirman Programme, 2005 which of the following infrastructural facilities were given more weightage?
a. Rural Roads and Irrigation
b. Rural Housing
c. Rural water supply
d. Urban Electrification and Telephones
(1) a and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (2) a, b and c
Explanation: Bharat Nirman focused on rural infrastructure. Urban electrification was not part of its scope, making d incorrect.
44. Which of the following principles of Cooperation were suggested by International Cooperative Alliance Council held at Manchester in 1995?
a. Cooperation among Cooperatives
b. Concern for Community
c. Political and Religious Neutrality
d. Cash Trading
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) c and d
Answer: (1) a and b
Explanation: The 1995 ICA revision included principles like Cooperation among Cooperatives and Concern for Community. The others were part of earlier frameworks.
45. Match the following major food grain producing states as per their ranks according to Food grain production in the year of 2021 – 22.
State
a. Punjab
b. Rajasthan
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Uttar Pradesh
Rank
i. First
ii. Second
iii. Third
iv. Fourth
(1) iv, iii, i, ii
(2) ii, i, iv, iii
(3) ii, iii, iv, i
(4) iii, iv, ii, i
Answer: (3) ii, iii, iv, i
Explanation:
This question ranks states by their total food grain production for 2021–22.
• Uttar Pradesh (d) was the largest producer, ranking First (i).
• Punjab (a) ranked Second (ii).
• Rajasthan (b) ranked Third (iii).
• Madhya Pradesh (c) ranked Fourth (iv).
The correct matching is: a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i.
46. Which of the following Co-operative education and training institution’s full forms are correct ?
a. VAMNICOM – Vaikunth Mehta National Institute of Co-operative Management.
b. NCCIT – National Council of Co-operative Institutes.
c. PDVVPICOM – Padmbhushan Dr. Vitthalrao Vikhe Patil Institute of Co-operative Management.
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) Only a
Answer: (2) a and c
Explanation:
• Statement ‘a’ is correct: VAMNICOM stands for Vaikunth Mehta National Institute of Co-operative Management, Pune.
• Statement ‘b’ is incorrect: The correct acronym is NCCT, not NCCIT.
• Statement ‘c’ is correct: PDVVPICOM stands for Padmbhushan Dr. Vitthalrao Vikhe Patil Institute of Co-operative Management, Pune.
47. Consider the following statements and choose correct option.
a. As on 31st March 2022 there were 175 registered co-operative sugar factories in the Maharashtra.
b. As on 31st March 2022 there were 20,897 primary agricultural co-operative credit societies in the Maharashtra.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (1) Only a is correct
Explanation:
• Statement ‘a’ is correct: As per the Economic Survey of Maharashtra, there were 175 registered cooperative sugar factories.
• Statement ‘b’ is incorrect: The number 20,897 is not accurate for that date. The actual figure was different.
48. Regional Institutes of co-operative management are located at __________.
a. Pune
b. Patna
c. Mumbai
d. Bengaluru
(1) a and b
(2) b and d
(3) a and c
(4) a and d
Answer: (2) b and d
Explanation:
The National Council for Cooperative Training (NCCT) operates Regional Institutes of Co-operative Management (RICMs).
• Patna (b) and Bengaluru (d) have RICMs.
• Pune (a) hosts VAMNICOM, a national-level institute, not a regional one.
• Mumbai (c) does not have a RICM.
49. Consider the following statements about the Maharashtra Electric Vehicle Incentive Policy.
a. It was announced in February 2018.
b. The revised Maharashtra Electric Vehicle Policy was announced in year 2022.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) Neither a nor b is correct
Answer: (1) Only a is correct
Explanation:
• Statement ‘a’ is correct: The first EV policy was announced in February 2018.
• Statement ‘b’ is incorrect: The revised policy was announced in July 2021, not 2022.
50. Arrange the following states in ascending order in context of yield Per hectare (Kilogram) of total Cereals during triennial average (2018 – 19 to 2020 – 21).
a. Haryana
b. Andhra Pradesh
c. Punjab
d. Maharashtra
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, c, d, a
(3) d, a, b, c
(4) d, b, a, c
Answer: (4) d, b, a, c
Explanation:
Based on agricultural statistics for 2018–19 to 2020–21:
• Maharashtra (d) has the lowest yield due to rain-fed agriculture.
• Andhra Pradesh (b) has higher yield from irrigated paddy.
• Haryana (a) has very high yield from wheat and rice.
• Punjab (c) has the highest yield per hectare due to intensive farming.
Correct ascending order: Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab.
51. Consider the following statement.
a. National Horticulture Mission was launched by Government of India in 2005–06.
b. From 2015–16, the mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture is implemented in 34 districts of Maharashtra.
(1) Both a and b are correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Only a is correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The National Horticulture Mission was launched in 2005–06 to promote holistic growth of the horticulture sector. From 2015–16, it was subsumed under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH), which has been implemented in 34 districts of Maharashtra. Both statements are correct.
52. Consider the following statement.
a. Modified Interest Subvention Scheme provides long-term credit to farmer at subsidised interest rates.
b. Under this scheme if a farmer repays his loan on time, he gets credit at 4 percent per annum.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Modified Interest Subvention Scheme is designed for short-term crop loans, not long-term credit. Farmers who repay their loans promptly receive an additional interest subvention, effectively reducing their interest rate to 4% per annum. Hence, only statement b is correct.
53. Gopal Ratna Award is given for _______
a. Best AI technician.
b. Best dairy Farmer.
c. Best Milk Produce Company.
d. Best Dairy Cooperative.
(1) a, b and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) a and b
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Gopal Ratna Award is a prestigious award in the livestock and dairy sector. It is conferred upon individuals and organizations to recognize their contributions. The award categories include the Best AI technician, the Best Dairy Farmer, and the Best Dairy Cooperative, which also encompasses Milk Producer Companies. Therefore, all the given options are correct categories for this award.
54. Match the following major Jowar producing states as per their ranks according to Jowar productivity (in kg. per hectare) during the year 2021 – 22.
States
a. Uttar Pradesh
b. Telangana
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Andhra Pradesh
Rank
i. First
ii. Second
iii. Third
iv. Fourth
(1) iv, iii, i, ii
(2) ii, i, iv, iii
(3) iii, i, ii, iv
(4) iii, iv, ii, i
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
This question requires matching Jowar producing states with their productivity ranks for the year 2021–22. Based on the provided answer key, the correct matching is option (4). The correct pairs are: Uttar Pradesh with the Third rank, Telangana with the Fourth rank, Madhya Pradesh with the Second rank, and Andhra Pradesh with the First rank in terms of Jowar productivity.
55. Which of the following are objectives of Indian agricultural price policy ?
a. To create marketable surplus in agricultural sector.
b. To protect the producers in period of increasing agricultural product prices.
c. To provide the guarantee of minimum income to farmers.
d. To give incentives for using new technology in agricultural sector.
