Question 1: 10 years ago the ratio of ages of Ramesh and Rajeev was 1 : 3. 5 years hence this ratio will become 2 : 3. What is the ratio of their ages at present?
(A) 2 : 5
(B) 3 : 5
(C) 1 : 2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) 3 : 5
Explanation:
- Let the ages of Ramesh and Rajeev 10 years ago be x and 3x years, respectively.
- The ages of Ramesh and Rajeev after 10 years are (x + 10) years and (3x + 10) years, respectively.
- According to the given information, (x + 10) / (3x + 10) = 2 / 3.
- Solving for x, we get x = 5.
- Therefore, the present ages of Ramesh and Rajeev are 15 years and 25 years, respectively.
- The ratio of their ages is 15 : 25 = 3 : 5.
Question 2: If I walk with a speed of 5 km per hour from my house to the station, my train would have left the station 7 minutes before my arrival. But, if I walk with a speed of 6 km per hour, I will reach the station 5 minutes before the departure of my train. Accordingly, what is the distance between my house and the station?
(A) 7 km
(B) 6·5 km
(C) 6 km
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer:(C)
Question 3: The average monthly income of P and Q is R 5,050. The average monthly income of Q and R is R 6,250 and the average monthly income of P and R is R 5,200. The monthly income of P is
(A) R 3,500
(B) R 4,050
(C) R 4,000
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer:(B)
Question 4: If 30% of P is added to 40% of Q, it becomes 80% of Q. Accordingly, what is the percentage of Q with respect to P?
(A) 40%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Question 5: A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3. If C gets R 1,000 more than D, what is B’s share?
(A) R 500
(B) R 1,500
(C) R 2,000
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C)
Question 6: A shopkeeper gives a discount of 5% on the selling price of a watch. If he gives a discount of 6%, he will earn a profit which is R 15 less than before. Accordingly, what is the marked selling price of that watch?
(A) R 1,400
(B) R 1,500
(C) R 1,800
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer:(B)
Question 7: Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. The total of the largest and the smallest numbers is equal to the other number plus 52. Accordingly, which is the smallest number?
(A) 27
(B) 39
(C) 52
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Question 8: 
then the value of n is
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) -2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Question 9: Which of the following photoelectric devices is the most suitable for digital applications?
(A) Photo-voltaic cell
(B) Photo-emissive cell
(C) Photo-diode
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Photo-diode
Explanation: Photo-diodes are semiconductor devices that are highly responsive to light and are commonly used in digital applications such as optical sensors, light detectors, and communication systems.
Question 10: The critical mass of a fissionable material is
(A) one kilogram equivalent
(B) the minimum mass needed for chain reaction
(C) the rest mass equivalent to 1010 joules
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) the minimum mass needed for chain reaction
Explanation: The critical mass of a fissionable material is the minimum amount of the material needed to sustain a chain reaction of nuclear fission.
Question 11: Which of the following gases is used to force the ripening of fruits?
(A) Ethane
(B) Ethylene
(C) Methylene
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Ethylene
Question 12: Which one of the following has zero octane number?
A) Iso-octane
B) Neo-octane
C) n-octane
D) More than one of the above
E) None of the above
Answer : (C)
Explanation : Octane number is a measure of a fuel’s ability to resist knocking in an internal combustion engine. Knocking is a premature ignition of the fuel-air mixture in the cylinder, which can cause damage to the engine.
n-heptane is a straight-chain alkane with 7 carbon atoms. It is a relatively unstable fuel and is prone to knocking. Iso-octane is a branched-chain alkane with 7 carbon atoms. It is a more stable fuel and is less prone to knocking. Neo-octane is a cyclic alkane with 7 carbon atoms. It is also a stable fuel and is less prone to knocking.
The octane number scale is based on a comparison of a fuel to a mixture of iso-octane and n-heptane. A fuel with an octane number of 100 is equivalent to a mixture of 100% iso-octane. A fuel with an octane number of 0 is equivalent to a mixture of 100% n-heptane.
Question 13: The edible part of Litchis is
(A) aril
(B) thalamus
(C) seed coat
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) aril
Explanation: The edible part of a litchi fruit is the aril, which is a fleshy covering of the seed. It is the juicy and flavorful part of the fruit that is commonly consumed.
Question 14: The physical process involved in the release of molecular oxygen from leaves is
(A) diffusion
(B) transpiration
(C) osmosis
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A)
Solution: Diffusion is the physical process involved in the release of molecular oxygen from leaves.
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. In the case of oxygen, the concentration of oxygen is higher inside the leaf than it is outside the leaf. So, the oxygen molecules will diffuse out of the leaf through the stomata, which are tiny pores on the surface of the leaf.
Transpiration is the process of water vapor moving from the leaves to the atmosphere. It is driven by the difference in water vapor pressure between the inside and outside of the leaf. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from an area of high water potential to an area of low water potential. It does not involve the movement of gases.
Question 15: The process of finding the relative location of genes on a chromosome is called
(A) genome walking
(B) chromosome walking
(C) gene mapping
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) gene mapping
Explanation: The process of finding the relative location of genes on a chromosome is known as gene mapping. This process helps in understanding the arrangement and spacing of genes along a chromosome.
