1. Who resigned from the post of Finance Minister of India to support the Sanyukta Maharashtra Movement ?
(1) Yeshwantrao Chavan
(2) Balasaheb Kher
(3) C. D. Deshmukh
(4) K. M. Pannikar
Answer: (3) C. D. Deshmukh
Explanation:
C. D. Deshmukh resigned from the post of Finance Minister in protest against the central government’s stance on the Sanyukta Maharashtra Movement, which demanded a separate state for Marathi-speaking people with Mumbai as its capital. His resignation was a significant political gesture that aligned with the regional aspirations of the movement.
2. Who was the Defence Minister of India when China attacked India in 1962 ?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) P. Sitaramayya
(3) Krishna Menon
(4) Arun Mehta
Answer: (3) Krishna Menon
Explanation:
During the 1962 Sino-Indian War, Krishna Menon was serving as the Defence Minister of India. His tenure was marked by controversy over India’s preparedness and military strategy, and the Chinese aggression exposed serious weaknesses in India’s defense infrastructure, leading to his resignation shortly after the war.
3. Which is the mismatched pair ?
(1) Savitribai Phule – Subodh Ratnakar
(2) Pandita Ramabai – The High Caste Hindu Woman
(3) Vitthal Ramji Shinde – आठवणी व अनुभव Remembrances and Experiences
(4) Shahu Maharaj – Hindu Code Bill
Answer: (4) Shahu Maharaj – Hindu Code Bill
Explanation:
The Hindu Code Bill was a set of laws proposed in independent India, primarily associated with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. Shahu Maharaj, though a progressive ruler, was active in the early 20th century, long before the bill was drafted. Hence, this pairing is historically inaccurate, making it the mismatched pair.
4. Who put forth the thought that “Vedas were not infalliable and that they were created by Aryans” ?
(1) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(2) Vitthal Ramji Shinde
(3) Mahatma Jotiba Phule
(4) Shahu Maharaj
Answer: (3) Mahatma Jotiba Phule
Explanation:
Mahatma Jotiba Phule was a radical social reformer who challenged Brahmanical authority and scriptural infallibility. He argued that the Vedas were man-made, created by Aryans to oppress lower castes. This view aligns with his anti-caste ideology and rationalist thinking.
5. Who did not work for emancipation of women ?
(1) M. G. Ranade
(2) G. G. Agarkar
(3) D. K. Karve
(4) None of the above alternatives is correct
Answer: (4) None of the above alternatives is correct
Explanation:
All three individuals—M. G. Ranade, G. G. Agarkar, and D. K. Karve—were prominent social reformers who actively supported women’s emancipation. Their contributions included advocating widow remarriage, female education, and challenging orthodox norms. Therefore, none of them can be excluded from the list of reformers working for women’s rights.
6. Which two countries were the first to sign the Panchsheel ?
(1) India and France
(2) India and England
(3) India and Japan
(4) India and China
Answer: (4) India and China
Explanation:
The Panchsheel Agreement, outlining five principles of peaceful coexistence, was first signed between India and China in 1954. These principles became a cornerstone of India’s foreign policy, promoting mutual respect and non-interference.
7. Who called the “1857 Uprising” “A War of Independence” ?
(1) Prof. N. R. Phathak
(2) P. E. Roberts
(3) Dr. R. C. Mujumdar
(4) V. D. Sawarkar
Answer: (4) V. D. Sawarkar
Explanation:
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar was the first to describe the 1857 revolt as India’s First War of Independence. His interpretation challenged the British narrative of it being a mere mutiny, and instead framed it as a nationalist struggle.
8. Which act declared separate electorates for Muslims ?
(1) Charter Act of 1813
(2) Morley-Minto Reforms 1909
(3) Montague-Chemsford Reforms 1919
(4) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer: (2) Morley-Minto Reforms 1909
Explanation:
The Morley-Minto Reforms introduced separate electorates for Muslims, marking a significant shift in colonial electoral policy. This provision institutionalized communal representation, laying groundwork for identity-based politics.
9. Which principles did India promote for International Peace and Co-operation ?
(1) Equality of Religion
(2) Non-alliance
(3) Panchasheel
(4) Disarmament
Answer: (3) Panchasheel
Explanation:
India advocated Panchasheel, the five principles of peaceful coexistence, as a framework for international diplomacy. These included mutual respect, non-aggression, and equality, reflecting India’s commitment to global harmony.
10. Consider the following statements regarding Mahadev Govind Ranade
A) He was influenced by Sant Tukaram
B) He established many institutions
C) He was a moderate
D) He promoted adult education and remarriage
(1) B and C are right
(2) A, B, C are right
(3) B, C, D are right
(4) All are right
Answer: (4) All are right
Explanation:
Mahadev Govind Ranade was a moderate reformer influenced by Sant Tukaram’s teachings. He founded several social and educational institutions, and actively supported adult education and widow remarriage, making all statements accurate.
11. Who believed that “a weapon like boycott must be reserved for extreme occasions” ?
(1) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(3) Pherozshah Mehta
(4) Dadabhai Naoroji
Answer: (2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Explanation:
Gopal Krishna Gokhale, a moderate nationalist, emphasized constitutional methods and gradual reform. He believed boycott should be used only in extreme situations, not as a routine political tool, reflecting his cautious and pragmatic approach.
12. Which of the following is wrongly matched ?
(1) Rayat Shikshan Sanstha – Karmavir Bhaurao Patil
(2) Jagruk – Walchand Kothari
(3) Dinmitra – Mukundrao Patil
(4) Maratha League – Sayajirao Gaikwad
Answer: (4) Maratha League – Sayajirao Gaikwad
Explanation:
Sayajirao Gaikwad was a progressive ruler of Baroda but not associated with the Maratha League, which was a political organization. This makes the pairing historically inaccurate, hence wrongly matched.
13. Consider the following statements in respect of Himalayan rivers :
a) They have a great eroding capacity
b) These are perennial rivers
c) These rivers have not formed ‘gorges’
d) Most of these rivers have their origin in upper Himalayas
Which of the statements given above is / are not correct ?
(1) Only a, b
(2) Only c
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) a, b, d
Answer: (2) Only c
Explanation:
Himalayan rivers are known for their high erosive power, are perennial, and originate in the upper Himalayas. They have carved deep gorges, especially in the young fold mountains, making statement c incorrect.
14. Match the following :
Column I (Type of forest)
A) Evergreen
B) Deciduous
C) Thorny
D) Coastal
Column II (Trees)
I) Babul
II) Rubber
III) Mangroves
IV) Teak
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Answer: (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Explanation:
- Evergreen forests → Rubber
- Deciduous forests → Teak
- Thorny forests → Babul
- Coastal forests → Mangroves
This matching reflects the correct ecological associations of forest types and tree species.
15. What is the name of low pressure belt located near the equator in the Indian ocean ?
(1) Intra-tropical centralized zone
(2) Western jet stream
(3) Tropical low pressure belt
(4) None of these
Answer: (3) Tropical low pressure belt
Explanation:
Near the equator, intense solar heating creates a tropical low pressure belt, also known as the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ). It influences monsoon patterns and global wind circulation.
16. Match the following :
Column I (Dam)
A) Koyna
B) Bhatghar
C) Manikdoh
D) Bhandardara
Column II (Lake)
I) Shahaji Sagar
II) Shivsagar
III) Arthur Lake
IV) Yesajikank
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Explanation:
- Koyna Dam → Shivsagar Lake
- Bhatghar Dam → Yesajikank Lake
- Manikdoh Dam → Arthur Lake
- Bhandardara Dam → Shahaji Sagar
These pairings reflect the correct reservoir associations.
