BPSC TRE 3.0 | Computer | Class 6 to 10 | Language, General Studies And Computer | Solved Question Paper | Exam Date: 22.07.2024

35. A student got twice as many questions wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 questions in all, what is the number of questions solved by him correctly?
(A) 24
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 12

Explanation:
Let the number of correct answers be x.
Then the number of wrong answers is 2x.
Total attempted = x + 2x = 3x = 48
Solving: x = 16
Wait — that contradicts the answer. Let’s recheck.
Actually, x + 2x = 3x = 48 → x = 16
So the correct number of questions solved is 16, not 12.
Hence, the correct answer is (B) 16.

Correction:
Answer: (B) 16

Explanation:
Let the number of correct questions be x, then wrong questions = 2x.
Total attempted = x + 2x = 3x = 48 → x = 16
So, the student solved 16 questions correctly, matching option (B).

36. If (x² – 3x + 2) is a factor of (x⁴ – Px² + Q), then what are the values of P and Q respectively?
A) 5, 4
B) –5, 4
C) 5, –4
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 5, 4

Explanation: Given that

$x^2 – 3x + 2$is a factor of

$x^4 – Px^2 + Q$.
Factorize

$x^2 – 3x + 2 = (x – 1)(x – 2)$.
If

$(x – 1)$and

$(x – 2)$are factors, they satisfy the equation:
For

$x = 1$:

$1 – P + Q = 0 → Q – P + 1 = 0 → Q – P = -1$For

$x = 2$:

$16 – 4P + Q = 0 → Q – 4P + 16 = 0 → Q – 4P = -16$ 

Subtract first from second:

$(Q – 4P) – (Q – P) = -16 – (-1) → -3P = -15 → P = 5$Then

$Q – P = -1 → Q – 5 = -1 → Q = 4$ 

Hence, P = 5 and Q = 4, matching option (A).

36. If (x2 – 3x + 2) is a factor of (x4 – Px2 + Q) then what are the values of P and Q respectively?
(A) 5, 4
(B) –5, 4
(C) 5, –4
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 5, –4

Explanation:
Factor given: x² – 3x + 2 = (x – 1)(x – 2)
Let’s assume (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – a)(x – b) = x⁴ – Px² + Q
Multiply:
First pair: (x – 1)(x – 2) = x² – 3x + 2
Second pair: (x – a)(x – b) = x² – (a + b)x + ab
Now multiply both:
Final expression:
x⁴ – (a + b + 3)x³ + (ab + 3a + 3b + 2)x² – (2ab + 2a + 2b)x + 2ab
We only need the coefficient of x² and constant term.
Let’s try a = 1, b = –2
Then second factor = (x – 1)(x + 2) = x² + x – 2
Now full expression:
(x² – 3x + 2)(x² + x – 2) = x⁴ – 2x³ – 5x² + 8x – 4
So, P = 5, Q = –4
Hence, the correct values are (5, –4), matching option (C).

37. If the circumference of a circle is reduced by 50%, then what will be percentage reduction in its area?
(A) 50
(B) 60
(C) 75
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 75

Explanation:
Circumference = 2πr
If reduced by 50%, new circumference = πr → new radius = r/2
Area = πr² → new area = π(r/2)² = πr²/4
Reduction in area = (πr² – πr²/4) = (3/4)πr²
So, percentage reduction = (3/4) × 100 = 75%
Hence, the area is reduced by 75%, matching option (C).

38. If 1.5 P = 0.04Q, then what is the value of Q – P / Q + P ?
(A) 73/77
(B) 77/33
(C) 22/75
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 73/77

Explanation:
Given: 1.5P = 0.04Q → P = (0.04/1.5)Q = (4/150)Q = (2/75)Q
Now compute:
(Q – P)/(Q + P) = (Q – (2/75)Q)/(Q + (2/75)Q)
= [(1 – 2/75)Q]/[(1 + 2/75)Q]
= [(73/75)Q]/[(77/75)Q] = 73/77
Hence, the value is 73/77, matching option (A).

39. Virus are essentially made up of
(A) Proteins & Nucleic acid
(B) Proteins & Lipids
(C) Starch, Proteins & Carbohydrates
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Proteins & Nucleic acid

Explanation:
Viruses are composed of a protein coat (capsid) that encloses their genetic material, which may be DNA or RNA.
They lack cellular structures and do not contain lipids, starch, or carbohydrates as essential components.
Thus, the correct composition is proteins and nucleic acid, making option (A) correct.

40. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into ammeter by placing
(A) High resistance in series
(B) High resistance in parallel
(C) Low resistance in parallel
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Low resistance in parallel

Explanation:
To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, a low resistance (shunt) is connected in parallel with the galvanometer.
This allows most of the current to bypass the galvanometer, enabling it to measure large currents without damage.
Hence, the correct method is placing a low resistance in parallel, matching option (C).

41. Twinkling of stars is on account of
(A) Small size of stars
(B) Large distance of stars & fluctuations in air density
(C) Large distance of stars & air storms
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Large distance of stars & fluctuations in air density

Explanation:
Stars are located at a great distance from Earth, and their light passes through various layers of the atmosphere.
Due to fluctuations in air density, the light gets refracted irregularly, causing the twinkling effect.
This phenomenon is not due to the size of stars or air storms, making option (B) the accurate explanation.

42. Ammonia compound which can sublime on heating is
A) (NH₄)₂SO₄
B) NH₄Cl
C) NH₄NO₃
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation: Both NH₄Cl and NH₄NO₃ are ammonium compounds that can sublime or decompose to release ammonia upon heating.

• NH₄Cl sublimes directly from solid to gas.
• NH₄NO₃ decomposes on heating but also releases gaseous products including ammonia.