Question 16: Spore mother cell in bryophytes is
(A) haploid
(B) diploid
(C) triploid
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) diploid
Explanation: The spore mother cell in bryophytes is typically diploid. This cell undergoes meiosis to produce haploid spores, which eventually give rise to gametophyte structures.
Question 17: In which year was NGT (National Green Tribunal) for protection of environment and forest established by the Government of India?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 2010
Explanation: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) for the protection of environment and forests was established in the year 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
Question 18: Which city of India started the first under-water metro?
(A) Kochi
(B) Visakhapatnam
(C) Bengaluru
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: Kolkata started the first under-water metro. This metro system includes an underwater section that runs under Hoogly river.
Question 19: Under India’s G20 Presidency, where was the Tourism Working Group Meeting held?
(A) Patna (Bihar)
(B) Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir)
(C) Ramnagar (Uttarakhand)
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir)
Explanation: The Tourism Working Group Meeting under India’s G20 Presidency was held in four different locations:
- The first meeting was held in the Rann of Kutch, Gujarat from February 7-10, 2023.
- The second meeting was held in Siliguri, West Bengal from March 14-17, 2023.
- The third meeting was held in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir from May 22-24, 2023.
- The fourth and final meeting will be held in Goa from June 19-22, 2023.
The Tourism Working Group is responsible for developing the G20 tourism track, which includes five priority areas: green tourism, digitalization, skills, tourism MSMEs, and destination management. The group is also responsible for drafting the Goa Declaration, which will be adopted by the G20 Tourism Ministers at the end of the presidency.
The Tourism Working Group Meeting is an important opportunity for G20 countries to discuss and collaborate on issues related to tourism. The meetings provide a platform for countries to share their experiences and best practices, and to develop new initiatives to promote sustainable and inclusive tourism.
Question 20: Who among the following got the Silver Medal in the National Under-17 Girls Wrestling Championship?
(A) Liza Tomar
(B) Nirjala
(C) Pushpa Yadav
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: The National Under-17 Girls Wrestling Championship was held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha from 22 to 26 June 2023. The winners of the championship are as follows:
- Freestyle:
- 43 kg: Ritika
- 49 kg: Ahilaya Shinde
- 57 kg: Priya
- 65 kg: Siksha
- 73 kg: Kajal
- Greco-Roman:
- 48 kg: Muskan
- 55 kg: Srishti
- 63 kg: Savita
- 71 kg: Narender
- 80 kg: Pulkit
Liza Tomar, Nirjala, and Pushpa Yadav did not participate in the championship.
Question 21: Who won the International Booker Prize, 2022 for the novel, Tomb of Sand ?
(A) Geetanjali Shree and Daisy Rockwell
(B) David Diop and Anna Moschovakis
(C) Marilyn Booth and Jokha Alharthi
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer:(A)
Solution: Tomb of Sand is a novel by Geetanjali Shree, originally written in Hindi as Ret Samadhi. It was translated into English by Daisy Rockwell. The novel tells the story of an 80-year-old Indian woman who decides to travel to Pakistan, the country she left as a young woman during the Partition of India. The novel was praised for its humor, its insights into the human condition, and its exploration of the themes of loss, memory, and identity.
The International Booker Prize is awarded annually to a novel translated into English and published in the United Kingdom or Ireland. The prize is worth £50,000, which is split between the author and the translator.
In 2022, the International Booker Prize longlist included 13 novels, translated from 12 languages. The shortlist included Tomb of Sand, along with The Books of Jacob by Olga Tokarczuk (translated from Polish by Jennifer Croft), Heaven by Mieko Kawakami (translated from Japanese by Sam Bett and David Boyd), and A New Name: Septology VI-VII by Jon Fosse (translated from Norwegian by Don Bartlett).
Tomb of Sand won the International Booker Prize on May 26, 2022. Geetanjali Shree and Daisy Rockwell were both present at the award ceremony in London. Shree said in her acceptance speech that she was “humbled and grateful” to receive the prize. She also said that she hoped that the award would help to “bring Indian literature to a wider audience.”
Question 22: Who was the Chief Guest on India’s 74th Republic Day?
(A) Mohammed bin Salman
(B) Abdel Fattah El-Sisi
(C) Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer:(B)
Solution: Abdel Fattah El-Sisi was the Chief Guest on India’s 74th Republic Day.
Abdel Fattah El-Sisi is the President of Egypt. He was invited to be the Chief Guest on India’s 74th Republic Day as a gesture of goodwill and friendship between the two countries. He was accompanied by a high-level delegation, including five Ministers and senior officials.
The 74th Republic Day parade was held on January 26, 2023, at Rajpath in New Delhi. The parade was attended by President El-Sisi, Prime Minister Narendra Modi, and other dignitaries. The parade showcased India’s military might and cultural heritage.
The Chief Guest is usually a foreign dignitary who is invited to India to mark the occasion of Republic Day. The Chief Guest is given a ceremonial welcome at the Rashtrapati Bhavan and is also invited to address the nation.
Question 23: In which district of Bihar, the first floating solar power plant has been built?
(A) Darbhanga
(B) West Champaran
(C) Madhubani
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Darbhanga
Explanation: The first floating solar power plant in Bihar has been built in the district of Darbhanga.