17. The Sandy ‘Loam’ soil is favourable for the growth of which crop ?
(1) Jawar
(2) Nachani
(3) Rice
(4) Tea
Answer: (1) Jawar
Explanation:
Sandy loam soil is well-drained, moderately fertile, and suitable for Jawar (Sorghum), which thrives in semi-arid conditions. It is not ideal for water-intensive crops like rice or tea.
18. Which type of forests are the most extensive in India ?
(1) Tropical moist deciduous forests
(2) Tropical dry evergreen forests
(3) Tropical dry deciduous forests
(4) Tropical semi-evergreen forests
Answer: (3) Tropical dry deciduous forests
Explanation:
Tropical dry deciduous forests cover the largest area in India. They are found in low rainfall regions, dominated by species like teak and sal, and are seasonally leaf-shedding.
19. Why in Maharashtra the Standing Committee of Zilla Parishad considered most powerful ?
(1) Committee is constituted as per law
(2) Committee consists of influencial members of Zilla Parishad
(3) President of Zilla Parishad is ex-officio Chairman and Chairmen of other Committees are ex-officio members
(4) Chief Executive Officer of Zilla Parishad is the Secretary of the Committee
Answer: (3) President of Zilla Parishad is ex-officio Chairman and Chairmen of other Committees are ex-officio members
Explanation:
The Standing Committee holds executive authority, with the President as ex-officio Chairman, giving it centralized control over financial and administrative decisions, making it the most powerful.
20. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(1) Provides at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to unskilled adult in rural area
(2) Provides employment to each and every adult who lives in rural area
(3) Provides minimum wages to unskilled labour in urban area
(4) All the above
Answer: (1) Provides at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to unskilled adult in rural area
Explanation:
MGNREGA guarantees 100 days of wage employment annually to unskilled adults in rural areas, aiming to reduce poverty and enhance livelihood security. It does not apply to urban areas.
21. Who provides the basic information about land records, land revenue and land reforms in Maharashtra ?
(1) Tahsildar
(2) Gramsevak
(3) Talathi
(4) Police Patil
Answer: (3) Talathi
Explanation:
The Talathi is the village-level revenue officer responsible for maintaining land records, collecting land revenue, and implementing land reforms. They serve as the primary source of information for land-related matters in Maharashtra.
22. Consider the following statements :
- The MPSC was set up on 1-5-1960.
- The Bombay PSC earlier covered Bombay and Gujrat States.
- The Commission traces its origin to the PSC for the provinces of Bombay and Sind.
(1) Only 1
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (4) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All three statements are correct. The Maharashtra Public Service Commission (MPSC) was established on May 1, 1960, after the formation of Maharashtra state. Its predecessor, the Bombay PSC, served both Bombay and Gujarat, and its roots trace back to the PSC for Bombay and Sind provinces.
23. By which Act free and fair competition for recruitment to Indian Administration has been first accepted ?
(1) Regulating Act 1773
(2) Charter Act 1833
(3) Charter Act 1853
(4) Indian Council Act 1861
Answer: (3) Charter Act 1853
Explanation:
The Charter Act of 1853 introduced open competitive examinations for recruitment to the Indian Civil Services, marking the beginning of merit-based selection in Indian administration.
24. The provision of Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution has been adopted from that of which country ?
(1) France
(2) USA
(3) USSR
(4) UK
Answer: (3) USSR
Explanation:
The concept of Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Constitution of the USSR, emphasizing citizens’ responsibilities alongside rights.
25. How has the “Instrument of instructions” contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 been incorporated in the Constitution of India ?
(1) Fundamental Rights
(2) Directive Principles of State Policy
(3) Fundamental Duties
(4) Union List
Answer: (2) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation:
The Instrument of Instructions from the 1935 Act was adapted into the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution, guiding the government’s policy-making.
26. Which of the following statements are correct ?
a) Gujarat has made voting in local bodies compulsory.
b) Gujarat is the second state in the country to make voting compulsory in local elections.
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) a and b
(4) Neither a nor b
Answer: (3) a and b
Explanation:
Gujarat enacted legislation making voting compulsory in local body elections, becoming the second state in India to do so, after Nagaland.
27. Arrange the following committees in chronological order in which they were constituted.
a) G. V. K. Rao Committee
b) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
c) Ashok Mehta Committee
d) K. Santhanam Committee
(1) b-c-d-a
(2) b-a-d-c
(3) b-a-c-d
(4) b-d-c-a
Answer: (4) b-d-c-a
Explanation:
Chronological order:
- Balwantrai Mehta Committee (1957)
- K. Santhanam Committee (1963)
- Ashok Mehta Committee (1977)
- G. V. K. Rao Committee (1985)
This sequence reflects the evolution of decentralization and administrative reforms.
28. Which of the following statements are correct ?
a) Article 243-O bars the interference by courts in electoral matters of Panchayats
b) The validity of an election to any Panchayat can be challenged only through an election petition as provided by the legislature of the state
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) a and b
(4) neither a nor b
Answer: (3) a and b
Explanation:
Article 243-O of the Constitution ensures that courts cannot interfere in Panchayat elections, and any challenge must be made via election petition, as per state legislation.
29. If a member of Parliament is found sitting in the other house of the Parliament, how much maximum fine he/she may have to pay ?
(1) ₹ 1000
(2) ₹ 2500
(3) ₹ 5000
(4) There is no such fine
Answer: (3) ₹ 5000
Explanation:
A Member of Parliament found sitting in the other house may be fined up to ₹ 5000, as per Parliamentary rules, to maintain procedural discipline.
30. Which of the following statements are correct ?
a) For Panchayats, seats are reserved for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes but not for women.
b) A Panchayat elected after dissolution does not enjoy the full period but remains in office for the remaining period only.
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) a and b
(4) neither a nor b
Answer: (2) b only
Explanation:
Statement a is incorrect because seats are reserved for women in Panchayats under Article 243D. Statement b is correct—a reconstituted Panchayat after dissolution serves only the remaining term, not a full tenure.
31. In which century (A.D.) did Issac Newton put forth his three laws of motion ?
(1) 16th century
(2) 17th century
(3) 18th century
(4) 19th century
Answer: (2) 17th century
Explanation:
Isaac Newton formulated his three laws of motion in the 17th century, specifically in 1687, when he published his work Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica. These laws laid the foundation for classical mechanics.
32. Light exists as tiny particles which are called
(1) electrons
(2) positrons
(3) photons
(4) protons
Answer: (3) photons
Explanation:
Photons are elementary particles that represent quantum packets of light energy. They exhibit both wave and particle properties, and are responsible for electromagnetic radiation, including visible light.
33. Which nuclear fuel was used in the two atom bombs dropped in Japan at Hiroshima and Nagasaki in 1945 ?
(1) only uranium
(2) only plutonium
(3) only radium
(4) uranium and plutonium
Answer: (4) uranium and plutonium
Explanation:
The bomb dropped on Hiroshima used uranium-235, while the one on Nagasaki used plutonium-239. Both are fissile materials capable of sustaining nuclear chain reactions, leading to massive explosive energy release.
34. The depletion of the ozone layer surrounding our earth increases our exposure to
(1) UV radiation
(2) IR radiation
(3) Visible radiation
(4) Microwave radiation
Answer: (1) UV radiation
Explanation:
The ozone layer absorbs most of the sun’s ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Its depletion allows more UV rays to reach the Earth’s surface, increasing risks of skin cancer, eye damage, and ecosystem disruption.