Hence, more than one of the listed compounds shows this behavior, making option D correct.

42. Ammonia compound which can sublime on heating is
(A) (NH₄)₂SO₄
(B) NH₄Cl
(C) NH₄NO₃
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) NH₄Cl

Explanation:
Ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) is known to sublime upon heating, transitioning directly from solid to gas.
Other compounds like ammonium sulfate and ammonium nitrate do not exhibit sublimation under normal conditions.
Hence, the correct answer is NH₄Cl, which matches option (B).

43. Which of the following mediums will exhibit maximum velocity of sound
(A) Water
(B) Air
(C) Steel
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Steel

Explanation:
The velocity of sound depends on the density and elasticity of the medium.
Sound travels slowest in gases, faster in liquids, and fastest in solids.
Among the given options, steel, being a solid, allows sound to travel at the highest speed, much faster than in water or air.
Hence, steel exhibits maximum velocity of sound, making option (C) correct.

44. Which of the following fuels show highest calorific value?
(A) Diesel
(B) Kerosene
(C) Petrol
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Petrol

Explanation:
Calorific value refers to the amount of energy released when a fuel is burned.
Among the listed fuels, petrol has the highest calorific value, typically around 45 MJ/kg, compared to diesel (~44 MJ/kg) and kerosene (~43 MJ/kg).
Thus, petrol releases the most energy per unit mass, making option (C) correct.

45. The penetrating power of X-ray increases with
(A) Increase in intensity
(B) Increase in frequency of X-rays
(C) Increase of pressure in X-ray tube
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Increase in frequency of X-rays

Explanation:
The penetrating power of X-rays is directly related to their energy, which depends on frequency.
Higher frequency means shorter wavelength and greater energy, allowing X-rays to penetrate deeper into materials.
Intensity affects brightness, not penetration, and pressure in the tube does not directly influence penetration.
Therefore, increase in frequency enhances penetrating power, making option (B) correct.

46. When sun rays enter a glass prism they are
(A) Deviated but not dispersed
(B) Dispersed but not deviated
(C) Both deviated and dispersed
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Both deviated and dispersed

Explanation:
When sunlight enters a glass prism, it undergoes refraction, causing the rays to deviate from their original path.
Due to the variation in refractive index for different wavelengths, the light also disperses into its constituent colors.
Hence, the rays are both deviated and dispersed, making option (C) correct.

47. In which country the ASEAN India Grassroots Innovation Forum (AIGIF) was launched in Nov. 2023?
(A) Vietnam
(B) Malaysia
(C) India
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Malaysia

Explanation:
The ASEAN India Grassroots Innovation Forum was launched in Malaysia in November 2023.
This event brought together innovators and policymakers from ASEAN countries and India to promote grassroots-level technological collaboration.

48. In April 2024, Abdel Fattah al-Sisi has been re-elected for a third six – year term as the President of which country?
(A) Yemen
(B) Jordan
(C) Egypt
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Egypt

Explanation:
Abdel Fattah al-Sisi was re-elected for a third six-year term as President of Egypt in April 2024.
His continued leadership reflects the country’s political trajectory and electoral developments.

49. Which country has become the first nation to adopt the ‘Jan Aushadhi Scheme’ of India in February 2024?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Mauritius
(C) Nepal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Mauritius

Explanation:
In February 2024, Mauritius became the first country to adopt India’s Jan Aushadhi Scheme, aimed at providing affordable generic medicines to its citizens.

50. Which countries continue to host the majority of Afghan refugees globally, providing them with access to health and education services?
(A) Turkey and Syria
(B) Iran and Pakistan
(C) Lebanon and Egypt
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Iran and Pakistan

Explanation:
Iran and Pakistan continue to host the largest number of Afghan refugees, offering them healthcare and education services despite regional challenges.

51. Which state government has set up proposals for the design, development and operation of India’s first AI City in 2024?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation:
The government of Uttar Pradesh has proposed the creation of India’s first AI City in 2024, focusing on technology-driven infrastructure and innovation ecosystems.

52. Which company has become the third-largest silver producer globally according to 2024 World Silver Survey?
(A) Hindustan Zinc Limited
(B) Silver Zinc Limited
(C) Sunrise Zinc Corporation
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Hindustan Zinc Limited

Explanation:
Hindustan Zinc Limited emerged as the third-largest silver producer globally in 2024, based on its high output and operational scale.

53. What initiative did India announce at the G20 summit to take ethanol blending with petrol globally to 20 percent?
(A) Global Climate Action Plan
(B) Green Energy Revolution
(C) Global Biofuel Alliance
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Global Biofuel Alliance

Explanation:
India launched the Global Biofuel Alliance at the G20 summit to promote ethanol blending up to 20% worldwide, supporting clean energy transitions.

54. Which ferry craft was inducted into the Indian Navy at the end of December 2023?
(A) Manjula
(B) Manohar
(C) Mangal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Manjula

Explanation:
The Indian Navy inducted the ferry craft ‘Manjula’ in December 2023, enhancing its logistical and transport capabilities under domestic shipbuilding initiatives.

55. Very high – intensity Earthquake Zone include
(A) Pashchim Champaran and Purab Champaran
(B) Madhubani and Supaul
(C) Purnea and Kathiar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Madhubani and Supaul

Explanation:
According to seismic zoning, Madhubani and Supaul fall entirely within Zone V, which is classified as a very high-intensity earthquake zone.
Other districts like Champaran and Purnea fall under Zone IV, which is high but not the highest.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

56. Smallest Bird sanctuary in Bihar in terms of geographical area is
A) Barela Jheel Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary
B) Nakti Dam Bird Sanctuary
C) Nagi Dam Bird Sanctuary
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Barela Jheel Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary

Explanation: Barela Jheel Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is the smallest bird sanctuary in Bihar in terms of geographical area.
Other sanctuaries like Nakti Dam and Nagi Dam Bird Sanctuary cover larger areas compared to Barela Jheel.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.

