MPSC (Maharashtra PSC) Prelims 2024 Solved Question Paper

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MPSC Prelims 2024 Paper I Solution (Set A)

1. Who among the following founded the Tilak School of Politics
1 Bipinchandra Pal
2 Shripad Amrut Dange
3 Lala Lajpat Rai
4 Arvind Ghosh

Answer: 3. Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation: Lala Lajpat Rai, also known as Punjab Kesari, founded the Tilak School of Politics in 1921 in memory of Bal Gangadhar Tilak. The school aimed to train young Indians in political science and nationalist ideology, thereby carrying forward Tilak’s legacy of political education and activism.

2. Who among the following gave a personal sum of Rs 25000 to the Elphinstone Fund
1 Balshastri Jambhekar
2 Ramkrishna Bhandarkar
3 Nana Jagannath Shankarseth
4 Waman Aabaji Modak

Answer: 3 Nana Jagannath Shankarseth

Explanation: Nana Jagannath Shankarseth, a philanthropist and social reformer, contributed Rs 25000 to the Elphinstone Fund to support education in India.

3. Who was the prominent participant in the Satyagraha at Dharasana in the Civil Disobedience Movement
1 Kamaladevi Chatopadhyaya
2 Ambika Chakrawarti
3 Kasturba Gandhi
4 Sarojini Naidu

Answer: 4 Sarojini Naidu

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu, a freedom fighter and poet, played a leading role in the Dharasana Satyagraha during the Civil Disobedience Movement.

4. Who was the leader in the uprising of 1857 in Kanpur
1 Tatya Tope
2 Azimulla
3 Nanasaheb
4 Maulavi Ahmedulla

Answer: 3 Nanasaheb

Explanation: Nanasaheb Peshwa led the uprising in Kanpur during the 1857 revolt, playing a significant role in the struggle against British rule.

5. Noted Warli painter Jivya Soma Mhase was honored with which of the following awards
1 Padma Bhushan and National Award for Tribal Arts
2 Only Padma Bhushan
3 Padma Shri, Shilpguru, and National Award for Tribal Arts
4 Only National Award for Tribal Arts

Answer: 3 Padma Shri, Shilpguru, and National Award for Tribal Arts

Explanation: Jivya Soma Mhase, a renowned Warli artist, received Padma Shri, Shilpguru, and the National Award for Tribal Arts for his contribution to tribal art.

6. Simuka was the founder of which dynasty
1 Satavahana
2 Sunga
3 Kanva
4 Saka

Answer: 1 Satavahana

Explanation: Simuka was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty, which ruled parts of India during ancient times.

7. Who was the main female collaborator with Mahatma Gandhi in the struggle of mill workers in Ahmedabad
1 Sarojini Naidu
2 Anusaya Sarabhai
3 Kasturba Gandhi
4 Aruna Asaf Ali

Answer: 2 Anusaya Sarabhai

Explanation: Anusaya Sarabhai was a key supporter of Mahatma Gandhi and played a significant role in the Ahmedabad mill workers’ strike.

8. Identify the wrong pairs
1 Abdul Samad – Famous painter
2 Takhte Taus – Peacock throne
3 Prince Azam Shah – Bahamani ruler
4 Bibi ka Makbara – Memorial of Dilras Bano

Answer: 1 Abdul Samad – Famous painter

Explanation: Abdul Samad – Famous painter: This pair is incorrect. Abdul Samad was not a famous painter but a Mughal general and governor under Emperor Akbar. He is known for his role in military campaigns and administration, not for painting.

9. What were the main principles of the National Education Policy of 1968 based on the recommendations of the Kothari Commission ?
(a) Compulsory and free education till the age of 14 years.
(b) Higher position and improved pay for teachers.
(c) At least 10% of gross national income spent on education.

