1. Which of the following plays were written by Harshavardhan ?
(i) Priyadarsika (ii) Ratanavali (iii) Nagananda
Answer options :
(1) (i) only
(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) All the three
Answer: (4) All the three
Explanation:
Harshavardhan was a renowned ruler and a patron of literature. He is credited with writing three Sanskrit plays: Priyadarsika, Ratanavali, and Nagananda. These works reflect his literary talent and cultural engagement, making option (4) the correct answer as it includes all three plays.
2. Who has rejected the ‘Safety Valve Theory’ about the foundation of the Congress calling it the ‘myth’ ?
(1) A. O. Hume
(2) A. R. Desai
(3) Tarachand
(4) Bipan Chandra
Answer: (4) Bipan Chandra
Explanation:
The ‘Safety Valve Theory’ suggests that the British helped form the Indian National Congress to channel Indian discontent in a controlled manner. However, Bipan Chandra, a prominent historian, dismissed this theory as a myth, arguing that the Congress emerged from genuine nationalist aspirations rather than British manipulation. Hence, option (4) is correct.
3. He was given the title of Nizam-ul-Mulk. He was made the Governor of the Deccan. He founded the Asaf Jahi dynasty. His successors are called the Nizams of Hyderabad. Identify him :
(1) Chin Quilich Khan
(2) Murshid Quli Khan
(3) Saadat Khan
(4) Husain Ali Khan
Answer: (1) Chin Quilich Khan
Explanation:
Chin Quilich Khan was conferred the title Nizam-ul-Mulk and appointed as Governor of the Deccan. He established the Asaf Jahi dynasty, and his descendants were known as the Nizams of Hyderabad, making option (1) correct.
4. The Maratha power suffered from certain basic weaknesses which led to its downfall. Which of the following was not one among them ?
(1) The nature of their political system the Marathas alienated the sympathies of other people.
(2) Their raids into the territories of other rulers made new enemies.
(3) The levies charged by them added to the oppression of the common people, particularly peasants and traders.
(4) None of the above
Answer: (4) None of the above
Explanation:
All three listed points were actual weaknesses of the Maratha power: their political system, raiding practices, and taxation alienated allies and oppressed commoners. Hence, none of the above is excluded, making option (4) correct.
5. Which of the following statements are true about Ajatashatru ?
(a) His name was also Kunika.
(b) He was the last ruler of the Haryanka dynasty.
(c) The first Budhist council was held at Rajgruh during his regime.
(d) He integrated Lichhavi kingdom into Magadh.
Answer options :
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: (2) (a), (c) and (d)
Explanation:
Ajatashatru, also known as Kunika, ruled Magadh and merged Lichhavi kingdom into it. The first Buddhist council was held at Rajgriha during his reign. However, he was not the last ruler of the Haryanka dynasty, making option (2) correct.
6. Arrange the following British trading centres in their chronological order. Choose the correct answer option.
(i) Calcutta (ii) Surat (iii) Madras (iv) Bombay
Answer options :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(4) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
Answer: (3) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
Explanation:
The chronological order of British trading centres is:
Surat (1612) → Madras (1639) → Bombay (1668) → Calcutta (1690).
This sequence matches option (3), making it correct.
7. Who, among the following revolutionaries, was an atheist and a socialist in approach ?
(1) Damodar Chaphekar
(2) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
(3) Arabindo Ghosh
(4) Bhagat Singh
Answer: (4) Bhagat Singh
Explanation:
Bhagat Singh was a staunch atheist and a socialist, influenced by Marxist ideology. His writings, such as “Why I am an Atheist”, reflect his rationalist and revolutionary beliefs, making option (4) correct.
8. Which one of the following statements about the Faizpur Session of Congress is not true ?
(1) It was the first Session of Congress held in the rural area.
(2) It was attended by about 40,000 peasants.
(3) Dhanajinana Choudhari and Sane Guruji played an important role in organizing this session.
(4) Shankarrao Deo presided over this session.
Answer: (4) Shankarrao Deo presided over this session
Explanation:
The Faizpur Session (1936) was indeed held in a rural area, attended by peasants, and organized by Dhanaji Nana Choudhari and Sane Guruji. However, it was Jawaharlal Nehru, not Shankarrao Deo, who presided over it. Hence, option (4) is incorrect.
9. The early nationalists provided the firm foundation to the 20th century freedom movement through :
(1) Politics of petitions
(2) Constitutional means
(3) Agitational way
(4) Economic critique of colonialism
Answer: (4) Economic critique of colonialism
Explanation:
Early nationalists like Dadabhai Naoroji and R. C. Dutt laid the foundation of the freedom movement by exposing the economic exploitation under British rule. Their economic critique of colonialism helped shape nationalist thought, making option (4) correct.
10. Read statements (A) and (B) and choose appropriate option from the answer options :
(A) Megasthenes mentions seven castes into which the Indian society was divided.
(B) Megasthenes confused castes with professions.
Answer options :
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (B) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true, but (B) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (B) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (B) is true.
Answer: (1) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (B) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation:
Megasthenes, the Greek ambassador, described seven castes in Indian society, but his classification was based on occupational roles, not actual varna or jati divisions. Thus, both statements are true, and (B) explains (A), making option (1) correct.
11. Match the pairs. (Choose the correct answer option).
List-I
(a) Adil shahi
(b) Nizam shahi
(c) Imad shahi
(d) Qutub Shahi
(e) Barid Shahi
List-II
(i) Bidar
(ii) Golconda
(iii) Vijapur
(iv) Ahemadnagar
(v) Berar
Answer options :
(1) (iii) (v) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (v) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)
(4) (v) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: (3) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)
Explanation:
The correct matches are:
Adil Shahi – Vijapur,
Nizam Shahi – Ahemadnagar,
Imad Shahi – Berar,
Qutub Shahi – Golconda,
Barid Shahi – Bidar.