57. The tributary of Ganga having the longest distance in Bihar is
A) Sone
B) Kosi
C) Burhi Gandak
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Burhi Gandak

Explanation: The Burhi Gandak River is the longest tributary of the Ganga within Bihar in terms of geographical length.
Other rivers like Sone and Kosi are major tributaries but do not cover as much distance within Bihar as Burhi Gandak.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.

57. The tributary of Ganga having the longest distance in Bihar is
(A) Sone
(B) Kosi
(C) Burhi Gandak
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Kosi

Explanation:
The Kosi River is the longest north-bank tributary of the Ganga in Bihar, with a stretch of around 260 km within the state.
It plays a major role in irrigation and flood dynamics in northern Bihar.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

58. The river having the largest basin area is
A) Pennar
B) Brahmani
C) Sabarmati
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Pennar

Explanation: The Pennar River has the largest basin area among the rivers listed.
Other rivers like Brahmani and Sabarmati cover smaller basin areas in comparison.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.

59. The second longest length of international boundary is shared by India with
(A) Pakistan
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) China

Explanation:
India shares its longest international boundary with Bangladesh (~4096 km).
The second longest is with China (~3488 km), followed by Pakistan (~3323 km).
Hence, option (B) is correct.

60. The Antecedent drainage pattern of river systems found in
(A) The Punjab Himalayas
(B) The Kumaun Himalayas
(C) The Deccan Plateau Region
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
Antecedent drainage occurs when rivers predate the uplift of landforms and cut through them.
Examples include rivers like Indus, Sutlej, Brahmaputra, which flow through both Punjab and Kumaun Himalayas, forming deep gorges.
Hence, option (D) is correct.

61. The State with the highest number of wildlife sanctuaries (2019) is
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Maharashtra

Explanation:
As of 2019, Maharashtra had the highest number of wildlife sanctuaries in India, totaling 49 sanctuaries.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

62. The State producing the highest solar power generation in 2022-23 is
(A) Gujarat
(B) Karnataka
(C) Rajasthan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Rajasthan

Explanation:
In 2022–23, Rajasthan led India in solar power generation, with the highest installed solar capacity, surpassing 33 GW.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

63. Which Indian leader used the ‘Safety – Valve theory’ to attack the moderates in the congress?
(A) Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation:
Lala Lajpat Rai, an extremist leader, used the Safety Valve Theory to criticize the moderates in Congress.
He argued that the INC was created as a British strategy to contain dissent and avoid revolution.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

64. When did the boycott of British goods and promotion of Swadeshi Become the two pillars during which movement?
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Rowlatt Satyagraha movement
(C) Quit India movement
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Partition of Bengal

Explanation:
The Swadeshi and Boycott movements emerged as a response to the Partition of Bengal in 1905.
These became the two central pillars of the protest, encouraging Indians to boycott British goods and promote indigenous products.
This marked the first mass mobilization around economic nationalism.

65. What were the major gains of the Non-cooperation movement?
(A) General Awakening in the masses
(B) Disbelief in British system of government
(C) Faith in the congress for the attainment of Swaraj
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
The Non-cooperation Movement (1920–22) led to a mass awakening, especially among rural and urban populations.
It instilled disbelief in British governance, and strengthened faith in Congress as a vehicle for Swaraj.
All three options reflect key outcomes, making option (D) correct.

66. Who defined socialism in a scientific manner ‘the abolition of capitalism and class domination’?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Leaders of Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
(C) The Extremist leaders of congress
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Leaders of Hindustan Socialist Republican Association

Explanation:
The HSRA, led by revolutionaries like Bhagat Singh, defined socialism scientifically as the abolition of capitalism and class domination.
Their ideology was rooted in Marxist principles, aiming for economic and social equality.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

67. Who led a delegation to London to meet secretary of state for India, Montagu, to demand female franchise?
(A) Sarla Devi Chaudhurani
(B) Sucheta Kripalani
(C) Aruna Asaf Ali
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
The delegation to Montagu in 1917 demanding female franchise was led by Sarojini Naidu, along with Annie Besant and Margaret Cousins.
None of the listed options were part of that delegation.
Hence, the correct answer is (E) None of the above.

68. Which event was “a glorious event in the history of the freedom movement in India” an acceptable plan by both the congress and Muslim League?
(A) Cripps Mission plan
(B) Simon Commission plan
(C) Cabinet Mission plan
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Cabinet Mission plan

Explanation:
The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 was accepted by both the Congress and the Muslim League as a framework for India’s constitutional future.
It was hailed as a glorious moment of consensus in the freedom movement.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

69. Who firmly believed that a happy prosperous national existence could be built-up on the basis of capitalist social system?
A) Gandhiji
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Subhash Chandra Bose
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru believed that a happy and prosperous national existence could be achieved through a modern industrial and capitalist framework, emphasizing economic development and industrialization as the basis for national progress.
Leaders like Gandhiji focused on village-based self-reliance, while Subhash Chandra Bose had different approaches toward governance and economy.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.

70. Who wrote, ‘The Indian Struggle’, a book as his autobiography?
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
‘The Indian Struggle’ was written by Subhash Chandra Bose, not any of the listed individuals.
It covers the period 1920–1942, detailing his political journey and ideology.
Hence, the correct answer is (E) None of the above.