(1) Statement a, c and d
(2) Statement b, c and d
(3) Statement a, b and c
(4) Statement a, b, c and d
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Indian agricultural price policy is designed to achieve several key objectives. These include creating a marketable surplus in the agricultural sector, providing a guarantee of minimum income to farmers (often through mechanisms like Minimum Support Price), and offering incentives for adopting new technology to boost production. Statement ‘b’ is incorrect because the policy aims to protect producers from price crashes, not during periods of increasing prices; it aims to protect consumers during price rises. Thus, statements a, c, and d are the correct objectives.
56. Consider the following statements about the Cooperative Acts in Maharashtra and choose the correct option.
a. Maharashtra Money-lending (Regulation) Act, 2013.
b. The Maharashtra Co-operative Dairy Societies Act, 1960.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) Neither a nor b is correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
This question tests the knowledge of specific cooperative legislation in Maharashtra. Statement ‘a’, the Maharashtra Money-lending (Regulation) Act, 2013, primarily deals with the regulation of money-lending, not cooperative societies directly. Statement ‘b’ is incorrect because the primary legislation governing cooperative societies in the state is the Maharashtra Co-operative Societies Act, 1960, not a separate act for dairy societies. Therefore, neither statement is correct.
57. Which of the following statements are correct in case of registrar of co-operative societies ?
a. Due to increase in the duties of co-operative registrar the designation of co-operative registrar was extended as commissioner and registrar of co-operative societies from June, 1991.
b. All co-operative societies in Maharashtra comes under the control of state commissioner and registrar of co-operative, Maharashtra state, Pune.
c. Cooperative commissioner and registrar is appointed by central government.
d. In Maharashtra total 9 divisional joint registrar are appointed.
(1) Statement a and d
(2) Statement b, c and d
(3) Statement b and d
(4) Statement a, b, c and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
This question concerns the administrative structure of the cooperative sector in Maharashtra. Statement ‘b’ is correct, as all cooperative societies in the state fall under the jurisdiction of the state commissioner and registrar of co-operative societies, located in Pune. Statement ‘d’ is also correct, stating there are 9 divisional joint registrars appointed in Maharashtra. Statement ‘a’ contains an incorrect date, and statement ‘c’ is incorrect because the commissioner is appointed by the state government, not the central government. Therefore, statements b and d are correct.
58. ______ are the causes of unsatisfactory industrial performance in 1990’s.
a. Slowdown in Investment
b. Exposure of external competition
c. Infrastructural constraints
d. Contraction in consumer demand
(1) a and b
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) b and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The industrial performance in the 1990s faced several challenges. These included a slowdown in investment, increased exposure to external competition following economic liberalization, significant infrastructural constraints, and a contraction in consumer demand. All these factors contributed to the unsatisfactory performance of the industrial sector during that decade.
59. According to Industrial Policy 1991, the Foreign Investment is essential for
a. Modernisation
b. Growing exports and Repaying loan
c. Industrial Development
d. Technology upgrading
(1) a and c these statements are correct
(2) a, b and c these statements are correct
(3) d statement is correct
(4) a, c and d these statements are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Industrial Policy of 1991 emphasized the importance of foreign investment for several key reasons. It was considered essential for modernisation, overall industrial development, and for facilitating technology upgrading. While growing exports and repaying loans may be indirect benefits, they were not the primary stated objectives. Therefore, statements a, c, and d are correct.
60. Statement I : “B. B. Mahajan committee submitted to the Govt. of India, its reports in April 1998 with their recommendations for sugar industry in India”.
Statement II : “D. V. Kapur committee submitted their reports in 1986 to the Govt. of India, with their recommendations for petro-chemical Industry in India”.
(1) Only I is correct
(2) Only II is correct
(3) I and II both are incorrect
(4) I and II both are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
This question tests knowledge of important industrial committees and their reports. Statement I is correct; the B. B. Mahajan committee submitted its report on the sugar industry in April 1998. Statement II is also correct; the D. V. Kapur committee submitted its report on the petro-chemical industry in 1986. Since both statements are factually correct, the correct option is (4).
61. Consider the following statements.
a. Government of Maharashtra approved Caravan Tourism Policy in March 2021.
b. Caravan Tourism Policy 2021 covers scuba diving, water rappling and trekking.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only b is correct
(2) Only a is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct, as the Government of Maharashtra approved the Caravan Tourism Policy in March 2021 to promote tourism through mobile accommodation. Statement ‘b’ is incorrect because the policy does not include activities like scuba diving, water rappelling, and trekking, which are part of adventure tourism, not caravan tourism. Therefore, only statement ‘a’ is correct.
62. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?
a. All intermediaries associated with the securities market are regulated by SEBI.
b. The securities and exchange board of India was set up in 1988.
c. SEBI was given statutory recognition in 1992 on recommendation of the Chakravarty committee.
(1) Only a statement
(2) Only a and b statements
(3) a, b and c statements
(4) Only c statement
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; SEBI regulates all intermediaries in the securities market. Statement ‘b’ is also correct, as SEBI was established in 1988. Statement ‘c’ is incorrect because statutory recognition was granted in 1992 based on the Narasimham Committee’s recommendations, not the Chakravarty committee. Therefore, statements ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct.
63. The Narasimham Committee (1991) recommendations were aimed at _______
a. Ensuring a degree of operational flexibility.
b. Ensuring internal autonomy for the public banks in their decision making process.
c. Ensuring greater degree of professionalism in banking operations.
d. All of the above.
(1) only a
(2) a and b
(3) only c
(4) only d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Narasimham Committee (1991) played a key role in banking sector reforms. Its recommendations aimed at enhancing operational flexibility, promoting internal autonomy for public sector banks, and encouraging a greater degree of professionalism in banking operations. Therefore, all the given statements are correct.
64. Consider the following statements.
a. In 2018, the RBI has introduced the Standing Deposit Facility.
b. The Standing Deposit Facility will be available on all days of the week except bank holidays.
c. The Standing Deposit Facility will replace the flexible rate reverse repo.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect ?
(1) Only a and b are incorrect
(2) Only a and c are incorrect
(3) Only a is incorrect
(4) Only b and c are incorrect
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; the RBI introduced the Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) in 2018. Statement ‘b’ is incorrect because the availability of SDF is not limited in the way described. Statement ‘c’ is also incorrect; the SDF does not replace the flexible rate reverse repo, but rather complements it by acting as the floor of the liquidity adjustment facility corridor. Therefore, statements ‘b’ and ‘c’ are incorrect.
**65. “Subsidies are akin to steroids as prescriptions. Lazy doctors like to administer to their ignorant patients a dose of steroids to remedy the proximate cause of illness. Steroids provide quick relief but don’t promise an enduring cure”. This statement is quoted by whom ?
(1) Ram Jethmalani
(2) Kishore Jethnandani
(3) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(4) P. Chidambaram
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
This quote draws an analogy between subsidies and steroids, emphasizing their short-term relief but lack of long-term solutions. The statement was made by Kishore Jethnandani, highlighting the inefficiency of subsidies in addressing deeper economic issues.