(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) All of the above

Answer: (1) Only (a) and (b)

Explanation: The National Education Policy of 1968, based on the Kothari Commission (1964–66), emphasized universal free and compulsory education up to 14 years and better status and pay for teachers. However, the Commission and NEP recommended allocation of at least 6% of GDP (not 10% of Gross National Income) for education. Hence, only (a) and (b) are correct.

10. Which of the following taxes was collected from Hindu and Muslim landlords respectively during the Sultanate rule
1 Jizya and Shar
2 Jizya and Khams
3 Khiraj and Zakat
4 Khams and Zakat

Answer: 3 Khiraj and Zakat

Explanation: During the Sultanate rule, Khiraj was collected from Hindu landlords, and Zakat was collected from Muslim landlords.

11. After the split in the Indian National Congress in 1907, who made the statement ‘National Congress Collapsed at Surat, this is our victory’
1 Lord Curzon
2 Lokmanya Tilak
3 Lord Morley
4 Lord Minto

Answer: 4 Lord Minto

Explanation: Lord Minto made this statement after the Surat split in 1907, which weakened the Indian National Congress and was seen as a victory for the British.

12. Abdul Razzaq, a Persian traveller, visited Vijayanagar during the period of which of the following rulers
1 Harihar
2 Krishnadevaraya
3 Devaraya I
4 Devaraya II

Answer: 4 Devaraya II

Explanation: Abdul Razzaq visited Vijayanagar during the reign of Devaraya II and documented the grandeur of the empire.

Q13. Which of the following literature was written by King Harshavardhana?
(a) Priyadarshika
(b) Harshacharita
(c) Ratnawali
(d) Naganand

1. Only (a), (c) and (d)
2. Only (a), (b) and (c)
3. Only (a), (b) and (d)
4. All of the above

Answer: 1. Only (a), (c) and (d)

Explanation: King Harshavardhana (606–647 CE) was a scholar-king and authored three Sanskrit plays – Priyadarshika, Ratnavali, and Nagananda. The Harshacharita, however, was written by Banabhatta, the court poet of Harsha, and it describes Harsha’s life and reign. Therefore, the correct answer excludes Harshacharita.

14. Which of the following objectives was outlined in the Nehru Report
1 Achieving Dominion Status
2 Creation of Two Nations
3 Achieving Home Rule
4 To gain complete Independence

Answer: 1 Achieving Dominion Status

Explanation: The Nehru Report proposed Dominion Status for India within the British Commonwealth as its primary objective.

15. Match the correct pairs of extension centers of Swadeshi Movement and their concerned persons

Answer options:

Answer: 2 (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Explanation:
Mumbai – Lokmanya Tilak
Delhi – Syed Raza Haider
Punjab – Lala Lajpat Rai
Madras – Chidambaram Pillai
These leaders were key figures in the Swadeshi Movement, promoting indigenous industries and resisting colonial economic policies in their respective regions.

16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of intensive subsistence agriculture
1 Intensive cultivation
2 Animal husbandry is a complementary business to agriculture
3 The vast size of the farm
4 Maximum yield production per hectare

Answer: 3 The vast size of the farm

Explanation: Intensive subsistence agriculture is characterized by small landholdings, high labor input, and maximum yield per hectare. Large-sized farms are not a feature of this practice.

17. Which of the following is not the pattern of Urban settlement
1 Checker-board
2 Circular
3 Dispersed
4 Linear

Answer: 3 Dispersed

Explanation: Urban settlements usually follow checker-board, circular, or linear patterns. Dispersed patterns are typical of rural areas with scattered houses.

18. Match the correct pairs :

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Answer: (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

Explanation:

• Jim Corbett National Park is located in India, known for its tiger conservation efforts.
• The Galapagos Islands, famous for their unique biodiversity, are part of Ecuador.
• The Grand Canyon, a vast geological wonder, is situated in the United States of America.
• The Great Barrier Reef, the world’s largest coral reef system, lies off the coast of Australia.
  Each pair correctly matches the country with its iconic national park, making option (3) the accurate answer.