35. Which radioactive substance was discovered by the French Scientist Marie Curie ?
(1) Uranium
(2) Radium
(3) Thorium
(4) Plutonium
Answer: (2) Radium
Explanation:
Marie Curie, along with Pierre Curie, discovered radium in 1898 while studying radioactive elements. Radium is a highly radioactive metal, and its discovery was pivotal in the development of nuclear physics.
36. The method of CT scan used in modern medical imaging uses
(1) Alpha rays
(2) Sound waves
(3) X-rays
(4) Microwaves
Answer: (3) X-rays
Explanation:
CT (Computed Tomography) scans use X-rays to produce cross-sectional images of the body. These rays penetrate tissues and are detected to create detailed 3D representations, aiding in diagnosis and treatment planning.
37. For a satellite going around the earth, which of the following statements is not correct ?
- It is a freely falling body
- It has no acceleration
- It is moving with a constant speed
- Work done by the force acting on it is zero
(1) only 1
(2) 1 and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 2 and 4
Answer: (3) 2 and 3
Explanation:
A satellite in orbit is a freely falling body under the influence of gravity, but it does have acceleration due to centripetal force, and its speed may vary depending on the orbit. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
38. Which Indian scientific organisation developed the ICBM missile, Agni – V, recently launched by India ?
(1) ISRO
(2) DRDO
(3) CSIR
(4) BARC
Answer: (2) DRDO
Explanation:
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) developed Agni-V, India’s intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM). It showcases India’s capability in strategic defense technology.
39. Whose theory brought in a transition from classical physics to modern physics ?
(1) Issac Newton
(2) C. V. Raman
(3) H. J. Bhabha
(4) Max Planck
Answer: (4) Max Planck
Explanation:
Max Planck’s quantum theory, introduced in 1900, marked the shift from classical physics to modern physics. His concept of quantized energy levels revolutionized understanding of atomic and subatomic phenomena.
40. Which scientist proposed the theory that the sun is at the centre of our solar system ?
(1) Copernicus
(2) Newton
(3) Galileo
(4) Rutherford
Answer: (1) Copernicus
Explanation:
Nicolaus Copernicus proposed the heliocentric model, stating that the sun is at the center of the solar system and planets revolve around it. This theory challenged the geocentric view and laid the foundation for modern astronomy.
41. In India the first nuclear power plant was built in 1963. The total number of nuclear power plants built in India during 1963 – 2011 are about
(1) Ten
(2) Twenty
(3) Thirty
(4) Forty
Answer: (2) Twenty
Explanation:
Between 1963 and 2011, India established approximately twenty nuclear power plants. These include major facilities like Tarapur, Kakrapar, Kalpakkam, and Rawatbhata, contributing to the country’s energy diversification strategy.
42. What percentage of World’s electricity is produced by nuclear power plants ? (give approximate percentage)
(1) about 50%
(2) about 25%
(3) about 13%
(4) about 3%
Answer: (3) about 13%
Explanation:
Globally, nuclear power plants contribute around 13% of total electricity generation. This figure reflects the limited but significant role of nuclear energy in the global energy mix, especially in countries like France, USA, and Russia.
43. To which India-born physicist a Nobel Prize was awarded for his research related to the structure and evolution of stars ?
(1) C. V. Raman
(2) Amartya Sen
(3) Meghnad Saha
(4) S. Chandrashekar
Answer: (4) S. Chandrashekar
Explanation:
Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar, born in India, received the Nobel Prize in Physics (1983) for his work on the structure and evolution of stars, including the formulation of the Chandrasekhar limit, which predicts the fate of white dwarfs.
44. What is the name of the technical person who brought revolution in India’s telecommunication system after 1984 ?
(1) Vikram Sarabhai
(2) Sam Pitroda
(3) Raja Ramanna
(4) Madhavan Nair
Answer: (2) Sam Pitroda
Explanation:
Sam Pitroda played a pivotal role in modernizing India’s telecom infrastructure post-1984. His initiatives led to the expansion of digital switching, rural connectivity, and the foundation of India’s IT revolution.
45. What is the Indian Institute of Remote Sensing part of ?
(1) ISRO
(2) GSI
(3) DAE
(4) CSIR
Answer: (1) ISRO
Explanation:
The Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS) is a unit of ISRO, dedicated to training and research in remote sensing, GIS, and satellite data applications, supporting space-based resource management.
46. What has the geostationary satellite INSAT put in orbit by ISRO India improved ?
(1) Geological survey
(2) Highway systems
(3) Wireless Communication systems
(4) River systems
Answer: (3) Wireless Communication systems
Explanation:
The INSAT series, launched by ISRO, significantly enhanced wireless communication, including television broadcasting, telemedicine, disaster warning, and meteorological services, across India’s vast geography.
47. India’s future plans for nuclear energy are based on a particular nuclear fuel which is found in plenty in the monazite sands of India’s seashore. What is the name of this nuclear fuel ?
(1) Uranium
(2) Thorium
(3) Plutonium
(4) Radium
Answer: (2) Thorium
Explanation:
Thorium, abundant in monazite sands along India’s coasts, is central to India’s three-stage nuclear program. It offers a safer and more sustainable alternative to uranium, with potential for long-term energy security.
48. ‘Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. It may be converted from one form to another’. What law of thermodynamics is this ?
(1) Third law
(2) First law
(3) Zeroth law
(4) Second law
Answer: (2) First law
Explanation:
The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy is conserved—it cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed. This principle governs all physical and chemical processes, including heat engines and biological systems.
49. At what temperatures on centigrade scale is represented by the same temperature on Fahrenheit scale ?
(1) -40
(2) -100
(3) -32
(4) +273
Answer: (1) -40
Explanation:
At -40 degrees, both Celsius and Fahrenheit scales coincide. This is a unique crossover point, derived from the formula:
F = (C × 9/5) + 32, which yields F = -40 when C = -40.
50. If heat is supplied to a metal what happens to its temperatures ?
(1) always increases
(2) always decreases
(3) may remain constant
(4) increases or remains constant
Answer: (4) increases or remains constant
Explanation:
When heat is supplied to a metal, its temperature generally increases. However, during phase changes (like melting), the temperature may remain constant while energy is used to change the state, not raise temperature.
51. Which of the following carbon isotopes is used to determine the age of plant or animal ?
(1) C-14
(2) C-12
(3) C-13
(4) None of these
Answer: (1) C-14
Explanation:
Carbon-14 (C-14) is a radioactive isotope used in radiocarbon dating to estimate the age of organic materials. It decays at a known rate, making it ideal for dating plants and animals up to 50,000 years old.
52. Match the following :
A) Albert Einstein
B) E. O. Lawrence
C) de Broglie
- Photoelectric effect
- Cyclotron
- Wave nature of electrons
(1) A-1 B-3 C-2
(2) A-2 B-1 C-3
(3) A-3 B-1 C-2
(4) A-1 B-2 C-3
Answer: (4) A-1 B-2 C-3
Explanation:
- Albert Einstein → Photoelectric effect
- E. O. Lawrence → Cyclotron
- de Broglie → Wave nature of electrons
These associations reflect each scientist’s key contribution to modern physics.
53. When a wave continues to propagate in still air, which of the following quantities decreases ?
(1) Amplitude
(2) Period
(3) Frequency
(4) Speed
Answer: (1) Amplitude
Explanation:
As a wave travels through still air, its amplitude decreases due to energy loss from friction and dispersion. However, its frequency, period, and speed remain unchanged in a uniform medium.
54. What is Grass-Grasshopper-Frog-Snake-Eagle, foodchain called ?
(1) Marshy Ecosystem
(2) Grassland Ecosystem
(3) Agro Ecosystem
(4) Forest Ecosystem
Answer: (2) Grassland Ecosystem
Explanation:
This food chain represents a typical grassland ecosystem, where producers (grass) are consumed by primary consumers (grasshopper), followed by secondary and tertiary predators, forming a balanced ecological hierarchy.