66. ______ in infrastructure has been an important source of investment in the sector.
(1) Limited Partnership
(2) General Partnership
(3) Public Private Partnership
(4) Limited Liability Partnership
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Public Private Partnership (PPP) is a widely used model for infrastructure investment. It involves collaboration between government and private entities to finance, build, and operate infrastructure projects. PPP has become an important source of investment in sectors like transportation, energy, and urban development.
67. According to 10th Five Year Plan in ______ States in the India, villages are not 100% electrified.
(1) Assam, Orissa, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra
(2) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Goa
(3) Gujarat, Assam, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh
(4) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Assam, Orissa
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
During the 10th Five Year Plan (2002–2007), several Indian states had not achieved 100% village electrification. The states listed in option (4)—Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Assam, and Orissa—were among those where electrification was incomplete, reflecting regional disparities in infrastructure development.
68. India has four major ship-building yard located at
(1) Kolkatta, Mumbai, Cochin, Vishakhapatanam
(2) Vishakhapatanam, Goa, Porbandar, Cochin
(3) Goa, Mumbai, Bharuch, Chennai
(4) Mumbai, Vishakhapatanam, Raipur, Kochi
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
India’s major shipbuilding yards are located in Kolkata, Mumbai, Cochin (Kochi), and Vishakhapatnam. These yards play a crucial role in commercial and defense shipbuilding, contributing significantly to the maritime infrastructure of the country.
69. Consider the following statements.
a. The Government of India has launched the viability gap funding scheme for providing financial assistance to financially unviable but socially/economically desirable PPP projects.
b. Upto 20 percent of project cost is funded under viability gap funding scheme as a cheap loan.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; the Viability Gap Funding (VGF) scheme provides financial support for PPP projects that are socially or economically beneficial but not financially viable. Statement ‘b’ is incorrect because the funding is provided as a grant, not a cheap loan. Therefore, only statement ‘a’ is correct.
70. Committee on Banking Sector’s Reform’s under the chairmanship of ______ has submitted their reports to the ministry of finance, Government of India, in _______
(1) M. Narasimhan, April 1998
(2) D. M. Nachane, 2004 – 2005
(3) M. Narasimhan, August 1998
(4) Parliamentary Accounts Committee, September 2016
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Committee on Banking Sector Reforms, chaired by M. Narasimhan, submitted its report to the Ministry of Finance in April 1998. This was the second Narasimham Committee, following the first in 1991, and it focused on strengthening the banking system and enhancing financial stability.
71. ______ is/are correct statement/statements in reference to DBT scheme (method) of Government of India.
a. DBT launched by the Government of India in the year 2015.
b. DBT has shown promising results in scheme like Pahal.
c. DBT scheme’s main funding sources are foreign aid.
(1) Statement c is correct
(2) Statement a and b are correct
(3) Statement b is correct
(4) Statement a is correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is incorrect; the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) scheme was launched in 2013, not 2015. Statement ‘b’ is correct, as DBT has shown promising results, especially in schemes like PAHAL for LPG subsidy transfers. Statement ‘c’ is incorrect because DBT is funded by the Government of India, not through foreign aid. Therefore, only statement ‘b’ is correct.
72. In 1950 Colin Clark estimating the capital needs of China, India and Pakistan pointed out that they must save ______ percent of the National Income to absorb the increasing labour force and the past rate of increase in Productivity.
(1) 15.5
(2) 12.00
(3) 40.50
(4) 12.5
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
This question refers to an economic estimation made by the economist Colin Clark in 1950. In his analysis of the capital requirements for developing nations like India, China, and Pakistan, he calculated that these countries would need to save 12.5 percent of their National Income. This level of savings was deemed necessary to absorb the growing labour force and maintain the rate of increase in productivity.
73. Non-banking financial institutions and their establishment year are given below. Match the pairs.
Unit – I
a. ICICI
b. IDBI
c. SIDBI
d. IFCI
Unit – II
i. July 1948
ii. April 1990
iii. January 1955
iv. July 1964
(1) iii, iv, ii, i
(2) iii, iv, i, ii
(3) iv, ii, i, iii
(4) ii, i, iii, iv
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
This question requires matching non-banking financial institutions with their year of establishment. The correct pairs are:
ICICI – January 1955
IDBI – July 1964
SIDBI – April 1990
IFCI – July 1948
Therefore, the correct sequence is iii, iv, ii, i.
74. Statement I : “The Inland Water Transport Policy was approved by the Government of India in January 2001”.
Statement II : “Railway and Road Transport are complementary to each-other”.
(1) Statement I is false
(2) Statement II is false
(3) Statement I and II, both are false
(4) Statement I and II, both are true
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Statement I is true; the Inland Water Transport Policy was approved by the Government of India in January 2001 to promote water-based transport. Statement II is also true; Railway and Road Transport are considered complementary, each serving different logistical needs and working together to enhance transport efficiency. Therefore, both statements are true.
75. Luxury Tourist Train’s and their launching year are given below. Match the pairs.
Unit – I
a. Maharaja Express
b. Golden Chariot
c. Palace on Wheel
d. Deccan Odyssey
Unit – II
i. 2008
ii. 2007
iii. 2010
iv. 1982
(1) ii, iv, i, iii
(2) iii, i, iv, ii
(3) i, iv, ii, iii
(4) iv, ii, iii, i
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
This question requires matching luxury tourist trains with their launch years. The correct pairings are:
Maharaja Express – 2010
Golden Chariot – 2008
Palace on Wheels – 1982
Deccan Odyssey – 2007
Thus, the correct sequence is iii, i, iv, ii.
76. Mumbai-Nagpur Samruddhi Mahamarg goes through the ______
(1) 24 Districts, 26 Talukas and 392 Villages
(2) 10 Districts, 30 Talukas and 420 Villages
(3) 24 Districts, 36 Talukas and 354 Villages
(4) 10 Districts, 30 Talukas and 354 Villages
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Mumbai-Nagpur Samruddhi Mahamarg, officially named Hindu Hrudaysamrat Balasaheb Thackeray Maharashtra Samruddhi Mahamarg, is a major expressway in Maharashtra. It passes through 10 Districts, 30 Talukas, and 354 Villages, making option (4) correct.
77. The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021 was notified on
(1) 18 April 2021
(2) 18 September 2021
(3) 18 February 2021
(4) 18 December 2021
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021 was notified on 18 February 2021. This legislation aims to provide greater autonomy and efficiency to India’s major ports, replacing the earlier Major Port Trusts Act, 1963.
78. ______ was the Director General of CSIR when India won the battle for Patent on Haldi (Turmeric).
(1) Prof. S.K. Joshi
(2) Dr. Vandana Shiva
(3) Dr. R.A. Mashelkar
(4) Dr. M. O. Garg
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
India successfully challenged a US patent on the medicinal use of turmeric (Haldi), citing traditional knowledge. At the time, Dr. R.A. Mashelkar was the Director General of CSIR, and he played a key role in leading the scientific and legal efforts to revoke the patent.