19. In which district is the Hetwane major irrigation scheme located
1 Sindhudurg
2 Satara
3 Beed
4 Raigad

Answer: 4 Raigad

Explanation: The Hetwane irrigation scheme in Raigad district, Maharashtra, provides water for agriculture and other purposes in the region.

20. Which of the following is not a characteristic of sedimentary rock
1 Particles of many sizes are organized in a single rock layer
2 The rocks are huge and hard
3 Fossils are mainly found in rocks
4 Rocks are soft, so they wear out quickly

Answer: 2 The rocks are huge and hard

Explanation: Sedimentary rocks are formed in layers, often contain fossils, and are relatively soft. Large and hard rocks are generally characteristic of igneous types.

21. Match the correct pairs of census year and death rate in India

Options:

Answer: (1)

22. Dispersed settlement have the following characteristics :
(a) Dispersed settlement is found in hilly areas, grasslands, dense forests due to physical and environmental unfavourable conditions.
(b) The structure of the houses in this settlement is isolated.
(c) Due to rivers, mountain ranges, roads, railway lines etc. the clusters of houses are far away from each other.
(d) These settlements are found in plains and fertile soil areas in India.

(1) Only (a)
(2) Only (a) and (b)
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(4) All of the above

Answer: (2) Only (a) and (b)

Explanation: Dispersed settlements are correctly described by (a) occurring in challenging environments like hilly areas and forests, and (b) having isolated houses

23. Which of the following is not a tributary of river Sindhu
1 Chinab
2 Biyas
3 Son
4 Ravi

Answer: 3 Son

Explanation: The Son River is a tributary of the Ganga, not the Sindhu (Indus). Chinab, Biyas, and Ravi are all part of the Indus river system.

24. Which type of drainage pattern is found in Maharashtra
1 Dendritic
2 Parallel
3 Indefinite
4 Trellis

Answer: 4 All of the above

Explanation: Maharashtra’s diverse topography supports multiple drainage patterns. Dendritic is common in uniform rock structures, trellis in folded terrains, parallel in steep slopes, and indefinite in irregular landscapes.

1. Dendritic
This is the most common drainage pattern where tributaries join the main river at various angles, resembling the branches of a tree. It usually develops in regions of uniform rock structure.

2. Parallel
In this pattern, rivers flow almost parallel to each other. It generally develops in areas of steep slopes or elongated landforms, such as along folded mountains or faulted regions.

3. Indefinite
This pattern does not show any definite arrangement of streams. It occurs in desert regions or areas with unconsolidated sediments, where water channels shift frequently due to lack of a fixed slope or structure.

4. Trellis
In this pattern, tributaries join the main river at right angles (90°), resembling the framework of a garden trellis. It develops in areas of alternating hard and soft rock strata (differential erosion).

25. Consider the following statements
Statement (A): According to the final census of 2011, Mumbai Suburban district had the highest population density in Maharashtra.
Statement (B): According to the final census of 2011, Kolhapur district is the fifth most densely populated district in Maharashtra.
Options:
1 Statement (A) is correct and Statement (B) is false
2 Statement (B) is correct and Statement (A) is false
3 Both Statements are wrong
4 Both Statements are correct

Answer: 4 Both Statements are correct

26. Which of the following statements is incorrect
1 The Lakshadweep island group is in the Arabian Sea
2 India’s maritime boundary is 12 nautical miles from the coast
3 Andaman and Nicobar Islands are located in the Bay of Bengal
4 India has a natural land border with Pakistan and Bangladesh

Answer: 4 India has a natural land border with Pakistan and Bangladesh

Explanation: While India shares land borders with Pakistan and Bangladesh, these are political boundaries, not natural geographical features.

27. Through which of the following factors is the fisheries development program implemented effectively?

(a) The Fishery Survey of India
(b) National Fisheries Development Board
(c) Development of fishing harbours
(d) Meat Marketing

Answer options:
(1) (a), (b)
(2) (a), (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c)
(4) (c), (d)

Answer: 3 (1), (2), (3)

Explanation: Fisheries development programs focus on research, infrastructure, and resource management. Meat marketing is unrelated to fisheries.