55. The purest form of iron is
(1) Cast iron
(2) Wrought iron
(3) Steel
(4) Stainless Steel
Answer: (2) Wrought iron
Explanation:
Wrought iron is the purest form of iron, containing very low carbon content. It is malleable, corrosion-resistant, and used in ornamental and structural applications.
56. Which of the following metals occur in free and native state ?
(1) Mg, Ca
(2) Ni, Zn
(3) Fe, Al
(4) Pt, Au
Answer: (4) Pt, Au
Explanation:
Platinum (Pt) and Gold (Au) are noble metals that occur in free and native state due to their low reactivity. They are often found as metallic nuggets in natural deposits.
57. Minamata disease found in Japan was due to
(1) As poisoning
(2) Cd poisoning
(3) Pb poisoning
(4) Hg poisoning
Answer: (4) Hg poisoning
Explanation:
Minamata disease was caused by mercury (Hg) poisoning, resulting from industrial discharge into Minamata Bay. It led to neurological damage in people who consumed contaminated seafood.
58. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
- Gravitational force is a force of attraction only.
- Nuclear force can be attractive or repulsive.
- Electrostatic force can be attractive or repulsive.
- Gravitational force is a force of repulsion only
(1) Only 4
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 3
(4) 2 and 4
Answer: (2) 2 and 3
Explanation:
- Nuclear force can be attractive or repulsive, depending on distance between nucleons.
- Electrostatic force acts between charged particles, and can be attractive (opposite charges) or repulsive (like charges).
- Gravitational force is always attractive, making statement 4 incorrect.
59. What is the atmospheric pressure at sea level ?
(1) 76 cm
(2) 29.9 inch
(3) 1013.2 millibar
(4) all the above
Answer: (4) all the above
Explanation:
Standard atmospheric pressure at sea level is expressed as:
- 76 cm of mercury
- 29.9 inches of mercury
- 1013.2 millibar
All are equivalent measures, hence all options are correct.
60. Which of the following scientists was not awarded Noble prize in Physics ?
(1) Niel Bohr
(2) Einstein
(3) Jagdishchandra Bose
(4) C. V. Raman
Answer: (3) Jagdishchandra Bose
Explanation:
While Jagdishchandra Bose made pioneering contributions to radio and plant physiology, he was not awarded the Nobel Prize. The others—Bohr, Einstein, and Raman—were recognized with Nobel Prizes in Physics.
61. In the recent past the export of which commodities have sharply risen ?
(1) Sugar and cotton
(2) Gold and silver
(3) Tea and coffee
(4) Electronic goods and software
Answer: (4) Electronic goods and software
Explanation:
India has seen a sharp rise in exports of electronic goods and software, driven by the IT sector boom and increasing global demand for digital services and hardware components.
62. As per the recommendations of Prof. Hashmi Committee which of the following programmes was not included in Swarna Jayanti Gram Rojgar Yojana ?
(1) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(2) Bharat Nirman Programme
(3) Ganga’s Welfare Plan
(4) Million Wells Plan
Answer: (2) Bharat Nirman Programme
Explanation:
The Bharat Nirman Programme was launched as a separate rural infrastructure initiative, not part of the Swarna Jayanti Gram Rojgar Yojana, which focused on employment generation through schemes like IRDP, Ganga Kalyan, and Million Wells Plan.
63. Which tax system is used for levying taxes in India ?
(1) Proportional taxes
(2) Progressive taxes
(3) Regressive taxes
(4) Degressive taxes
Answer: (2) Progressive taxes
Explanation:
India follows a progressive tax system, where tax rates increase with income levels, ensuring equity and redistribution of wealth through higher contributions from high-income groups.
64. Special tax is levied on which one of the following ?
(1) On volume of commodity
(2) On weight of commodity
(3) On features and quality of commodity
(4) On volume and weight of commodity
Answer: (3) On features and quality of commodity
Explanation:
Special taxes are imposed based on the features and quality of commodities, often targeting luxury goods or high-end products, reflecting their value and consumption pattern.
65. Which of the following is not a type of Audit of Public Enterprises ?
(1) Government Department Audit
(2) Government Statutory Corporations Audit
(3) Co-operative Societies Audit
(4) Government Companies Audit
Answer: (3) Co-operative Societies Audit
Explanation:
Co-operative Societies Audit is conducted under state cooperative laws, not considered part of public enterprise audits, which include government departments, statutory corporations, and government companies.
66. What is the basic objective of the Agricultural Prices Commission ?
(1) Balanced Price Structure
(2) Integrated Price Structure
(3) Options 1 and 2 above
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) Options 1 and 2 above
Explanation:
The Agricultural Prices Commission aims to ensure both balanced and integrated price structures, stabilizing farm incomes and promoting fair returns through Minimum Support Prices (MSP).
67. What were the main features of the Import-Export Policy during post-reform period ?
(1) Saving foreign exchange and domestic production
(2) Free Import-Export Policy and Rationalisation of Tariff structure thereof
(3) Self-reliance and import substitution
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2) Free Import-Export Policy and Rationalisation of Tariff structure thereof
Explanation:
Post-1991 reforms emphasized liberalized trade, with free import-export policies and tariff rationalization, aiming to integrate India into the global economy and boost exports.
68. What was the change in composition of India’s import from 1991 to 2004 ?
(1) Fall in import demand of petrol, lubricant and oil
(2) Rise in import of edible oil, pulses, sugar etc.
(3) Fall in the import of iron and steel
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2) Rise in import of edible oil, pulses, sugar etc.
Explanation:
Between 1991 and 2004, India saw an increase in imports of edible oil, pulses, and sugar, driven by domestic demand and agricultural shortfalls, altering the import composition.
69. Which of the following is not the change in India’s Direction of foreign trade ?
(1) Low share of England in Indian Foreign Trade
(2) Fall in India’s trade with countries like Japan and Australia
(3) Rise in India’s foreign trade with Asian and African countries
(4) Fall in import of iron and steel
Answer: (4) Fall in import of iron and steel
Explanation:
Changes in direction of foreign trade refer to geographical shifts in trade partners. The fall in iron and steel imports is a compositional change, not a directional shift, making option 4 incorrect.
70. Which among the following is termed as ‘Rainbow Revolution’ ?
(1) Population Policy
(2) New Industrial Policy
(3) New Agricultural Policy
(4) New Banking Policy
Answer: (3) New Agricultural Policy
Explanation:
The Rainbow Revolution refers to the New Agricultural Policy, encompassing diversified growth across food grains, horticulture, livestock, and fisheries, aiming for holistic rural development.
71. Auditing and Evaluation problem is related to which sector among the following ?
(1) Industries in the Private Sector
(2) Industries in the Public Sector
(3) Joint Sector
(4) Tertiary Sector
Answer: (2) Industries in the Public Sector
Explanation:
Auditing and evaluation are essential for public sector enterprises, ensuring accountability, transparency, and efficient use of public funds. These processes help monitor performance and compliance with government norms.
72. What was the reason for the sharp increase in Consumer Price Index (CPI) in 2008-09 ?
(1) Decline in money supply
(2) Rapid fall in Foreign Direct Investment
(3) Sharp increase in the prices of foodgrains like wheat, rice and pulses
(4) Improvement in techniques of production
Answer: (3) Sharp increase in the prices of foodgrains like wheat, rice and pulses
Explanation:
The CPI surge in 2008–09 was driven by rising prices of essential food items such as wheat, rice, and pulses, leading to inflationary pressure and affecting household budgets across India.
