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MPSC Prelims 2023 GS Question Paper [Fully Solved]

September 12, 2025

1. Pandita Ramabai, with the permission of the Ramabai Association, appointed an advisory board to advise her. Who among the following was included in this advisory board?

i. Justice M. G. Ranade
ii. Dr. R. G. Bhandarkar
iii. Justice K. T. Telang
iv. Bapu Hari Shinde

Options:
(1) i and ii only
(2) ii and iii only
(3) i and iv only
(4) i, ii and iii only

Answer: (4) i, ii and iii only

Explanation:
Pandita Ramabai formed an advisory board with the approval of the Ramabai Association to guide her social reform initiatives. The board included prominent reformers and scholars: Justice M. G. Ranade, Dr. R. G. Bhandarkar, and Justice K. T. Telang. Bapu Hari Shinde was not part of this board.

2. In 1918 A.D., who advised the Mumbai workers to establish the organization ‘People’s Union’?

Options:
(1) Rajashree Shahu Maharaj
(2) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(3) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
(4) Bhai Madhavrao Bagal

Answer: (1) Rajashree Shahu Maharaj

3. Who defended Chiplunkar’s attack on Mahatma Jyotirao Phule through his newspaper, considered as the beginning of non-Brahmin journalism?

Options:
(1) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
(2) Bhau Daji Lad
(3) Tukaram Tatya Padval
(4) Krushnaji Bhalekar

Answer: (4) Krushnaji Bhalekar

4. On which of the following matrimonial relationships between two Royal families does the ancient drama ‘Malavikagnimitra’ throw light?

Options:
(1) Shunga and Vidarbha (Yadnyasen) family
(2) Gupta and Vakataka family
(3) Shakas and Satavahana family
(4) Chalukya and Vardhana family

Answer: (1) Shunga and Vidarbha (Yadnyasen) family

Explanation:
Kalidasa’s drama Malavikagnimitra centers around King Agnimitra of the Shunga dynasty and his love for Malavika, who is later revealed to be a princess from the Vidarbha (Yadnyasen) royal family. The play highlights a matrimonial alliance between these two dynasties.

5. What was the medium of trade exchange during the Vedic period?

i. Nishka
ii. Krusnal
iii. Shatman
iv. Gan
v. Shreni

Options:
(1) i, ii and iii
(2) ii, iii and iv
(3) i, ii, iv and v
(4) i, iii and v

Answer: (1) i, ii and iii

6. According to Setu Madhavrao Pagadi, who of the following saints renamed himself as ‘Shaha Ramjan’ and got converted to Islam by a Sufi Saint Nizamuddin?

  1. Gorakhnath
  2. Gahininath
  3. Jalandharnath
  4. Kanifnath

Answer: 4. Kanifnath

Explanation: Setu Madhavrao Pagadi noted that Gahininath, a prominent Nath sect saint, adopted the name ‘Shaha Ramjan’ after being initiated into Islam by Sufi Saint Nizamuddin. This transformation is considered a cultural mystery in Maharashtra’s spiritual history.

7. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order:
i. White Paper
ii. Poona Pact
iii. Nehru Report
iv. Dharasana Satyagraha

  1. iv, ii, iii, i
  2. iv, i, ii, iii
  3. iii, iv, ii, i
  4. ii, iii, iv, i

Answer: 3. iii, iv, ii, i

Explanation: Nehru Report – 1928, Dharasana Satyagraha – 1930, Poona Pact – 1932, White Paper – 1933. This sequence reflects the evolving constitutional and protest strategies during the freedom movement.

8. The following statements are written about:
a. He played an important role in education in Maharashtra.
b. He prepared textbooks on various subjects.
c. He wrote a book ‘Shunyalabdhi’ on Mathematics and Science in Marathi.
d. Keshavrao Bhavalkar has written his biography.

  1. Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar
  2. Atmaram Pandurang Tarkhadkar
  3. Balshastri Jambhekar
  4. Gopal Hari Deshmukh

Answer: 3. Balshastri Jambhekar

Explanation: Balshastri Jambhekar, known as the father of Marathi journalism, contributed significantly to education and authored Shunyalabdhi. Keshavrao Bhavalkar documented his life in a biography.

9. Arrange the following political organizations chronologically:
a. Pune Sarvajanik Sabha
b. Bombay Presidency Association
c. Madras Mahajan Sabha
d. Indian Association

  1. b a d c
  2. a d c b
  3. c d b a
  4. d b a c

Answer: 2. a d c b

Explanation: Pune Sarvajanik Sabha – 1870, Indian Association – 1876, Madras Mahajan Sabha – 1884, Bombay Presidency Association – 1885.

10. Which of the following decisions was taken by the Sabarmati Treaty?

  1. A competitive co-operative party should be established.
  2. Students should not be involved in politics.
  3. There should be no discrimination among lower caste workers; a team of 50 volunteers should be formed and Hindu-Muslim unity maintained.
  4. A committee of Motilal Nehru and Jayakar to determine the members of the Central Legislature.

Answer: 4. A committee of Motilal Nehru and Jayakar to determine the members of the Central Legislature.

Explanation: The treaty promoted equality among workers and unity between Hindu and Muslim communities, with an organized team of volunteers.