28. Which is the longest river in the United States from the options below
1 The Mississippi
2 The Columbia
3 The Snake
4 The Hudson

Answer: 1 The Mississippi

Explanation: The Mississippi River is the longest river in the United States, stretching approximately 3,766 kilometers.

29. Which of the following statements in relation to Maharashtra are true as per the 2011 census?
(a) Population Maharashtra ranks 2nd in Country.
(b) Density is 365 per sq. km.
(c) Literacy is 82.91%.
(d) Sex ratio is 925.
Answer options:
(1) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Only (b), (c) and (d)
(3) Only (a), (c) and (d)
(4) All the above

Answer: (4) All the above

Explanation: As per the 2011 Census, Maharashtra ranked 2nd in population after Uttar Pradesh. Its population density was 365 persons per sq. km, literacy rate was 82.91%, and the sex ratio stood at 925 females per 1000 males. Therefore, all four statements are correct.

30. Coal is found at which of the following place in Chandrapur district?
(1) Bandar
(2) Ghoggus
(3) Telwasa
(4) Wani

Answer options:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Only (a)
(3) Only (b)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (1)

31. Which geological evidence supports the notion that climate change is a natural and continuous process
1 Tree rings in high altitudes
2 Glacial advances and retreats
3 Sediment deposits in glacial lakes
4 All of the above

Answer: 4 All of the above

Explanation: Climate change is evidenced by tree rings, glacial movements, and sediment deposits, which record historical environmental shifts.

32. Consider the following statements
(a) High latitudes generally have greater biodiversity than low latitudes
(b) Biodiversity is generally greater at lower altitude than at higher altitude on mountain slopes
Options:
1 Only (a)
2 Only (b)
3 Both (a) and (b)
4 Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: 2 Only (b)

Explanation: Biodiversity decreases with altitude due to harsher conditions. Low latitudes near the equator have higher biodiversity than high latitudes.

33. Government of India has established System of Air Quality, Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) in which of the following four cities
1 Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, Mumbai
2 Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata
3 Delhi, Mumbai, Hyderabad, Chennai
4 Delhi, Mumbai, Bangalore, Chennai

Answer: 1 Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, Mumbai

Explanation: SAFAR was launched in Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, and Mumbai to monitor air quality and provide weather forecasts.

34. Consider the following statements regarding global warming
(a) Anaerobic methane is emitted with rice cultivation
(b) When nitrogen-based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is released into the soil
Options:
1 Only (a)
2 Only (b)
3 Both (a) and (b)
4 Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: 1 Only (a)

35. PAN (Peroxyacetyl nitrate) is formed as a result of the following interaction
1 Nitrogen oxide and sulfur dioxide
2 Carbon monoxide and volatile organic compounds
3 Nitrogen oxide and hydrocarbons
4 Ozone and particulate matter

Answer: 3 Nitrogen oxide and hydrocarbons

Explanation: PAN is a secondary pollutant formed when nitrogen oxides react with hydrocarbons in the presence of sunlight, causing photochemical smog.

36. Development is prioritized over environmental degradation in energy generation. What type of development does this refer to
1 Human
2 Cultural
3 Political
4 Social

Answer: 1 Human

Explanation: Human development aims to improve living standards and energy access, sometimes placing these goals above environmental concerns.

37. What percentage of the rate of price increase was required to be kept as per the objectives of the 12th Five Year Plan
1 4.5 to 5.0%
2 3.5 to 5.0%
3 4.0 to 5.0%
4 4.5 to 5.5%

Answer: 1 4.5 to 5.0%

38. To study the problems of India in the year 1995, a committee was formed under the chairmanship of Dr. Abid Hussain. What was the focus of this committee
1 Education
2 Agriculture
3 Large Industry
4 Small Industry

Answer: 4 Small Industry

Explanation: The Abid Hussain Committee (1995) examined challenges and opportunities in India’s small-scale industries.