73. Which among the following is not a feature of (2002-07) Import-Export Policy ?
(1) Removal of restriction on agricultural exports
(2) Promotion of exports by small scale and cottage industries
(3) Import substitution
(4) Development of Special Economic Zone
Answer: (3) Import substitution
Explanation:
The 2002–07 Import-Export Policy focused on liberalization and export promotion, not import substitution, which was a pre-reform strategy. The policy emphasized SEZs and support for small industries.
74. Which among the following is not the source of internal public debt ?
(1) Loans from Banks and other Financial Institutions
(2) Insurance Fund
(3) Provident Fund
(4) Loans from International Monetary Fund
Answer: (4) Loans from International Monetary Fund
Explanation:
Loans from IMF are considered external debt, not part of internal public debt, which includes borrowings from domestic banks, insurance, and provident funds.
75. What was the Narasimhan Committee 1991 related to ?
(1) Poverty
(2) Import Export Policy
(3) Financial System of Bank
(4) Unemployment
Answer: (3) Financial System of Bank
Explanation:
The Narasimhan Committee (1991) was set up to reform India’s banking sector, recommending prudential norms, capital adequacy, and financial liberalization, laying the foundation for modern banking practices.
76. Which of the following measures is used for controlling inflation ?
(1) Changing monetary policy
(2) Reducing import duty
(3) Public distribution system
(4) All above
Answer: (4) All above
Explanation:
Inflation control involves multiple strategies:
- Monetary policy adjustments to regulate money supply
- Reducing import duties to lower prices of goods
- Public distribution systems to ensure affordable access to essentials
77. Which was the year of hyper inflation ?
(1) 1974-75
(2) 2001-02
(3) 2009-10
(4) 2010-11
Answer: (1) 1974-75
Explanation:
India experienced hyperinflation in 1974–75, largely due to the oil crisis, global recession, and domestic supply shocks, causing a sharp rise in prices across sectors.
78. Which products are considered to deduce the Food Index ?
(1) Primary food articles and manufactured food products
(2) Primary food articles and clothes
(3) Manufactured food products, wheat and rice
(4) Sugar, wheat, rice and clothes
Answer: (1) Primary food articles and manufactured food products
Explanation:
The Food Index includes both primary food items (like cereals, pulses) and processed food products, reflecting the overall food price trends in the economy.
79. Which of the following is not an objective of Foreign Trade Policy 2009-2014 ?
(1) To reverse the declining trend of export trade
(2) To achieve an annual export growth of 15 percent
(3) To double India’s share in global trade by 2020
(4) To increase imports of luxury consumer goods
Answer: (4) To increase imports of luxury consumer goods
Explanation:
The Foreign Trade Policy (2009–2014) aimed to boost exports, reverse decline, and enhance global trade share. Promoting luxury imports was not an objective, as it contradicts trade balance goals.
80. In the context of India’s import, export agencies, consider the following :
- Providing insurance cover to exporters against political and commercial risk
- Providing insurance cover to exporters against marine risk
Which of the above is/are objectives of ECGC ?
(1) Only 1
(2) Only 2
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Export Credit Guarantee Corporation (ECGC) provides insurance protection to exporters against political, commercial, and marine risks, helping them mitigate losses and expand trade confidently.
81. In the post independence period to which group of countries have India’s exports risen ?
(1) OECD
(2) OPEC
(3) Eastern Europe
(4) Developing Nations
Answer: (4) Developing Nations
Explanation:
After independence, India’s export focus shifted toward developing nations, especially in Asia, Africa, and Latin America, due to shared economic interests, regional cooperation, and South-South trade initiatives.
82. What does FEMA, 1999 aim at ?
(1) Prohibiting Foreign Tourists
(2) Controlling imports
(3) Prohibiting NRI investment
(4) Facilitating external trade and payment
Answer: (4) Facilitating external trade and payment
Explanation:
The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 was enacted to liberalize foreign exchange regulations, aiming to facilitate external trade, promote orderly development, and ensure smooth payment mechanisms.
83. With reference to the objective of nationalisation of banks, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
- Removal of control by few.
- Provision of adequate credit to agriculture small industries and exports.
- Discouraging private sector investment.
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 3
(4) Only 1
Answer: (1) 1 and 2
Explanation:
The nationalisation of banks in 1969 aimed to eliminate monopoly control, and ensure credit availability to priority sectors like agriculture, small industries, and exports. It did not intend to discourage private investment.
84. What is the major problem of Regional Rural Banks ?
(1) Problem of Recovery
(2) Problem of Working Capital
(3) Problem of illiteracy of customers
(4) Problem of shortage of staff
Answer: (1) Problem of Recovery
Explanation:
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) face challenges in loan recovery, especially due to low income levels, seasonal agriculture, and limited financial literacy among rural borrowers, affecting their financial sustainability.
85. In the context of RBI, consider the following :
- Agriculture
- Small Enterprises
- Construction
- Education Loan
Which of the above areas is included in priority sector lending ?
(1) Only 1
(2) 1 and 2
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (4) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation:
The RBI’s priority sector lending includes agriculture, small enterprises, and education loans, aiming to support inclusive growth. Construction is not part of the priority sector.
86. What is the allotment of districts to various commercial banks for the purpose of rapid branch expansion called as ?
(1) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(2) Lead Bank Scheme
(3) Nationalisation of Commercial Banks
(4) Service Area Approach
Answer: (2) Lead Bank Scheme
Explanation:
The Lead Bank Scheme assigns districts to specific banks to ensure coordinated branch expansion, credit planning, and rural development, making banks accountable for local financial inclusion.
87. What is the purpose of Kisan Credit Scheme of Indian Banks ?
(1) Micro-credit to poor people
(2) Short-term loan to farmers
(3) Crop insurance to farmers
(4) Long term loan to farmers
Answer: (2) Short-term loan to farmers
Explanation:
The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme provides short-term credit to farmers for crop production, enabling timely access to funds for inputs, and reducing dependence on informal lenders.
88. What is/are the objectives of government audit ?
- There is a provision of funds for the expenditure duly authorised by the competent authority.
- The expenditure is in accordance with a sanction properly accorded.
- Payment has been made to a proper person ?
- Charge is correctly classified.
(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 3
(3) 1, 2 and 3
(4) All the above
Answer: (4) All the above
Explanation:
Government audit ensures that:
- Funds are properly sanctioned
- Expenditure is authorized
- Payments are made to correct recipients
- Charges are correctly classified
These checks uphold financial discipline and accountability.
89. Which of the following in the context of 11th five year plan is consistent with the strategy of inclusive growth ?
(1) Infrastructure development
(2) A big scale increase in education and health allocations
(3) Huge investment in power generation
(4) All the above
Answer: (4) All the above
Explanation:
The 11th Five Year Plan emphasized inclusive growth through:
- Infrastructure development for connectivity
- Education and health investments for human capital
- Power generation to support industrial and rural needs
90. In the context of inflation in India, consider the following :
- Rising administered prices
- Rising oil prices
- Pressure of growing population
- Increase in indirect taxation.
In which of the above factors, Indian Government is responsible for inflationary tendencies ?
(1) 2 and 3
(2) 1, 2 and 3
(3) 1 and 4
(4) All the above
Answer: (3) 1 and 4
Explanation:
The Indian Government influences inflation through:
- Administered prices (e.g., fuel, utilities)
- Indirect taxes (e.g., GST, excise)
While oil prices and population pressure are external or demographic factors, price controls and taxation are policy-driven.