These associations reflect the regional capitals of the respective Deccan Sultanates.
12. The most outstanding Rajput ruler in the post Aurangzeb period was Sawai Raja Jai Singh of Amber. He built the beautiful city of Jaipur. He also erected astronomical observatories at five places. At how many of the following places he did not erect these ?
(a) Banaras (b) Ujjain (c) Mathura (d) Udaipur (e) Allahabad
Answer options :
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
Answer: (4) Four
Explanation:
Jai Singh built Jantar Mantars at Delhi, Jaipur, Ujjain, Mathura, and Varanasi. He did not build observatories at Udaipur or Allahabad, and Mathura’s observatory was later dismantled. Thus, he did not build at four of the listed places.
13. Who among the following strongly opposed the interference of the Ulemas in the affairs of the state ?
(i) Balban
(ii) Alauddin Khilji
(iii) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(iv) Firoze Shah Tughlaq
Answer options :
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (iv) and (i)
Answer: (2) (ii) and (iii)
Explanation:
Both Alauddin Khilji and Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq were known for curbing the influence of Ulemas in governance. They emphasized state supremacy over religious authority, making option (2) correct.
14. The princely states that were unwilling to join the Indian Union until July 1947 included :
(a) Baroda
(b) Travancore
(c) Bikaner
(d) Bhopal
Answer options :
(1) All the above
(2) (a), (c)
(3) (b), (c)
(4) (b), (d)
Answer: (4) (b), (d)
Explanation:
Travancore and Bhopal initially resisted accession to the Indian Union. Baroda and Bikaner were more cooperative. Hence, option (4) correctly identifies the reluctant states.
15. The Great Mughals included Babar, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shahjahan and Aurangzeb in that chronological order. The Mughal emperors who came to the throne after the death of Aurangzeb are called the Later Mughals. Arrange the following four Later Mughals in their chronological order.
(a) Ahmad Shah
(b) Bahadur Shah
(c) Jahandar Shah
(d) Mohammad Shah
Answer options :
(1) Ahmad Shah, Bahadur Shah, Jahandar Shah, Mohammad Shah
(2) Bahadur Shah, Jahandar Shah, Mohammad Shah, Ahmad Shah
(3) Bahadur Shah, Mohammad Shah, Jahandar Shah, Ahmad Shah
(4) Jahandar Shah, Mohammad Shah, Bahadur Shah, Ahmad Shah
Answer: (2) Bahadur Shah, Jahandar Shah, Mohammad Shah, Ahmad Shah
Explanation:
The correct chronological order is:
Bahadur Shah (1707–1712) → Jahandar Shah (1712–1713) → Mohammad Shah (1719–1748) → Ahmad Shah (1748–1754).
This sequence matches option (2).
16. The Ganga Plains accommodate percent of population of India.
(1) 13
(2) 23
(3) 33
(4) 43
Answer: (4) 43
Explanation:
The Ganga Plains are among the most densely populated regions in India, supporting around 43% of the population due to fertile land, agriculture, and urban centers.
17. Consider the following two statements :
(A) There are deserts between 10° and 20° latitudes in both the hemispheres
(B) Between 10° and 20° latitudes evaporation exceeds precipitation
Answer options :
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the reason for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (B) are true but (B) is not the reason for (A)
(3) Only (A) is true
(4) Only (B) is true
Answer: (1) Both (A) and (B) are true and (B) is the reason for (A)
Explanation:
Deserts form in regions where evaporation exceeds precipitation, especially between 10° and 20° latitudes. This climatic condition explains the presence of deserts in both hemispheres, making (B) the reason for (A).
18. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Chauth : Tax realised by Marathas from the areas outside their domain-equal to one fourth of the revenue paid to the Mughal Empire.
(b) Sardeshmukhi : Tax realised by the Marathas equal to one tenth of the land revenue.
(c) Misl : Political unit among the Rajputs, each loyal to its own particular leader.
Answer options :
(1) Only (a)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) Only (c)
(4) None
Answer: (3) Only (c)
Explanation:
Misl refers to Sikh confederacies, not Rajput political units. Statements (a) and (b) correctly describe Maratha taxation systems, making (c) the incorrect one.
19. Match the following :
Column A
(a) Hawaiian Type
(b) Strombolian
(c) Vulcanian
(d) Peleean Type
Column B
(i) Erupt with great force
(ii) Most violent
(iii) Erupt quietly
(iv) Erupt continuously
Answer options :
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answer: (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Explanation:
The correct matches are:
Hawaiian – Erupt continuously,
Strombolian – Erupt quietly,
Vulcanian – Most violent,
Peleean – Erupt with great force.
These types reflect volcanic eruption styles.
20. Match the following :
Column A
(a) Gulf of Tonkin
(b) Parsian Gulf
(c) Gulf of Aquaba
(d) Gulf of Ob
Column B
(i) Arctic Ocean
(ii) China Sea
(iii) Indian Ocean
(iv) Red sea
Answer options :
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Explanation:
The correct matches are:
Gulf of Tonkin – China Sea,
Persian Gulf – Indian Ocean,
Gulf of Aquaba – Red Sea,
Gulf of Ob – Arctic Ocean.
21. Match the following pairs and choose the correct option from those given below :
Tribes – States
(a) Angami
(b) Kota
(c) Munda
(d) Chutiya
Answer options :
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Answer: (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Explanation:
The correct matches are:
Angami – Nagaland,
Kota – Nilgiri Hills (Tamil Nadu),
Munda – Jharkhand,
Chutiya – Assam.
These tribes are associated with distinct regions in India, reflecting their ethnic and geographic identities.
22. Teej a Hindu festival is dedicated to which Goddess ?
(1) Lakshmi
(2) Saraswati
(3) Parvati
(4) Durga
Answer: (3) Parvati
Explanation:
Teej is a festival celebrated primarily by women, honoring Goddess Parvati’s union with Lord Shiva. It symbolizes marital devotion, making Parvati the correct answer.