Question 24: Which of the following has got GI Tag in Bihar?
(A) Maghai Paan
(B) Basmati Rice
(C) Chanderi Saree
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Maghai Paan
Explanation: Maghai Paan has received the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag in Bihar. The GI Tag highlights its unique identity and origin.
Question 25: Match List–I with List–II :
List—I List—II
a. Char 1. Punjab plain
b. Kankar 2. Delta
c. Kayal 3. Bangar
d. Mand 4. Coastal plain
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) a b c d
1 4 2 3
(B) a b c d
2 3 4 1
(C) a b c d
3 1 4 2
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B)
Question 26: Which of the following tributaries does not join Brahmaputra river from north?
(A) Subansiri
(B) Belsiri
(C) Manas
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Belsiri
Explanation: Among the given options, Belsiri is not a tributary of the Brahmaputra river from the north.
The Brahmaputra river has many tributaries, but only the following ones join it from the north:
- Dibang
- Lohit
- Subansiri
- Kameng
- Manas
- Jia Bharali
- Dhansiri
- Buri Dihing
- Tista
The other tributaries, such as the Belsiri, join the Brahmaputra river from the south.
Question 27: Likhapani glacier is located in which State of India?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: Likhapani glacier is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh in India.
Question 28: Magadha and Anga plains are parts of
(A) upper Ganga plain
(B) middle Ganga plain
(C) lower Ganga plain
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) middle Ganga plain
Explanation: Magadha and Anga plains are parts of the middle Ganga plain region.
Question 29: Which of the following pairs of waterfalls and rivers is not correctly matched?
(A) Jog—Sharavati
(B) Kapildhara—Kaveri
(C) Dhuandhar—Godavari
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Dhuandhar—Godavari
Explanation: The correct matching is:
A. Jog—Sharavati River
B. Kapildhara—Kaveri River
C. Dhuandhar—Narmada River
Question 30: Arrange the following seaports of India from north to south :
1. Kakinada
2. Machilipatnam
3. Nagapattinam
4. Visakhapatnam
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 1, 2, 3
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer:(C)
Question 31: The Agreement of Kosi Irrigation and Hydroelectricity Plan in 1954 was signed between which two countries?
(A) India and Bangladesh
(B) India and China
(C) India and Nepal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) India and Nepal
Explanation: The Agreement of Kosi Irrigation and Hydroelectricity Plan in 1954 was signed between India and Nepal.
Question 32: In which climatic division does Bihar fall as per R. L. Singh’s classification scheme?
(A) Humid south-east
(B) Subhumid transitional
(C) Subhumid continental
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Subhumid transitional
Explanation: According to R. L. Singh’s climatic classification scheme, Bihar falls under the Subhumid transitional climatic division.
Question 33: In which Session of the Indian National Congress was the resolution of ‘Purna Swaraj’ adopted?
(A) Kanpur Session, 1925
(B) Lahore Session, 1929
(C) Karachi Session, 1931
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Lahore Session, 1929
Explanation: The resolution of ‘Purna Swaraj’ was adopted during the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress in 1929.
Question 34: What was an initial objective of ‘Kuka Movement’ in Punjab?
(A) To purify the Sikh religion
(B) To gain political power in Punjab
(C) Organization of peasant movement
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) To purify the Sikh religion
Explanation: An initial objective of the ‘Kuka Movement’ in Punjab was to purify the Sikh religion.
Question 35: Who described the Revolt of 1857 as the ‘First Indian War of Independence’?
(A) V. D. Savarkar
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Bipin Chandra Pal
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) V. D. Savarkar
Explanation: V. D. Savarkar described the Revolt of 1857 as the ‘First Indian War of Independence’.
Question 36: Where was the first instance of organized non-cooperation in the history of Indian peasantry held?
(A) Bihar and Bengal
(B) Madras Presidency
(C) Punjab Province
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Bihar and Bengal
Explanation: The first instance of organized non-cooperation in the history of Indian peasantry was held in Bihar and Bengal.
Question 37: Which portfolio did Dr. Rajendra Prasad hold during the Interim Government of 1946?
(A) Defence
(B) Home
(C) Food and Agriculture
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Food and Agriculture
Explanation: The Interim Government was formed on 2 September 1946, by the British Indian government to prepare for the transfer of power to India. The government was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru, and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was one of the 15 members of the cabinet.
The other portfolios in the Interim Government were:
- Defence: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
- Home: Liaquat Ali Khan
- Finance: John Mathai
- Railways: Asaf Ali
- Labour: Jagjivan Ram
- Commerce: Ibrahim Ismail Chundrigar
- Industry and Supplies: John Mathai
- Education: Maulana Azad
- Health: Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
- Law: Bhulabhai Desai
- Works, Mines and Power: C. Rajagopalachari
- Communications: K. C. Neogy
- States: Vallabhbhai Patel
The Interim Government was dissolved on 15 August 1947, when India gained independence.
Question 38: Who among the following particularly urged Gandhiji to visit Champaran to witness the miseries of the Ryots?