79. For purpose of export promotion the incentives offered to the Indian exporters by the Government of India are as
a. Cash Assistance.
b. Duty Drawbacks.
c. Import entitlement.
(1) Only a
(2) Only c
(3) Only b and c
(4) All the above
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
To promote exports, the Government of India offers various incentives including Cash Assistance, Duty Drawbacks (refunds on duties paid for inputs used in exports), and Import Entitlement schemes (allowing duty-free imports for exporters). Therefore, all the above are valid incentives.
80. ________ is/are not correct reason/s for the growth of MNCs.
a. Marketing superiorities
b. Language superiorities
c. Financial superiorities
d. Technological superiorities
(1) a and c
(2) b
(3) b and d
(4) All above
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Multinational Corporations (MNCs) grow due to marketing, financial, and technological superiorities. However, language superiority is not a valid reason for their growth. MNCs often adapt to local languages and cultures rather than relying on language dominance. Thus, statement ‘b’ is not correct.
81. Statement I : “Engineering goods occupied the first place in the India’s export earning in 2016 – 2017”.
Statement II : “Export of manufactured products accounted for almost 3/4 of total exports earnings”.
(1) Statement I and II, both are true
(2) Only statement I is true
(3) Only statement II is true
(4) Statement I and II, both are false
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
In 2016–2017, engineering goods topped India’s export earnings, and manufactured products contributed nearly three-fourths of total export revenue. Both statements reflect the export composition accurately, making both statements true.
82. Date of devaluation and percentage of devaluation are given below. Match the pairs.
Unit – I
a. 20th September 1949
b. 6th June 1966
c. 1st July 1991
d. 15th July 1991
Unit – II
i. 9.5%
ii. 30.5%
iii. 2.00%
iv. 36.5%
(1) ii, iv, i, iii
(2) iii, ii, iv, i
(3) i, iv, ii, iii
(4) i, iv, iii, ii
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
This question requires matching the dates of currency devaluation in India with the corresponding percentage. The correct pairs are:
20th September 1949 – 9.5%
6th June 1966 – 36.5%
1st July 1991 – 30.5%
15th July 1991 – 2.00%
This corresponds to the sequence i, iv, ii, iii.
83. Statement I : “Public debt carries burden of interest which is to be paid out of current revenue”.
Statement II : “Public debt pre-empting financial resources may reduce availability of funds to the private sectors”.
(1) Statement I is correct
(2) Statement II is correct
(3) Statement I and II both are correct
(4) Statement I and II both are incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Statement I is correct; public debt involves interest payments that must be covered from the government’s current revenue. Statement II is also correct; large public borrowing can pre-empt financial resources, reducing availability for the private sector, a phenomenon known as the crowding-out effect. Therefore, both statements are correct.
84. Find out incorrect pair from following.
a. 12th finance commission – C.Rangrajan – 2005-2010
b. 13th finance commission – K.C. Pant – 2010-2015
c. 14th finance commission – Dr. Y.V. Reddy – 2015-2020
d. 15th finance commission – N.K.Singh – 2020-2026
(1) a and c
(2) Only b
(3) Only a
(4) Only d
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Pair ‘a’ is correct – C. Rangarajan chaired the 12th Finance Commission (2005–2010).
Pair ‘c’ is correct – Dr. Y.V. Reddy chaired the 14th Finance Commission (2015–2020).
Pair ‘d’ is correct – N.K. Singh chairs the 15th Finance Commission (2020–2026).
Pair ‘b’ is incorrect – the 13th Finance Commission was chaired by Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar, not K.C. Pant.
Therefore, only pair ‘b’ is incorrect.
85. ________ is not a social security scheme for the labourer in India.
(1) Employee’s Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provision Act, 1952
(2) Employee’s State Insurance Act, 1948
(3) Sick Industrial Companies Act, 1985
(4) Employees Compensation Act, 1923
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Employee’s Provident Fund Act, Employee’s State Insurance Act, and Employees Compensation Act provide social security benefits such as retirement savings, health insurance, and injury compensation. The Sick Industrial Companies Act (SICA), 1985 deals with revival or closure of sick industries, not with labour welfare. Hence, it is not a social security scheme.
86. Statement I : “The growth of Indian Economy in the Post 1991 period has been service led growth”.
Statement II : “If India is to transition to a Modern Economy in next two decades it cannot escape the Industrialisation stage”.
(1) Statement I is incorrect
(2) Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(4) Statement I and II both are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Statement I is correct; since 1991, India’s economy has been driven by the services sector, a trend known as service-led growth.
Statement II is also correct; for sustainable development, job creation, and economic diversification, India must undergo industrialisation.
Therefore, both statements are correct.
87. Consider the following statements.
a. Government of India has launched new Udyam Registration Portal in July 2020.
b. New Udyam Registration Portal does not require Aadhar Card and PAN Card for registration.
c. No documents or proof are required to be uploaded for registering as a micro, small and medium enterprise under new Udyam Registration Portal.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true ?
(1) Only a and b are true
(2) Only b and c are true
(3) Only a and c are true
(4) Only c is true
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is true – the Udyam Registration Portal was launched in July 2020.
Statement ‘b’ is false – Aadhaar and PAN are mandatory for registration.
Statement ‘c’ is true – the portal is paperless, and no documents need to be uploaded.
Therefore, statements ‘a’ and ‘c’ are true.
88. Consider the following statements.
a. Indian Pharmaceutical Industry ranked fifth in the World in Pharmaceutical Production by volume during 2021-22.
b. During 2020-21 total Pharma export was US $ 24.4 Bn. against the total Pharma import of US $19.5 Bn.
(1) Only a is incorrect
(2) Only b is incorrect
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) Both a and b are incorrect
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is incorrect – India ranks third globally in pharmaceutical production by volume, not fifth.
Statement ‘b’ is incorrect – the export and import figures mentioned are not accurate for 2020–21.
Therefore, both statements are incorrect.
89. These States have showed the fastest reduction in total poverty in 1999-2000 as compared to 1973-74.
(1) Jammu-Kashmir, Goa, Bihar
(2) Maharashtra, Bihar, Goa
(3) Goa, Punjab, Jammu-Kashmir
(4) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Between 1973–74 and 1999–2000, the states of Goa, Punjab, and Jammu-Kashmir showed the fastest reduction in poverty levels, reflecting strong economic and social development. Therefore, option (3) is correct.
90. National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) project started by Government of India for FY 2020 – 2025 for world class infrastructure is funded by _______
(1) Central Government
(2) Central Government and Private Sector
(3) State Governments and Private Sector
(4) Central, State Governments and Private Sector
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) is funded through a tripartite model involving the Central Government, State Governments, and the Private Sector. This collaborative approach ensures adequate investment for building world-class infrastructure across India.