39. The Employees Provident Fund Act was made in which year
1 1950
2 1952
3 1960
4 1981

Answer: 2 1952

Explanation: The Employees’ Provident Fund Act (1952) provides social security by ensuring savings for retirement and emergencies for employees.

40. Perspective Planning refers to
(a) Long run planning for 20 to 25 years.
(b) Long range targets are set in-advance for a period of 15, 20 or 25 years.
(c) One plan for entire period of 15 to 20 years.
(d) Broader Objectives and targets are achieved within one or two years.
Answer options:
(1) Only (b)
(2) Only (a)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: (1) Only (b)

41. Education for women reduces fertility due to ____
(a) Education improves work opportunity for women.
(b) Educated women want their own children to be educated.
(c) Education and literacy make women more receptive to information about contraception.
(d) Improving economic condition of women.
Answer options:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) Only (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: (4) (c) and (d)

Explanation: (2) Only (c)

41. Education for women reduces fertility due to
1 Education improves work opportunity for women
2 Educated women want their own children to be educated
3 Education and literacy make women more receptive to information about contraception
4 Improving economic condition of women

Answer: 3 Education and literacy make women more receptive to information about contraception

Explanation: Education empowers women with knowledge about family planning and contraception, which leads to lower fertility rates.

42. Food security includes following stages :
(a) Adequate availability of food grains to all.
(b) Adequate availability of food grains and pulses to all.
(c) Adequate availability of food grains, pulses, milk and vegetables to all.
(d) Adequate availability of food grains, pulses, milk products, vegetables, fruits, meat and fish etc.
Answer options:
(1) Only (d)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Explanation: Food security is a multi-stage concept that begins with the basic availability of food grains and expands to include nutritional diversity. It progresses from grains and pulses to milk, vegetables, and finally to a comprehensive diet including fruits, meat, fish, and dairy products. Hence, all four stages are valid components of food security.

43. According to Gunnar Mirdal the role of Govt. in economic development should be as follows :
(a) Effecting the spread effect by neutralizing backward effect.
(b) Neutralizing spread effect by effecting the backward effect.
(c) Effecting spread effect and backward effect.
(d) Neutralizing spread effect and backward effect.
Answer options:
(1) Only (a)
(2) Only (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: (1) Only (a)

44. Gaurav Dutt and Martin Ravallion said that Poverty Gap Index is calculated for which of the following reasons
1 How much calorie deficit needs to be made up to eliminate poverty
2 How much income would be needed to cover the deficit to eliminate poverty
3 How much increase in per capita income will be required to eliminate poverty
4 None of these

Answer: 2 How much income would be needed to cover the deficit to eliminate poverty

Explanation: The Poverty Gap Index measures poverty intensity by calculating the income shortfall needed to bring all individuals above the poverty line.

45. When was the ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ campaign launched for the protection and empowerment of the girl child as per the last revised statistics of child sex ratio in India
1 22 January 2016
2 22 January 2018
3 22 January 2015
4 25 January 2015

Answer: 3 22 January 2015

Explanation: The ‘Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ campaign was launched on 22 January 2015 to address the declining child sex ratio and promote welfare of girls.

46. Relative poverty depends on following factors :
(a) The human body needs calories every day.
(b) Income is necessary to meet basic needs.
(c) Comparing two income groups, the lower income group comes in poverty.
(d) Poverty is the condition of not being able to meet the basic needs.
Answer options:
(1) Only (c)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) Only (d)
(4) (a) and (d)

Answer: (1) Only (c)

Explanation: Relative poverty is defined by comparing income levels within a society. It identifies those who are economically disadvantaged compared to others, even if their basic needs are met. Hence, statement (c) correctly reflects the concept of relative poverty, while the others relate more to absolute poverty.

