1. On November 21, 2024, the Assam Government officially renamed the Karimganj district as Sribhumi, along with its headquarters town Karimganj, which will now be called Sribhumi town. The new name was inspired by Rabindranath Tagore’s description of the area over a century ago as ‘Sribhumi’. As per Kabiguru Tagore’s description, the word ‘Sribhumi’ is referred to as
(A) the land of Maa Lakshmi
(B) the land of Maa Durga
(C) the land of Maa Kamakhya
(D) the land of Maa Saraswati
Answer: (A) the land of Maa Lakshmi
Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore described the Karimganj region as ‘Sribhumi,’ which translates to ‘the land of Maa Lakshmi,’ symbolizing prosperity and abundance.
2. The Assam Government’s decision to officially recognize ‘Bathouism’ in the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) primarily aims to
(A) promote religious conversion among indigenous communities
(B) preserve and acknowledge the traditional faith of the Bodo community
(C) encourage tourism in the Bodoland region
(D) integrate Bathouism practices into mainstream Hindu rituals
Answer: (B) preserve and acknowledge the traditional faith of the Bodo community
Explanation: The recognition of Bathouism by the Assam Government is a step to preserve and honor the traditional faith of the Bodo community, ensuring its cultural and religious practices are acknowledged and respected.
3. On February 24, 2025, Prime Minister Narendra Modi attended the largest Jhumur event in history, celebrating the 200th anniversary of Assam’s tea industry. Consider the following statements :
(i) The tea garden community migrated from Central India in the 19th century to work in the tea gardens of Assam.
(ii) Jhumur dance originates from the Sadan ethnolinguistic group of the Chota Nagpur region.
(iii) The songs sung during Jhumur performances often depict the struggles of tea plantation workers. They narrate stories of migration and exploitation, depicting the community’s socio-economic challenges.
(iv) Jhumur dance plays a vital role in tea garden festivals, particularly during Tushu Puja and Karam Puja, which celebrate the harvest time.
Which of the above statements is/ are not correct?
(A) (ii) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (iii) and (iv) only
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation:
All four statements are factually accurate. The tea garden community did migrate from Central India in the 19th century. Jhumur dance has roots in the Sadan ethnolinguistic group of Chota Nagpur, and its songs reflect the hardships of plantation workers. The dance is integral to harvest festivals like Tushu Puja and Karam Puja, making none of the statements incorrect.
4. Which of the following statements about Kaziranga National Park is incorrect?
(A) It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
(B) It is home to the highest population of one-horned rhinoceroses in the world.
(C) It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2003.
(D) It is situated on the banks of the Brahmaputra River and lies between the Brahmaputra River and the Karbi Hills.
Answer: (C) It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2003
Explanation:
Kaziranga National Park was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2007, not 2003. The other statements are correct: it is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, hosts the largest population of one-horned rhinoceroses, and is geographically located between the Brahmaputra River and the Karbi Hills.
5. In February 2025, a significant conservation milestone was achieved in Assam concerning the Greater Adjutant Stork. Which of the following best describes this achievement?
(A) The species was declared ‘extinct in the wild’
(B) The stork population increased from 450 to over 1800 birds
(C) A new sanctuary exclusively for the stork was established
(D) The species was removed from the endangered list
Answer: (B) The stork population increased from 450 to over 1800 birds
Explanation:
The Greater Adjutant Stork, once critically endangered, saw a remarkable population recovery in Assam, rising from 450 to over 1800 birds. This reflects successful community-based conservation efforts, especially in areas like Kamrup district, where locals actively protect nesting sites.
6. In early 2025, a rare marbled cat was spotted in which National Park of Assam?
(A) Dehing Patkai National Park
(B) Kaziranga National Park
(C) Manas National Park
(D) Nameri National Park
Answer: (A) Dehing Patkai National Park
Explanation:
The marbled cat, a rare and elusive species, was sighted in Dehing Patkai National Park, which is known for its dense rainforest habitat. This sighting highlights the park’s rich biodiversity and its role in preserving lesser-known carnivores.
7. In early 2025, concerns arose regarding declining pungency of the Bhut Jolokia chili in Assam. What was identified as the primary cause of it?
(A) Climate change affecting soil temperature
(B) Overuse of fertilizers altering soil quality
(C) Introduction of genetically modified variants
(D) Pests attacking the chili plants
Answer: (B) Overuse of fertilizers altering soil quality
Explanation:
The decline in pungency of Bhut Jolokia, one of the world’s hottest chilies, was attributed to excessive use of fertilizers, which altered soil composition and affected capsaicin levels. Maintaining traditional organic farming practices is crucial for preserving its distinct heat.
8. The Soliga tribe inhabits the Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve in Karnataka. Their relationship with the tiger population is very important to conservation efforts. Consider the following statements in connection with Soliga tribe :
(i) The name ‘Soliga’ means ‘children of bamboo’.
(ii) The Soligas worship tigers as sacred beings. They refer to the tiger as Dodda Nayi and maintain a temple dedicated to it.
(iii) The Soligas were the first tribal community to have their forest rights recognized within a tiger reserve.
(iv) The Soliga tribe is confined to the State of Karnataka alone.
Which of the above statements is/ are not correct?
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iv) only
(D) (iii) only
Answer: (C) (iv) only
Explanation:
The Soliga tribe is not confined to Karnataka alone; they are also found in parts of Tamil Nadu. The other statements are correct: they are known as ‘children of bamboo’, worship tigers, and were the first tribal group to have forest rights recognized within a tiger reserve.
9. India plans to issue Sovereign Green Bonds to raise money for green infrastructure projects. Consider the following statements about India’s Sovereign Green Bonds :
Statement 1 : The funds raised will be used to finance public projects that lower the economy’s carbon intensity.
Statement 2 : India issued its first Sovereign Green Bond in 2023.
Statement 3 : Green Bonds are part of India’s strategy to achieve net zero emission by 2070.
Statement 4 : Only private investors can subscribe to Green Bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct: Sovereign Green Bonds aim to fund low-carbon public projects, were first issued in 2023, and align with India’s net zero goal by 2070. Statement 4 is incorrect—both institutional and retail investors can subscribe to these bonds.
10. The National One Health Mission is a recently launched initiative in India aimed at strengthening the country’s response to diseases and promoting a holistic approach to public health. Consider the following statements about India’s One Health Mission :
Statement 1 : The One Health Mission integrates human, animal and environmental health under a single framework.
Statement 2 : The initiative is funded entirely by the Government of India without any international collaboration.
Statement 3 : The Mission aims to track zoonotic diseases like Nipah and avian influenza.
Statement 4 : India is the first country in Asia to adopt a One Health approach.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: the One Health Mission integrates human, animal, and environmental health, and focuses on tracking zoonotic diseases like Nipah and avian influenza. Statement 2 is incorrect as the mission involves international collaboration, and statement 4 is not factually accurate—India is not the first in Asia to adopt this approach.
11. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Eat Right Station’ certification:
Statement 1: It is an initiative by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
Statement 2: As of February 2025, 150 railway stations and 6 metro stations have received the certification.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation: The ‘Eat Right Station’ certification is an initiative by FSSAI to promote safe and healthy food practices at railway stations. However, the number of certified stations mentioned in Statement 2 is incorrect.
11. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Eat Right Station’ certification :
Statement 1 : It is an initiative by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
Statement 2 : As of February 2025, 150 railway stations and 6 metro stations have received the certification.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Eat Right Station certification is an initiative of FSSAI, aimed at promoting safe and healthy food practices at public transport hubs. By February 2025, 150 railway stations and 6 metro stations had received this certification, reflecting growing awareness and implementation of food safety standards.
12. The ‘Viksit Bharat 2047’ initiative is the Government of India’s visionary road map to transform the nation into a developed country by 2047, making the centenary of its independence. Consider the following four key objectives of the initiative :
Objective 1 : Elevate India to become the world’s third largest economy within the next five years, aiming for a $100 trillion economy by 2047
Objective 2 : Empower youth, women, the underprivileged and farmers, recognizing them as pivotal contributors to national development
Objective 3 : Implement strategies to address climate change and promote sustainable practices
Objective 4 : Enhance administrative efficiency and transparency to ensure effective public service delivery
Which of the above key objectives is/ are not correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation:
Objective 1 is not correct because the $100 trillion target is unrealistic given current economic projections. The other objectives—empowering key groups, addressing climate change, and improving governance—are valid and central to the Viksit Bharat 2047 vision.
13. Which of the following statements describes tariff in the context of international trade?
(A) It is a tax on imports into a country.
(B) It is a tax imposed by a country on goods crossing its border.
(C) It is a quantitative restriction on traded goods.
(D) It is a reciprocal tax.
Answer: (B) It is a tax imposed by a country on goods crossing its border
Explanation:
A tariff is a tax levied on goods as they cross national borders, typically on imports. It serves as a tool for revenue generation, trade regulation, and protection of domestic industries. The definition includes both import and export duties, though imports are more common.
14. What is meant by ‘repo rate’ of the RBI?
(A) It is the rate of interest at which commercial banks offer loans
(B) It is the percentage of total deposits of commercial banks that is kept in cash
(C) It is the rate of interest at which commercial banks borrow money from the RBI for short-term needs
(D) It is the rate at which commercial banks lend to each other
Answer: (C) It is the rate of interest at which commercial banks borrow money from the RBI for short-term needs
Explanation:
The repo rate is the benchmark interest rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks for short-term liquidity. It is a key tool in monetary policy, influencing inflation, credit availability, and economic growth.
15. Consider the following statements about Kumbh Mela of India :
(i) It is the oldest recorded religious festival of the world.
(ii) The earliest reference to Prayaga and bathing pilgrimage is found in the Rigveda Parishishta (supplement to the Rigveda).
(iii) The frequency of one Purna Kumbh Mela every 12 years coincides with one revolution of Jupiter around the Sun (approx.).
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation:
Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct: the Rigveda Parishishta mentions Prayaga and ritual bathing, and the 12-year cycle of Purna Kumbh Mela aligns with Jupiter’s revolution. Statement (i) is exaggerated, as other ancient festivals also claim early origins.
16. Which of the following ocean currents is/are warm current(s) in the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans?
(i) Benguela Current
(ii) Kuroshio Current
(iii) Norwegian Current
(iv) Peru Current
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iv) only
(D) (i) and (iv) only
Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation:
The Kuroshio Current (Pacific) and Norwegian Current (Atlantic) are warm currents, transporting heat poleward. In contrast, the Benguela and Peru Currents are cold currents, flowing from polar regions toward the equator.
17. Which of the following pairs concerning canal irrigation of India is/are not correct?
(i) Agra Canal-Yamuna River
(ii) Upper Bari Doab Canal- Jhelum River
(iii) Sirhind Canal-Ravi River
(iv) Bikaner Canal-Satluj River
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation:
The Upper Bari Doab Canal is linked to the Ravi River, not Jhelum, and the Sirhind Canal also draws water from Satluj, not Ravi. These mismatches make statements (ii) and (iii) incorrect.
18. Which of the following sequences or statements concerning tributaries of the Brahmaputra in Assam is/are not correct?
(i) The North bank tributaries (from West to East) : Sankosh, Manas, Puthimari, Pagladiya
(ii) The South bank tributaries (from East to West) : Buri Dihing, Bhogdoi, Dhansiri, Kopili
(iii) The North bank tributaries (from East to West) : Jiadhal, Subansiri, Ranganadi, Jia Bharali
(iv) The River Barnadi forms a natural boundary between Darrang and Kamrup districts.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Answer: (A) (i) only
Explanation:
Statement (i) is incorrect because the sequence from West to East should be Sankosh, Manas, Aie, Beki, etc., not Puthimari and Pagladiya. The other sequences and facts are accurate.
19. Which of the following statements concerning Tinsukia district of Assam is/are correct?
(i) It is the Easternmost district of Assam having surrounded by Arunachal Pradesh from three sides.
(ii) It is an industrial district well-known for coal, oil and tea production.
(iii) The Dhola-Sadiya Bridge, which is well-known as Bhupen Hazarika Setu, is constructed on the River Lohit located in this district.
(iv) The Maguri Motapung Beel is located in this district.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) All the statements are correct
Answer: (D) All the statements are correct
Explanation:
Tinsukia is indeed the easternmost district, bordered by Arunachal Pradesh, and is known for coal, oil, and tea. The Bhupen Hazarika Setu spans the Lohit River, and Maguri Motapung Beel, a biodiversity hotspot, is also located here.
20. Rising intensities of floods and damages in Assam are said to have prime explanation(s) :
(i) The water flow has become sudden and high, induced by natural and anthropogenic factors as well
(ii) People have established settlements in low-lying areas
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Only (i) is right
(B) Only (ii) is right
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are true, and inclusive to explain the causes of rising intensity
(D) Both (i) and (ii) are true, but inclusive statements to explain intensity of floods, at present state of technology and development
Answer: (C) Both (i) and (ii) are true, and inclusive to explain the causes of rising intensity
Explanation:
Flood intensity in Assam is rising due to sudden and high water flow, caused by climate change, deforestation, and unregulated development. Additionally, settlements in flood-prone low-lying areas increase vulnerability. Both factors are interlinked, making the situation more severe and complex.