23. Tea is made from young leaves of the tea plant. Chinese were the earliest tea drinkers in the world. The British first discovered the Assam tea in 1829 in the forests of North-East India. The popular brands in the world are :
(a) Large leaved China tea
(b) Small leaved Assam tea
Answer options :
(1) Only (a) is correct
(2) Only (b) is correct
(3) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(4) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct
Answer: (3) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Explanation:
China tea is known for its large leaves, while Assam tea has smaller leaves and a stronger flavor. Both are globally popular varieties, making option (3) correct.
24. Consider the following two statements :
(a) Tropical Evergreen forests : Scattered distribution of one particular species of tree eg. Rosewood.
(b) Tropical Deciduous Forests : They have fewer species but they are found in close proximity eg. Teak.
Answer options :
(1) Only (a) is true
(2) Only (b) is true
(3) Both (a) and (b) are true
(4) Neither (a) nor (b) is true
Answer: (3) Both (a) and (b) are true
Explanation:
Evergreen forests have scattered trees with diverse species, while deciduous forests have fewer species like teak, often found close together. Both statements are accurate.
25. Newly developed ‘Ennore’ port near Chennai is the th largest port in the country and th largest port on the eastern coast.
(1) 6 and 12
(2) 8 and 20
(3) 12 and 6
(4) 4 and 9
Answer: (1) 6 and 12
Explanation:
Ennore Port, now known as Kamarajar Port, is the 6th largest in India and 12th largest on the eastern coast. It was developed to decongest Chennai Port.
26. Arrange the following States in descending order of their forest area, according to forest survey report 2009 :
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Chattisgarh
Answer options :
(1) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(2) (a), (c), (d), (b)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)
(4) (c), (a), (d), (b)
Answer: (2) (a), (c), (d), (b)
Explanation:
As per Forest Survey of India 2009, the descending order is:
Arunachal Pradesh → Madhya Pradesh → Chhattisgarh → Maharashtra, based on total forest cover.
27. Which of the following hills connect Eastern and Western Ghats ?
(1) Biligiri
(2) Nilgiri
(3) Nimgiri
(4) Nallamala
Answer: (2) Nilgiri
Explanation:
The Nilgiri Hills form a junction between the Eastern and Western Ghats, creating a biodiversity hotspot and a natural corridor.
28. Match the following and choose the correct option from those given below :
Shifting Cultivation – State
(a) Jhum
(b) Podu
(c) Ponam
(d) Dahiya
Answer options :
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer: (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Explanation:
Correct matches:
Jhum – Assam,
Podu – Chhattisgarh,
Ponam – Andhra Pradesh,
Dahiya – Kerala.
These are regional names for shifting cultivation practices.
29. Match the following and choose the correct option from those given below :
River – Waterfall
(a) Sharavati
(b) Kaveri
(c) Ghatprabha
(d) Chambal
Answer options :
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer: (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Explanation:
Correct matches:
Sharavati – Girsappa (Jog Falls),
Kaveri – Shivsamudram,
Ghatprabha – Gokak,
Chambal – Chulia.
These waterfalls are linked to their respective rivers.
30. Which of the following factors determine diurnal and seasonal variation in intensity and amount of solar radiation ?
(a) Inclination of the axis of the earth.
(b) Length of the day.
(c) Extent of clouds
(d) Angle of inclination of the Sun’s rays
Answer options :
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) All the above
Answer: (4) All the above
Explanation:
Solar radiation varies due to multiple factors:
Earth’s axial tilt, day length, cloud cover, and the angle of solar rays. All these influence intensity and distribution, making option (4) correct.
31. Accumulation of mercury into human body leads to disease.
(1) Itai-itai
(2) Methaemoglobinanemia
(3) Minamata
(4) Polio
Answer: (3) Minamata
Explanation:
Minamata disease is caused by mercury poisoning, particularly methylmercury, which accumulates in the human nervous system through contaminated seafood. It was first identified in Minamata, Japan, and is marked by neurological symptoms like tremors, vision loss, and paralysis.
32. The continuous increase in concentration of a toxicant at successive trophic levels in food chain is :
(1) Biodegradation
(2) Biomagnification
(3) Bioaccumulation
(4) Bioremediation
Answer: (2) Biomagnification
Explanation:
Biomagnification refers to the progressive increase in the concentration of toxic substances (like DDT or mercury) as they move up the food chain. Organisms at higher trophic levels, such as predators, accumulate greater toxin levels, posing serious ecological and health risks.
33. The main gas responsible for ozone depletion is :
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Nitrogen dioxide
(3) Methane
(4) Chloro fluro carbon
Answer: (4) Chloro fluro carbon
Explanation:
Chloro fluro carbon compounds release chlorine atoms in the stratosphere which react with ozone molecules, leading to their breakdown. These substances are synthetic chemicals used in refrigeration and aerosol sprays and are the primary cause of ozone layer depletion.
34. Heterotrophic organisms, chiefly bacteria and fungi that breakdown the complex compounds of dead protoplasm and release simple usable substances for other organisms are :
(1) Autotrophs
(2) Decomposers
(3) Consumers
(4) Omnivorous
Answer: (2) Decomposers
Explanation:
Decomposers such as bacteria and fungi play a crucial role in ecosystems by breaking down complex organic matter from dead organisms into simpler substances. These substances are then recycled and made available for other living organisms, maintaining nutrient cycles.
35. The First National Park established in India was
(1) Jim Corbett
(2) Sanjay Gandhi
(3) Gir
(4) Kanha
Answer: (1) Jim Corbett
Explanation:
Jim Corbett National Park, established in 1936, was the first national park in India. It is located in Uttarakhand and was originally named Hailey National Park. It was created to protect the endangered Bengal tiger and marked the beginning of wildlife conservation in India.
36. Which of the following is considered as a land mark year in the history of legislative action in India for environment concerns during which National Committee for Environment Planning and Co-ordination (NCEPC) was set up ?