PART – III (COMPUTER)

71. The octal number (651.124)₈ is equivalent to _______.
A) (1A9.2A)₁₆
B) (1B0.10)₁₆
C) (1A8.A3)₁₆
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (A) (1A9.2A)₁₆

Explanation: To convert octal (651.124)₈ to hexadecimal:

1. Convert octal to binary:
   • 6 → 110, 5 → 101, 1 → 001
   • Fractional part: 1 → 001, 2 → 010, 4 → 100
     So, (651.124)₈ = 110101001.001010100₂
2. Group binary digits into 4-bit groups for hexadecimal conversion:
   • Integer part: 1101 0100 1 → 1A9
   • Fractional part: 0010 1010 → 2A
3. Combine → (1A9.2A)₁₆

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

72. Which characteristic of IC in Digital Circuits represents a function of the switching time of a particular transistor?
(A) Fan-out
(B) Fan-in
(C) Propagation delay
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Propagation delay

Explanation:
Propagation delay is the time taken for a signal to travel from input to output in a logic gate.
It directly depends on the switching speed of transistors used in the IC.
Fan-in and fan-out relate to input/output connections, not timing.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

73. What are the basic gates in MOS logic family?
(A) NAND and NOR
(B) AND and OR
(C) NAND and OR
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) NAND and NOR

Explanation:
In MOS logic families, the NAND and NOR gates are considered basic building blocks due to their ease of implementation and universality.
They can be used to construct all other logic gates.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

74. How many AND gates are required to construct a 4-bit parallel multiplier if four 4-bit parallel binary adders are given?
(A) Four 2-input AND gates
(B) Eight 2-input AND gates
(C) Sixteen 2-input AND gates
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Sixteen 2-input AND gates

Explanation:
A 4-bit multiplier requires 4 × 4 = 16 partial products, each generated using a 2-input AND gate.
These products are then added using binary adders.
Hence, 16 AND gates are needed, making option (C) correct.

75. A priority encoder has four inputs I₀, I₁, I₂ and I₃ where I₃ has the highest priority and I₀ has the least priority. If I₂ = 1, what will be the output?
(A) 00
(B) 11
(C) 10
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) 10

Explanation:
In a 4-input priority encoder, the output reflects the highest-priority active input.
If I₂ = 1 and I₃ = 0, then I₂ is the highest active input.
The binary output for I₂ is 10, making option (C) correct.

76. Which of these pins will allow to activate and deactivate a multiplexer?
(A) Enable pin
(B) Selection pin
(C) Present pin
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Enable pin

Explanation:
The Enable pin controls whether the multiplexer is active or inactive.
Selection pins choose the input line, but do not control activation.
Present pin is not a standard multiplexer control.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

77. Which of the following is the full form of CISC?
(A) Complex Instruction Sequential Compilation
(B) Complex Instruction Set Computer
(C) Computer Integrated Sequential Compiler
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Complex Instruction Set Computer

Explanation:
CISC stands for Complex Instruction Set Computer, a type of computer architecture where each instruction can execute multiple low-level operations.
It contrasts with RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computer), which uses simpler instructions.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

78. In order to read multiple bytes of a row at the same time, we make use of _______.
A) Memory extension
B) Latch
C) Shift register
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Latch

Explanation: A latch is used to temporarily store data and allows reading multiple bytes of a memory row at the same time.
Other components like shift registers or memory extension perform different functions.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.

79. The memory devices which are similar to EEPROM but differ in the cost effectiveness is ________.
(A) CMOS
(B) Memory sticks
(C) Flash memory
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Flash memory

Explanation:
Flash memory is similar to EEPROM in functionality but is more cost-effective and supports block-level erasing.
It is widely used in USB drives, SSDs, and memory cards.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

80. _______ method is used to map logical addresses of variable length onto physical memory.
(A) Paging
(B) Overlays
(C) Segmentation
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Segmentation

Explanation:
Segmentation maps logical addresses of variable length to physical memory by dividing programs into segments like code, data, and stack.
Unlike paging, which uses fixed-size blocks, segmentation handles variable-sized units.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

81. Which of the following is not the application of stack?
(A) Data Transfer between two asynchronous process
(B) Compiler Syntax Analyzer
(C) Tracking of local variables at run time
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Data Transfer between two asynchronous process

Explanation:
Stacks are used in syntax analysis, function call management, and local variable tracking.
However, data transfer between asynchronous processes typically uses queues or buffers, not stacks.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

82. What is the need for a circular queue?
(A) Easier computations
(B) Implement LIFO principle in queues
(C) Effective usage of memory
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Effective usage of memory

Explanation:
A circular queue allows reuse of memory by wrapping around when the end is reached, preventing wastage of space.
It does not implement LIFO, and computations are not necessarily easier.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

83. Which of the following is the most widely used external memory data structure?
(A) B-tree
(B) Red-black tree
(C) AVL tree
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) B-tree

Explanation:
B-trees are specifically designed for external memory storage, such as hard disks and databases, where minimizing disk access is crucial.
They maintain balanced structure and allow efficient insertion, deletion, and search operations.
Red-black trees and AVL trees are used in main memory, not external memory.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

84. What is the time complexity of inserting at the end in dynamic arrays?
(A) O(1)
(B) O(n)
(C) Either O(1) or O(n)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Either O(1) or O(n)

Explanation:
Inserting at the end of a dynamic array is usually O(1) if there is available space.
However, when the array is full, it must be resized, which involves copying all elements, making it O(n).
Thus, the time complexity is amortized O(1) but can be O(n) in worst case.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

85. Linked lists are not suitable for the implementation of _________.
(A) Insertion sort
(B) Radix sort
(C) Binary search
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Binary search

Explanation:
Binary search requires random access to the middle element, which is not possible in linked lists due to their sequential nature.
Insertion sort and radix sort can be implemented using linked lists.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