21. The impact of cyclones and tsunamis in India could be reduced by
(i) preserving mangrove forests
(ii) preserving montane forests
(iii) preserving tropical thorny and scrub forests
(iv) preserving tropical deciduous forests
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) All are correct
Answer: (A) (i) only
Explanation:
Mangrove forests act as natural barriers against cyclones and tsunamis, absorbing wave energy and reducing coastal erosion. Other forest types like montane or deciduous forests do not offer the same coastal protection, making mangroves uniquely effective in disaster mitigation.
22. Authors Arup Kumar Dutta, Arupjyoti Saikia and Samrat Choudhury have common theme(s) in their writing :
(i) They are acclaimed writers on the Brahmaputra
(ii) They have written on Assam’s social history
(iii) They have written on tea and tea plantation history
(iv) They have written on Assam’s geography
Which of the above is/are correct?
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) All are correct
Answer: (A) (i) only
Explanation:
All three authors—Arup Kumar Dutta, Arupjyoti Saikia, and Samrat Choudhury—are known for their writings on the Brahmaputra River, exploring its cultural, ecological, and historical significance. While they may touch on other themes, their shared acclaim centers on the Brahmaputra.
23. In India during 2001 to 2011, the number of census towns showed rapid growth (increased by a total of 2500 in number) compared to statutory towns (increased by about 250 in number). The rapid growth of census towns was because of
(i) formation of municipal board/ committee and notified town area committee, etc.
(ii) rapid growth of population leading to cross the minimum requirement of 5000 inhabitants to qualify as a town
(iii) the town area becoming densely populated with more than 400 persons per square kilometre
(iv) three-fourths of the male workforce found full-time jobs beyond agriculture activities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (iv) only
Answer: (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Explanation:
Census towns are defined by population exceeding 5000, density over 400 persons/km², and non-agricultural employment for over 75% of male workers. These criteria led to the rapid rise in census towns, while statutory towns require formal municipal governance, which was not the driver here.
24. Rangsapara village, Goalpara district and Zion village, Dima Hasao district of Assam occupied the limelight in the last decade because
(i) the villages were evaluated as the cleanest villages of the State
(ii) Rangsapara was evaluated as the cleanest, whereas all 25+ age group population of Zion had attained education level graduate and above
(iii) Rangsapara village faced catastrophe caused by flash flood and Zion was devastated by landslides
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Only (iii) is correct
(D) All are correct
Answer: (A) Only (i) is correct
Explanation:
Rangsapara village gained recognition as Assam’s cleanest village, reflecting community-led sanitation efforts. The other claims—educational attainment in Zion and natural disasters—are not officially documented, making only statement (i) correct.
25. Consider the following statements about oil in Assam :
(i) Assam is home to India’s first oil refinery, established at Digboi in 1901.
(ii) The major oil-producing districts in Assam include Jorhat, Dibrugarh, but not Tinsukia.
(iii) The Assam oil fields contribute over 50% of India’s total crude oil production.
(iv) Oil India Limited (OIL) has its headquarters in Duliajan, Assam.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (i) and (iv) only
(C) (i) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Answer: (B) (i) and (iv) only
Explanation:
Digboi Refinery, established in 1901, is India’s first oil refinery, and Oil India Limited is headquartered in Duliajan, Assam. However, Tinsukia is a major oil-producing district, and Assam contributes less than 50% of India’s crude oil, making statements (ii) and (iii) incorrect.
26. Based on the 2011 Census data, here is a list of major towns in Assam arranged in descending order of their urban population. Select the correct sequence.
(A) Tinsukia, Tezpur, Jorhat, Dibrugarh
(B) Dibrugarh, Tezpur, Jorhat, Tinsukia
(C) Dibrugarh, Tinsukia, Jorhat, Tezpur
(D) Dibrugarh, Jorhat, Tinsukia, Tezpur
Answer: (D) Dibrugarh, Jorhat, Tinsukia, Tezpur
Explanation:
According to the 2011 Census, Dibrugarh had the highest urban population among the listed towns, followed by Jorhat, Tinsukia, and Tezpur. This sequence reflects the urban growth and demographic concentration in Upper Assam’s economic hubs.
27. Match the following deserts (List-I) with their respective continents (List-II):
List-I
a. Kalahari Desert
b. Atacama Desert
c. Gobi Desert
d. Great Basin Desert
List-II
- North America
- Asia
- South America
- Africa
(A) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
(B) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(C) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(D) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
Answer: (B) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Explanation:
- Kalahari Desert is in Africa
- Atacama Desert is in South America
- Gobi Desert is in Asia
- Great Basin Desert is in North America
This matching reflects the geographical distribution of major deserts across continents.
28. Match the following grasslands (List-I) with their respective locations (List-II):
List-I
a. Pampas
b. Steppes
c. Prairies
d. Velds
List-II
- North America
- Eurasia
- Argentina
- South Africa
(A) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
(B) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(C) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
(D) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
Answer: (A) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
Explanation:
- Pampas are in Argentina
- Steppes are in Eurasia
- Prairies are in North America
- Velds are in South Africa
These grasslands are distinct ecological zones known for agriculture and grazing.
29. Which of the following statements about Paralympic Games is not correct?
(A) The medals tally of India was the highest so far in any Paralympic event with a total of 29 medals in Paris, 2024.
(B) India made first appearance in the Paralympic event in the year 1968.
(C) The first Paralympic event was held in the year 1968.
(D) The Paralympic motto is ‘Spirit in Motion’.
Answer: (C) The first Paralympic event was held in the year 1968
Explanation:
The first Paralympic Games were held in 1960 in Rome, not 1968. India’s first participation was in 1968, and the motto ‘Spirit in Motion’ reflects the resilience and determination of para-athletes.
30. What is the recent India-US ‘TRUST’ initiative related to?
(A) It is a bilateral initiative for mutual cooperation in recovery and processing of critical minerals
(B) It is a bilateral initiative to ease certain import-export regulations between the two countries
(C) It refers to a bilateral initiative for transfer of technology for boosting the power sector
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) It is a bilateral initiative for mutual cooperation in recovery and processing of critical minerals
Explanation:
The India-US ‘TRUST’ initiative focuses on critical minerals cooperation, aiming to secure supply chains, enhance processing capabilities, and reduce dependency on third-party nations. It reflects a strategic partnership in the clean energy and tech sectors.
31. Who among the following is not a Bharat Ratna awardee of the year 2024?
(A) L. K. Advani
(B) M. S. Swaminathan
(C) Padma Subrahmanyam
(D) Karpoori Thakur
Answer: (C) Padma Subrahmanyam
Explanation:
In 2024, the Bharat Ratna was awarded to L. K. Advani, M. S. Swaminathan, and Karpoori Thakur for their contributions to politics, agriculture, and social justice respectively. Padma Subrahmanyam, though a renowned classical dancer, was not among the awardees that year.