(1) 1973
(2) 1971
(3) 1972
(4) 1974
Answer: (3) 1972
Explanation:
The year 1972 is considered a landmark in India’s environmental history because it saw the establishment of the National Committee for Environmental Planning and Co-ordination (NCEPC). This was a direct outcome of India’s participation in the Stockholm Conference, marking the beginning of formal environmental governance.
37. Kidneys are helping to maintain pH balance by which of the following ?
(1) Adding hydrogen ions to filtrate
(2) Removal of hydrogen ions from blood
(3) Dissolving calcium and sodium ions in blood
(4) Removing carbonate ions from blood
Answer: (2) Removal of hydrogen ions from blood
Explanation:
The kidneys regulate pH by removing hydrogen ions from the bloodstream, which helps maintain acid-base balance. This process is essential for homeostasis, preventing conditions like acidosis or alkalosis.
38. One of the worst natural disasters of the World was the cyclone struck in Bangladesh. As many as 3,00,000 people, lost their lives, it is said. When did the disaster struck Bangladesh, then East Pakistan ?
(1) 1970
(2) 1960
(3) 1950
(4) 1940
Answer: (1) 1970
Explanation:
The Bhola cyclone struck East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) in 1970, causing the death of around 300,000 people. It remains one of the deadliest cyclones in recorded history and had significant political and humanitarian consequences.
39. Silicon Valley, California, United States is one of the greatest science parks in the world today as it contains hundreds of hightech information technology industries. Which of the following two statements about the Sillicon Valley is correct ?
(A) Silicon Valley was once called the “Valley of Heart’s Delight”.
(B) It was so called because hundreds and thousands of varieties of flowers bloomed therein.
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: (3) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation:
Silicon Valley was historically known as the “Valley of Heart’s Delight” due to its abundant orchards and floral diversity. Both statements are correct, reflecting the region’s agricultural past before its transformation into a technology hub.
40. Human development report of 2011, presented Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) estimates of 109 countries. What proportion of population according to this report, in these countries experience multidimensional poverty?
(1) 1/2
(2) 1/3
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/5
Answer: (2) 1/3
Explanation:
According to the 2011 Human Development Report, about one-third of the population in the surveyed 109 countries experienced multidimensional poverty, which includes health, education, and living standards, beyond just income-based measures.
41. What are the core values of development as described by Amartya Sen and Goulet D ? Choose the correct option given below :
(1) Sustenance, self esteem, freedom, capabilites, entitlement.
(2) Health, nutrition, education, capabilities, entitlement
(3) Food, clothing, shelter, drinking water, sanitation
(4) Increase in national income, per capita income, basic needs, freedom, education
Answer: (1) Sustenance, self esteem, freedom, capabilites, entitlement.
Explanation:
Amartya Sen and Denis Goulet emphasized development as freedom, focusing on sustenance, self-esteem, and capabilities. These values go beyond economic growth and reflect human-centric development, including entitlements that empower individuals.
42. The June 2012, Rio + 20 conference on sustainable development advocated the “green economy” model. In whose book the term ‘green economy’ was coined ?
(1) Amartya Sen, D. Friedman, Samuelsan
(2) D. Pearce, A. Markandya, E.Barbier
(3) I. Quadeer, W. Berry, N. Hatekar
(4) D. Greenberg, J Taylor, Schmidth
Answer: (2) D. Pearce, A. Markandya, E.Barbier
Explanation:
The term “green economy” was coined in a report authored by David Pearce, Anil Markandya, and Edward Barbier, which emphasized sustainable development integrating economic and environmental goals. This concept gained prominence during the Rio+20 conference.
43. The velocity of radio waves is
(1) Greater than velocity of light
(2) As that of velocity of light
(3) Less than velocity of light
(4) Exactly double the velocity of light
Answer: (2) As that of velocity of light
Explanation:
Radio waves, being a form of electromagnetic radiation, travel at the same speed as light in vacuum, which is approximately 3 × 10⁸ m/s. All electromagnetic waves, including radio, infrared, visible light, share this velocity.
44. According to 2011 census how many cities in India have more than 1 million population ?
(1) 52
(2) 53
(3) 54
(4) 55
Answer: (2) 53
Explanation:
As per the 2011 Census, 53 cities in India had a population exceeding 1 million. This reflects the urbanization trend and the growth of metropolitan areas across the country.
45. Land reforms promote triple revolution. Choose the correct option from the following :
(1) Cultural, Political, Technological
(2) Political, Social, Commercial
(3) Economic, Political, Cultural
(4) None of these
Answer: (3) Economic, Political, Cultural
Explanation:
Land reforms lead to economic empowerment, political participation, and cultural transformation among rural populations. This triple revolution enhances equity, access to resources, and social justice.
46. As per the 2011 census what was the rate of improvement in female literacy during 2001 to 2011 ?
(1) 53.7 % to 65.5 %
(2) 54.1% to 67.2 %
(3) 52.3 % to 64.4 %
(4) 55.3 % to 63.2 %
Answer: (1) 53.7 % to 65.5 %
Explanation:
Between 2001 and 2011, female literacy in India improved from 53.7% to 65.5%, marking a significant educational advancement and reflecting efforts in women’s empowerment and access to education.
47. In plants, which enzyme is found in largest quantity ?
(1) ฿ galactosidase
(2) RuBP carboxylase
(3) Enterokinase
(4) Heterokinase
Answer: (2) RuBP carboxylase
Explanation:
RuBP carboxylase, also known as Rubisco, is the most abundant enzyme in plants and on Earth. It plays a key role in the Calvin cycle, facilitating carbon fixation during photosynthesis.
48. The end product of aerobic respiration is :
(1) CO2+CO
(2) CO2+NO
(3) CO2+O2
(4) CO2+H2O
Answer: (4) CO2+H2O
Explanation:
In aerobic respiration, glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen, producing carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) as end products, along with energy (ATP). This process occurs in mitochondria.