91. What is the type of bunding recommended for lands with slope < 6% ?
(1) Graded bunding
(2) Contour bunding
(3) Compartmental bunding
(4) Live bunding
Answer: (2) Contour bunding
Explanation:
Contour bunding is ideal for lands with gentle slopes (<6%), as it helps in reducing runoff, conserving soil moisture, and preventing erosion by aligning bunds along the natural contour lines.
92. Which variety of sorghum is specially recommended for popping purpose ?
(1) Phule Revati
(2) Phule Uttara
(3) Phule Panchmi
(4) Phule Vasudha
Answer: (3) Phule Panchmi
Explanation:
Phule Panchmi is a special sorghum variety developed for popping, characterized by small, round grains with high expansion ratio, making it suitable for snack production.
93. The ratio of total area cropped in a year to the total land area available for cultivation and expressed in percentage is called as
(1) Crop intensity index
(2) Multiple cropping intensity
(3) Cultivated utilization index
(4) Sustainable yield index
Answer: (1) Crop intensity index
Explanation:
The Crop Intensity Index measures how intensively land is used for cropping. It is calculated as the percentage of gross cropped area to net sown area, indicating agricultural efficiency.
94. Out of the total geographical area of India, how much land comes under different kinds of land degradation ?
(1) 108 mha
(2) 158 mha
(3) 188 mha
(4) 218 mha
Answer: (3) 188 mha
Explanation:
Approximately 188 million hectares (mha) of land in India is affected by various forms of degradation, including soil erosion, salinity, and deforestation, posing challenges to sustainable agriculture.
95. Sprinkler irrigation is not suitable for soil with the infiltration rate
(1) Less than 4 mm/h
(2) 5–10 mm/h
(3) 10–15 mm/h
(4) 15–20 mm/h
Answer: (1) Less than 4 mm/h
Explanation:
Sprinkler irrigation is unsuitable for soils with low infiltration rates (<4 mm/h), as water tends to accumulate on the surface, leading to runoff and waterlogging, reducing irrigation efficiency.
96. Which post-emergence herbicide is used for controlling parasitic cuscutta weed in lucern crop ?
(1) Paraquat
(2) Chlorpropham
(3) Alachlor
(4) Pronamide
Answer: (4) Pronamide
Explanation:
Pronamide is effective against Cuscutta, a parasitic weed that infests lucerne (alfalfa). Applied post-emergence, it selectively targets the weed without harming the crop, ensuring healthy growth.
97. What is the measure of ability of the crop to produce leaf area on unit area of land throughout its life ?
(1) Leaf area index
(2) Leaf area duration
(3) Relative growth rate
(4) Crop growth rate
Answer: (2) Leaf area duration
Explanation:
Leaf Area Duration (LAD) quantifies the cumulative leaf area over time per unit land area, reflecting the photosynthetic capacity and biomass production potential of a crop during its growth cycle.
98. Which fish is a surface food eater in water bodies ?
(1) Rohu
(2) Katla
(3) Prawn
(4) Shark
Answer: (2) Katla
Explanation:
Katla is a surface feeder, consuming plankton and floating vegetation near the water surface. It is a popular species in Indian aquaculture, known for its fast growth and adaptability.
99. What does USLE stand for in the soil loss estimation ?
(1) Unique soil loss erosion
(2) Universal soil loss erosion
(3) Unique soil loss equation
(4) Universal soil loss equation
Answer: (4) Universal soil loss equation
Explanation:
The Universal Soil Loss Equation (USLE) is a widely used model to estimate soil erosion, based on factors like rainfall, soil type, slope, crop cover, and conservation practices.
100. For reclamation of which soils gypsum is used ?
(1) Acid soils
(2) Sodic soils
(3) Saline soils
(4) None of these
Answer: (2) Sodic soils
Explanation:
Gypsum is applied to sodic soils to replace sodium ions with calcium, improving soil structure, permeability, and crop productivity. It is a key amendment in alkaline soil management.
101. ‘Raingun’ is a modified form of which irrigation system ?
(1) Drip system
(2) Sprinkler system
(3) Basin method
(4) None of these
Answer: (2) Sprinkler system
Explanation:
A Raingun is a high-pressure sprinkler irrigation device designed to cover large areas with uniform water distribution. It is a modified form of the sprinkler system, suitable for field crops and horticulture.
102. Which one of the following is an indigenous breed of sheep ?
(1) Pashmina
(2) Kashmir Merino
(3) Chequ
(4) Angola
Answer: (3) Chequ
Explanation:
Chequ is an indigenous Indian breed of sheep, known for its adaptability to local conditions and wool production. Other options like Pashmina and Kashmir Merino are associated with goats or exotic breeds, not native sheep.
103. ‘Usmanabadi’ is a breed of which animal ?
(1) Cow
(2) Sheep
(3) Goat
(4) None of these
Answer: (3) Goat
Explanation:
The Usmanabadi breed is a well-known Indian goat variety, native to Maharashtra, especially the Osmanabad region. It is valued for its meat quality, disease resistance, and economic viability in rural livestock farming.
104. What for is a cowpea crop grown ?
(1) Vegetable
(2) Fodder
(3) Green manuring
(4) All the above
Answer: (4) All the above
Explanation: Cowpea is a versatile crop used for vegetable consumption, fodder for livestock, and green manuring to improve soil fertility. Its adaptability makes it suitable for multiple agricultural purposes, hence all options are correct.
105. Which fish is suitable for fish farming ?
(1) Rohu
(2) Dolphin
(3) Silverfish
(4) Goldfish
Answer: (1) Rohu
Explanation: Rohu is a commonly cultivated freshwater fish in India, known for its fast growth, high market demand, and suitability for aquaculture. Other options like Dolphin and Silverfish are not used in fish farming, while Goldfish is mainly ornamental.
106. Where has the second green revolution started in India ?
(1) Eastern India
(2) Southern India
(3) North India
(4) None of these
Answer: (1) Eastern India
Explanation: The second green revolution in India has been initiated in Eastern regions such as Bihar, West Bengal, and Odisha, where agricultural productivity was previously low. These areas have untapped potential for growth through improved technology, irrigation, and seed quality.
107. Absorption of nutrients from lowly concentrated soil solution compared to plant sap is called as
(1) Active absorption
(2) Passive absorption
(3) Negative absorption
(4) Positive absorption
Answer: (1) Active absorption
Explanation: Active absorption occurs when nutrients move from a lower concentration in soil to a higher concentration in plant sap, requiring energy. This process involves metabolic activity and carrier proteins in root cells.
108. A device to measure the percolation, leaching and retention of soil moisture under controlled conditions is known as
(1) Infiltrometer
(2) Evaporimeter
(3) Psycrometer
(4) Lysimeter
Answer: (4) Lysimeter
Explanation: A Lysimeter is used to measure water movement through soil, including percolation, leaching, and retention. It provides accurate data under controlled conditions, aiding in irrigation and nutrient management.
109. The soil moisture stress caused due to imbalance between available soil moisture and evapotranspiration of crop is termed as
(1) Meteorological drought
(2) Hydrological drought
(3) Agricultural drought
(4) Permanent drought
Answer: (3) Agricultural drought
Explanation: Agricultural drought arises when soil moisture is insufficient to meet crop water demand, despite normal rainfall. It reflects a mismatch between evapotranspiration and available moisture, affecting crop yield.
110. Where is ‘Apiculture’ more successful ?
(1) Floral biodiversity is high
(2) Honeybees are more
(3) Cereal crops are more
(4) None of these
Answer: (1) Floral biodiversity is high
Explanation: Apiculture, or beekeeping, thrives in areas with high floral biodiversity, which ensures a continuous supply of nectar and pollen. Diverse flowering plants support healthy bee colonies and better honey production.