47. According to Higgins population growth can be _________ .
(a) A motivator for autonomous investment in developed countries.
(b) A motivator for induced investment in under-developed countries.
(c) A motivator for only induced investment in developed countries.
(d) Demotivate for autonomous investment in a developed countries.
Answer options:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) Only (d)
(3) Only (a)
(4) (b) and (c)

Answer: (3) Only (a)

48. The largest share of allocation in the Seventh Five Year Plan went to the
1 Agriculture and Communication Sector
2 Industrial and Communication Sector
3 Energy Sector
4 Transport and Communication Sector

Answer: 3 Energy Sector

Explanation: The Seventh Five Year Plan (1985–1990) prioritized energy development to address power shortages and support industrial and agricultural growth.

49. Who has criticized that economics is a Kuber-worshiping science
1 Ricardo and Malthus
2 Keynes and Karl Marx
3 Carlyle and Ruskin
4 Chamberlain and Robinson

Answer: 3 Carlyle and Ruskin

Explanation: Carlyle and Ruskin criticized economics for being overly focused on wealth accumulation, calling it “Kuber-worship” and urging a moral, human-centered approach.

50. In a society where the income distribution is excessive, the handful of individuals there have unlimited money
1 Equality
2 Asymmetry
3 Deficiency
4 Abundance

Answer: 2 Asymmetry

Explanation: Asymmetry in income distribution means wealth concentration in the hands of a few, leading to economic inequality and social imbalance.

51. A particle thrown up has zero velocity but how much will be the acceleration
1 Zero
2 Infinity
3 Equal to acceleration due to gravity
4 One

Answer: 3 Equal to acceleration due to gravity

Explanation: When a particle is thrown upward, its velocity becomes zero at the highest point, but acceleration remains equal to g (9.8 m/s²) downward, due to gravity.

52. Which one of the following is not an application of Bernoulli equation
1 Aspirator pump
2 Venturi pump
3 Speed of Efflux
4 None of the above

Answer: 4 None of the above

Explanation: Bernoulli’s equation applies to all the listed cases—aspirator pumps, venturi pumps, and speed of efflux—because it relates pressure, velocity, and height in a fluid flow.

53. At room temperature (300 K), what is the significant contribution wavelength for the thermal radiation emitted by a body
1 500 nm
2 9550 nm
3 1500 nm
4 3000 nm

Answer: 2 9550 nm

Explanation: Using Wien’s displacement law, the wavelength of maximum emission at 300 K is approximately 9657 nm, and the closest option is 9550 nm.

54. Which of the following sentence is wrong
1 Atomic nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons
2 Proton has a positive charge
3 Electron has a negative charge
4 Neutron has a positive charge

Answer: 4 Neutron has a positive charge

Explanation: Neutrons are electrically neutral. Protons carry a positive charge, electrons have a negative charge, and the nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons.

55. Say whether following sentences are true or false
1 For propagation of sound medium is necessary
2 Unit of frequency of sound is Hertz
3 Loudness of sound is expressed in decibel unit

Answer: 1 (I), (II), (III) are true

Explanation:
Sound is a mechanical wave and requires a medium to propagate.
Frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz).
Loudness is measured in decibels (dB).

56. Which of the following wavelengths are used to study the crystal structure of material
1 Ultraviolet wavelength
2 Gamma Rays wavelength
3 X-Rays wavelength
4 Infrared wavelength

Answer: 3 X-Rays wavelength

Explanation: X-rays have the appropriate wavelength range to interact with atomic planes in a crystal, making them ideal for X-ray diffraction (XRD).

57. Leaf Blight of wheat is caused by infection of which of the following fungus
1 Uromyces tritici
2 Alternaria triticina
3 Ustilago nuda
4 Helminthosporium sativum

Answer: 2 Alternaria triticina

Explanation: Alternaria triticina causes leaf blight in wheat, leading to leaf spotting, premature drying, and yield loss.