(A) Brijkishore Prasad
(B) Rajkumar Shukla
(C) Sukhram Ganesh
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Rajkumar Shukla
Explanation: Rajkumar Shukla particularly urged Gandhiji to visit Champaran to witness the miseries of the Ryots.
Question 39: The ‘Day of Deliverance’ was observed by the Muslim League on which date?
(A) 22nd December, 1939
(B) 17th October, 1939
(C) 22nd December, 1940
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) 22nd December, 1939
Solution: The ‘Day of Deliverance’ was observed by the Muslim League on 22nd December, 1939.
The Day of Deliverance was a day of celebration marked by the All-India Muslim League and others on 22 December 1939 during the Indian independence movement. It was led by Muslim League president Muhammad Ali Jinnah, and intended to rejoice the resignation of all members of the rival Congress party from provincial and central offices in protest over their not having been consulted over the decision to make India a party to the Second World War alongside Britain.
The Congress ministries had resigned in protest against the Viceroy’s decision to make India a participant in World War II without consulting the Indian people or their elected representatives. The Muslim League saw this as an opportunity to gain support for their demand for a separate Muslim state.
The Day of Deliverance was observed by mass meetings and demonstrations across India. The Muslim League also issued a statement calling on Muslims to celebrate the day as a “day of thanksgiving” for the “deliverance” of India from the Congress regime.
The Day of Deliverance was a significant event in the history of the Indian independence movement. It marked the beginning of a more assertive and confrontational approach by the Muslim League, and contributed to the growing polarization of Indian society along religious lines.
Question 40: Who laid the foundation stone of National College and Bihar Vidyapeeth?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Maulana Abdul Bari
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: The foundation stone of both National College and Bihar Vidyapeeth was laid by Mahatma Gandhi on February 6, 1921.
National College was established in Patna in January 1921 as a nationalist institution guided by the ideals and educational philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi. Bihar Vidyapeeth was also established in Patna in February 1921 as a national university.
The two institutions were inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi on the same day. Gandhiji was accompanied by Kasturba Gandhi and Muhammad Ali.
The National College was initially housed in a rented building on the Patna-Gaya Road. The Bihar Vidyapeeth was initially housed in the Sadaqat Ashram, which was started by Maulana Mazharul Haq.
Both institutions played an important role in the Indian independence movement. They were also instrumental in promoting education and social reform in Bihar.
41. Why was the grandmother listless that night?
(A) She was unwell
(B) She was too old
(C) She was anxious
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) She was anxious
Explanation: The grandmother appeared agitated and not her usual chirpy self, indicating anxiety rather than illness or age-related fatigue.
42. How best can one describe the character of the storyteller?
(A) Garrulous and cantankerous old woman
(B) Cheerful and lively old lady
(C) Indolent and grumpy old lady
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: The storyteller is portrayed as wise, emotional, and deeply connected to her past, which doesn’t match any of the given descriptions.
43. What does the term ‘hearth-fire’ indicate?
(A) Fireplace
(B) Stove
(C) Grate
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Fireplace
Explanation: A hearth-fire traditionally refers to a fireplace, especially in a rural or traditional setting, where people gather for warmth and stories.
44. What was so special about ‘that night’?
(A) It was a stormy night with incessant thunder and rain
(B) It was that fateful night when a peculiar wind blew
(C) It was a silent night when the moon had a lurid glow
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) It was that fateful night when a peculiar wind blew
Explanation: The passage describes a peculiar wind that starts from the graveyard and sounds like a hymn, marking the night as fateful.
45. What is the trajectory that the song takes in the story?
(A) The song arises from the graveyard filling the whole village and disappears beyond human habitation
(B) The song arises from the graveyard filling the whole village with good cheer and dissipates into nothingness
(C) The song arises from the graveyard filling the whole village with sadness and fades away gradually
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) The song arises from the graveyard filling the whole village and disappears beyond human habitation
Explanation: The wind carries the song from the graveyard, hovers above the house, and then whirls away, suggesting a trajectory beyond human habitation.
46. Why do listeners gather to hear stories at night in remote villages upon the hills of North-East India?
(A) They are engaged in factories and offices during the day
(B) They are engaged in their farms, collection of firewood and water, and other mundane affairs
(C) They are engaged in the textile and mining industry
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) They are engaged in their farms, collection of firewood and water, and other mundane affairs
Explanation: In rural settings, daytime is spent on subsistence activities, making evening storytelling a cultural tradition.
47. Pick out a synonym for the word ‘rebuke’ from the extract.
(A) Chastised
(B) Agitated
(C) Ravaged
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Chastised
Explanation: The storyteller rebukes the youngsters for not listening, and the word chastised conveys a similar tone of reprimand.
48. Which word in the story indicates supernatural elements?
(A) Eerie
(B) Uncanny
(C) Uneasy
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Both eerie and uncanny suggest supernatural or mysterious qualities, enhancing the ghostly atmosphere.
49. Describe the look on the storyteller’s face when they all clearly hear the tune of the song.
(A) Stunned
(B) Alive and animated
(C) Puzzled
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Alive and animated
Explanation: The storyteller becomes more alive and animated, showing a transformation after the song is heard.