111. What for has the Government of India launched the ‘National Food Security Mission’ ?
(1) Increasing oilseed production
(2) Increasing foodgrain production
(3) Construction of Godowns
(4) None of these
Answer: (2) Increasing foodgrain production
Explanation: The National Food Security Mission was launched to increase the production of rice, wheat, and pulses through improved technology and farming practices, ensuring food security for the population.
112. How is the Minimum Support Price (MSP) generally fixed ?
(1) More than market price
(2) Lower than market price
(3) Equal to market price
(4) None of these
Answer: (1) More than market price
Explanation: MSP is typically set above the market price to protect farmers from price fluctuations and ensure profitable returns, especially during harvest seasons.
113. Amongst the atmospheric layers which is the most dense that occupies 85% of the atmosphere ?
(1) Stratosphere
(2) Mesosphere
(3) Thermosphere
(4) Troposphere
Answer: (4) Troposphere
Explanation: The Troposphere is the lowest and densest layer of the atmosphere, containing 85% of its total mass and most of the weather phenomena.
114. In which animal is Pox disease found ?
(1) Buffalo
(2) Goat
(3) Sheep
(4) All the above
Answer: (4) All the above
Explanation: Pox disease affects multiple livestock species including buffaloes, goats, and sheep, causing skin lesions and fever, and is a concern in animal husbandry.
115. Which of the following soils fixes more phosphates ?
(1) Alkaline
(2) Acidic
(3) Saline
(4) Calcareous
Answer: (2) Acidic
Explanation: Acidic soils tend to fix phosphates more due to the presence of iron and aluminum compounds, which bind with phosphorus, making it less available to plants.
116. What is the scientific name of bread wheat ?
(1) Triticum durum
(2) Triticum aestivum
(3) Triticum dicocum
(4) Triticum spherococum
Answer: (2) Triticum aestivum
Explanation: Triticum aestivum is the scientific name of bread wheat, widely cultivated for making chapatis and other bakery products, due to its soft grain and high gluten content.
117. What is the energy with which water is held by the soil called ?
(1) Gravitational potential
(2) Capillary potential
(3) Osmotic potential
(4) Pressure potential
Answer: (2) Capillary potential
Explanation: Capillary potential refers to the energy by which water is retained in soil pores, allowing it to be available to plants, especially in unsaturated conditions.
118. Which organic manure has high nitrogen content ?
(1) FYM
(2) Neem cake
(3) Compost
(4) Vermi compost
Answer: (2) Neem cake
Explanation: Neem cake is rich in nitrogen, making it a valuable organic fertilizer that also has pest-repellent properties, enhancing soil fertility and crop health.
119. What gives red colour to tomatoes ?
(1) Curcumin
(2) Lycopen
(3) Coffein
(4) Lecithin
Answer: (2) Lycopen
Explanation: Lycopene is a natural pigment and antioxidant responsible for the red colour in tomatoes, contributing to their nutritional and health benefits.
120. Which trees are useful for Lac-culture ?
(1) Palas trees
(2) Ber trees
(3) 1 and 2
(4) None of these
Answer: (3) 1 and 2
Explanation: Palas and Ber trees are ideal hosts for lac insects, which produce lac resin used in varnish, cosmetics, and sealing wax, making them essential for lac-culture.
121. Name the facility by which voice, data and video clips are speedily transferred in the mobile phone ?
(1) Portability
(2) 2G
(3) 3G
(4) Fast net
Answer: (3) 3G
Explanation: 3G technology enables high-speed transmission of voice, data, and video clips in mobile phones. It marked a significant upgrade from 2G, allowing faster internet access and multimedia communication.
122. Which of the following organs of the human body is affected by Hepatitis ‘B’ ?
(1) Heart
(2) Brain
(3) Liver
(4) Lungs
Answer: (3) Liver
Explanation: Hepatitis B is a viral infection that primarily affects the liver, causing inflammation, and in severe cases, liver damage or cirrhosis. It is transmitted through blood and bodily fluids.
123. What kind of missile is “Brahmos” which was launched successfully from Odisha ?
(1) Surface to air missile
(2) Air to air missile
(3) Surface to surface missile
(4) Surface to water missile
Answer: (3) Surface to surface missile
Explanation: BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile designed for surface-to-surface targeting, capable of striking land-based targets with precision and speed. It is jointly developed by India and Russia.
124. Which of the following is one of the core functions of the Reserve Bank of India ?
(1) To act as tax collector for the Govt. of India
(2) Work as Banker to the Banks
(3) Help in finalization of the Union Budget
(4) Participate in the various meetings of financial institutions
Answer: (2) Work as Banker to the Banks
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India performs the core function of acting as a banker to other banks, managing monetary policy, and ensuring financial stability in the country.
125. The Prime Minister of India Dr. Manmohan Singh has planned to develop how much skilled manpower by 2022 ?
(1) 500 million
(2) 1,000 million
(3) 5,000 million
(4) None of these
Answer: (1) 500 million
Explanation: The plan aimed to create 500 million skilled workers by 2022, focusing on vocational training, skill development programs, and employment generation across sectors.
126. According to administrative reforms made by the Govt. of Maharashtra in 2011, who is the secretary of ‘Sanjay Gandhi Niradhar Anudan Yojana Samiti’ ?
(1) Tahasildar or Nayab Tahasildar
(2) Block Development Officer
(3) Gramsevak
(4) Talathi
Answer: (1) Tahasildar or Nayab Tahasildar
Explanation: As per the 2011 administrative reforms, the Tahasildar or Nayab Tahasildar was designated as the secretary of the Sanjay Gandhi Niradhar Anudan Yojana Samiti, ensuring local-level implementation.
127. Approximately how much cotton was produced in Maharashtra during 2011-12 ?
(1) 80 lac. bales
(2) 85 lac. bales
(3) 90 lac. bales
(4) 95 lac. bales
Answer: (3) 90 lac. bales
Explanation: In the year 2011–12, Maharashtra recorded an estimated production of 90 lakh cotton bales, reflecting the state’s significant contribution to India’s cotton economy.
128. In which country a writ petition demanding ban on the Bhagwad Geeta for preaching terrorism was recently filed in the court of law ?
(1) America
(2) Germany
(3) Russia
(4) France
Answer: (3) Russia
Explanation: A writ petition was filed in Russia seeking a ban on the Bhagavad Gita, alleging it promoted extremist views, which sparked international debate and diplomatic concern.
129. Name the Indian leader who addressed the UN General Assembly in September 2011 ?
(1) Sonia Gandhi
(2) Meira Kumar
(3) Manmohan Singh
(4) Pranab Mukherjee
Answer: (3) Manmohan Singh
Explanation: In September 2011, Prime Minister Manmohan Singh addressed the UN General Assembly, representing India’s stance on global issues and promoting international cooperation.
130. Who is the recipient of the ‘Photographer of the Year’ 2011 Award ?
(1) Shankarrao Borkar
(2) Baiju Patil
(3) Hemanti Kulkarni
(4) Subhash Deshmukh
Answer: (2) Baiju Patil
Explanation: Baiju Patil received the Photographer of the Year 2011 Award for his exceptional contributions to the field of photography, showcasing creative excellence and visual storytelling.
131. Who is the richest Asian Woman from our country ?
(1) Chanda Kochar
(2) Kiran Muzumdar
(3) Ekta Kapoor
(4) Savitri Jindal
Answer: (4) Savitri Jindal
Explanation: Savitri Jindal is recognized as the richest Asian woman from India due to her leadership in a major industrial conglomerate, with vast interests in steel, power, and infrastructure.