32. In which of the following areas, the first pig schools of India are to be started to enhance technical know-how and biosecurity about pig farming in partnership with Denmark?
(A) Bodoland Territorial Region
(B) Dima Hasao district of Assam
(C) Dhemaji district of Assam
(D) Panikhaiti near Guwahati
Answer: (A) Bodoland Territorial Region
Explanation:
The first pig schools in India are being established in the Bodoland Territorial Region in collaboration with Denmark, aiming to improve technical expertise, biosecurity, and sustainable pig farming practices in the region.
33. Match the following Prime Ministers (List-I) with the biographies/autobiographies on them (List-II):
List-I
a. Narasimha Rao
b. I. K. Gujral
c. Manmohan Singh
d. Narendra Modi
List-II
- The Accidental Prime Minister
- Matters of Discretion
- The Man Who Remade India
- The Paradoxical Prime Minister
Answer: (D) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
Explanation:
- Narasimha Rao – The Man Who Remade India
- I. K. Gujral – Matters of Discretion
- Manmohan Singh – The Accidental Prime Minister
- Narendra Modi – The Paradoxical Prime Minister
These books provide insight into the leadership styles and legacies of India’s Prime Ministers.
34. Consider the following statements on Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:
(i) It introduces new crimes like organized crime.
(ii) It introduces community service as a punishment.
(iii) It introduces new provisions to eliminate offence on sedition.
(iv) It includes mob lynching as an offence.
Answer: (D) All the statements are correct
Explanation:
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 is a comprehensive legal reform that includes organized crime, community service, removal of sedition, and mob lynching as part of its modernized criminal justice framework.
35. The demarcation of any region as Defence Industrial Corridor (DIC) is to achieve self-reliance in defence manufacturing. Two DICs exist in India and the third one has been negotiated by a State with the Central Government in recent years. Choose the correct combination of the States/Union Territories on the basis of the above statements.
(A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Assam
(C) Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir
(D) Assam, Jammu & Kashmir, Gujarat
Answer: (B) Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Assam
Explanation:
India has two existing Defence Industrial Corridors in Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Assam has recently negotiated for a third corridor, aiming to boost defence production and strategic capabilities in the northeast.
36. The 100th Constitutional Amendment of India enabled the implementation of a controversial international agreement. Which of the following is referred to here?
(A) Land Boundary Agreement
(B) Foreign Direct Investment in Defence
(C) Trade Liberalization Agreement
(D) Indo-US Nuclear Deal
Answer: (A) Land Boundary Agreement
Explanation:
The 100th Constitutional Amendment facilitated the Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh, allowing for the exchange of enclaves and resolving a long-standing border issue.
37. The Supreme Court of India has placed the Right to Privacy under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 21
Answer: (D) Article 21
Explanation:
In a landmark judgment, the Supreme Court declared the Right to Privacy as a fundamental right under Article 21, which guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
38. Consider the following statements:
(i) The first Assam Assembly was inaugurated on 7th April, 1937.
(ii) After the 1937 provincial elections in Assam, the Indian National Congress Party secured the most mandate.
(iii) The Legislative Council of Eastern Bengal and Assam was initiated in 1905.
(iv) Baithalangso, Haflong, Bokajan, Howraghat and Diphu Assembly Constituencies fall under the Autonomous District Lok Sabha Constituency.
Answer: (D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation:
All statements are historically accurate. The Assam Assembly began in 1937, Congress won the elections, the Legislative Council was formed in 1905, and the listed constituencies are part of the Autonomous District Lok Sabha seat.
39. Which of the following are constituted by the President of India?
(i) The Finance Commission of India
(ii) The NITI Aayog
(iii) The Commission on Official Languages
(iv) The Union Public Service Commission
Answer: (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
Explanation:
The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission, Commission on Official Languages, and the Union Public Service Commission. The NITI Aayog is a government think tank, formed by executive resolution, not by the President.
40. Which of the following is/are common feature(s) of both the Indian and American Federalism?
(i) Single citizenship
(ii) Three lists of division of powers in the Constitution
(iii) Dual Judiciary
(iv) The Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution
Answer: (D) (iv) only
Explanation:
Only (iv) is common: both systems have a Supreme Court that interprets the Constitution. India has single citizenship and three lists, while the US has dual citizenship and no such division of powers in lists. The judiciary structure also differs.
41. Which of the following comes under the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(A) The State shall strive to promote science and technology for development
(B) The State shall endeavour to secure citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout India
(C) The State shall try to develop population policy and family planning
(D) The State shall take necessary steps for promoting tourism
Answer: (B) The State shall endeavour to secure citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout India
Explanation:
The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is explicitly mentioned under Article 44 of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution. It aims to ensure uniformity in personal laws across all communities, promoting national integration and equality.
42. In which of the following States, there is a constitutional requirement to have a minister in charge of the tribal welfare?
(A) Assam, Nagaland and Manipur
(B) Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Rajasthan
(C) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
(D) Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya
Answer: (C) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha
Explanation:
As per Article 164(1) of the Constitution, there must be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare in Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha, due to their significant tribal populations and constitutional provisions for tribal development.
43. Which of the following States was the last one to get the status of full statehood?
(A) Sikkim
(B) Manipur
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Meghalaya
Answer: (C) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation:
Arunachal Pradesh attained full statehood in 1987, making it the last among the listed states to do so. Others—Sikkim (1975), Meghalaya (1972), and Manipur (1972)—became states earlier.
44. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, a special provision is made for the State of Assam?
(A) Article 371A
(B) Article 371C
(C) Article 371B
(D) Article 371D
Answer: (C) Article 371B
Explanation:
Article 371B provides for the creation of a committee of the Legislative Assembly of Assam to ensure proper representation of tribal areas, especially the autonomous districts within the state.
45. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court of India the power to review its own judgements and orders?
(A) Article 78
(B) Article 234
(C) Article 145
(D) Article 137
Answer: (D) Article 137
Explanation:
Article 137 empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments or orders, ensuring judicial accountability and allowing for correction of errors in exceptional cases.
46. Match the following Chief Ministers of Assam (List-I) with their corresponding periods of service (List-II):
a. Bishnuram Medhi
b. Mahendra Mohan Choudhury
c. Bimala Prasad Chaliha
d. Gopinath Bordoloi
- 28th Dec, 1957 – 6th Nov, 1970
- 26th Jan, 1950 – 5th Aug, 1950
- 9th Aug, 1950 – 27th Dec, 1957
- 11th Nov, 1970 – 30th Jan, 1972
Answer: (B) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Explanation:
- Bishnuram Medhi: 9th Aug, 1950 – 27th Dec, 1957
- Mahendra Mohan Choudhury: 11th Nov, 1970 – 30th Jan, 1972
- Bimala Prasad Chaliha: 28th Dec, 1957 – 6th Nov, 1970
- Gopinath Bordoloi: 26th Jan, 1950 – 5th Aug, 1950
These match the chronological leadership periods of Assam’s early Chief Ministers.