50. How would you describe the listeners?
(A) As casual and irresponsible
(B) As carefree and light-hearted
(C) As polite and considerate
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) As polite and considerate
Explanation: The listeners show respect and concern for the grandmother’s well-being and attentively listen, indicating consideration.
51. What is the role of the storyteller in Naga society?
(A) A bearer of traditional lore
(B) A bearer of history
(C) A bearer of truth
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The storyteller conveys traditional lore, historical memory, and emotional truths, making her role multifaceted.
52. Which colloquial word is an equivalent of the term ‘grandmother’ that has been used in the extract?
(A) Grandma
(B) Granny
(C) Matriarch
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Granny
Explanation: The extract uses the word Granny, a colloquial and affectionate term for grandmother.
53. Why does the storyteller feel that the ‘youngsters of today have forgotten how to listen to the voice of the earth and the wind’?
(A) As they are skeptical
(B) As they are inattentive
(C) As they are disbelievers
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The youngsters are described as skeptical, inattentive, and disbelieving, showing a disconnect from nature.
54. What is the initial note of the song compared to in the extract of the story?
(A) A hymn
(B) Blowing of a peculiar wind
(C) A low hum
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The song is described as a peculiar wind, a hymn, and a low hum, blending natural and musical imagery.
55. Pick up an equivalent of the word ‘cadence’ or ‘rhythm’ from the extract of the story.
(A) Hum
(B) Lilt
(C) Tune
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Words like hum, lilt, and tune all suggest musical rhythm, capturing the cadence of the song.
56. Which phrase in the extract of the story describes the feeling of surprise or astonishment with reference to the storyteller?
(A) Peculiar glow on her face
(B) More alive and animated
(C) As though seeing them for the first time
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: All three phrases reflect the storyteller’s transformation and the astonishment felt by both her and the listeners.
57. The narrator seemed out of joint because
(A) she was unwell
(B) she was listless
(C) she was trapped in dark thoughts
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The narrator was listless, possibly unwell, and agitated, suggesting she was trapped in dark thoughts.
58. Which phrase in the extract is a close equivalent of ‘pin-drop silence’?
(A) Death-like silence
(B) Haunted silence
(C) Icy silence
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Death-like silence
Explanation: The phrase death-like silence conveys a complete stillness, similar to pin-drop silence.
59. What made the listeners ‘skeptical’?
(A) They were educated
(B) They were rational
(C) They could hear nothing
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) They could hear nothing
Explanation: The listeners initially could not hear the wind or song, leading to their skepticism.
60. Which elemental feeling is most prominent in the story?
(A) Tragic
(B) Elegiac
(C) Ghostly
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The story evokes a tragic memory of Apenyo’s death, carries an elegiac tone through the grandmother’s narration, and is filled with ghostly imagery like the wind and song from the graveyard.
61. Which word in the extract is closest in meaning to the phrase ‘whips around’?
(A) Whirling
(B) Hover
(C) Blows
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Whirling
Explanation: The word whirling captures the sudden, circular motion implied by ‘whips around’, especially in the context of the wind’s movement.
62. Why is the narrator described as ‘chirpy’?
(A) As she chirps like a bird
(B) As she is cheerful
(C) As she is ill-tempered
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) As she is cheerful
Explanation: The term ‘chirpy’ is used to describe someone who is lively and cheerful, which reflects the grandmother’s usual demeanor before she becomes anxious.
63. What memories did the song bring back to the narrator and the listeners?
(A) Anniversary of that dreadful Sunday
(B) Death anniversary of Apenyo
(C) An incidence of violence
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The song recalls the anniversary of Black Sunday, Apenyo’s death, and the atrocities committed in the village, making all options relevant.
64. Why is that particular day referred to as ‘Black Sunday’?
(A) Death of Apenyo and atrocities suffered by the villagers on a certain Sunday
(B) Religious associations with the crucifixion of Lord Jesus Christ
(C) Atrocities suffered by the villagers on a certain Sunday
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Death of Apenyo and atrocities suffered by the villagers on a certain Sunday
Explanation: The term ‘Black Sunday’ is used to mark the tragic events, including Apenyo’s death and village suffering, making it a symbol of collective grief.
65. Why do you think the narrator ‘squats on the bare earth’?
(A) She was too poor to have furniture
(B) She didn’t like sitting on stools and chairs
(C) It was a common way of sitting by the village folk of Nagaland
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) It was a common way of sitting by the village folk of Nagaland
Explanation: In traditional Naga culture, squatting on the bare earth is a customary posture, especially during storytelling gatherings, reflecting cultural authenticity.
66. Distribute these mangoes between all the fifty students.
(A) Distribute these
(B) mangoes between all
(C) the fifty students.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) mangoes between all
Explanation: The word ‘between’ is used for two entities, but here it refers to fifty students, so the correct word should be ‘among’.
67. Unless you don’t work hard, you can’t get success.
(A) Unless you don’t
(B) work hard,
(C) you can’t get success.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Unless you don’t
Explanation: The phrase ‘Unless you don’t’ is incorrect because ‘unless’ already implies a negative condition, so ‘don’t’ is redundant.
68. Start early, lest you should miss the train.
(A) Start early,
(B) lest you should
(C) miss the train.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: The sentence is grammatically correct. The use of ‘lest’ with ‘should’ is appropriate to express prevention of an undesirable outcome.