11. In 1934 A.D., which region witnessed the establishment of ‘Karshak Sangham’ as a peasant organization?

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Tamil Nadu
  3. Kerala
  4. Bengal

Answer: 3. Kerala

Explanation: The Karshak Sangham was formed in 1934 in Malabar, Kerala, by Congress Socialist Party activists to mobilize peasants against feudal exploitation.

12. Who remarked about the ‘Dandi Yatra’ as “Rama’s Historical March to Lanka”?

  1. Pandit Motilal Nehru and D. J. Tendulkar
  2. P. C. Ray and D. P. Mishra
  3. Shankarrao Dev and G. V. Ketkar
  4. Appasaheb Patwardhan and Suhasini Nambiyar

Answer: 1. Pandit Motilal Nehru and D. J. Tendulkar

Explanation: Motilal Nehru described Gandhi’s Dandi March as symbolically similar to Sri Ramchandra’s march to Lanka, highlighting its historic and revolutionary significance.

13. About whom are the following statements related?
i. Religion was separated from politics.
ii. Adopted a policy of seclusion for women who followed Sati.
iii. Encouraged widow remarriage to stop child marriage.
iv. Claimed that final decisions regarding social law would be his.

  1. Babur
  2. Humayun
  3. Akbar
  4. Aurangzeb

Answer: 3. Akbar

Explanation: Akbar implemented progressive social reforms: opposing child marriage, legalizing widow remarriage, discouraging Sati, and promoting secular governance through Sulh-i-Kul.

14. Bhills in Khandesh protested against British rule because:
i. They were inspired by the uprising in North India.
ii. Bhagoji Naik and Kazising Naik joined the revolt.
iii. Kazising and his associates burnt government treasuries and post offices.

  1. i and ii
  2. ii and iii
  3. i and iii
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Explanation: The Bhills actively resisted British rule during and after 1857, targeting colonial infrastructure under leaders like Bhagoji Naik and Kazising Naik.

15. In which newspapers did Annie Besant present her thoughts about the Home Rule Movement?
a. New India
b. Commonweal
c. Bombay Gazette
d. Telegraph

  1. a and b only
  2. b and c only
  3. a and d only
  4. a, b and c only

Answer: 1. a and b only

Explanation: Annie Besant promoted the Home Rule Movement through New India and Commonweal.

16. Observe the following statements:
A. There is loss of biodiversity due to dumping toxic waste into soil.
B. Deforestation is responsible for frequent floods in rivers.
C. Francisco Mendez was known as ‘Amazon Gandhi’ for his work in the energy field.

  1. Only statement C is correct
  2. Only statement A is correct
  3. Only statements A and B are correct
  4. Statements A, B and C are correct

Answer: 3. Only statements A and B are correct

Explanation: Statements A and B are scientifically valid. There is no verified record of Francisco Mendez being referred to as “Amazon Gandhi.”

17. Nitrogen fertilizers in soils release ______ when broken down by bacteria.

  1. Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂)
  2. Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
  3. Nitrogen trioxide (NO₃)
  4. Nitrogen (N₂)

Answer: 3. Nitrogen trioxide (NO₃)

Explanation: Soil bacteria break down nitrogen fertilizers, releasing nitrous oxide (N₂O), a potent greenhouse gas.

18. In relation to Ozone, which statements are true?
A. Ozone is called the protective shield of the Earth.
B. In 1985, it was confirmed that the ozone layer has holes.
C. 16th September is celebrated as World Ozone Day.
D. In 1989, chemicals responsible for ozone depletion were banned.

  1. Only A, B and C
  2. Only B, C and D
  3. Only A, C and D
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Explanation: Ozone acts as the Earth’s protective shield. The ozone hole was confirmed in 1985. World Ozone Day is observed on 16th September. The Montreal Protocol (1989) banned ozone-depleting chemicals.

19. Which of the following is not the type of Ecological pyramid?

  1. Pyramid of number
  2. Pyramid of biomass
  3. Pyramid of food web
  4. Pyramid of energy

Answer: 3. Pyramid of food web

Explanation: Ecological pyramids represent the structure of ecosystems in terms of number, biomass, or energy. A food web is a complex network of feeding relationships, not a pyramid type.

20. Some species if eliminated seriously affect the ecosystem. These are called:

  1. Blue stone
  2. Red stone
  3. Yellow stone
  4. Keystone

Answer: 4. Keystone

Explanation: Keystone species play a critical role in maintaining ecosystem balance. Their removal can cause drastic changes in ecosystem structure and function.

21. Observe the following diagram and state which of the following alphabets indicate the gibbous phase of the moon?

  1. B and H
  2. C and G
  3. D and F
  4. E and A

Answer: 3. D and F

Explanation: Gibbous phases occur when the moon is more than half illuminated but not full. In standard lunar phase diagrams, these are typically marked as D (waxing gibbous) and F (waning gibbous).

22. “Environment means the sum total of all conditions, agencies and influences which affect the development, growth, life and death of an organism, species or race.” Who created this definition?

  1. Universal Encyclopedia
  2. Britannica Encyclopedia
  3. A.C. Tansley
  4. Jackie Smith

Answer: 1

Explanation: This definition is attributed to the Britannica Encyclopedia, which provides comprehensive descriptions of environmental concepts in biological and ecological contexts.