47. Which of the following best explains why courts appoint an amicus curiae in criminal matters?
(A) To ensure that the prosecution has adequate resources to argue its case
(B) To expedite the trial process for efficiency
(C) To provide representation to the accused when they are unrepresented
(D) To act as a mediator between the accused and the victim
Answer: (C) To provide representation to the accused when they are unrepresented
Explanation:
An amicus curiae (friend of the court) is appointed to assist the court by offering legal insight, especially when the accused lacks representation. This ensures fair trial standards and justice delivery.
48. The concept of ‘Rule of Law’ has several elements, some of which are as follows:
(i) Absence of arbitrary power
(ii) Equality before law
(iii) Primacy of the rights of the individual
(iv) Cannot be destroyed by an amendment
Which of the above are applicable to the Indian system?
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
Explanation:
In India, Rule of Law ensures no arbitrary power, equality before law, and is considered part of the basic structure, hence cannot be destroyed by amendment. However, primacy of individual rights is not absolute, making statement (iii) less applicable.
49. W. W. Rostow’s model of economic development proposes that all countries progress through five stages. What is the correct sequence of the five stages?
(A) Traditional society, Pre-conditions for takeoff, Take-off, Age of high mass consumption, Drive to maturity
(B) Traditional society, Take-off, Pre-conditions for take-off, Drive to maturity, Age of high mass consumption
(C) Traditional society, Pre-conditions for takeoff, Take-off, Drive to maturity, Age of high mass consumption
(D) Traditional society, Pre-conditions for takeoff, Age of high mass consumption, Drive to maturity, Take-off
Answer: (C) Traditional society, Pre-conditions for takeoff, Take-off, Drive to maturity, Age of high mass consumption
Explanation:
Rostow’s model outlines a linear progression of economic development:
- Traditional society
- Pre-conditions for takeoff
- Take-off
- Drive to maturity
- Age of high mass consumption
This reflects the evolution from agrarian economies to consumer-driven societies.
50. Biofuels offer a viable alternative towards environmentally friendly energy landscape. Which of the following statements regarding use of biofuels to meet energy demands are correct?
(i) Aggressive use and production of first-generation biofuels may threaten food security.
(ii) Production of first-generation biofuels is not environment-friendly.
(iii) A concern regarding biofuels is that extensive cultivation of plants for extracting biofuels may increase deforestation and habitat destruction.
(iv) Biofuel production will lead to large amount of toxic metallic waste which may adversely affect human health.
Answer: (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Explanation:
First-generation biofuels, derived from food crops, can threaten food security, are not entirely eco-friendly, and may cause deforestation due to land-use changes. However, they do not produce toxic metallic waste, making statement (iv) incorrect.
51. List-I gives the names of satellites launched by ISRO and List-II gives the names of the types of satellites. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
a. RISAT-2BR2
b. Megha-Tropiques
c. AstroSat
d. Aditya-L1
List-II
- Meteorological
- Earth observation
- Solar coronal observation
- Study high-energy processes in binary star system
Answer: (A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
Explanation:
- RISAT-2BR2 is an Earth observation satellite used for radar imaging.
- Megha-Tropiques is a meteorological satellite focused on tropical climate studies.
- AstroSat studies high-energy astrophysical phenomena, especially in binary star systems.
- Aditya-L1 is India’s first mission to study the solar corona, making it a solar observation satellite.
52. Nanomaterials are usually considered to be materials with at least one external dimension that measures 100 nanometres or less. Consider the following statements regarding nanomaterials :
(i) They are toxic and carcinogenic.
(ii) Graphene is a well-known nanomaterial.
(iii) Nanoscale titanium dioxide can be used in sunscreen lotion.
(iv) Paints made from nano gold do not fade with time.
Answer: (D) All the statements are correct
Explanation:
- Graphene is a famous nanomaterial known for its strength and conductivity.
- Nano titanium dioxide is used in sunscreens for UV protection.
- Nano gold in paints offers durability and resistance to fading.
- Some nanomaterials can be toxic or carcinogenic, depending on exposure and composition.
53. Consider the following statements :
(i) Initially, ITER was called Indian Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor.
(ii) ITER is a nuclear fusion research and engineering megaproject.
(iii) ITER is a nuclear fission research and engineering megaproject.
(iv) ITER means ‘the way’ or ‘the path’ in Latin.
Answer: (D) (ii) and (iv) only
Explanation:
- ITER stands for International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor, not Indian.
- It is a nuclear fusion project, not fission.
- The word “ITER” in Latin means ‘the way’, symbolizing a path to clean energy.
54. Consider the following statements :
(i) Particular messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules, which are smaller than their average size, are called microRNA (miRNA).
(ii) miRNA are small, single-stranded, non-coding RNA molecules.
(iii) miRNA molecules play a crucial role in gene regulation.
(iv) People knew about miRNA since the early 1980s.
Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation:
- miRNA are non-coding RNA molecules that regulate gene expression.
- They are not derived from mRNA, making statement (i) incorrect.
- They were discovered in the 1990s, not the 1980s, making statement (iv) incorrect.
55. Consider the following statements :
(i) Indian scientist Satyendra Nath Bose developed the foundation of a quantum statistics called Bose-Einstein statistics.
(ii) A class of elementary sub-atomic particles called boson was named after Satyendra Nath Bose by P. A. M. Dirac.
(iii) Einstein used Satyendra Nath Bose’s radical ideas to develop the theory of a phenomenon called Bose-Einstein condensate.
(iv) Satyendra Nath Bose was awarded India’s second highest civilian award, the Padma Vibhushan.
Answer: (A) All the statements are correct
Explanation:
- Satyendra Nath Bose laid the foundation for Bose-Einstein statistics.
- Bosons were named after him by Dirac.
- Einstein collaborated with Bose to develop the Bose-Einstein condensate theory.
- He was honored with the Padma Vibhushan, India’s second-highest civilian award.
56. Consider the following statements :
(i) Dark oxygen was discovered in 2013 by Andrew Sweetman while conducting ship-based fieldwork in the Pacific Ocean.
(ii) Dark oxygen was discovered in 2013 by Andrew Sweetman while conducting research on dusty plasma in cometary tails.
(iii) Dark oxygen refers to molecular oxygen that is produced in the total darkness of the very deep ocean.
(iv) Dark oxygen refers to the medical oxygen cylinders, which are sold in the black market.
Answer: (D) (i) and (iii) only
Explanation:
- Dark oxygen refers to molecular oxygen produced in deep ocean environments without sunlight.
- It was discovered by Andrew Sweetman during marine fieldwork, not cometary research.