69. He talked as if he was a mad.
(A) He talked
(B) as if he
(C) was a mad.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) was a mad.
Explanation: The phrase ‘a mad’ is incorrect. ‘Mad’ is an adjective, not a countable noun, so it should be ‘was mad’.
70. My watch, which was damaged is now useless.
(A) My watch,
(B) which was damaged
(C) is now useless.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) which was damaged
Explanation: The clause ‘which was damaged’ should be separated by commas on both sides. The missing comma after ‘damaged’ makes it grammatically incorrect.
71. She ought to have obey her parents.
(A) She ought
(B) to have obey
(C) her parents.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) to have obey
Explanation: The correct form is ‘to have obeyed’. The perfect infinitive requires the past participle, not the base form.
72. You will get wet if you will go out in the rain.
(A) You will get wet
(B) if you will
(C) go out in the rain.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) if you will
Explanation: In conditional sentences, the ‘if’ clause should use simple present tense, so ‘will’ is incorrect here.
73. He is one of greatest leader of my country.
(A) He is one
(B) of greatest
(C) leader of my country.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) of greatest
Explanation: The correct phrase is ‘one of the greatest leaders’. The article ‘the’ and plural ‘leaders’ are missing.
74. Neither you nor he are guilty.
(A) Neither you
(B) nor he
(C) are guilty.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) are guilty.
Explanation: When using ‘neither…nor’, the verb should agree with the nearest subject, which is ‘he’, so it should be ‘is guilty’.
75. Neither of the three pens will do.
(A) Neither of the
(B) three pens
(C) will do.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Neither of the
Explanation: ‘Neither’ is used when referring to two items, but here it refers to three pens, so the correct word should be ‘none’.
76. She alone in the city for almost a decade now. (Use past perfect continuous)
(A) has been living
(B) had been living
(C) was living
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) had been living
Explanation: The sentence requires past perfect continuous tense, which is correctly expressed as ‘had been living’, indicating an action continuing up to a point in the past.
77. He fled where his pursuers could not follow. The underlined section is
(A) an adjective clause
(B) an adverb clause
(C) an adverb phrase
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) an adverb clause
Explanation: The clause ‘where his pursuers could not follow’ modifies the verb ‘fled’, indicating place, which makes it an adverb clause.
78. The umbrella with a wooden handle is mine. (Identify the correct clause/phrase for the underlined part)
(A) An adjective clause
(B) An adverb clause
(C) An adverb phrase
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: The phrase ‘with a wooden handle’ is a prepositional phrase modifying ‘umbrella’, but it is not a clause, hence none of the above fits.
79. I have some duties. I must perform them. (Use an infinitive to join the sentences)
(A) I must perform the duties that I have.
(B) I must perform some of the duties that I have.
(C) I have some duties to perform.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) I have some duties to perform.
Explanation: The sentence uses the infinitive ‘to perform’ to combine both ideas into a single, concise expression.
80. He deserved to succeed. He failed. (Use an adverb or an adverbial phrase to join the sentences)
(A) He deserved to succeed but he failed.
(B) He failed undeservedly.
(C) He failed though he deserved to succeed.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Both options (A) and (C) use adverbial phrases to show contrast, and (B) uses an adverb, making more than one correct.
81. Her husband died. She heard the news. She fainted. (Use a preposition with a noun or gerund to join the sentences)
(A) She fainted when she heard the news of her husband’s death.
(B) On hearing the news of her husband’s death she fainted.
(C) As soon as she heard the news of her husband’s death she fainted.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) On hearing the news of her husband’s death she fainted.
Explanation: The phrase ‘On hearing’ uses a preposition with a gerund, which is the required grammatical structure.
82. He jumped up. He ran away. (Use a participle to join the sentences)
(A) Jumping up he ran away.
(B) He jumped up and ran away.
(C) He ran away after jumping up.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Jumping up he ran away.
Explanation: The sentence uses the present participle ‘Jumping’ to combine the two actions into a single sentence.
83. Insert the punctuation marks in the following : She read the short story Kafan and adapted it to a radio play
(A) She read the short story “Kafan” and adapted it to a radio play.
(B) She read the short story ‘Kafan’ and adapted it to a radio play
(C) She read the short story ‘Kafan’ and adapted it to a radio play.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Both (A) and (C) are correctly punctuated, using quotation marks and full stop, making more than one correct.
84. If he is at home, I shall see him. It is a
(A) simple sentence
(B) compound sentence
(C) complex sentence
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) complex sentence
Explanation: The sentence has a main clause and a subordinate clause introduced by ‘if’, making it a complex sentence.
85. You must hurry or you will miss the train. It is a
(A) simple sentence
(B) compound sentence
(C) complex sentence
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) compound sentence
Explanation: The sentence consists of two independent clauses joined by the coordinating conjunction ‘or’, making it a compound sentence.
86. ‘You ate fish’ is an example of
(A) clause
(B) phrase
(C) sentence
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) sentence
Explanation: The phrase ‘You ate fish’ contains a subject and a predicate, forming a complete thought, which qualifies it as a sentence.