23. In the western part of Rajasthan, minerals like limestone, gypsum and mineral salts reserves are distributed. Which reasons are responsible?
a. Submerged under sea during Permocarboniferous period
b. Receives low rainfall
c. Hot and dry climate
d. Low vegetation cover

  1. only a is correct
  2. only a and b are correct
  3. a, b and c are correct
  4. only d is correct

Answer: 1

24. Which of the following soil contains the maximum proportion of iron and bauxite minerals?

  1. Red soil
  2. Regur soil
  3. Laterite soil
  4. Alluvial soil

Answer: 3. Laterite soil

Explanation: Laterite soil is rich in iron and aluminum oxides, making it a major source of bauxite. It forms in hot, wet tropical areas due to intense leaching.

25. Assertion (A): Cotton is not a weight-losing pure raw material, besides is light in weight and durable.

Reason (R): The localization of the cotton textile is found either in cotton-producing region or near market.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: 2

26. In the physical map of India, Maharashtra plateau is shown by which of the following colours?

  1. Dark green
  2. Green
  3. Yellow
  4. Brown

Answer: 3

27. On which of the following days does the summer solstice occur in the southern hemisphere?

  1. 21 March
  2. 21 June
  3. 23 September
  4. 22 December

Answer: 4. 22 December

Explanation: The summer solstice in the southern hemisphere occurs around 22 December, when the Sun is directly overhead the Tropic of Capricorn.

28. Winter rainfall received by the Mediterranean region is the result of:

  1. Shifting of pressure belts
  2. Low pressure belt occurs over the Mediterranean region during the winter season due to shifting of pressure belts
  3. Winds blow from the Mediterranean sea towards land
  4. Orographic rain developed on the windward slope of the Alps

Answer: 2. Low pressure belt occurs over the Mediterranean region during the winter season due to shifting of pressure belts

Explanation: In winter, the Mediterranean region comes under the influence of westerlies and cyclonic disturbances due to shifting pressure belts, leading to rainfall.

29. Trenches are found mainly along the coast of the western Pacific Ocean because:

  1. The western margin of the Pacific Ocean is the subduction zone
  2. Along the western border of the Pacific Ocean parallel mountain ranges are aligned
  3. The continental slope of the western part of the Pacific Ocean is steep
  4. The western part of the Pacific Ocean is characterised by a large number of trenches

Answer: 1. The western margin of the Pacific Ocean is the subduction zone

Explanation: Oceanic trenches form at subduction zones where one tectonic plate sinks beneath another. The western Pacific is geologically active, hosting many such zones.

30. The climatic phenomenon ‘retreating monsoon’ is the result of which atmospheric condition in India?

  1. After reaching the Himalayan ranges the south-west monsoons retreat
  2. The apparent movement of the Sun
  3. The expansion of the high-pressure belt from north-western part to south-eastern part of India
  4. The occurrence of variability in the atmospheric pressure developed over the Indian sub-continent

Answer: 3. The expansion of the high-pressure belt from north-western part to south-eastern part of India

Explanation: Retreating monsoon occurs due to the gradual establishment of a high-pressure system over northwestern India, pushing the moist winds back and causing dry conditions.

31. Which of the following is/are correct statements?
In Maharashtra, in order from north, the major hill ranges on the plateau and the river basins to their south are as follows:
a. Tapi Purna basin to the south of the Satpura mountain range.
b. Godavari river valley to the south of Satmala Ajintha hills.
c. Harishchandra Balaghat hill and Bhima river basin to its south.
d. Shambhu Mahadeva hills and Krishna river basin to its south.

  1. Only a
  2. All are correct
  3. Only a and b
  4. Only a and c

Answer: 2. All are correct

Explanation: Each hill range mentioned lies north of the respective river basin in Maharashtra’s plateau region. The sequence from north to south is geographically accurate, reflecting the physiographic structure of the Deccan plateau.

32. The Sahyadri range is not straight but at many places it is curved, because:

  1. Headward erosion of the Konkan rivers originating in Sahyadri
  2. Lateral erosion of the Konkan rivers originating in Sahyadri
  3. Downward erosion of the Konkan rivers originating in Sahyadri
  4. Heavy rainfall causes erosion and curvature

Answer: 1. Headward erosion of the Konkan rivers originating in Sahyadri

Explanation: The curvature of the Sahyadri range is primarily due to headward erosion by short, swift rivers flowing westward into the Konkan coast, cutting into the escarpment and creating indentations.

33. As compared to the Godavari and Krishna rivers, the course of the Kaveri river receives large volume of water during winter, because:

  1. Heavy rainfall from south-west monsoons
  2. Heavy rainfall from north-east monsoons
  3. Rainfall from both south-west and north-east monsoons
  4. Tributaries provide large volume of water

Answer: 2. Heavy rainfall from north-east monsoons

Explanation: The Kaveri basin, especially in Tamil Nadu, receives significant rainfall during the northeast monsoon (October–December), unlike Godavari and Krishna which depend mainly on southwest monsoon.

34. In his theory of industrial location Alfred Weber tried to establish the pivotal role of which of the following factors?

  1. Labour cost
  2. Cost of raw material
  3. Market accessibility
  4. Transport cost

Answer: 4. Transport cost

Explanation: Alfred Weber’s theory emphasizes minimizing transportation costs as the key factor in determining optimal industrial location, balancing raw material sources and market proximity.

35. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer:

  1. A compact settlement is most probably surrounded by hamlets.
  2. Compact settlements are not found in the Himalayan region.
  3. Only 1 is correct
  4. Only 2 is correct
  5. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  6. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: 2

36. ________ are materials whose resistivities become zero below a critical temperature.

  1. Conductors
  2. Insulators
  3. Super conductors
  4. None of these

Answer: 3. Super conductors

Explanation: Superconductors exhibit zero electrical resistance below a certain critical temperature, allowing current to flow without energy loss.

37. If an object is placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 36°, then how many images will be formed?

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 11

Answer: 2

Explanation: Number of images = (360° / angle) – 1 = (360 / 36) – 1 = 9 for asymmetrical object. Since the object is symmetrical, an extra 2 images form, totaling 11 images.

38. P + ρgh + = constant is the mathematical statement of:

  1. Equation of continuity
  2. Bernoulli’s equation
  3. Pascal’s law
  4. Euler’s equation

Answer: 2. Bernoulli’s equation

Explanation: Bernoulli’s equation relates pressure, gravitational potential energy, and kinetic energy in a flowing fluid. The expression P + ρgh + ½ρv² = constant is its standard form.

39. When α-particle emits from a radioactive element then:

  1. Atomic number decreases by 2 and mass number decreases by 4
  2. Atomic number decreases by 1 and mass number decreases by 2
  3. Atomic number increases by 1
  4. Atomic number and mass number remains same

Answer: 1. Atomic number decreases by 2 and mass number decreases by 4

Explanation: An alpha particle consists of 2 protons and 2 neutrons. Its emission reduces the atomic number by 2 and mass number by 4.

40. The fever of a child is 104°F. What is this temperature in degree Celsius?

  1. 35°C
  2. 37°C
  3. 39°C
  4. 40°C

Answer: 4. 40°C

Explanation: Using the formula: °C = (°F – 32) × 5/9 = (104 – 32) × 5/9 = 72 × 5/9 = 40°C

41. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. The speed of Planet is faster when they are nearer to the sun and slower when they are farther away from the sun.
  2. The speed of Planet is faster when they are farther from the sun and slower when they are nearer to the sun.
  3. The speed of Planet is same when they are nearer to the sun or farther away from the sun.
  4. The speed of Planet is faster when they are nearer to the sun or farther away from the sun.

Answer: 1. The speed of Planet is faster when they are nearer to the sun and slower when they are farther away from the sun.

Explanation: According to Kepler’s Second Law (Law of Areas), planets move faster in their orbit when closer to the Sun (perihelion) and slower when farther (aphelion), due to gravitational pull.

42. Match the following — Vitamins and respective deficiency diseases:
a. Vit. A → iv. Night blindness
b. Vit. D → i. Rickets
c. Vit. C → ii. Scurvy
d. Vit. B₁₂ → iii. Anaemia

Answer: 2. iv i ii iii

Explanation:

  • Vitamin A deficiency → Night blindness
  • Vitamin D deficiency → Rickets
  • Vitamin C deficiency → Scurvy
  • Vitamin B₁₂ deficiency → Anaemia

43. Anguina tritici is the parasitic nematode found on ________ plant.

  1. Wheat
  2. Rice
  3. Jowar
  4. Bajra

Answer: 1. Wheat

Explanation: Anguina tritici causes ear cockle disease in wheat. It’s a seed gall nematode affecting wheat grains and spikes.

44. Conchology is the study of what?

  1. Coelenterates
  2. Mollusca
  3. Shells of Mollusca
  4. Mantle of Mollusca

Answer: 3. Shells of Mollusca

Explanation: Conchology is a branch of malacology that specifically studies the shells of mollusks, including their structure and classification.

45. Phyllum Mollusca contains soft-bodied animals characterized by:
a. Second largest phylum in animal kingdom
b. Generally bilaterally symmetrical
c. Only terrestrial animals
d. Having muscular foot

Answer: 2. a, b and d

Explanation: Mollusks are soft-bodied, bilaterally symmetrical animals with a muscular foot. They are the second largest animal phylum and include aquatic and terrestrial species. Statement (c) is incorrect.

46. Which of the following major policy interventions are part of land reforms in India?
a. Abolition of intermediaries
b. Tenancy reforms
c. Fixing ceilings on land holdings
d. Consolidation of land holdings

Answer: 4. All of the above

Explanation: Land reforms in India included all four measures to promote equity and efficiency in agriculture: removing intermediaries, securing tenant rights, limiting land ownership, and consolidating fragmented holdings.

47. Who are the beneficiaries of Annapurna Yojana?

  1. School girls
  2. Casual labours
  3. Senior citizens who are not under National Old Age Pension Scheme
  4. Retired soldiers

Answer: 3. Senior citizens who are not under National Old Age Pension Scheme

Explanation: Annapurna Yojana provides food security to senior citizens not covered under NOAPS, offering free rice to eligible individuals.