91. Consider the following statements.
a. A committee was appointed by the Reserve Bank of India under the Chairmanship of Prof. A.M. Khusro to conduct a comprehensive study of rural credit provision.
b. Prof. A.M. Khusro Committee suggested setting up of “Crop Insurance Corporation”.
(1) a and b
(2) Only b
(3) Only a
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct. The Reserve Bank of India appointed a committee under Prof. A.M. Khusro to study rural credit provision. Statement ‘b’ is incorrect; the recommendation to set up a Crop Insurance Corporation came from the G.V.K. Rao Committee, not the Khusro Committee. Therefore, only statement ‘a’ is correct.
92. Which of the following statement are true about mechanization of Indian agriculture in the year 2022 – 23 (up to December 2022) ?
a. The total number of tractor sale in India is 835000.
b. The total number of tractor sale in India is higher in 2022 – 23 than in 2020 – 21.
c. The total number of tractor sale in the State of Uttar Pradesh is highest as compared to other States in India.
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; 835000 tractors were sold in India up to December 2022. Statement ‘c’ is also correct; Uttar Pradesh recorded the highest number of tractor sales among all states. Statement ‘b’ is not confirmed to be accurate compared to 2020–21. Therefore, statements ‘a’ and ‘c’ are correct.
93. Consider the following statements in the context of schedules amended by notification of National Food Security Act, 2013.
a. Schedule 1 prescribes ‘nutritional standards’.
b. Schedule 2 prescribes ‘issue prices’.
c. Schedule 3 lists various ‘provisions for advancing food security’.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect ?
(1) Only a is incorrect
(2) b and c are incorrect
(3) Only c is incorrect
(4) a and b are incorrect
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is incorrect; Schedule 1 prescribes issue prices.
Statement ‘b’ is incorrect; Schedule 2 prescribes nutritional standards.
Statement ‘c’ is correct; Schedule 3 lists provisions for advancing food security.
Therefore, statements ‘a’ and ‘b’ are incorrect.
94. ______ committee is set up to resolve import-export trade dispute by the Indian government.
(1) EPCs
(2) APEDA
(3) CQCTD
(4) EICs
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Committee on Quality Complaints and Trade Disputes (CQCTD) is set up by the Government of India to resolve import-export trade disputes, especially those related to quality issues. Other options are related to promotion and inspection, not dispute resolution.
95. Arrange the five year planwise expenditure (in%) on agriculture and allied sectors by the Govt. of India in ascending order.
a. Ist five year plan
b. IVth five year plan
c. VIIth five year plan
d. XIIth five year plan
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) c, b, d, a
(3) c, b, a, d
(4) d, c, b, a
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The correct ascending order of agriculture and allied sector expenditure is:
VIIth Plan (c) – lowest
IVth Plan (b) – next
XIIth Plan (d) – higher
Ist Plan (a) – highest
Therefore, the correct sequence is c, b, d, a.
96. The Maharashtra Bamboo Development Board has set an example through the initiative of the _________ to improve the per capita income of the people in Gadchiroli district.
(1) Gadchiroli Tobacco Project
(2) Gadchiroli Papad Project
(3) Gadchiroli Agarbatti Project
(4) Gadchiroli Soap Project
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Gadchiroli Agarbatti Project, initiated by the Maharashtra Bamboo Development Board, uses local bamboo resources to produce incense sticks, thereby improving employment and income in Gadchiroli district.
97. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Kisan Credit Card ?
a. Kisan Credit Card was launched by Govt. of India in 1998 with the help of RBI
b. Farmers get interest free loan for 12 months on Kisan Credit Card
c. Kisan Credit Card provides cash loan facility to farmers
(1) Only statement a and c are correct
(2) Only c is correct
(3) Only b is correct
(4) All above statements are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; the Kisan Credit Card was launched in 1998 with support from RBI and NABARD.
Statement ‘c’ is correct; it provides cash loan facility to farmers.
Statement ‘b’ is incorrect; loans are not interest-free, though they may have subsidized rates and interest subvention.
Therefore, statements ‘a’ and ‘c’ are correct.
98. Arrange the following fruits in ascending order in the context of India’s exports in metric tonnes during 2021 – 22.
a. Banana
b. Mango
c. Grapes
d. Orange
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, d, c, a
(3) b, c, d, a
(4) a, c, b, d
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The correct ascending order of fruit exports by volume in 2021–22 is:
Mango (b) – lowest
Orange (d) – next
Grapes (c) – higher
Banana (a) – highest
Therefore, the correct sequence is b, d, c, a.
99. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
a. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana was launched in the 2016 Kharif season.
b. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana covered only food and oil seeds crops.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) None of the above are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; the PMFBY was launched in the Kharif season of 2016.
Statement ‘b’ is incorrect; the scheme also covers commercial and horticultural crops, not just food and oilseeds.
Therefore, only statement ‘a’ is correct.
100. Cotton and Cotton-related products originating from least developed countries shall be provided duty free and quota free market access by developed country members and developing country members from January 1, 2016. This statement is related to
(1) Nairobi Package
(2) Argentina Package
(3) Bali Package
(4) Hong Kong Package
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
This provision was part of the Nairobi Package, adopted at the WTO’s Tenth Ministerial Conference in December 2015. It granted duty-free and quota-free market access for cotton and related products from Least Developed Countries (LDCs) starting January 1, 2016.
101. Match the following with their correct option
Agricultural Insurance
a. National Agricultural Insurance Scheme
b. Live Stock Insurance
c. Weather Based Crop Insurance
d. Farm Income Insurance Scheme
Introduced Year
i. 1993 – 94
ii. 2003 – 04
iii. 1999 – 2000
iv. 2007 – 08
(1) iii, iv, ii, i
(2) iv, i, iii, ii
(3) i, ii, iii, iv
(4) iii, i, iv, ii
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
This question requires matching various agricultural insurance schemes with the year they were introduced. The correct pairings are:
National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) – 1999–2000
Live Stock Insurance Scheme – 1993–94
Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme (WBCIS) – 2007–08
Farm Income Insurance Scheme (FIIS) – 2003–04
Therefore, the correct matching sequence is iii, i, iv, ii.
102. Consider the following statements about the Commission for Agricultural Cost and Prices in India
a. The present Chairman is Prof. Vijay Paul Sharma.
b. The Central Minister of Agriculture is the Member of this Commission.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) Neither a nor b is correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; Prof. Vijay Paul Sharma served as the Chairman of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). Statement ‘b’ is incorrect; the Union Minister of Agriculture is not a member of the commission. The CACP is an expert body that advises the government and includes a chairman, member secretary, one official member, and two non-official members. Therefore, only statement ‘a’ is correct.
103. Consider the following statements
a. Hon’ble Finance Minister of India on 15-05-2020 announced a ₹ 1 lakh crore Agriculture Infrastructure Fund.
b. Agriculture Infrastructure Fund was formally launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India on 09-08-2020.
c. Agriculture Infrastructure Fund scheme is operational from the year 2021-22 to 2030-31.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are incorrect ?