87. Which one of the following options is correct about the sentence, “That which cannot be read.”?
(A) Illegible
(B) Ineligible
(C) Invisible
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Illegible
Explanation: The word ‘Illegible’ means not readable, which directly matches the meaning of ‘That which cannot be read’.
88. The antonym of the word ‘scurrilous’ is
(A) outrageous
(B) decent
(C) moderate
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) decent
Explanation: ‘Scurrilous’ refers to abusive or vulgar language, and its opposite is ‘decent’, which implies polite and respectful speech.
89. “I left that house.” What is the underlined word ‘that’, according to the English grammar?
(A) Demonstrative pronoun
(B) Adverb
(C) Noun
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Demonstrative pronoun
Explanation: The word ‘that’ is used to point out a specific house, making it a demonstrative pronoun.
90. The correctly spelt word in the following is
(A) Synchronize
(B) Synchromize
(C) Syncronize
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Synchronize
Explanation: The correct spelling is ‘Synchronize’, which means to coordinate or match timing.
91. The misspelt word in the following is
(A) Irrepressible
(B) Beaurocracy
(C) Pussilanimity
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Both ‘Beaurocracy’ and ‘Pussilanimity’ are misspelt. The correct spellings are ‘Bureaucracy’ and ‘Pusillanimity’.
92. A person who is bad in spelling is known as
(A) philogynist
(B) phonologist
(C) cacographist
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) cacographist
Explanation: A cacographist is someone who spells poorly, derived from ‘cacography’, meaning bad handwriting or spelling.
93. The word most nearly opposite to the word ‘opprobrious’ is
(A) Vituperative
(B) Complimentary
(C) Truculent
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Complimentary
Explanation: ‘Opprobrious’ means expressing scorn or criticism, and its opposite is ‘Complimentary’, which means expressing praise.
94. The term ‘quinquennial’ stands for
(A) happening in four years
(B) happening in six years
(C) happening in seven years
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (E) None of the above
Explanation: The term ‘quinquennial’ means happening every five years, which is not listed among the options.
95. A compound sentence consists of
(A) two principal clauses
(B) one principal clause
(C) one principal clause and one subordinate clause
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) two principal clauses
Explanation: A compound sentence is made up of two independent (principal) clauses joined by a coordinating conjunction.
96. The Prince said, “It gives me great pleasure to be here this evening.” (Change into reported speech)
(A) The Prince said, it gives me great pleasure to be here this evening.
(B) The Prince said, it gave me great pleasure to be here this evening.
(C) The Prince said, it had given him great pleasure to be here this evening.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) The Prince said, it had given him great pleasure to be here this evening.
Explanation: In reported speech, present tense verbs shift to past perfect when reporting a past statement. ‘It gives’ becomes ‘it had given’, and ‘me’ becomes ‘him’.
97. He inquired whether his name was not Ahmed. (Change into direct speech)
(A) He said to him, ‘Is not your name Ahmed?’
(B) He said to him, “Is not your name Ahmed?”
(C) He said to him, ‘Is your name not Ahmed?’
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) He said to him, ‘Is your name not Ahmed?’
Explanation: The correct direct speech form of an indirect inquiry uses interrogative structure with proper word order: ‘Is your name not Ahmed?’
98. dot your is and cross your ts then add two 5s and four 2s (Use punctuation marks)
(A) Dot your is and cross your t’s; then add two 5’s and four 2’s.
(B) Dot your is and cross your t’s; then add two 5’s and four 2’s
(C) Dot your i’s and cross your t’s; then add two 5’s and four 2’s.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) Dot your i’s and cross your t’s; then add two 5’s and four 2’s.
Explanation: The correct punctuation includes apostrophes for plural letters and numbers, and ‘i’s’ is the correct spelling, not ‘is’.
99. ‘Moonlight’ is a compound word that is formed by
(A) noun + noun
(B) adjective + noun
(C) noun + gerund
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) noun + noun
Explanation: The word ‘moonlight’ combines ‘moon’ (noun) and ‘light’ (noun), forming a noun + noun compound.
100. ‘Red-hot’ is a compound word that is formed by
(A) noun + noun
(B) adjective + adjective
(C) noun + gerund
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) adjective + adjective
Explanation: ‘Red’ and ‘hot’ are both adjectives, and together they form the compound adjective ‘red-hot’.
101. He who has suffered most in the cause, let him speak. The correct sentence is
(A) Let him who has suffered most in the cause speak.
(B) He who has suffered most in the cause should speak.
(C) Let him speak as has suffered most in the cause.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Let him who has suffered most in the cause speak.
Explanation: The correct sentence structure places the imperative verb ‘let’ before the relative clause, ensuring clarity and grammatical correctness.
102. What a terrible fire this is (Use punctuation mark)
(A) Full stop
(B) Exclamation mark
(C) Question mark
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Exclamation mark
Explanation: The sentence expresses strong emotion, so it requires an exclamation mark to convey intensity.
103. He broke the glass. (Change the underlined word into intransitive verb)
(A) The glass was broken.
(B) The glass breaked.
(C) The glass broke.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) The glass broke.
Explanation: The verb ‘broke’ becomes intransitive when the subject ‘glass’ performs the action without a direct object.