49. The long term objective of population policy 2000 is to achieve stable population. During which of the following years this objective is targetted to be achieved ?
(1) 2015
(2) 2025
(3) 2035
(4) 2045
Answer: (2) 2025
Explanation:
The National Population Policy 2000 set a long-term goal of achieving population stabilization by the year 2025, aiming to align birth rates with death rates and ensure sustainable development.
50. Choose from the following options what the “Malthusian Population Trap” is related to :
(1) Population growth and positive checks
(2) Population growth and preventive checks
(3) Population growth and development
(4) Population growth and fertility
Answer: (1) Population growth and positive checks
Explanation:
The Malthusian Population Trap refers to the theory that unchecked population growth leads to resource scarcity, triggering positive checks like famine, disease, and war to reduce population. It highlights the limits of sustenance capacity.
51. What are the advantages of Microwave oven having microwave frequency of 2.45 GHz ?
(a) There are no flames
(b) Destruction of nutrients is less
(c) There is a physical change in foods
(d) Sterilization effected
(1) (a), (b) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
Answer: (1) (a), (b) and (d)
Explanation:
Microwave ovens operating at 2.45 GHz offer several benefits: they produce no flames, ensuring safe cooking; they cause minimal nutrient loss, preserving food quality; and they enable sterilization, which helps in killing microbes and maintaining hygiene.
52. Raman effect is due to :
(1) Inelastic collision of photon with e-
(2) Elastic collision of photon with e-
(3) Inelastic collision of photon with molecule
(4) Elastic collision of photon with molecule
Answer: (3) Inelastic collision of photon with molecule
Explanation:
The Raman effect occurs when photons undergo inelastic scattering upon interacting with molecules, leading to a change in energy and wavelength. This phenomenon is used in spectroscopy to study molecular vibrations.
53. If a heavy load is pulled along a smooth horizontal surface, then the force acting on the load may be :
(a) The applied force in the horizontal direction.
(b) The force of gravity acting on the load vertically downwards.
(c) The force of friction acting in the horizontal direction opposite the motion.
(d) Reaction force due to the horizontal surface.
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation:
When a heavy object is pulled on a smooth surface, it experiences multiple forces: the applied force moves it, gravity pulls it downward, friction resists motion, and the normal reaction force acts upward. All four forces are simultaneously present.
54. The allotropes of carbon are :
(a) Carbon halides
(b) Diamond
(c) Fullerenes
(d) Graphite
(e) Chaoite
(1) All above
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (a), (b), (d)
Answer: (2) (b), (c), (d)
Explanation:
Allotropes of carbon are different forms of the same element with distinct structures. Diamond, graphite, and fullerenes are true allotropes. Carbon halides and Chaoite are not allotropes, as they involve compounds or disputed forms.
55. Oxygen occurs in nature in isotopic forms.
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
Answer: (2) 3
Explanation:
Oxygen naturally exists in three isotopes: O-16, O-17, and O-18. These isotopes differ in neutron number but have the same chemical properties, and are used in climate studies and geochemistry.
56. Choose correct statements from the following :
(a) Sound waves travel faster in solids than in gases.
(b) Sound waves travel fastest through vacuum
(c) Sound waves are longitudinal waves
(d) Sound waves travel slower in gases than in liquids.
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (d) only
Answer: (1) (a), (c) and (d) only
Explanation:
Sound waves are longitudinal and travel fastest in solids, slower in liquids, and slowest in gases due to particle density. They cannot travel in vacuum, as they require a medium for propagation.
57. Which Botanist introduced the ‘Binomial’ nomenclature to the plants ?
(1) Bessey
(2) Bentham and Hooker
(3) Carolus Linnaeus
(4) Theophrastus
Answer: (3) Carolus Linnaeus
Explanation:
Carolus Linnaeus developed the binomial nomenclature system, assigning each species a two-part Latin name: genus and species. This system brought uniformity and clarity to biological classification.
58. Which animal tissue synthesizes, stores and metabolizes fat ?
(1) Epithelial tissue
(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Muscle tissue
Answer: (2) Adipose tissue
Explanation:
Adipose tissue is specialized for fat storage, synthesis, and metabolism. It acts as an energy reserve, provides insulation, and cushions organs, playing a key role in metabolic regulation.
59. Viruses are :
(1) Unicellular Organisms
(2) Cellular without cell wall
(3) Multicellular Organisms
(4) Non-cellular Organisms
Answer: (4) Non-cellular Organisms
Explanation:
Viruses are non-cellular entities, consisting of genetic material (DNA or RNA) enclosed in a protein coat. They lack cellular structure and can only replicate inside host cells, making them unique among microbes.
60. Spot the odd one out ?
(1) Humerus
(2) Femur
(3) Radius
(4) Scapula
Answer: (4) Scapula
Explanation:
Scapula is a flat bone forming the shoulder blade, while humerus, femur, and radius are long bones involved in limb movement. Hence, scapula is structurally and functionally distinct.
61. Which of the following are essential whorls of the flowers ?
(1) Sepal and Tepal
(2) Sepal and Petal
(3) Androecium and Gynoecium
(4) Calyx and Stamens
Answer: (3) Androecium and Gynoecium
Explanation:
The essential whorls of a flower are the androecium (male reproductive part) and gynoecium (female reproductive part). These are directly involved in reproduction, unlike sepals and petals, which are accessory whorls.
62. Urea is transported by :
(1) Plasma + Blood
(2) Blood + O2
(3) RBC + CO2
(4) WBC + Saliva
Answer: (1) Plasma + Blood
Explanation:
Urea, a waste product formed in the liver, is transported through the blood plasma to the kidneys for excretion. It dissolves in plasma, not carried by RBCs or WBCs, and is unrelated to oxygen or saliva.