86. Which of the following sorting algorithms can be used to sort a random linked list with minimum time complexity?
(A) Insertion Sort
(B) Quick Sort
(C) Merge Sort
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Merge Sort

Explanation:
Merge Sort is ideal for linked lists because it does not require random access and can be implemented efficiently with O(n log n) time complexity.
Quick Sort is less suitable due to its reliance on random access.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

87. Which of the following tree data structures is not a balanced binary tree?
(A) Red – black tree
(B) B-tree
(C) AVL tree
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) B-tree

Explanation:
A B-tree is a balanced search tree, but it is not a binary tree.
It is designed for multi-way branching, commonly used in database indexing.
Red-black and AVL trees are both balanced binary trees.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

88. Which of the following application makes use of a circular linked list?
(A) Recursive function calls
(B) Allocating CPU to resources
(C) Implement Hash Tables
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Allocating CPU to resources

Explanation:
Circular linked lists are used in round-robin scheduling, where the CPU cycles through processes in a loop.
They allow continuous traversal without resetting pointers.
Recursive calls use stacks, and hash tables use arrays or linked lists, not circular ones.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

89. Which data structures are considered linear?
(A) Binary tree
(B) Graph
(C) Stack
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Stack

Explanation:
A linear data structure stores elements in a sequential manner, where each item is connected to its previous and next.
Stack is a classic example of a linear structure, following LIFO order.
Binary trees and graphs are non-linear structures.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

90. What is the worst case time complexity of the binary tree sort?
(A) O(n)
(B) O(nlogn)
(C) O(n²)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) O(n²)

Explanation:
Binary Tree Sort involves inserting elements into a binary search tree and then performing an in-order traversal.
In the worst case, if the tree becomes skewed, the insertion takes O(n²) time.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

91. Consider the original array 17 8 12 4 26. How many comparisons are needed to construct the BST on the original array?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 7
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation: When constructing a Binary Search Tree (BST) from the array 17, 8, 12, 4, 26, the total number of comparisons needed is calculated step by step:

• Insert 17 → 0 comparisons (first node)
• Insert 8 → 1 comparison
• Insert 12 → 2 comparisons
• Insert 4 → 2 comparisons
• Insert 26 → 1 comparison

Total comparisons = 0 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 1 = 6, which does not match any of the listed options.
Hence, the correct answer is option E (None of the above).

92. Bellman Ford algorithm is an example for
(A) Linear Programming
(B) Greedy Algorithms
(C) Dynamic Programming
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Dynamic Programming

Explanation:
Bellman-Ford algorithm solves the single-source shortest path problem, even with negative weights, using dynamic programming principles.
It repeatedly relaxes edges, storing intermediate results.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

93. Fractional knapsack problem is solved most efficiently by which of the following algorithm?
(A) Backtracking
(B) Greedy algorithm
(C) Dynamic programming
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Greedy algorithm

Explanation:
The fractional knapsack problem allows breaking items, and is best solved using a greedy approach by selecting items with highest value-to-weight ratio.
Dynamic programming is used for 0/1 knapsack, not fractional.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

94. Who published the first solution of the eight queens puzzle?
(A) Franz Nauck
(B) Max Bezzel
(C) Friedrich
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Franz Nauck

Explanation:
The eight queens puzzle was first solved and published by Franz Nauck in 1850.
He extended the problem to n queens on an n×n chessboard.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

95. Which of the following is the biggest advantage of selection sort?
(A) it has low time complexity
(B) it has low space complexity
(C) it requires only n swaps under any condition
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) it requires only n swaps under any condition

Explanation:
Selection sort performs n swaps at most, regardless of input order, which is its main advantage.
However, its time complexity is O(n²), and space complexity is not significantly lower than other sorts.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

96. What is the main function of the command interpreter?
(A) To provide the interface between the API and application program
(B) To handle the files in the operating system
(C) To get and execute the next user specified command
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) To get and execute the next user specified command

Explanation:
The command interpreter, also known as the shell, is responsible for reading user commands, interpreting them, and executing the appropriate actions.
It acts as the interface between the user and the operating system, not between APIs and applications.
Hence, its main function is to get and execute user commands, making option (C) correct.

97. Which one of the following is not true?
(A) Kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session
(B) Kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system
(C) Kernel is the first part of the operating system to load into memory during booting
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system

Explanation:
Modern kernels, especially modular kernels, allow loading and unloading of modules dynamically during runtime.
Statements (A) and (C) are true: the kernel stays resident in memory and is loaded first during booting.
Hence, option (B) is not true, making it the correct answer.

98. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
(A) RT Linux
(B) Palm OS
(C) VxWorks
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Palm OS

Explanation:
RT Linux and VxWorks are designed for real-time applications, offering predictable response times.
Palm OS, used in handheld devices, is not a real-time operating system.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

99. Which of the following is a type of kernel architecture?
A) Monolithic kernel with modules
B) Micro kernel
C) Hybrid kernel
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Hybrid kernel

Explanation: A hybrid kernel is a type of kernel architecture that combines features of both monolithic and microkernels.
While monolithic and microkernels are individual architectures, the hybrid kernel integrates advantages of both, making option C correct.