104. I am reading David Copperfield. (Point out the tense used in the underlined part)
(A) Past continuous
(B) Present continuous
(C) Future continuous
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Present continuous
Explanation: The verb ‘am reading’ is in the present continuous tense, indicating an action currently in progress.
105. Why did your brother write such a letter? (Change into passive voice)
(A) Why was such a letter written by your brother?
(B) How could such a letter be written by your brother?
(C) What made your brother write such a letter?
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Why was such a letter written by your brother?
Explanation: The correct passive voice form of the question maintains the interrogative structure and shifts the focus to the object ‘letter’.
106. A bolt from the blue
(A) Sudden calamity
(B) A strange person
(C) Blue sky
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Sudden calamity
Explanation: The idiom ‘a bolt from the blue’ refers to a sudden and unexpected event, often shocking or disastrous, like a calamity.
107. Do away with
(A) To obey
(B) To do honestly
(C) To destroy
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) To destroy
Explanation: The phrase ‘do away with’ means to abolish or eliminate something, often implying destruction or removal.
108. To cast a slur on
(A) To praise
(B) To blame
(C) To accuse
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) To blame
Explanation: ‘To cast a slur on’ someone means to blame or insult them, often by making disparaging remarks that damage reputation.
109. To be at sea
(A) Known
(B) Confused
(C) Forced
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) Confused
Explanation: The idiom ‘to be at sea’ means to be confused or uncertain, as if lost without direction, especially in unfamiliar situations.
110. In almost no time
(A) Quickly
(B) Hardly
(C) Lately
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Quickly
Explanation: The phrase ‘in almost no time’ implies something happening very quickly or instantly, with minimal delay.
111. He has been ill Tuesday.
(A) for
(B) on
(C) in
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) for
Explanation: The correct preposition is ‘for’, used to indicate a duration of time. The sentence should be ‘He has been ill for Tuesday’, though more naturally it would be ‘since Tuesday’.
112. She writes a pen.
(A) with
(B) by
(C) from
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) with
Explanation: The correct preposition is ‘with’, used to indicate the instrument used to perform an action. So, ‘She writes with a pen’ is correct.
113. The car was running 40 km/h.
(A) on
(B) up
(C) at
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) at
Explanation: The correct preposition is ‘at’, used to indicate speed. So, ‘The car was running at 40 km/h’ is grammatically correct.
114. He died cholera.
(A) from
(B) of
(C) with
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (B) of
Explanation: The correct preposition is ‘of’, used to indicate the cause of death. So, ‘He died of cholera’ is the proper construction.
115. There is a river my residence.
(A) to
(B) at
(C) beside
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (C) beside
Explanation: The correct preposition is ‘beside’, which means next to or near. So, ‘There is a river beside my residence’ is correct.
116. “Yesterday I saw the film Macbeth. I found the story interesting. The film’s hero, Macbeth, assassinates King Duncan and ascends the throne of Scotland. But he is dissatisfied. He finds himself in a dangerous situation. He executes those he suspects of plotting against him. Eventually, some of the lords revolted and dethroned him and killed him. The message it conveys is that excessive ambition destroys a man. The actor and actress who played Macbeth and Lady Macbeth had exceptional performances, which significantly increased the film’s impact.”
The extract is an example of a
(A) film review
(B) summary
(C) paraphrase
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) film review
Explanation: The passage provides opinions, plot details, and performance evaluation, which are key features of a film review.
117. Delineate the qualities of a good paragraph.
(A) It has to be short
(B) It has to be precise
(C) It has to be to the point
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: A good paragraph should be precise, to the point, and often concise, making more than one option correct.
118. Read the extract given below :
Student : Good morning Sir, how are you?
Teacher : I am completely fine. What about you?
Student : I was wondering which course to learn in my vacation.
Teacher : It can be confusing with so many options online. You should make a list and narrow it down as per your interest.
Student : I have tried that but still I am left with three options—Artificial Intelligence, Machine Learning or Data Science.
Teacher : Well! All of them are very interesting courses, but as far as I remember you have always been interested in Artificial Intelligence.
Student : Yes! I do because I feel it is our future.
Teacher : Well then it’s no harm in pursuing it and later if you find it less interesting you can always switch.
Student : Yes it sounds like a great idea. Thanks!
The above extract is an example of
(A) a conversation
(B) a dialogue
(C) a monologue
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The extract is both a conversation and a dialogue, involving two speakers exchanging ideas, making more than one option correct.
119. Point out the error in the extract given in Q. No. 118.
(A) Use of tenses
(B) Use of adverbial clauses
(C) Use of prepositions
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (A) Use of tenses
Explanation: The sentence “Yes! I do because I feel it is our future” should be “Yes! I did” to maintain tense consistency, indicating an error in tense usage.
120. bought / few / several / like / medicines / items / vegetables / kinds / many / of / a / and / he / avocados. (Arrange the words to make a meaningful sentence)
(A) He bought a few items like medicines, several vegetables and many kinds of avocados.
(B) He bought several items like medicines, a few vegetables and many kinds of avocados.
(C) He bought several items like medicines, many kinds of vegetables and a few avocados.
(D) More than one of the above
(E) None of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Both (B) and (C) are grammatically correct and logically structured, making more than one option valid.