63. Which of the following statements are true ? The guidelines for “the use of chemical additives in food processing” by Food Protection Committee in publication 398 include :
(a) Use of antioxidants to maintain nutritional value.
(b) Use of anti microbial agents and inert gases for food stability.
(c) Use of colouring and flavouring agents to enhance the attractiveness.
(d) Use of buffers in food processing.
(1) All are true
(2) (a), (b), (c) are true
(3) (a) and (d) are true
(4) All are false
Answer: (1) All are true
Explanation:
The Food Protection Committee outlines the use of antioxidants, antimicrobials, inert gases, coloring, flavoring, and buffers to ensure nutritional preservation, shelf stability, and consumer appeal in processed foods.
64. Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) Indigo – blue is a natural dye.
(b) Alizarin is a synthetic dye.
(1) Both true
(2) (a) true, (b) false
(3) (a) false, (b) true
(4) Both false
Answer: (1) Both true
Explanation:
Indigo blue is a natural dye extracted from Indigofera plants, while Alizarin is a synthetic dye originally derived from madder root but now produced chemically. Both statements are factually correct.
65. Upon hydrolysis, sucrose yields equimolar mixture of :
(1) Glucose and ribose
(2) Fructose and ribose
(3) Glucose and fructose
(4) Lactose and maltose
Answer: (3) Glucose and fructose
Explanation:
Sucrose, a disaccharide, breaks down into glucose and fructose in equal proportions during hydrolysis, typically catalyzed by sucrase enzyme or acidic conditions.
66. The composition of cement is :
(1) CaO – SiO₂ – Al₂O₃
(2) CaO – Al₂O₃ – MgO
(3) SiO₂ – Al₂O₃ – AlCl₅
(4) CaO – SiO₂ – AlCl₃
Answer: (1) CaO – SiO₂ – Al₂O₃
Explanation:
Cement is primarily composed of calcium oxide (CaO), silicon dioxide (SiO₂), and aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃). These compounds contribute to its binding properties, strength, and durability.
67. What is not a mixture ?
(1) Water
(2) Air
(3) Soil
(4) Chalk
Answer: (1) Water
Explanation:
Water (H₂O) is a pure compound, not a mixture. In contrast, air, soil, and chalk consist of multiple substances physically combined, making them mixtures.
68. The fundamental requirements for nitrogen fixation are :
(a) Nitrogenase
(b) Ferredoxin
(c) ATP
(d) Aerobic conditions
(1) All the above
(2) (a), (b), (c)
(3) (a), (b), (d)
(4) (a), (c), (d)
Answer: (2) (a), (b), (c)
Explanation:
Nitrogen fixation requires nitrogenase enzyme, ferredoxin for electron transfer, and ATP for energy. The process is typically anaerobic, as nitrogenase is oxygen-sensitive, making aerobic conditions unsuitable.
69. In DNA, thymine always pairs with
(1) Adenine
(2) Cytosine
(3) Guanine
(4) Thymine
Answer: (1) Adenine
Explanation:
In DNA, thymine (T) forms two hydrogen bonds with adenine (A). This base pairing rule ensures genetic stability and accurate replication.
70. In protein synthesis, which RNA plays an important role ?
(1) m RNA
(2) t RNA
(3) i RNA
(4) r RNA
Answer: (1) m RNA
Explanation:
Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic code from DNA to the ribosomes, where protein synthesis occurs. It acts as the template for assembling amino acids into polypeptides.
71. Under Article 22 of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain provisions stated therein, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under preventive detention ?
(1) 2 months
(2) 3 months
(3) 4 months
(4) 6 months
Answer: (2) 3 months
Explanation:
Article 22 of the Indian Constitution allows preventive detention for a maximum of three months without advisory board review. Beyond this, continued detention requires approval from an advisory board comprising judges of a High Court.
72. Which of the following statutory provisions will you view as the most effective instrument of rural socio-economic distributive justice in the independent India ?
(1) Forest Rights Act
(2) Agricultural Tenancy Act
(3) Agricultural Land Ceiling Act
(4) Debt Relief Act
Answer: (3) Agricultural Land Ceiling Act
Explanation:
The Agricultural Land Ceiling Act aimed to redistribute surplus land to the landless, promoting equity and justice in rural India. It was a key step toward reducing inequality and ensuring fair access to agricultural resources.
73. Which one of the following amendments to the Constitution of India sought to curb political defections ?
(1) 42nd
(2) 52nd
(3) 62nd
(4) 70th
Answer: (2) 52nd
Explanation:
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 introduced the Anti-Defection Law by adding the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution. It aimed to prevent political defections and maintain stability in governance.
74. Which of the following two statements is correct ?
(a) The soda commonly used in the kitchen for making tasty crispy pokodas is baking soda. The baking soda is a sodium carbonate.
(b) Washing soda is usually used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes and in glass, soap, paper industries. The washing soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate.
(1) Only (a)
(2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation:
Baking soda is actually sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃), not sodium carbonate.
Washing soda is sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃), not sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Hence, both statements are incorrect in terms of chemical identity.
75. The Chairman and Members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed on the recommendations of a committee consisting of :
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(c) Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
(d) Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
(e) Prime Minister
(f) Union Home Minister
(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)
(2) (a), (c) and (e)
(3) (a), (c), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
Answer: (4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)
Explanation:
The appointment committee for NHRC includes the Prime Minister, Home Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, and Leaders of Opposition in both houses. This ensures bipartisan selection.
76. Consider the following two statements :
(a) Our stomach produces hydrochloric acid. It helps in digestion of food. During indigestion the stomach produces too much acid causing pain and irritation.
(b) Magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) is often used in the above condition which is an analgesic ?
(1) Only (a)
(2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: (1) Only (a)
Explanation:
Statement (a) is correct: hydrochloric acid aids digestion, and excess causes indigestion.
Statement (b) is incorrect: magnesium hydroxide is an antacid, not an analgesic. It neutralizes excess acid, not pain.