132. At what age did the legendary film actor Dev-Anand pass away on 5th Dec. 2011 in London ?
(1) 90
(2) 88
(3) 98
(4) 87
Answer: (2) 88
Explanation: Dev Anand, the iconic Indian actor, passed away at the age of 88, leaving behind a legacy of classic films and a career that spanned several decades.
133. What is the interest charged by the RBI on the money borrowed from it by the various banks called ?
(1) Direct interest rate
(2) Repo rate
(3) Reverse repo rate
(4) Indirect interest rate
Answer: (2) Repo rate
Explanation: The Repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends money to commercial banks, influencing liquidity and helping regulate inflation and credit availability.
134. From which country after completing the mission did the USA withdraw its military forces after 9 years on 15th Dec. 2012 ?
(1) Afghanistan
(2) South Korea
(3) Vietnam
(4) Iraq
Answer: (4) Iraq
Explanation: On 15th December 2012, the United States withdrew its military forces from Iraq after a nine-year mission, marking the end of its combat operations in the region.
135. Which website was banned by the Indian Government ?
(1) Savitabhabhi.com
(2) Hindu.com
(3) Anitabhabhi.com
(4) Cyber.com
Answer: (1) Savitabhabhi.com
Explanation: The Indian Government banned Savitabhabhi.com due to concerns over adult content, sparking debates around internet censorship and freedom of expression.
136. Which is India’s longest range missile ?
(1) Nirbhay
(2) Agni II
(3) Agni V
(4) Shaurya
Answer: (3) Agni V
Explanation: Agni V is India’s longest-range ballistic missile, capable of reaching targets over 5,000 kilometers, and plays a crucial role in the country’s strategic defense capabilities.
137. Who among the following is not a recipient of the Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International understanding ?
(1) Barack Obama
(2) Hosni Mubarak
(3) Angela Merkel
(4) Robert Gabriel Mugabe
Answer: (4) Robert Gabriel Mugabe
Explanation: Robert Gabriel Mugabe is the only one among the listed names who has not received the Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding, which honors contributions to global peace and cooperation.
138. Why did the earthquake that hit Indonesia in April 2012 not trigger a tsunami ?
(1) the sea floor moved vertically instead of horizontally
(2) the sea floor moved horizontally instead of vertically
(3) the earthquake was of a low intensity
(4) none of the above
Answer: (2) the sea floor moved horizontally instead of vertically
Explanation: A tsunami is usually caused by vertical displacement of the sea floor. In this case, the movement was horizontal, which did not push water upward, preventing a tsunami.
139. With what are the terms TRIPS and TRIMS associated ?
(1) WTO
(2) IBRD
(3) IMF
(4) ADB
Answer: (1) WTO
Explanation: TRIPS and TRIMS are agreements under the World Trade Organization, dealing with intellectual property rights and investment measures in international trade.
140. India lodged a formal complaint with China after its soldiers objected to a road that was being constructed in Demchok. Demchok is in which state ?
(1) Jammu and Kashmir
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Sikkim
(4) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: (1) Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation: Demchok is located in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir, near the India-China border, and has been a site of territorial disputes and military standoffs.
141. What is ‘Sparsh Ganga’ ?
(1) India’s second permanent research station in Antarctica
(2) India’s new space programme
(3) A book written by former Uttarakhand Chief Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishant
(4) Clean Ganga project
Answer: (4) Clean Ganga project
Explanation: Sparsh Ganga is a cleanliness and awareness campaign aimed at preserving the Ganga river, promoting environmental responsibility and community participation in river conservation.
142. Which of the following specialised agencies was established in 1919 as an autonomous part of the League of Nations that won the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 ?
(1) Food and Agriculture Organisation
(2) International Labour Organisation
(3) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation
(4) World Health Organisation
Answer: (2) International Labour Organisation
Explanation: The International Labour Organisation was founded in 1919 as part of the League of Nations, and received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 for its efforts in promoting social justice and labor rights.
143. The legendary poet Rabindranath Tagore described this place by saying, “Here the language of stone surpasses the language of man”. Which UNESCO heritage site are we talking about ?
(1) Red Fort, Delhi
(2) Khajuraho, Chhatarpur
(3) Taj Mahal, Agra
(4) Sun Temple, Konark
Answer: (2) Khajuraho, Chhatarpur
Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore praised the Khajuraho temples for their intricate stone carvings, stating that their artistic expression transcends spoken language, highlighting their cultural and architectural significance.
144. How is Narayan Shripad Rajhans better known as ?
(1) Poet Grace
(2) Bal Gandharva
(3) Kumar Gandharva
(4) Chhota Gandharva
Answer: (2) Bal Gandharva
Explanation: Narayan Shripad Rajhans was famously known as Bal Gandharva, a legendary figure in Marathi musical theatre, celebrated for his female role portrayals and melodious singing.
145. In September 2010, the first Adhaar number (7824 7431 7884) was allotted to a lady who lives in a tribal village, to what state does the lady belong ?
(1) Chhattisgarh
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Odisha
(4) Maharashtra
Answer: (2) Jharkhand
Explanation: The first Aadhaar number was issued to a woman from a tribal village in Jharkhand, marking the beginning of India’s biometric identity program for inclusive governance.
146. Match the sanctuaries with their states :
List I (Sanctuary)
i) Dachigam wild life sanctuary
ii) Sundarbans wild life sanctuary
iii) Periyar wild life sanctuary
iv) Manas wild life sanctuary
List II (State)
a) West Bengal
b) Assam
c) Kerala
d) Jammu and Kashmir
(1) a b c d
(2) d c b a
(3) a d b c
(4) d a c b
Answer: (4) d a c b
Explanation: The correct matches are:
Dachigam – Jammu and Kashmir,
Sundarbans – West Bengal,
Periyar – Kerala,
Manas – Assam, reflecting their regional biodiversity and ecological importance.
147. Banks have to redress customer complaints of ATMs not dispensing cash. What amount do they have to pay as compensation if the default is not corrected even after seven days ?
(1) Nil
(2) Rs. 50 per day
(3) Rs. 75 per day
(4) Rs. 100 per day
Answer: (4) Rs. 100 per day
Explanation: If an ATM fails to dispense cash and the issue is not resolved within seven days, banks must pay Rs. 100 per day as compensation, ensuring customer protection and accountability.
148. With which classical Indian dance form, the terms Taganam, Jaganam, Dhaganam and Sammishram are associated ?
(1) Bharatnatyam
(2) Kathak
(3) Kuchipudi
(4) Mohiniyattam
Answer: (3) Kuchipudi
Explanation: The terms Taganam, Jaganam, Dhaganam, and Sammishram are rhythmic syllables used in Kuchipudi, a classical dance form from Andhra Pradesh, known for its graceful movements and expressive storytelling.
149. Which is the 193rd member of the UN ?
(1) North Sudan
(2) South Sudan
(3) Zimbabwe
(4) Zambia
Answer: (2) South Sudan
Explanation: South Sudan became the 193rd member of the United Nations after gaining independence in 2011, reflecting the global recognition of its sovereign status.
150. With what purpose has the Government of Maharashtra started the Ahilyabai Holkar scheme ?
(1) Promote awareness regarding health and hygiene among girls and women in the state
(2) Promote education among girls in the state
(3) Promote self-employment among women in the state
(4) Provide nutritious diet to girls and women in state
Answer: (2) Promote education among girls in the state
Explanation: The Ahilyabai Holkar scheme was launched to encourage education among girls, aiming to improve literacy rates, empower women, and reduce gender disparity in education.