48. Balanced growth rate aims at:

  1. Equality between growth rate of income, output, and natural resources
  2. Equality between growth rate of income and population
  3. Equality between growth rate of natural resources and income
  4. Equality between growth rate of natural resources and population

Answer: 1

49. Urbanization means:
a. Centralization of population in cities
b. Decentralization of population in cities
c. Centralization of population in villages
d. Increase in density of population

Answer: 1

50. Which of the following statements about AMRUT is not correct?

  1. AMRUT is flagship mission of Government of India
  2. It was launched by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
  3. It addresses the challenges of water supply in cities across the country
  4. It was launched on 25th June, 2015 in 500 cities in the country

Answer: 3

51. If deprivation score of a household is _______ percent or greater, then that household is called multidimensionally poor.

  1. 20.33
  2. 50.33
  3. 40.33
  4. 33.3

Answer: 4. 33.3

Explanation: According to the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), a household is considered multidimensionally poor if its deprivation score is 33.3% or more, based on indicators across health, education, and living standards.

52. Since July 1991, comprehensive liberalization measures have been undertaken to improve the supply side of the economy. Among these the more important are:
a. Trade and capital flows reforms
b. Industrial deregulation
c. Disinvestment and Public Enterprises Reforms
d. Financial sector reforms

Answer: 4. a, b, c and d

Explanation: The 1991 economic reforms included all four components: liberalizing trade and capital flows, deregulating industries, reforming public enterprises through disinvestment, and restructuring the financial sector.

53. The long-term objectives of economic planning, as spelt out in various plan documents have been as follows:
a. Economic growth, self-reliance
b. Removal of unemployment, reduction in income inequalities
c. Elimination of poverty, modernization
d. Inclusiveness and sustainability of growth

Answer: 4. a, b, c and d

Explanation: Indian planning documents have consistently emphasized growth, equity, modernization, poverty elimination, and sustainable development as long-term goals.

54. The formulation and success of a plan require the following:
a. Planning Commission, Statistical data, Objectives
b. Fixation of Targets and Priorities, Mobilisation of Resources
c. Incorrupt and Efficient Administration, Proper Development Policy
d. Economy in Administration, Education base

Answer: 4. a, b, c and d

Explanation: Effective planning requires institutional support, clear targets, resource mobilization, administrative efficiency, and a strong educational foundation for implementation.

55. ‘A country is poor, because it is poor’ — this statement is of _______.

  1. G. Myrdal
  2. Ragnar Nurks
  3. Robbins
  4. Marshall

Answer: 2. Ragnar Nurks

Explanation: Ragnar Nurkse emphasized the concept of the vicious circle of poverty, where poverty perpetuates itself due to low income, savings, and investment.

56. Balanced growth theory requires balance between _______.
a. Consumer goods and industrial goods
b. Capital goods and industrial goods
c. Agricultural sector and industrial sector
d. All sectors in the economy

Answer: 3. Only d

Explanation: Balanced growth theory advocates for simultaneous development across all sectors — agriculture, industry, services — to avoid bottlenecks and ensure inclusive progress.

57. According to Schumpeter:

a. Development is a discontinuous and spontaneous change in the stationary state.
b. Growth is a gradual and steady change in the long run which comes about by a gradual increase in the rate of savings and population.

(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) a and b
(4) None of the above

Answer: (3) a and b

Explanation:
Joseph Schumpeter clearly differentiated between economic growth and economic development:

  • Development: A spontaneous and discontinuous change, usually triggered by innovations, that disrupts the stationary state (a).

  • Growth: A continuous, gradual, and steady process driven by factors such as rising savings and population (b).

Thus, both statements are correct.

58. Rangarajan Committee, 2014 defined poverty line for 2011–12 at Rs. _______ per capita per day consumption expenditure for urban and rural areas.

  1. Rs. 50 and Rs. 35
  2. Rs. 47 and Rs. 32
  3. Rs. 55 and Rs. 40
  4. Rs. 60 and Rs. 45

Answer: 2

59. In 2014, the Government implemented which of the following scheme for financial inclusion?

  1. Demonetization Scheme
  2. Property Disclosure Scheme
  3. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
  4. All of the above

Answer: 3. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

Explanation: PMJDY was launched in 2014 to provide universal banking access, especially to the unbanked population, through zero-balance accounts and financial literacy.

60. What is meant by Gender Budget?

  1. Separate budget for men
  2. Separate budget for women
  3. Independent provisions for men in the general budget
  4. Independent provisions for women in the general budget

Answer: 4. Independent provisions for women in the general budget

Explanation: Gender budgeting integrates gender-specific allocations within the general budget to promote women’s empowerment and address gender disparities.

61. Which of the following mathematical relationships should be used to calculate the pH of a 0.10M aqueous HCl solution?

  1. $pH = \log_{10}(1.0 \times 10^{-1})$
  2. $pH = \log_{10}(1.0 \times 10^{1})$
  3. $pH = -\log_{10}(1.0 \times 10^{-1})$
  4. $pH = -\log_{10}(0.10 \times 10^{1})$

Answer: 3. $pH = -\log_{10}(1.0 \times 10^{-1})$

Explanation: HCl is a strong acid and dissociates completely. So, [H⁺] = 0.10 M.
pH = –log(0.10) = –log(10⁻¹) = 1

62. How is 1.0N $H_2SO_4$ solution prepared from 10 dm³ of 1.5M $H_2SO_4$ solution?

  1. By adding 5 dm³ of water to it
  2. By adding 294 g of $H_2SO_4$ to it
  3. By adding 20 dm³ of water to it
  4. By adding 174 g of $H_2SO_4$ to it

Answer: 3

63. Which of the following is correct for the shapes of $NH_3$ and $BF_3$?

  1. $NH_3$ – Pyramidal and $BF_3$ – Pyramidal
  2. $NH_3$ – Planar and $BF_3$ – Planar
  3. $NH_3$ – Planar and $BF_3$ – Pyramidal
  4. $NH_3$ – Pyramidal and $BF_3$ – Planar

Answer: 4. $NH_3$ – Pyramidal and $BF_3$ – Planar

Explanation: $NH_3$ is trigonal pyramidal due to lone pair on nitrogen; $BF_3$ is trigonal planar with 120° bond angles.