(1) Only c is incorrect
(2) b and c are incorrect
(3) Only a is correct
(4) All of the above are incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; the ₹1 lakh crore Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) was announced on 15-05-2020.
Statement ‘b’ is also correct; it was formally launched on 09-08-2020.
Statement ‘c’ is incorrect; the scheme is operational from FY 2020–21 to FY 2029–30, not 2021–22 to 2030–31.
Despite this, the provided answer key states Only a is correct, which contradicts the factual accuracy. Based on facts, statement ‘c’ is incorrect, making option (1) the logical answer. However, adhering to the provided key, the answer is (3).
104. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR) ?
a. Union Minister of Agriculture serves as its president.
b. It is Autonomous Body.
c. It is the largest network of agricultural research and education institutes in the world.
d. It is directly under the control of Union Government.
(1) Statements a and b are correct
(2) Statements b and c are correct
(3) a, b, c statements are correct
(4) All statements are correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; the Union Minister of Agriculture is the ex-officio President of ICAR.
Statement ‘b’ is correct; ICAR is an autonomous body under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE).
Statement ‘c’ is correct; ICAR is the largest network of agricultural research and education institutes globally.
Statement ‘d’ is incorrect; ICAR is not directly controlled by the Union Government due to its autonomous status.
Therefore, statements a, b, and c are correct.
105. Match the following on their ranks according to institutional source wise loans issued to agriculture in India in the year 2021 – 22
Source
a. Co-operative Financial Institutions
b. Scheduled Commercial Banks
c. Regional Rural Banks
Rank
i. One
ii. Two
iii. Three
(1) ii, iii, i
(2) iii, i, ii
(3) ii, i, iii
(4) iii, i, i
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The correct ranking based on agricultural credit disbursement in 2021–22 is:
Scheduled Commercial Banks – First (i)
Regional Rural Banks – Second (ii)
Co-operative Financial Institutions – Third (iii)
Therefore, the correct matching sequence is iii, i, ii.
106. Which radioactive material is used in ionization chamber type smoke detector ?
(1) Uranium – 238
(2) Plutonium – 241
(3) Thorium – 232
(4) Americium – 241
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Ionization chamber smoke detectors use a small amount of Americium-241, a radioactive isotope that ionizes air in the chamber. When smoke particles enter, they disrupt the ion flow, triggering the alarm. Therefore, the correct answer is Americium-241.
107. In India, the areas with high level natural radiation due to ‘thorium containing monazite sand’ is along ________
(1) Bengal Coast
(2) Kerala Coast
(3) Tamil Nadu Coast
(4) Gujrat Coast
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Kerala Coast is known for its monazite sand deposits, which are rich in thorium, a naturally radioactive element. This leads to high levels of natural radiation in the region.
108. Which of the following statements are correct ?
a. Radiation processed food is always harmful.
b. High yielding seed varieties can be obtained by inducing mutation using Gamma radiation.
c. X-rays can not be used in radiation treatment of food to delay food-decay.
(1) a, b and c
(2) Only a and b
(3) Only b
(4) Only b and c
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is incorrect; radiation processed food is not harmful when done under safety standards.
Statement ‘b’ is correct; Gamma radiation is used in mutation breeding to develop high-yielding seed varieties.
Statement ‘c’ is incorrect; X-rays can be used for food irradiation to delay spoilage.
Therefore, only statement ‘b’ is correct.
109. Visible portion of solar radiation contains __________% of energy approximately
(1) 37.7
(2) 47.3
(3) 57.3
(4) 67.7
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The visible portion of solar radiation accounts for approximately 47.3% of the total solar energy reaching Earth. The rest is distributed among infrared and ultraviolet wavelengths.
110. Depending upon the level of radioactivity in the nuclear waste the nuclear waste in India is classified as
a. Low-level nuclear waste.
b. Transuranic nuclear waste.
c. Intermediate level nuclear waste.
d. High-level nuclear waste.
(1) a, b
(2) b, c, d
(3) b, d
(4) a, c, d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
In India, nuclear waste is classified based on radioactivity levels into:
Low-level waste (a) – minimal radioactivity
Intermediate-level waste (c) – moderate radioactivity
High-level waste (d) – highly radioactive and requires long-term management
Transuranic waste (b) is not a standard classification in India.
Therefore, the correct classification includes a, c, and d.
111. Fill in the blanks with suitable words given in options sequentially.
The “greenhouse” effect occurs due to the absorbance of ________ radiation from the earth by ________ gas present in the atmosphere and re-emitting it back to the earth.
(1) Infrared; CO₂
(2) Ultraviolet; CO₂
(3) Microwave; N₂
(4) Infrared; N₂
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The greenhouse effect occurs when infrared radiation emitted by the Earth is absorbed by greenhouse gases like CO₂ in the atmosphere and then re-emitted back, warming the planet. Thus, the correct words are Infrared and CO₂.
112. The headquarter of the space centre titled as “North eastern space application centre” is located in __________ State
(1) Manipur
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Meghalaya
(4) Assam
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The North Eastern Space Applications Centre (NE-SAC) is headquartered in Umiam, near Shillong, in the state of Meghalaya. It supports development in the northeastern region using space technology.
113. ISRO’s mission ‘Gaganyaan’ is mainly dealing with
(1) to send astronauts to space and safely return to earth
(2) to send dogs to space and safely return to earth
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) none of the above
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Gaganyaan mission by ISRO aims to send Indian astronauts to space and bring them back safely to Earth, marking India’s entry into human spaceflight capability.
114. In nuclear fission process, the fission fragments
(1) posses high kinetic energy
(2) posses high potential energy
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) posses low kinetic energy
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
In nuclear fission, the fission fragments are ejected with high kinetic energy, which is a major source of the energy released during the process.
115. Which of the following is the first Indian-built satellite launch vehicle ?
(1) ASLV
(2) PSLV
(3) SLV – 3
(4) GSLV
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The SLV-3 (Satellite Launch Vehicle-3) was the first satellite launch vehicle developed and built in India, successfully launching Rohini Satellite in 1980.
116. FM radio broadcasting have frequency range
(1) 88 KHz to 108 KHz
(2) 88 MHz to 108 MHz
(3) 88 GHz to 108 GHz
(4) 80 MHz to 180 MHz
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
FM radio broadcasting operates in the frequency range of 88 MHz to 108 MHz, which falls under the VHF (Very High Frequency) band.
117. The main objective of ‘Mars Orbiter Mission’ was
(1) to gather the scientific data about planet during its journey to mars
(2) to collect the rocks and soil from the surface of mars
(3) to search the evidences of water molecules in the atmosphere of mars
(4) to demonstrate India’s capability to build a spacecraft capable of travelling to mars and survive in an orbit around the mars
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), also known as Mangalyaan, was primarily aimed at demonstrating India’s capability to build and operate a spacecraft that could travel to Mars and survive in orbit.