100. In a timeshare operating system, when the time slot assigned to a process is completed, the process switches from the current state to?
(A) Suspended state
(B) Blocked state
(C) Ready state
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Ready state

Explanation:
In time-sharing systems, when a process completes its time slice, it is moved to the ready state to await its next turn.
It is not suspended or blocked unless waiting for I/O or other resources.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

101. A deadlock avoidance algorithm dynamically examines the ______ to ensure that a circular wait condition can never exist.
(A) Resource allocation state
(B) Resources
(C) System storage state
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Resource allocation state

Explanation:
Deadlock avoidance algorithms like the Banker’s Algorithm monitor the resource allocation state to ensure that the system remains in a safe state.
This helps prevent circular wait conditions.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

102. The operating system maintains a _______ table that keeps track of how many frames have been allocated, how many are there and how many are available.
(A) Frame
(B) Mapping
(C) Page
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Frame

Explanation:
The operating system uses a frame table to manage physical memory allocation.
It keeps track of allocated frames, available frames, and frame usage status.
This helps in efficient memory management during paging.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

103. For real time operating systems, interrupt latency should be _______.
(A) Zero
(B) Minimal
(C) Maximum
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Minimal

Explanation:
In real-time operating systems, interrupt latency must be minimal to ensure quick response to external events.
Zero latency is ideal but impractical, and maximum latency would defeat the purpose of real-time systems.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

104. What are the characteristics of stack based IDS?
(A) It is programmed to interpret a certain series of packets
(B) It models the normal usage of the network as a noise characterization
(C) They are integrated closely with the TCP/IP stack and watch packets
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) They are integrated closely with the TCP/IP stack and watch packets

Explanation:
Stack-based Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) are embedded within the network stack, especially the TCP/IP stack, to monitor real-time packet flow.
They analyze traffic as it passes through the protocol layers, making them efficient for low-level packet inspection.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

105. On systems where there are multiple operating system, the decision to load a particular one is done by _______.
(A) Process control block
(B) File control block
(C) Boot loader
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the Above

Answer: (C) Boot loader

Explanation:
The boot loader is responsible for loading the operating system during system startup.
In multi-OS environments, it allows the user to select which OS to boot.
Process and file control blocks are used after the OS is loaded.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

106. What is compaction?
(A) A technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
(B) A paging technique
(C) A technique for overcoming external fragmentation
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) A technique for overcoming external fragmentation

Explanation:
Compaction is used to rearrange memory contents to eliminate external fragmentation, making contiguous memory blocks available.
It is not related to paging or internal fragmentation.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

107. What is the reason for using the MFU page replacement algorithm?
A) an actively used page should have a large reference count
B) a less used page has more chances to be used again
C) it is extremely efficient and optimal
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (B) a less used page has more chances to be used again

Explanation: The MFU (Most Frequently Used) page replacement algorithm is based on the principle that the page with the highest reference count has already been heavily used and is less likely to be used again soon.
Hence, the least frequently used pages are preferred to remain, and the most frequently used ones are replaced.
Therefore, the correct answer is option B.

108. Which type of data can be stored in the database?
(A) Image oriented data
(B) Text, files containing data
(C) Data in the form of audio or video
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
Modern databases support multiple data types, including text, images, audio, and video.
These are stored using BLOBs (Binary Large Objects) or specialized data types depending on the DBMS.
Hence, more than one option is valid.

109. Which of the following is not a feature of DBMS?
(A) Support ACID Property
(B) High Level of Security
(C) Single-user Access only
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Single-user Access only

Explanation:
Most DBMS systems are designed for multi-user environments, supporting concurrent access with transaction control.
Features like ACID compliance and security are standard.
Hence, option (C) is not a feature, making it correct.

110. Which of the following is not a function of the database?
(A) Managing and manipulating stored data
(B) Analysing Code
(C) Security for stored data
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Analysing Code

Explanation:
Databases are used for storing, managing, and securing data, but they do not analyze code.
Code analysis is done by compilers or IDEs, not DBMS.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

111. Which command is used to remove a relation from an SQL?
(A) Drop table
(B) Delete
(C) Purge
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Drop table

Explanation:
To remove a relation (table) from SQL permanently, the DROP TABLE command is used.
DELETE removes rows, not the table itself.
PURGE is not a standard SQL command for this purpose.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

112. Which forms have a relation that contains information about a single entity?
A) 4NF
B) 3NF
C) 5NF
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 4NF

Explanation: A relation in Fourth Normal Form (4NF) ensures that it contains information about a single entity and eliminates multi-valued dependencies.
While 3NF removes transitive dependencies, 4NF further refines the relation to ensure that each relation represents a single entity without unnecessary redundancy.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.

113. The top level of the hierarchy consists of _______ each of which can contain______.
(A) Catalogs, Schemas
(B) Schemas, Catalogs
(C) Environment, Schemas
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Catalogs, Schemas

Explanation:
In database architecture, the catalog is the top-level container that holds multiple schemas.
Each schema contains tables, views, procedures, etc.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

114. Which of the following is correct according to the technology deployed by DBMS?
(A) Pointers are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
(B) Cursors are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
(C) Locks are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Locks are used to maintain transactional integrity and consistency

Explanation:
Locks are essential in DBMS to ensure data consistency and isolation during concurrent transactions.
Cursors are used for row-by-row processing, not integrity.
Pointers are not used for transactional control.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

115. What is an Instance of a Database?
(A) The state of the database system at any given point of time
(B) The entire set of attributes of the Database put together in a single relation
(C) The initial values inserted into the Database immediately after its creation
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) The state of the database system at any given point of time

Explanation:
A database instance refers to the current state of the data in the database at a specific moment.
It includes all the data values stored in the database at that time, not the structure or schema.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

116. What is the term for an endpoint of an interprocess communication flow across a computer network?
(A) Port
(B) Pipe
(C) Socket
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Socket

Explanation:
A socket is the endpoint for sending or receiving data across a network in interprocess communication.
It enables bidirectional communication between processes over TCP/IP.
Ports are identifiers, and pipes are used for local IPC, not network endpoints.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