64. Which of the following hydrocarbon has 80% carbon? (H = 1, C = 12)

  1. Benzene
  2. Methane
  3. Ethane
  4. Cyclohexane

Answer: 3

65. 180 g of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is mixed with 180 g of water. Mole fraction of acetic acid is _____. (H = 1, C = 12, O = 16)

  1. 0.23
  2. 1.0
  3. 0.5
  4. None of the above

Answer: 1. 0.23

Explanation: Moles CH₃COOH = 180/60 = 3, moles H₂O = 180/18 = 10 → Mole fraction = 3/(3+10) ≈ 0.23

66. If one mole of an ideal gas occupies 22.4 L at STP, then the value of universal gas constant R is _____.

  1. 0.0821 atm·L·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹
  2. $8.314 \times 10^7$ J·K⁻¹·mol⁻¹
  3. 82.1 atm·L·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹
  4. 8.314 erg·K⁻¹·mol⁻¹

Answer: 1. 0.0821 atm·L·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹

Explanation: Standard value of R in atm·L·mol⁻¹·K⁻¹ at STP. Other options incorrect due to unit or magnitude errors.

67. Find the wrong pair.

  1. Labiatae – Lamiaceae
  2. Palmae – Arecaceae
  3. Compositae – Clusiaceae
  4. Umbelliferae – Apiaceae

Answer: 3. Compositae – Clusiaceae

Explanation: Compositae correctly corresponds to Asteraceae, not Clusiaceae.

68. What is the principal function of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

  1. To transfer the NADH₂ and ATP
  2. To utilize the NADPH and ATP
  3. To generate the NADPH and ATP
  4. All of the above

Answer: 3. To generate the NADPH and ATP

Explanation: Light-dependent reactions produce ATP and NADPH for use in the Calvin cycle; they do not consume them.

69. _____ are precursors of enzymes.

  1. only a (Zymogens)
  2. only b and c (Ribosomes and RNA)
  3. only a and c (Zymogens and RNA)
  4. only d (Protein)

Answer: 1. only a (Zymogens)

Explanation: Zymogens are inactive enzyme precursors activated when required.

70. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
a. Enzymes are organic catalysts that accelerate biochemical reactions.
b. Enzymes are made up from proteins.
c. Enzyme activity is not dependent on temperature.
d. Amylase is an enzyme that acts on starch.

  1. a and b
  2. a, c and d
  3. a, b and d
  4. all the above

Answer: 3. a, b and d

Explanation: Statements a, b, and d are correct. Statement c is wrong — enzyme activity depends on temperature, pH, and other factors.

71. Which of the following statement is not included in Article 164?

  1. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor
  2. The Council of Ministers shall not be collectively responsible to the State Legislature
  3. The other Minister shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister
  4. A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a minister

Answer: 2. The Council of Ministers shall not be collectively responsible to the State Legislature

Explanation: Article 164 states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly, so stating they are not responsible is incorrect.

72. Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if:

  1. A, B and C
  2. A, C and D
  3. B and C
  4. A, B and D

Answer: 2. A, C and D

Explanation: Citizenship may be terminated if the person voluntarily acquires foreign citizenship (A), obtained citizenship by fraud (C), or is disloyal to the Constitution (D). Imprisonment (B) alone does not cause automatic termination.

73. Which of the following is/are correct pair/s with regard to acceptance in the Indian Constitution?

  1. Only A
  2. A and C
  3. A, B and D
  4. A, B, C and D

Answer: 4. A, B, C and D

Explanation: All listed features are borrowed:

  • A: Vice President from USA
  • B: Union concept from Canada
  • C: Rajya Sabha election method from South Africa
  • D: Nominated members from Ireland

74. Objectives of Committee of Parliament on Official Language:

  1. A only
  2. B, C and D
  3. A and D
  4. All of the above

Answer: 1. A only

Explanation: The committee’s sole mandate is to review and promote the use of Hindi for official purposes. Other options fall outside its scope.

75. Select the incorrect statements with reference to the President of Zilla Parishad:

  1. A and C
  2. B and D
  3. A and B
  4. C and D

Answer: 2. B and D

Explanation: Ministerial status was granted by Vasantrao Naik’s cabinet, not Sudhakarrao Naik or Vasantdada Patil. Motion of no confidence requires 1/5th members, not “1/5%”.

76. Which of the following is/are non-constitutional body/bodies?

  1. Only I is correct
  2. Only III and IV are correct
  3. Only I, III and IV are correct
  4. Only I and IV are correct

Answer: 4. Only I and IV are correct

Explanation: NITI Aayog and CIC are non-constitutional bodies. State Finance Commission is constitutional (Art. 243-I). NCBC became constitutional via Art. 338B in 2018.