77. Which one of the following cases prompted the Parliament to enact 24th Constitutional Amendment Act ?
(1) Golaknath case
(2) Minerva Mills case
(3) Kesavananda Bharati case
(4) Shankari Prasad case
Answer: (1) Golaknath case
Explanation:
The Golaknath case (1967) ruled that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended. In response, the 24th Amendment (1971) was passed to restore Parliament’s power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
78. Identify the incorrect pair :
(a) Vinegar – Acetic acid
(b) Oranges – Citric acid
(c) Tamarind – Tartaric acid
(d) Tomatoes – Oxalic acid
(e) Sour milk (curds) – Lactic acid
(f) Lemons – Citric acids
(g) Ant sting – Methanoic acid
(h) Nettle sting – Sulphuric acid
(1) (c)
(2) (d)
(3) (g)
(4) (h)
Answer: (4) (h)
Explanation:
Nettle sting contains methanoic acid (formic acid), not sulphuric acid.
All other pairs are correct, making (h) the incorrect match.
79. Consider the following statements :
(a) Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
(b) A Bill pending in Parliament shall lapse by reason of Prorogation of the houses.
(1) Only (a)
(2) Neither (a) nor (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Only (b)
Answer: (2) Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation:
A bill pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse if Lok Sabha is dissolved.
Prorogation does not cause lapse of bills.
Hence, both statements are incorrect.
80. Which of the following non-violent movements led by Mahatma Gandhi against the British Raj, you would rank as the most effective to mobilize the masses ?
(1) Quit India Movement
(2) Swadesi use and Boycott of foreign goods Movement
(3) Civil Disobedience Movement
(4) Fasting
Answer: (3) Civil Disobedience Movement
Explanation:
The Civil Disobedience Movement (1930), launched with the Salt March, was a mass mobilization campaign that involved defying British laws. It united diverse sections of society and had a nationwide impact, making it highly effective.
81. What is the correct chronological order in which the following states of the Indian Union were created or granted full statehood ?
(a) Nagaland (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Haryana (d) Maharashtra
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b), (d) and (c)
(3) (b), (a), (d) and (c)
(4) (b), (d), (a) and (c)
Answer: (4) (b), (d), (a) and (c)
Explanation:
Andhra Pradesh was formed in 1953, followed by Maharashtra in 1960, Nagaland in 1963, and Haryana in 1966. This sequence reflects the chronological order of their statehood recognition.
82. Under the Citizenship Act 1955, by which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India ?
(a) By incorporation of territory
(b) By descent
(c) By birth
(d) By nationalisation
(e) By registration
(1) (b), (c), (d) and (e)
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
Answer: (4) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
Explanation:
The Citizenship Act, 1955 allows acquisition of Indian citizenship through birth, descent, registration, and incorporation of territory. Naturalization is also valid, but not listed in this correct option.
83. Which state of India has negative population growth rate as per census 2011 ?
(1) Goa
(2) Tripura
(3) Nagaland
(4) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (3) Nagaland
Explanation:
As per the 2011 Census, Nagaland recorded a negative population growth rate, attributed to migration, data discrepancies, and demographic shifts, making it unique among Indian states.
84. In which year ‘Bharat Ratna’, the India’s highest civilian award was instituted and how many persons have been honoured with this award so far ?
(1) 1952, 67
(2) 1954, 41
(3) 1969, 45
(4) 1972, 41
Answer: (2) 1954, 41
Explanation:
The Bharat Ratna was instituted in 1954. By the time of this exam, 41 individuals had been conferred the award for exceptional service in art, literature, science, and public service.
85. Consider the following statements about ‘Jaymala Shiledar’.
(a) Born in Indore and obtained Degree of ‘Sangeet Alankar’ with First Rank.
(b) Honoured with ‘Padma Bhushan’ and ‘Sangeet Natak Academy’ award.
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b) both correct
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: (3) (a) and (b) both correct
Explanation:
Jaymala Shiledar, a renowned Marathi musical theatre artist, was born in Indore, earned Sangeet Alankar with distinction, and was honored with both the Padma Bhushan and Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, recognizing her contributions to Indian classical arts.
86. In the Legislative Assembly the official work is carried out in which language ?
(1) Marathi
(2) Marathi or Hindi
(3) Marathi or English
(4) Marathi, Hindi or English
Answer: (4) Marathi, Hindi or English
Explanation:
In Legislative Assemblies, proceedings may be conducted in Marathi, Hindi, or English, depending on the state’s linguistic policy and members’ preference, ensuring accessibility and clarity.
87. Which drug has been banned by the Union Government on June 26, 2013 ?
(1) Analgin
(2) Paracetamol
(3) Proctolol
(4) Vicks
Answer: (1) Analgin
Explanation:
Analgin, a painkiller, was banned by the Government of India on June 26, 2013, due to concerns over adverse side effects like agranulocytosis, a serious blood disorder.
88. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) So as to prevent oxygenated blood from mixing with deoxygenated blood birds and mammals have four chambered hearts.
(b) Amphibians and some reptiles tolerate some mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood and therefore have three chambered hearts.
(c) Fishes have only two chambered hearts as here blood is pumped to gills to get oxygenated which then passes to the rest of the body.
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer: (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Birds and mammals have four chambered hearts to ensure complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, which is essential for efficient circulation.
Amphibians and some reptiles have three chambered hearts, allowing partial mixing of blood, which is tolerable due to their lower metabolic demands.
Fishes possess two chambered hearts, where blood is oxygenated in gills before being circulated to the rest of the body.
89. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(a) Agni V – Intercontinental Range Missile.
(b) Trishul – Supersonic Cruise Missile.
(c) Shourya – Hypersonic Cruise Missile
(d) Dhanush – Short Range Missile.
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) Only (d)
(4) Only (b)
Answer: (2) (b) and (c)
Explanation:
Trishul is a short-range surface-to-air missile, not a supersonic cruise missile.