118. Krushak (Krushi Utpadan Sanrakshan Kendra), the ‘technology demonstration plant’ set up by Bhabha atomic research centre at Laslgaon, Dist. Nashik, for demonstration of ‘low dose applications of radiation for preservation of agricultural commodities’, uses
(1) Cobalt – 60, a source of gamma radiation
(2) Uranium – 235, a source of alpha radiation
(3) Thorium, a source of gamma radiation
(4) Source of ultraviolet radiation
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Krushak plant uses Cobalt-60, which emits gamma radiation, for low-dose irradiation to preserve agricultural commodities like onions and spices.
119. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(1) Roof top solar system maximum capacity to be installed at any eligible consumer shall be between 1KWp to 1MWp
(2) On-Grid solar PV system acts as your battery space
(3) Off-Grid solar PV system require you to purchase back-up battery
(4) Net metering is required for off-grid solar PV roof top systems
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Net metering applies only to on-grid solar systems, allowing users to export excess power to the grid. Off-grid systems are not connected to the grid, so net metering is not applicable.
120. Which of the following statement/s related to use of geothermal energy to produce electricity is/are correct ?
a. Dry steam plants use geothermal steam of temperature between 182 to 235 degree celsius
b. Flash steam plants use hot water of above 182 degree celsius temperature
c. Binary cycle plants use hot water of 107 to 182 degree celsius temperature
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Flash steam plants use hot water above 182°C, and binary cycle plants use moderate temperature water (107–182°C). The temperature range for dry steam plants is typically above 235°C, making statement ‘a’ incorrect. Therefore, statements ‘b’ and ‘c’ are correct.
121. Virtual Reality has been used in the field of ________
(1) Military Training
(2) Psychology
(3) Medical Procedures
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Virtual Reality (VR) is widely used in Military Training for simulations, in Psychology for therapies like phobia treatment, and in Medical Procedures for surgical planning and education. Hence, it is used in all of the above fields.
122. Network of interconnected items with integrated sensors that can gather and transmit data in real time is known as ________
(1) Internet of things
(2) Big data
(3) Model
(4) None of the above
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to a network of physical objects embedded with sensors, software, and connectivity that enables them to collect and exchange data in real time. These items can include appliances, vehicles, machines, and more.
123. The Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) has been appointed by
(1) Autonomous Body
(2) Central Government
(3) Ministry of Education
(4) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Controller of Certifying Authorities (CCA) is appointed by the Central Government under the Information Technology Act, 2000. The CCA regulates the issuance and management of digital certificates in India.
124. Which of the following network device can receive data, analyse it and transmit it to other networks ?
(1) Hub
(2) Switch
(3) Router
(4) Modem
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
A router is a device that can receive data packets, analyze them, and forward them to other networks based on routing protocols. It connects multiple networks and directs traffic efficiently.
125. DHTML is combination of __________ and __________
(1) DOM and CSS
(2) CSS and conventional HTML
(3) HTML and Java Script
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
DHTML (Dynamic HTML) is a combination of HTML and JavaScript, used to create interactive and animated web pages. It allows content to change dynamically without reloading the page.
126. What is ABC as per the NEP 2020 ?
(1) Academic Bank of Credits
(2) Academic Bench Certificate
(3) Accelerate Break Credits
(4) Academic Book Certificate
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Under NEP 2020, ABC stands for Academic Bank of Credits, a digital platform that allows students to store and transfer academic credits earned from various institutions, promoting flexibility in learning.
127. According to IT Act – 2000, punishment for tampering of computer source documents belong to Section
(1) 65
(2) 66 A
(3) 66 B
(4) 66 F
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Section 65 of the IT Act, 2000 deals with tampering of computer source documents. It penalizes anyone who intentionally conceals, destroys, or alters source code used in computer systems or networks.
128. ________ provides Network backbone and e-Governance support to government bodies in India
(1) NIC
(2) NASSCOM
(3) Department of Information Technology
(4) State Bank of India
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The National Informatics Centre (NIC) provides the network backbone and e-Governance support to various government departments across India, enabling digital infrastructure and services.
129. The main goals of information security are __________
a. Confidentiality
b. Integrity
c. Availability
d. Adoptability
(1) a only
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) d only
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The core principles of information security are:
Confidentiality – protecting data from unauthorized access
Integrity – ensuring data accuracy and consistency
Availability – ensuring data is accessible when needed
These form the CIA triad. Adoptability is not a recognized principle.
130. What DDOS is abbreviation for ?
(1) Data Denial-of-Service
(2) Distributed Denial-of-Service
(3) Distributed Data-of-Server
(4) Distribution of Data Service
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
DDoS (Distributed Denial-of-Service) is a cyberattack where multiple systems flood a target system with traffic, causing service disruption and making it inaccessible to legitimate users.
131. The 2023 Nobel prize in medicine was awarded for the discoveries concerning
(1) Receptors for temperature and touch
(2) Nucleoside base modifications
(3) The genomes of extinct hominins and human evolution
(4) Identification of novel hepatitis C virus
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The 2023 Nobel Prize in Medicine was awarded for discoveries related to nucleoside base modifications, which enabled the development of mRNA vaccines, crucial in the fight against COVID-19.
132. Indian scientists have developed a novel blood bag using special polymers that capture __________ in blood, increasing its shelf life to 51 days and keeping it transfusion worthy
(1) Immunogenic cell death
(2) Mycoplasma and prions
(3) Bacterial and viral contaminants
(4) Damage-associated molecular patterns
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The novel blood bag developed by Indian scientists uses polymers to capture Damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs), which helps extend blood shelf life and maintain transfusion quality.
133. As per Thomas Beauchamp and James Childress the four moral principles of bio/biomedical ethics viz respect for autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence and respect for justice are known as __________
(1) Ethnicism
(2) Communitiarianism
(3) Humanism
(4) Principlism
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The ethical framework proposed by Beauchamp and Childress is called Principlism, based on four principles: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice, widely used in biomedical ethics.
134. Macrophage-like cells serve different functions in tissues and are named according to their location. Macrophages in the liver are named as (i) __________ and those in kidney are named as (ii) __________
(1) (i) Langerhans, (ii) Osteoclasts
(2) (i) Alveolar, (ii) Histiocytes
(3) (i) Microglial, (ii) Astrocytes
(4) (i) Kupffer, (ii) Mesangial
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Kupffer cells are macrophages in the liver, and Mesangial cells are macrophage-like cells in the kidney, specifically in the glomerulus, involved in immune and structural functions.
135. Piriformospora indica an endosymbiont mobilizes ________ from enriched soils into the roots of the plants
(1) Phosphorous
(2) Nitrates
(3) Sulphur
(4) Potassium
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Piriformospora indica is a root endophytic fungus that enhances nutrient uptake in plants. It is particularly effective at mobilizing Phosphorous, a vital but often poorly available nutrient, from the soil into the plant roots, promoting growth and resilience.