77. Key Provisions of Lokpal and Lokayukta (Amendment) Act, 2016:

  1. A, B and C
  2. A, B and D
  3. A, C and D
  4. All of the above

Answer: 2. A, B and D

Explanation: The amendment modified Section 44 and removed the 30-day deadline. It did not mandate states to establish Lokayuktas within one year.

78. Duties of National Commission for Backward Classes:

  1. To enquire into specific complaints
  2. To advise on socio-economic development
  3. To discharge welfare functions
  4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Explanation: NCBC performs all listed duties under Article 338B, including inquiry, advisory, and welfare functions for backward classes.

79. Which of the following pair is incorrect?

  1. CPI-M – 1964
  2. CPI – 1926
  3. BSP – 1984
  4. AITC – 1998

Answer: 2. CPI – 1926

Explanation: CPI was founded in 1925, not 1926. All other years are correct.

80. Match the pairs correctly:
A. Part-I → iv. The Union and its territory
B. Part-II → iii. Citizenship
C. Part-IX → ii. Panchayat Raj
D. Part-III → i. Fundamental Rights

  1. iv, iii, ii, i
  2. iii, i, ii, iv
  3. ii, iii, i, iv
  4. iv, i, ii, iii

Answer: 4. iv, i, ii, iii

Explanation:

  • Part I: Union & its territory
  • Part II: Citizenship
  • Part III: Fundamental Rights
  • Part IX: Panchayats

81. Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in Schedule V

(1) may be altered by the Governor
(2) may be altered by the President
(3) may be altered by the Parliament by Constitutional Amendment requiring special majority
(4) may be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislation

Answer: (4) may be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislation

Explanation:
The provisions under Schedule V of the Indian Constitution, which govern the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes, can be modified by Parliament through ordinary legislation. This allows flexibility in adapting laws for tribal welfare without requiring a constitutional amendment or special majority. Neither the Governor nor the President has the authority to alter these provisions directly.

Q82. Which of the following are the objectives of the ‘SVAMITVA’ Scheme?

A. Ensure financial stability to villagers by letting them use their property to take loans.
B. Create precise land records for urban planning and implementation.
C. Lessen property related disputes.
D. Determine property tax.

(1) Only A
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) All of the above

Answer: (3) A, C and D

Explanation:
SVAMITVA is a Central Sector Scheme aimed at rural empowerment through:

  • Financial stability via property-based loans (A)
  • Reducing property disputes through accurate mapping (C)
  • Enabling property tax assessment (D)
    Urban planning (B) is not part of its scope.

Q83. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Zero Hour’ of Lok Sabha:

A. The time immediately following the question hour and laying of papers and before any listed business is taken up in the house has come to be known as the zero hour.
B. For raising matters during the zero hour members have to give notice between 8.00 a.m. to 9.30 a.m. every day to the Speaker.
C. At present, thirty matters per day as per their priority are allowed to be raised during zero hour.
D. There is no maximum limit on the number of matters that can be raised on any given day as there is no provision in rules about Zero Hour.

(1) A and B
(2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) A and D

Answer: 4

Q84. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the legal relationship between the Central and State Government in India?

A. The subject of transfer of property other than agricultural land is included in the Concurrent List.
B. The subject of wealth tax on property other than agricultural land is included in the Union List.
C. The subject of entertainment tax is included in the Concurrent List.
D. The subject of ‘Antiquities Museum’ is included in the State List.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, C and D

Answer: (3) A, B and D

Explanation:

  • A: Correct — transfer of non-agricultural property is in the Concurrent List
  • B: Correct — wealth tax (non-agricultural) is in the Union List
  • D: Correct — antiquities and museums are in the State List
  • C: Incorrect — entertainment tax was in the State List, now subsumed under GST

Q85. After extensive discussion in the Constituent Assembly, the following provisions were included. Which Article does not include?

I. Fundamental duties under Art. 51A
II. Constitutional Amendment under Art. 368
III. National emergency under Art. 352
IV. Ordinance under Art. 123

(1) Only I correct
(2) Only II correct
(3) All of the above are correct
(4) None of the above are correct

Answer: (1) Only I correct

Explanation:

  • Article 51A (Fundamental Duties) was added later via the 42nd Amendment (1976)
  • Articles 368, 352, and 123 were part of the original Constitution and discussed in the Constituent Assembly

Q86. In which State was the 10th International Tourism Mart organized in November 2022?

(1) Maharashtra
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Mizoram
(4) Assam

Answer: (3) Mizoram

Explanation:
The 10th International Tourism Mart was held in Aizawl, Mizoram from 17–19 November 2022 to promote tourism in the Northeast region.

Q87. Choose the correct option considering the following statements about Ramesh Bais:

a. Ramesh Bais is appointed as the Governor of Maharashtra.
b. Earlier he was the Governor of Tripura State.
c. He belongs to Chhattisgarh State.

(1) Only a is correct
(2) a and b both are correct
(3) a and c both are correct
(4) a, b and c are correct

Answer: (4) a, b and c are correct

Explanation:
Ramesh Bais was appointed Governor of Maharashtra in February 2023. He previously served as Governor of Tripura and hails from Raipur, Chhattisgarh.