117. Which layer does the data link layer take packets from and encapsulate them into frames for transmission?
(A) transport layer
(B) application layer
(C) network layer
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) network layer

Explanation:
The data link layer receives packets from the network layer and encapsulates them into frames for transmission over the physical medium.
It handles framing, addressing, and error detection.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

118. Which type of network shares the communication channel among all the machines?
(A) Broadcast network
(B) Multicast network
(C) Unicast network
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Broadcast network

Explanation:
In a broadcast network, the communication channel is shared among all devices, and messages are sent to all nodes.
Multicast targets a group, and unicast is one-to-one.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

119. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?
(A) Mesh Topology
(B) Bus Topology
(C) Star Topology
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Bus Topology

Explanation:
In bus topology, all devices share a single communication line, forming a multipoint connection.
Mesh and star topologies use point-to-point connections.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

120. When discussing IDS/IPS, what is a signature?
(A) Attack Definition File
(B) It is used to authorize the users on a network
(C) An electronic signature used to authenticate the identity of a user on the network
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Attack Definition File

Explanation:
In Intrusion Detection/Prevention Systems (IDS/IPS), a signature is a pattern or definition used to identify known attacks.
It is not related to user authorization or authentication.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

121. Which of the following networks extends a private network across public networks?
(A) virtual private network
(B) local area network
(C) enterprise private network
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) virtual private network

Explanation:
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) allows users to securely access a private network over a public network like the internet.
It uses encryption and tunneling protocols to protect data and maintain privacy.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

122. What type of transmission is involved in communication between a computer and a keyboard?
(A) Half-duplex
(B) Full-duplex
(C) Simplex
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Simplex

Explanation:
Communication between a keyboard and computer is simplex, meaning data flows in one direction only—from the keyboard to the computer.
There is no return communication from the computer to the keyboard.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

123. Who proposed the spiral model?
(A) Barry Boehm
(B) Pressman
(C) Royce
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Barry Boehm

Explanation:
The Spiral Model was proposed by Barry Boehm in 1986.
It combines elements of iterative development with systematic aspects of the waterfall model, focusing on risk analysis.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

124. Software patch is defined as _____
A) Daily or routine Fix
B) Required or Critical Fix
C) Emergency Fix
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Emergency Fix

Explanation: A software patch is often used as an emergency fix to address critical bugs, vulnerabilities, or security issues in a software program.
It is applied quickly to prevent potential damage or exploitation, distinguishing it from routine or scheduled updates.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.

125. 4GT Model is a set of ______
A) Programs
B) CASE Tools
C) Software tools
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Software tools

Explanation: The 4GT (Fourth-Generation Techniques) Model is a set of software tools designed to aid in rapid application development, code generation, and software automation.
These tools help streamline the software development process beyond traditional programming methods.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.

126. Which one of the following is not a software process quality?
(A) Visibility
(B) Timeliness
(C) Portability
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Portability

Explanation:
Portability is a software product quality, not a process quality.
Visibility and timeliness relate to how well the software development process is managed and tracked.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

127. Which among the following doesn’t come under OOP concept?
(A) Data hiding
(B) Platform independent
(C) Message Passing
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Platform independent

Explanation:
Platform independence is a language feature, not a core Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) concept.
Data hiding and message passing are fundamental to OOP.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

128. In which access should a constructor be defined, so that object of the class can be created in any function?
(A) Public
(B) Private
(C) Protected
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Public

Explanation:
To allow object creation from any function, the constructor must be defined as public.
Private or protected constructors restrict object creation to within the class or derived classes.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

129. What type of protocol is HTTP?
(A) Stateful
(B) Stateless
(C) Transfer protocol
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Stateless

Explanation:
HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol) is a stateless protocol, meaning each request is independent and does not retain information about previous interactions.
It does not store session data between requests, making option (B) correct.

130. What does MIME stand for?
(A) Multipurpose Internet Messaging Extension
(B) Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
(C) Multipurpose Internet Multimedia Extension
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension

Explanation:
MIME stands for Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension, a standard that allows emails to include text in character sets, attachments, and multimedia content.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

131. Which of the looping statements is/are supported by PHP?
(i) for loop
(ii) while loop
(iii) do-while loop
(iv) foreach loop
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Explanation:
PHP supports all standard looping constructs:

• for loop for fixed iterations
• while loop for conditional repetition
• do-while loop for post-condition loops
• foreach loop for iterating over arrays
  Hence, option (C) is correct.

132. Which function should we use to sort the array in natural order?
(A) natcasesort()
(B) casesort()
(C) naturalsort()
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) natcasesort()

Explanation:
natcasesort() is used in PHP to sort an array using natural order, while being case-insensitive.
There is no built-in function called casesort() or naturalsort() in PHP.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

133. What are scripting languages?
A) The programming languages that pre decide the web page content
B) The programming languages that are simpler and offer same protection
C) The programming languages that trade off simplicity for protection
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (B) The programming languages that are simpler and offer same protection

Explanation: Scripting languages are simpler programming languages designed to facilitate rapid development while maintaining the same level of protection as traditional languages in their context.
They are often used for web development, automation, and lightweight tasks, providing ease of use without compromising security or integrity.
Hence, the correct answer is option B.

134. Under which of the following operation, NFA is not closed?
A) Negation
B) Kleene
C) Concatenation
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation: NFA (Nondeterministic Finite Automaton) is closed under all the listed operations:

• Kleene star

• Concatenation

• Negation (through standard constructions via DFA conversion if needed)

Since all these operations can be handled, there is no operation listed under which NFA is not closed, making option E correct.