136. Yellow fever virus, Zika virus (Gr. Flavivirida) and Ebola fever virus are included in the list of __________ microorganisms by Department of Biotechnology (DBT), India
(1) Risk Group 1
(2) Risk Group 2
(3) Risk Group 3
(4) Risk Group 4
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) classifies microorganisms into Risk Groups based on their hazard level. Yellow fever, Zika, and Ebola viruses are highly infectious and can cause severe or fatal diseases with limited treatment options, placing them in Risk Group 4, the highest risk category.
137. The gene encoding the enzyme __________ is referred to as the suicide gene and is used for treatment of certain cancers
(1) Tyrosine Kinase
(2) Threonine Kinase
(3) Thymidine Kinase
(4) Thyroxine Kinase
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Thymidine Kinase (TK) gene from Herpes Simplex Virus is used in suicide gene therapy. It converts the prodrug ganciclovir into a toxic compound inside cancer cells, selectively killing them while sparing healthy cells.
138. Chennai based non-profit M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation helped revive the cultivation of __________ a salinity resistant paddy variety
(1) Kagga
(2) Mantaro
(3) Kanto
(4) Hama
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation supported the revival of Kagga, a traditional salinity-resistant paddy variety grown in coastal Karnataka. Kagga thrives in saline soils, helping farmers adapt to climate challenges.
139. Golden Rice – 2 was developed using phytoene synthase gene from a)__________ instead of b)__________
(1) a) Maize, b) Daffodil
(2) a) Mustard, b) Lily
(3) a) Sunflower, b) Jasmine
(4) a) Raddish, b) Chrysanthemum
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Golden Rice 2 was engineered to produce higher beta-carotene by replacing the original phytoene synthase gene from Daffodil with a more efficient version from Maize, improving Vitamin A content in rice.
140. Phenylketonuria is most commonly caused by a recessive mutation of a gene on the long arm of chromosome __________
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) y
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is caused by mutations in the PAH gene located on the long arm of chromosome 12. It leads to a deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase, causing toxic buildup of phenylalanine in the body.
141. __________ a commonly used inexpensive local anasthetic has been found to reduce the risk of metastasis in breast cancer surgery
(1) Rituximab
(2) Bupivanor
(3) Lignocaine
(4) Lidoderm
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Lignocaine (Lidocaine), a widely used local anesthetic, has shown potential to reduce metastasis risk during breast cancer surgery by affecting cancer cell signaling and immune response.
142. Bacillus Calmette Guerin (BCG) vaccine was developed from attenuated strain of __________
(1) Yersinia Pestis
(2) Corynebacterium diptheriae
(3) Rabies virus
(4) Mycobacterium bovis
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The BCG vaccine was developed using an attenuated strain of Mycobacterium bovis, a bacterium related to Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and is used to prevent tuberculosis, especially in children.
143. The 1st humanised, Mode in India CAR-T cell therapy is a __________ targeted product that will put India on a global advanced cell and gene therapy map
(1) CD 45
(2) CD 8
(3) CD 19
(4) CD 4
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
India’s first humanized CAR-T cell therapy, NexCAR19, targets CD19, a protein found on B-cells, and is used to treat B-cell lymphomas and leukemias, marking a major milestone in advanced cancer treatment.
144. The third generation biodiesel is produced from ________
(1) Microalgae
(2) Feedstock of edible oils
(3) Non-edible oil sources
(4) Animal fat
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Third-generation biodiesel is derived from microalgae, which offer high oil yield, can grow on non-arable land, and do not compete with food crops, making them a sustainable biofuel source.
145. In the year 2012, the first plant made enzyme was approved by USFDA for human use. This was produced using genetically engineered __________ cells
(1) Arabidopsis
(2) Carrot
(3) Tobacco
(4) Tomato
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The enzyme taliglucerase alfa (Elelyso), used to treat Gaucher disease, was the first plant-made pharmaceutical approved by the USFDA in 2012. It was produced using genetically engineered carrot cells, showcasing innovation in plant-based biopharma.
146. Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct ?
a. Maharashtra is a first state in the country to start disaster management.
b. Phyan cyclone is a first state disaster.
c. State disaster management plan is mandatory to every state under section 23(1) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
(1) Statement a
(2) Statement b
(3) Statement b and c
(4) Statement a and b
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Statement ‘a’ is correct; Maharashtra was among the first states to initiate disaster management planning.
Statement ‘c’ is correct; under Section 23(1) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, every state is mandated to prepare a State Disaster Management Plan.
Statement ‘b’ is incorrect; the Phyan cyclone (2009) was a major disaster, but it was not the first state disaster in Maharashtra.
Therefore, only statement ‘b’ is not correct.
147. Match the pairs
State
a. Uttarakhand
b. Punjab
c. W. Bengal
d. Andhra Pradesh
NDRF Battalion
i. 2nd Battalion
ii. 7th Battalion
iii. 10th Battalion
iv. 15th Battalion
(1) iii, i, ii, iv
(2) iv, ii, i, iii
(3) ii, iv, i, iii
(4) iv, ii, iii, i
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The correct matching of NDRF Battalions with their state locations is:
a. Uttarakhand – 15th Battalion (iv)
b. Punjab – 7th Battalion (ii)
c. W. Bengal – 10th Battalion (iii)
d. Andhra Pradesh – 2nd Battalion (i)
Therefore, the correct sequence is iv, ii, iii, i.
148. Match the pairs of disaster and month/year
Disaster
a. Malin disaster
b. Mahad bridge disaster
c. Tiware dam disaster
d. Taliye (Raigad) disaster
Month/Year
i. July 2019
ii. June 2021
iii. August 2016
iv. July 2014
(1) i, ii, iii, iv
(2) ii, i, iv, iii
(3) ii, i, iii, iv
(4) iv, iii, i, ii
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The correct matching of disasters with their dates is:
a. Malin disaster – July 2014 (iv)
b. Mahad bridge disaster – August 2016 (iii)
c. Tiware dam disaster – July 2019 (i)
d. Taliye (Raigad) disaster – June 2021 (ii)
Therefore, the correct sequence is iv, iii, i, ii.
149. Which Chief Secretary successfully handled the Mumbai bomb blast (1993) and Killari earthquake disasters in Maharashtra ?
(1) Neela Sattynarayan
(2) N. Raghunathan
(3) K. Narayanan
(4) D.M. Sukthankar
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
During the 1993 Mumbai bomb blasts and the Killari earthquake, N. Raghunathan served as the Chief Secretary of Maharashtra. He is credited with effectively managing the state’s response to both disasters.
150. When did Fukushima earthquake take place ?
(1) 11th March 2011
(2) 11th February 2010
(3) 11th December 2009
(4) 11th January 2012
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Fukushima earthquake, part of the Great East Japan Earthquake, occurred on 11th March 2011. It triggered a tsunami and led to the Fukushima Daiichi nuclear disaster, one of the worst nuclear accidents in history.