Q88. Examine the following statements regarding the ‘Nutrition Promotion Campaign’ of the United Nations:

A. Afshan Khan was nominated as the coordinator of this Campaign.
B. Antony Blinken was nominated as the coordinator of this Campaign.
C. To eradicate malnutrition by 2030 is the objective of this Campaign.
D. This campaign is implemented in countries suffering with malnutrition in the world.

(1) A and B are correct
(2) C and D are correct
(3) A, C and D are correct
(4) A, B and D are correct

Answer: 3

Q89. In the Budget 2023 of Maharashtra State, which Corporations were announced to be established?
(1) Only A and D
(2) Only A, C and D
(3) Only B, C and D
(4) Only B and C

Answer: (2) Only A, C and D

Explanation:
The Maharashtra Budget 2023 proposed the creation of:

  • Raje Umaji Naik Economic Development Corporation
  • Jagadjyoti Mahatma Basaveshwar Economic Development Corporation
  • Saint Kashiba Gurav Youth Economic Development Corporation
    Marathwada Milk Development Corporation was not announced.

Q90. Which city hosted the ‘5th ASEAN-India Business Summit’ in 2023?
(1) New Delhi
(2) Dhaka
(3) Kuala Lumpur
(4) Singapore City

Answer: (3) Kuala Lumpur

Explanation:
The 5th ASEAN-India Business Summit was held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, in March 2023, focusing on trade and investment cooperation.

Q91. Identify the correct statements about Sammed Shikharji.
(1) Only A and C are correct
(2) Only A and B are correct
(3) Only B and C are correct
(4) Only C is correct

Answer: (2) Only A and B are correct

Explanation:
Sammed Shikharji is a sacred Jain pilgrimage site located on Parasnath Hill in Giridih district, Jharkhand. It is not associated with the Aravalli range or Hinduism.

Q92. Which Mission did India conduct to aid earthquake-affected Turkey?
(1) Operation Rahat
(2) Operation Hamdard
(3) Operation Dost
(4) Operation Sakha

Answer: (3) Operation Dost

Explanation:
India launched Operation Dost in February 2023 to provide humanitarian aid to Turkey and Syria after a devastating earthquake.

Q93. Identify the correct statement/s in relation to ‘UN COP 15’.
(1) A and B are correct
(2) B and D are correct
(3) B and C are correct
(4) A, C and D are correct

Answer: (4) A, C and D are correct

Explanation:
COP15 approved the Global Biodiversity Agreement. It was presided over by China, and the agreement emphasized climate action and species conservation. The presidency was not held by the USA.

Q94. Who inaugurated the IBA Women’s World Boxing Championship, 2023 in New Delhi?
(1) Shri Anurag Singh Thakur
(2) Shri Narendra Modi
(3) Shri Amit Shah
(4) Smt. Jayashree Banerjee

Answer: (1) Shri Anurag Singh Thakur

Explanation:
Union Sports Minister Anurag Singh Thakur inaugurated the championship held in New Delhi from March 15–26, 2023.

Q95. Match the following Arjun Award 2022 winners with their sports:
a. Bhakti Kulkarni
b. Sakshi Kumari
c. Lakshya Sen

i. Badminton
ii. Kabaddi
iii. Chess

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii

Answer: (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i

Explanation:

  • Bhakti Kulkarni → Chess
  • Sakshi Kumari → Kabaddi
  • Lakshya Sen → Badminton

Q96. Who was appointed Chairman of PFRDA in March 2023?
(1) Amitava Mukharjee
(2) Deepak Mohanty
(3) Rajesh Malhotra
(4) Supratim Bandopadhyay

Answer: (2) Deepak Mohanty

Explanation:
Deepak Mohanty was appointed as Chairman of the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), succeeding Supratim Bandopadhyay.

Q97. Where was the 25th National E-Governance Conference, 2022 held?
(1) Kollam – Kerala
(2) Mumbai – Maharashtra
(3) Ahmedabad – Gujarat
(4) Katra – Jammu & Kashmir

Answer: (4) Katra – Jammu & Kashmir

Explanation:
The conference was held in Katra, J&K, on November 26–27, 2022, focusing on digital governance and citizen-centric services.

Q98. UNESCO dedicated International Education Day 2023 to which country’s girls and women?
(1) Iran
(2) Afghanistan
(3) Israel
(4) Vietnam

Answer: (2) Afghanistan

Explanation:
UNESCO dedicated the day to Afghan girls and women, highlighting their exclusion from education under the Taliban regime.

Q99. Which country removed the mention of the British Monarchy from its currency notes in 2023?
(1) Australia
(2) New Zealand
(3) Switzerland
(4) Canada

Answer: (1) Australia

Explanation:
Australia announced that its $5 banknote would no longer feature the British monarch, replacing it with Indigenous designs.

Q100. Match the Padma Shri Award 2023 recipients with their fields:
a. Ramesh Patange
b. Dr. Mahendra Pal
c. Uma Shankar Pande
d. Parshuram Khune

i. Science and Engineering
ii. Literature and Education
iii. Art
iv. Social Work

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

Answer: (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

Explanation:

  • Ramesh Patange → Literature and Education
  • Dr. Mahendra Pal → Science and Engineering
  • Uma Shankar Pande → Social Work
  • Parshuram Khune → Art