- It has no connection to black market oxygen cylinders, making (iv) incorrect.
57. If an object undergoes a uniform circular motion, then its
(A) acceleration remains uniform
(B) velocity changes
(C) speed changes
(D) velocity remains uniform
Answer: (B) velocity changes
Explanation:
In uniform circular motion, the speed remains constant, but the direction of motion changes continuously, causing a change in velocity. Hence, velocity is not uniform, even though speed is.
58. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to
(A) surface tension
(B) viscosity
(C) density
(D) vapour pressure
Answer: (A) surface tension
Explanation:
Surface tension causes a liquid drop to minimize its surface area, forming a spherical shape. It arises due to cohesive forces among liquid molecules at the surface.
59. Match the following books (List-I) with the names of the authors (List-II) :
List-I
a. India Against Itself : Assam and the Politics of Nationality
b. Burden of History : Assam and the Partition-Unresolved Issues
c. Writing on the Wall : Reflections on the North-East
d. Confronting the State : ULFA’s Quest for Sovereignty
List-II
- Udayon Misra
- Sanjib Baruah
- Nani Gopal Mahanta
- Sanjoy Hazarika
Answer: (A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
Explanation:
- India Against Itself – Sanjib Baruah
- Burden of History – Udayon Misra
- Writing on the Wall – Sanjoy Hazarika
- Confronting the State – Nani Gopal Mahanta
These works explore Assam’s political, historical, and insurgency narratives.
60. Which of the following statements are true about Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)?
(i) SDGs, also known as the Global Goals, were adopted by the United Nations in 2015.
(ii) It was a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet and ensure that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity.
(iii) The 17 SDGs are integrated—they recognize that action in one area will affect outcomes in others and development must balance social, economic and environmental sustainability.
(iv) The SDGs are designed to end poverty, hunger, AIDS and discrimination against women and girls.
Answer: (C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation:
All statements are accurate. The SDGs, adopted in 2015, aim to end poverty, protect the planet, and promote inclusive development. They are interconnected, addressing health, equality, environment, and prosperity.
61. Match the following authors (List-I) with the books (List-II):
List-I
a. Amartya Sen
b. Abhijit Banerjee and Esther Duflo
c. Jeffrey D. Sachs
d. Thomas Friedman
List-II
- The End of Poverty: Economic Possibilities for Our Time
- The World is Flat
- Poor Economics
- Development as Freedom
Answer: a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
Explanation:
Amartya Sen wrote Development as Freedom, focusing on human capabilities. Banerjee and Duflo co-authored Poor Economics, a study on poverty interventions. Sachs authored The End of Poverty, and Friedman wrote The World is Flat, analyzing globalization.
62. Which of the following is not published by the UNDP?
(A) The Human Development Index
(B) The Global Hunger Index
(C) The Gender Inequality Index
(D) The Global Multi-dimensional Poverty Index
Answer: (B) The Global Hunger Index
Explanation:
The Global Hunger Index is published by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe. UNDP publishes the Human Development Index, Gender Inequality Index, and Multidimensional Poverty Index.
63. Match the following schemes (List-I) with their provisions (List-II):
List-I
a. Orunodoi Scheme
b. Assam Arogya Nidhi Scheme
c. Swahid Kushal Konwar Sarbajanin Briddha Pension Achoni
d. Kanaklata Mahila Sabalikaran Yojana
List-II
- Pension scheme for senior citizens
- Livelihood support for women through SHGs
- Monthly DBT to poor households
- Financial aid for serious medical conditions
Answer: a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Explanation:
Orunodoi provides monthly DBT. Arogya Nidhi supports medical expenses. Swahid Kushal Konwar scheme offers pensions to elderly. Kanaklata Yojana promotes women’s empowerment via SHGs.
64. Which of the following statements regarding post-development theory are true?
(i) Arturo Escobar is one of the leading post-development scholars
(ii) Post-development is an argument for alternatives to development
(iii) Developing countries should make decisions based on their own discourses
(iv) There is no universal mode of development
Answer: (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
Explanation:
Post-development theory critiques Western models and promotes locally rooted alternatives. Arturo Escobar is a key figure. It emphasizes autonomy and rejects one-size-fits-all development paths.
65. The criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are
(i) Pre-agricultural level of technology
(ii) Low literacy
(iii) Economic backwardness
(iv) Declining or stagnant population
Answer: (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
Explanation:
PVTGs are identified by primitive technology, low literacy, economic marginalization, and demographic vulnerability. These criteria guide targeted welfare policies.
66. The Social Development Index (SDI) considers
(i) Demographic parameters
(ii) Health and education
(iii) Basic amenities and economic deprivation
(iv) Social deprivation
Answer: (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
Explanation:
SDI is a composite index measuring multiple dimensions of social progress including health, education, amenities, and exclusion.
67. Which of the following is a graphical representation used to calculate the Gini coefficient?
(A) Pareto chart
(B) Lorenz curve
(C) Income-consumption curve
(D) Kuznets curve
Answer: (B) Lorenz curve
Explanation:
The Lorenz curve shows cumulative income distribution. The Gini coefficient is derived from the area between the Lorenz curve and the line of equality.
68. Which of the following is not a fiscal instrument?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Goods and Services Tax (GST)
(C) Income Tax
(D) Subsidy
Answer: (A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
Explanation:
CRR is a monetary tool used by RBI. Fiscal instruments include taxes and subsidies, which influence government revenue and expenditure.
69. Who conducts the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI)?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Department of Economic Affairs
(C) Labour Bureau
(D) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Answer: (D) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
Explanation:
MoSPI conducts ASI to gather data on industrial performance, employment, and investment trends across India.
70. An increase in the tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?
(i) Larger fiscal ability
(ii) Equitable distribution of income
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer: (A) (i) only
Explanation:
An increase in the tax to GDP ratio reflects a country’s enhanced fiscal capacity, meaning it can mobilize more resources for public spending. However, it does not necessarily indicate income equality, so only statement (i) is correct.
71. Arrange the following accidents/ episodes in ascending (yearwise) order :
(i) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
(ii) Chernobyl Disaster
(iii) Fukushima Daiichi Disaster
(iv) Oil Spill in the Gulf of Mexico
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (i)-(ii)-(iv)-(iii)
(B) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)
(C) (iv)-(i)-(iii)-(ii)
(D) (ii)-(iii)-(i)-(iv)
Answer: (A) (i)-(ii)-(iv)-(iii)
Explanation:
The correct chronological order is:
- Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984)
- Chernobyl Disaster (1986)
- Gulf of Mexico Oil Spill (2010)
- Fukushima Daiichi Disaster (2011)
This sequence reflects the ascending timeline of major industrial and environmental disasters.