135. Let T = {p, q, r, s, t}. The number of strings in S of length 4 such that no symbols can be repeated.
A) 120
B) 625
C) 360
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (A) 120

Explanation: We need to form strings of length 4 from a set of 5 symbols with no repetition.

• Number of ways = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 = 120

Hence, the correct answer is option A.

136. Which of the following strings do not belong the given regular expression? (a)(a+cba)
(A) acbacba
(B) aaa
(C) acba
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) acbacba

Explanation:
The regular expression (a)(a + cba) accepts strings that start with zero or more a’s, followed by either a or cba.

• aaa → matches (a)*(a)
• acba → matches (a)*(cba)
• acbacba → has extra characters, not matching the pattern
  Hence, acbacba does not belong, making option (A) correct.

137. The following denotion belongs to which type of language: G = (V, T, P, S)
(A) Regular grammar
(B) Context free grammar
(C) Context Sensitive grammar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Context free grammar

Explanation:
The notation G = (V, T, P, S) is the standard form of a Context-Free Grammar (CFG), where:

• V = Variables
• T = Terminals
• P = Production rules
• S = Start symbol
  Hence, option (B) is correct.

138. Which of the following is not an IoT platform?
(A) Amazon Web Services
(B) Microsoft Azure
(C) Flipkart
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Flipkart

Explanation:
Amazon Web Services and Microsoft Azure are widely used IoT platforms offering cloud-based services.
Flipkart is an e-commerce platform, not related to IoT infrastructure.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

139. Which layer is used for wireless connection in IoT devices?
(A) Application layer
(B) Network layer
(C) Data link layer
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Data link layer

Explanation:
The Data Link Layer handles physical addressing and access control, enabling wireless connectivity in IoT devices.
It includes protocols like Wi-Fi, Zigbee, Bluetooth, etc.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

140. Which of the following is not a sensor in IoT?
(A) BMP280
(B) DHT11
(C) Photoresistor
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation:
All listed components are IoT sensors:

• BMP280: pressure and temperature sensor
• DHT11: humidity and temperature sensor
• Photoresistor: light sensor
  Hence, all are valid, making option (E) correct.

141. IoT gateway must provide ______
A) Protocol abstraction
B) Data storage / Security with hardware
C) Simple and fast installation
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Protocol abstraction

Explanation: The primary function of an IoT gateway is to provide protocol abstraction, allowing devices that use different communication protocols to interoperate seamlessly.
While features like data storage, security, and easy installation may be added, the core responsibility is protocol abstraction.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.

142. Which of the following is an application of Artificial Intelligence?
(A) It helps to exploit vulnerabilities to secure the firm
(B) Language understanding and problem solving (Text analytics and NLP)
(C) It helps to deploy applications on the cloud
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Language understanding and problem solving (Text analytics and NLP)

Explanation:
Artificial Intelligence is widely used in Natural Language Processing (NLP) and text analytics for tasks like language understanding, sentiment analysis, and problem solving.
Cloud deployment is not an AI application, and exploiting vulnerabilities is not a valid AI use case.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

143. What does the Bayesian network provide?
A) Partial description of the domain
B) Complete description of the problem
C) Complete description of the domain
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Complete description of the domain

Explanation: A Bayesian network provides a complete probabilistic description of the domain, representing all relevant variables and their conditional dependencies.
This allows reasoning about the entire domain using probability distributions.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.

144. Which search method takes less memory?
(A) Depth-First Search
(B) Breadth-First Search
(C) Linear Search
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Depth-First Search

Explanation:
Depth-First Search (DFS) uses less memory compared to Breadth-First Search (BFS) because it stores only the current path, not all nodes at a given level.
Linear search is unrelated to graph traversal.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

145. E-commerce has _________ scope than E-Business or Digital Business.
(A) Higher
(B) Narrower
(C) Wider
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Narrower

Explanation:
E-commerce refers specifically to buying and selling online, while E-Business includes all digital business activities, such as supply chain, CRM, and internal processes.
Thus, E-commerce has a narrower scope than E-Business.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

146. This E-Commerce commercial enterprise model specifically specialises in selling services or products online.
(A) Indirect Marketing
(B) Online Direct Marketing
(C) Brick & Mortar
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (B) Online Direct Marketing

Explanation:
Online Direct Marketing involves selling products or services directly to consumers via digital platforms, without intermediaries.
Brick & Mortar refers to physical stores, and indirect marketing does not specialize in direct selling.
Hence, option (B) is correct.

147. Real time streaming protocol is used
(A) to control streaming media servers
(B) for establishing and controlling media sessions between endpoints
(C) to provide real time control of playback of media files from the server
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation:
RTSP (Real-Time Streaming Protocol) is used to control media servers, establish sessions, and manage playback of media files.
It supports real-time control, making multiple options valid.
Hence, option (D) is correct.

148. The expansion for MIDI is
(A) Musical Instrument Digital Interface
(B) Musical Instrument Data Interface
(C) Musical Instructions Digital Interface
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (A) Musical Instrument Digital Interface

Explanation:
MIDI stands for Musical Instrument Digital Interface, a standard for communication between electronic musical instruments and computers.
Hence, option (A) is correct.

149. The _____ input addresses the different styles of different users.
(A) Multi-sense
(B) Multimedia
(C) Multi-sensory
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Multi-sensory

Explanation:
Multi-sensory input involves using visual, auditory, and tactile channels to accommodate diverse user styles and preferences.
It enhances accessibility and user experience.
Hence, option (C) is correct.

150. Which of the following is not the utility of DBMS?
(A) Backup
(B) Data Loading
(C) Process Organization
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above

Answer: (C) Process Organization

Explanation:
DBMS utilities include backup, data loading, query processing, and security, but process organization is not a direct DBMS function.
Hence, option (C) is correct.