Shourya is a surface-to-surface ballistic missile, not classified as a hypersonic cruise missile.
Hence, both (b) and (c) are incorrectly matched.
90. Consider the following statements about the Forest Research Institute (India).
(a) It was founded as the ‘British Imperial Forest School’ in 1906.
(b) It was reestablished as the Imperial Forest Research Institute in 1947.
(c) It is located in Dehradun (Uttarakhand).
(d) It was declared as deemed university in 1991.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only
Answer: (4) (a), (c) and (d) only
Explanation:
The Forest Research Institute was originally established as the British Imperial Forest School in 1906, later renamed.
It is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, and was granted deemed university status in 1991.
The statement about reestablishment in 1947 is not accurate, making (b) incorrect.
Here are MCQs 91 to 100 from the attached MPSC 2014 Prelims Question Paper, transcribed in English with exact wording, bolded answers, and clear explanations as per your formatting standards:
91. Match the list “A” with list “B” with reference to Sahitya Academy Awards :
List – A (Person) (Award year)
(a) Shyam Manohar (i) 2011
(b) Vasant Dahake (ii) 2009
(c) Ashok Kelkar (iii) 2010
(d) Manik Godghate (iv) 2008
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Explanation:
Shyam Manohar received the award in 2010, Vasant Dahake in 2009, Ashok Kelkar in 2011, and Manik Godghate (Grace) in 2008.
The correct chronological match is:
(a) – ii, (b) – iii, (c) – i, (d) – iv.
92. Within what period is the Government entitled to reply an unstarred question generally ?
(1) Within a week
(2) Within fifteen days
(3) Within a month
(4) Within three months
Answer: (3) Within a month
Explanation:
For unstarred questions, the Government generally replies within a month, as these do not require oral answers and are answered in written form.
93. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct codes given below :
List-I (Planned power projects)
List-II (Capacity in MW)
(a) Chutka – (i) 9564
(b) Jaitapur – (ii) 1400
(c) Mithi Virdi (Viradi) – (iii) 3300
(d) Kovvada – (iv) 6600
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer: (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Explanation:
Chutka – 1400 MW, Jaitapur – 3300 MW, Mithi Virdi – 6600 MW, Kovvada – 9564 MW.
This matches option (1) correctly.
94. Which one of the following convicted RJD (Rashatriya Janata Dal) Chief Lalu Prasad Yadav in a fodder scam ?
(1) Jharkhand High Court
(2) Supreme Court of India
(3) Special CBI Court
(4) Patna High Court
Answer: (3) Special CBI Court
Explanation:
Lalu Prasad Yadav was convicted in the fodder scam by a Special CBI Court, which investigated and prosecuted the case under central jurisdiction.
95. Give the correct chronological sequence of the missions undertaken to Mars by the six countries or agencies given below :
(a) America
(b) Russia
(c) China
(d) Japan
(e) European Space Agency
(f) Bharat
(1) America, Russia, China, Japan, Bharat, European Space Agency
(2) Russia, America, Japan, European Space Agency, China, Bharat
(3) Russia, Japan, America, China, European Space Agency, Bharat
(4) America, Russia, Japan, China, European Space Agency, Bharat
Answer: (2) Russia, America, Japan, European Space Agency, China, Bharat
Explanation:
Russia initiated Mars missions first, followed by America, then Japan, ESA, China, and finally India with Mangalyaan.
This sequence matches option (2).
96. Consider the following two statements about Arvind Kejriwal, the new chief Minister of Delhi and the leader of Aam Aadmi Party :
(a) He is an alumni of IIT Kanpur.
(b) In the recent elections held in Delhi his party won 29 of the 70 seats.
Options :
(1) Only (a) is right
(2) Only (b) is right
(3) Both (a) and (b) are right
(4) Neither (a) nor (b) is right
Answer: (3) Both (a) and (b) are right
Explanation:
Arvind Kejriwal is an IIT Kanpur alumnus, and in the 2013 Delhi elections, AAP won 29 out of 70 seats, making both statements correct.
97. Arrange in chronological order the chairmen of Atomic Energy Commission of India ?
(a) Homi Bhabha
(b) Raja Ramanna
(c) H.N. Sethna
(d) Vikram Sarabhai
(1) (a), (d), (c), (b)
(2) (a), (c), (b), (d)
(3) (b), (a), (d), (c)
(4) (b), (c), (a), (d)
Answer: (1) (a), (d), (c), (b)
Explanation:
Homi Bhabha was the first chairman, followed by Vikram Sarabhai, then H.N. Sethna, and finally Raja Ramanna.
This order matches option (1).
98. Which one of the following news agencies is the oldest in the world ?
(1) Reuters (England)
(2) Agence France – Presse (France) (AFP)
(3) Deutsche Presse – Agentur (DPA)
(4) Telegraph Agency of the Soviet Union (TASS), Russia
Answer: (2) Agence France – Presse (France) (AFP)
Explanation:
AFP traces its origins to 1835, making it the oldest news agency globally.
Reuters was founded in 1851, and TASS and DPA came later.
99. The first country to legalize production and trade of marijuana is :
(1) Cambodia
(2) Srilanka
(3) Syria
(4) Uruguay
Answer: (4) Uruguay
Explanation:
Uruguay became the first country to fully legalize the production and trade of marijuana in 2013, setting a global precedent.
100. Consider the following two statements about Farooq Sheikh :
(a) In “Ji Mantriji” he performed the role of a Secretary to the Government wonderfully well.
(b) He suffered the heart attack at Dubai.
Options :
(1) Only (a) is right
(2) Only (b) is right
(3) Both (a) and (b) are right
(4) Neither (a) nor (b) is right
Answer: (3) Both (a) and (b) are right
Explanation:
Farooq Sheikh played the Secretary in Ji Mantriji with great acclaim, and he passed away due to a heart attack in Dubai in 2013, making both statements correct.