72. Consider the following National Parks of Assam and arrange them in ascending order with respect to the year of declaration as National Park :
(i) Raimona National Park
(ii) Manas National Park
(iii) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park
(iv) Nameri National Park
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)
(B) (ii)-(iv)-(iii)-(i)
(C) (iii)-(i)-(iv)-(ii)
(D) (ii)-(i)-(iv)-(iii)
Answer: (B) (ii)-(iv)-(iii)-(i)
Explanation:
The correct chronological order is: Manas (1990), Nameri (1998), Dibru-Saikhowa (1999), and Raimona (2021). This sequence reflects the progressive expansion of protected areas in Assam over time.
73. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
a. Mulch
b. Niche
c. Beta diversity
d. Upwelling
List-II
- Variation in species composition across different habitats
- Movement of nutrient-rich bottom water to ocean’s surface
- A protective cover on the ground, may be of dried leaves
- The functional role and position of a species in an ecosystem
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
(B) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
(C) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
(D) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
Answer: (B) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
Explanation:
- Mulch is a protective ground cover like dried leaves.
- Niche refers to a species’ functional role in an ecosystem.
- Beta diversity measures species variation across habitats.
- Upwelling is the rise of nutrient-rich water to the ocean surface.
74. According to the Assam State Action Plan on Climate Change (2015–2020), which of the following temperature and rainfall changes has occurred in Assam during the period 1951–2010?
(A) Annual mean temperature and annual rainfall have both increased
(B) Annual mean temperature and annual rainfall have both decreased
(C) Annual mean temperature has increased, while annual rainfall has decreased
(D) No noticeable changes in temperature and rainfall trends
Answer: (C) Annual mean temperature has increased, while annual rainfall has decreased
Explanation:
Assam has experienced a rise in average temperature and a decline in annual rainfall, indicating climate variability and the need for adaptive environmental planning.
75. Bioremediation using fungi is known as
(A) mycoremediation
(B) phycoremediation
(C) phytoremediation
(D) entomoremediation
Answer: (A) mycoremediation
Explanation:
Mycoremediation uses fungi to break down or absorb pollutants in soil and water. It is a natural and sustainable method of environmental cleanup.
76. The global warming potential of a gas is decided on the basis of
(A) the amount of total long-wave radiation a greenhouse gas can trap
(B) the amount of total long-wave radiation a greenhouse gas can trap in comparison to CO₂ over a period of 100 years
(C) the amount of total long-wave radiation a greenhouse gas can trap in comparison to CH₄ over a period of 100 years
(D) the amount of total long-wave radiation a gas can trap over a period of 1 year
Answer: (B) the amount of total long-wave radiation a greenhouse gas can trap in comparison to CO₂ over a period of 100 years
Explanation:
Global Warming Potential (GWP) compares a gas’s heat-trapping ability to CO₂ over 100 years, helping assess its impact on climate change.
77. Which of the following soil horizons is present in the soil of forests but absent in the cultivated fields?
(A) O horizon
(B) A horizon
(C) B horizon
(D) C horizon
Answer: (A) O horizon
Explanation:
The O horizon is rich in organic matter like leaf litter, found in forest soils. It is often absent in cultivated fields due to ploughing and land disturbance.
78. The ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’ are related to
(i) Ganga Action Plan
(ii) inter-linking of Indian rivers
(iii) protection of Western Ghats
(iv) planning of ecozones of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (iv) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (iii) only
(D) (ii) only
Answer: (C) (iii) only
Explanation:
Both reports focus on the conservation of the Western Ghats, recommending ecologically sensitive zones and sustainable development strategies.
79. Which organization/department is the custodian of foreign exchange reserves in India?
(A) The Exim Bank
(B) The RBI
(C) The Directorate General of Foreign Trade
(D) The NITI Aayog
Answer: (B) The RBI
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) manages India’s foreign exchange reserves, ensuring monetary stability and supporting international trade.
80. As per the NITI Aayog’s multidimensional poverty index (as per the latest statistics for 2022–23), the percentage of population in Assam classified as poor is
(A) 36.97%
(B) 26.37%
(C) 14.47%
(D) 13.73%
Answer: (C) 14.47%
Explanation:
According to NITI Aayog’s 2022–23 report, 14.47% of Assam’s population is multidimensionally poor, based on indicators like health, education, and living standards.
81. What are the main objectives of the ‘Assam Millets Mission’?
(i) Raise nutrition quotient
(ii) Increase farmer’s income
(iii) Contribute to crop diversification
(iv) Employment generation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (i) and (iii) only
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation:
The Assam Millets Mission aims to improve nutrition, boost farmer income, and encourage crop diversification. While it may indirectly support employment, it is not a stated core objective.
82. Which of the following is not a dimension of Social Progress Index?
(A) Basic human need
(B) Foundation of well-being
(C) Opportunity
(D) Per capita income
Answer: (D) Per capita income
Explanation:
The Social Progress Index focuses on non-economic dimensions like basic needs, well-being, and opportunity. Per capita income is an economic indicator, and is not included in the index.
83. In which year were the Assam Plantations Labour Rules established?
(A) 1951
(B) 1971
(C) 1953
(D) 1956
Answer: (D) 1956
Explanation:
The Assam Plantations Labour Rules were framed in 1956 to regulate working conditions, wages, and welfare of plantation workers under the Plantations Labour Act.
84. Which one of the following is the purpose of ‘UDAY’?
(A) Providing technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy
(B) Providing electricity to every household in the country
(C) Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time
(D) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies
Answer: (D) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies
Explanation:
UDAY (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana) was launched to restructure debt, improve operational efficiency, and ensure the financial revival of DISCOMs, India’s power distribution companies.
85. Economists Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson and James A. Robinson won the Nobel Prize in 2024 in Economics. They were honoured for their work on
(A) environment
(B) banks and financial crises
(C) institution
(D) labour market
Answer: (C) institution
Explanation:
These economists were recognized for their research on how institutions shape economic development, emphasizing the role of inclusive governance and property rights in long-term growth.
86. Who among the following won the ‘Golden Bat’ in the ICC Champions Trophy, 2025?
(A) Rachin Ravindra
(B) Shreyas Iyer
(C) J. E. Root
(D) B. M. Duckett
Answer: (A) Rachin Ravindra
Explanation:
Rachin Ravindra earned the Golden Bat as the highest run-scorer in the ICC Champions Trophy 2025, showcasing consistency and match-winning performances.
87. What is the time period of 16th Finance Commission of India which is chaired by Dr. Arvind Panagariya?
(A) 1st April, 2025 to 31st March, 2030
(B) 1st April, 2026 to 31st March, 2031
(C) 1st January, 2025 to 31st December, 2030
(D) 1st January, 2026 to 31st December, 2031
Answer: (B) 1st April, 2026 to 31st March, 2031
Explanation:
The 16th Finance Commission, chaired by Dr. Arvind Panagariya, will cover the period from April 2026 to March 2031, guiding fiscal devolution and financial relations between the Centre and States.
88. Which of the following is/are active Indian Research Station(s) in Antarctica continent?
(i) Dakshin Gangotri
(ii) Maitri
(iii) Bharati
(iv) Tushar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (C) (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation:
Maitri and Bharati are India’s active research stations in Antarctica. Dakshin Gangotri is now a logistics base, and Tushar is not an official station.
89. Jyoti Prasad Agarwala said in a speech in 1931, “Assamese youths would follow Bhagat Singh”. Where did he say this?
(A) Na-Duar
(B) Chariduar
(C) Chaiduar
(D) Tezpur
Answer: (A) Na-Duar
Explanation:
In 1931, Jyoti Prasad Agarwala delivered a speech at Na-Duar, invoking Bhagat Singh’s revolutionary spirit to inspire Assamese youth toward freedom and activism.
90. Who delivered the welcome address in the Hindu Mahasabha Conference, which was held in 1926?
(A) Tarun Ram Phukan
(B) Gopinath Bordoloi
(C) Chandra Nath Sarmah
(D) Pitambar Deva Goswami
Answer: (D) Pitambar Deva Goswami
Explanation:
Pitambar Deva Goswami, a prominent religious and social reformer, delivered the welcome address at the 1926 Hindu Mahasabha Conference, reflecting his role in cultural leadership.
91. Asom Sangrakshini Sabha was founded by
(A) Chandra Nath Sarmah
(B) Gopinath Bordoloi
(C) Kuladhar Chaliha
(D) Ambikagiri Raichoudhury
Answer: (D) Ambikagiri Raichoudhury
Explanation:
Ambikagiri Raichoudhury, a prominent freedom fighter and poet, founded the Asom Sangrakshini Sabha to promote Assamese identity and cultural preservation during the colonial period.
92. Maitri Ashram, later renamed as Kasturba Ashram, was established at Sarania Hills, Guwahati by
(A) Amal Prabha Das
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(C) Pushpalata Das
(D) Chandraprabha Saikiani
Answer: (A) Amal Prabha Das
Explanation:
Amal Prabha Das, a noted social worker and Gandhian, established the Maitri Ashram at Sarania Hills, which was later renamed Kasturba Ashram, to promote social reform and women’s empowerment.
93. Who among the following martyrs died in police firing at Dhekiajuli police station on 20th September, 1942, who stood at the front, heading the ‘Death Squad’?
(A) Manbar Nath
(B) Tileswari Barua
(C) Ratan Kachari
(D) Mangal Kurku
Answer: (A) Manbar Nath
Explanation:
Manbar Nath led the ‘Death Squad’ during the Quit India Movement and was martyred in police firing at Dhekiajuli on 20th September 1942, symbolizing youthful courage and sacrifice.
94. Assertion (A): Purnananda Burhagohain created a standing army.
Reason (R): The king was plotting to kill the Burhagohain.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
Explanation:
Purnananda Burhagohain did create a standing army, but it was primarily to strengthen the Ahom kingdom’s military. While tensions with the king existed, they were not the direct cause of the army’s formation.
95. Which of the following statements regarding Ahom-Mughal conflict during 1616–1639 is/are false?
(i) Ahom king came to be regarded as the Raja of Assam.
(ii) The defeat of the Mughals had been dramatically described in the Baharistan-i-Ghaibi.
(iii) A Barphukan was appointed with headquarters at Kajali.
(iv) The main grounds for the conflict were in boundary disputes and commercial relations.
Answer: (D) All the statements are true
Explanation:
All statements are historically accurate. The Ahom-Mughal conflict led to the recognition of the Ahom king, was documented in Baharistan-i-Ghaibi, involved administrative restructuring, and stemmed from territorial and trade disputes.
96. Which of the following statements regarding first Assamese film Joymoti is/are false?
(i) The film was produced by Chitralekha Movietone.
(ii) The film was based on a drama by Padmanath Gohain Baruah.
(iii) The artists were drawn from respectable families.
(iv) The film was the first Indian film to delve into ‘realism’.
Answer: (C) (ii) only
Explanation:
The film Joymoti, directed by Jyoti Prasad Agarwala, was not based on a drama by Padmanath Gohain Baruah. It was an original screenplay. The other statements are correct, especially its pioneering use of realism.
97. Match the following Buranjis (List-I) with the period they deal with (List-II):
List-I
a. Satsari Assam Buranji
b. Kali Bharat Buranji
c. Tungkhungia Buranji
d. Weissali Buranji
List-II
- Kamaleswar Singha to Purandar Singha
- 1679–1858
- 1681–1810
- Burmese invasion of Assam
Answer: a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
Explanation:
- Satsari Assam Buranji covers Kamaleswar Singha to Purandar Singha
- Kali Bharat Buranji spans 1679–1858
- Tungkhungia Buranji documents 1681–1810
- Weissali Buranji narrates the Burmese invasion of Assam
98. Match the following personalities (List-I) with the associations/organizations they were engaged with during 1920s (List-II):
List-I
a. Rohinikanta Hati Baruah
b. Krishna Nath Sarmah
c. Tarun Ram Phukan
d. Ambikagiri Raichoudhury
List-II
- Assam Branch of All India Spinners’ Association
- APCC (General Secretary)
- Assam Branch of Swarajya Party
- Assam Jatiya Mahasabha
Answer: a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
Explanation:
- Rohinikanta Hati Baruah was linked to the Spinners’ Association
- Krishna Nath Sarmah served as General Secretary of APCC
- Tarun Ram Phukan led the Swarajya Party in Assam
- Ambikagiri Raichoudhury was a key figure in the Assam Jatiya Mahasabha
99. Which of the following statements regarding Buddhism in Assam are true?
(i) Buddhism existed in Assam before the visit of Hiuen Tsang.
(ii) Dhitika became responsible for the spread of Buddhism in Assam.
(iii) Asvabhava preached Mahayana cult in Assam.
(iv) According to a tradition, the older shrine at Hajo was a great Chaitya.
Answer: (A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation:
All statements are correct. Buddhism had early roots in Assam, with Dhitika and Asvabhava playing key roles. The Hajo shrine is traditionally regarded as a Chaitya, reflecting Buddhist heritage.
100. Arrange the following works chronologically according to their year of publication:
(i) Grammatical Notices of the Assamese Language
(ii) A Grammar of the Assamese Language
(iii) A Dictionary in Assamese and English
Answer: (D) (ii)-(i)-(iii)
Explanation:
The chronological order is:
- A Grammar of the Assamese Language
- Grammatical Notices of the Assamese Language
- A Dictionary in Assamese and English
This sequence reflects the evolution of linguistic scholarship in Assamese.