58. Which division of Plantae is called amphibians of the plant kingdom
1 Bryophyta
2 Pteridophyta
3 Gymnosperm
4 Angiosperm

Answer: 1 Bryophyta

Explanation: Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom because they live on land but require water for reproduction.

59. With respect to structure of DNA, following four statements are made. Choose the two relevant statements.
(a) DNA is made of two long chains of nucleotides coiled in a helix around a central axis.
(b) DNA is made of two long chains of nucleoside coiled around a central axis.
(c) The two chains are complimentary to each other so that Adenine is always paired with Thymine and cytosine with Guanine.
(d) The two chains are not complimentary to each other where Adenine is paired with uracil and cytosine with Guanine.
Answer options:
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (d)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) Only (c) and (d)

Answer: (3) Only (a) and (c)

Explanation: DNA consists of two long chains of nucleotides twisted into a double helix around a central axis. These chains are complementary, with Adenine pairing with Thymine and Cytosine pairing with Guanine. Nucleosides lack phosphate groups and are not the structural units of DNA chains. Uracil is found in RNA, not DNA. Hence, statements (a) and (c) are correct.

60. Which of the following statements are correct about the cell theory of Schleiden and Schwann?
(a) All living things are composed of one or more cells.
(b) New cells form from the pre-existing cells.
(c) There are basic similarities in chemical composition and metabolic functions of cells.
(d) The activity of an organism is collective activities and interactions of its cellular structures.
Answer options:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) All of the above

Answer: (4) All of the above

Explanation: The cell theory, developed by Schleiden and Schwann, states that all living organisms are made up of cells, and that cells are the basic unit of life. Later additions to the theory confirmed that new cells arise from pre-existing cells, and that cells share common chemical and metabolic characteristics. Furthermore, an organism’s functions result from the coordinated activity of its cells, making all four statements correct.

61. Which of the following animals belong to the same class
1 Torpedo, Pristis, Hippocampus, Ichthyophis
2 Ichthyophis, Hippocampus, Calotes, Anabas
3 Calotes, Pristis, Ichthyophis, Hippocampus
4 Torpedo, Pristis, Hippocampus, Anabas

Answer: 4 Torpedo, Pristis, Hippocampus, Anabas

Explanation: All listed animals belong to the class Pisces (fishes). They are aquatic vertebrates with gills and fins.

62. Which plant’s extract/latex is used to prepare a narcotic called Heroin
1 Poppy plant
2 Coca plant
3 Hemp plant
4 Bajra

Answer: 1 Poppy plant

Explanation: Heroin is derived from morphine, which is obtained from the latex of the opium poppy plant (Papaver somniferum).

63. Match the following to express general resemblance between bones and girdle forelimbs and hind limbs
(a) Shoulder joint
(b) Humerus
(c) Elbow
(d) Radio-ulna
(i) Tibio-fibula
(ii) Knee
(iii) Femur
(iv) Hip joint
Options:
1 (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
2 (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
3 (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
4 (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

Answer: 1 (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

Explanation:
Shoulder joint – Hip joint
Humerus – Femur
Elbow – Knee
Radio-ulna – Tibio-fibula
These show structural homology between forelimbs and hind limbs.

64. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) The adult human skeleton consists of 208 bones.
(b) Vertebrae and facial bones are irregular type of bones.
Answer options:
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b)
(3) (a) only
(4) Neither of the two

Answer: (2) Only (b)

Explanation: The adult human skeleton typically consists of 206 bones, not 208. However, vertebrae and facial bones are classified as irregular bones due to their complex shapes. Hence, only statement (b) is correct.

65. Consider the following statements: Rate of a chemical reaction is _______.
(a) proportional to the concentration of reactants.
(b) decreases on increasing the concentration of reactants.
(c) increases on increasing the temperature.
(d) decreases on increasing the temperature.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Answer options:
(1) Only (b)
(2) Only (d)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) Only (b) and (d)

Answer: (3) Only (a) and (c)

Explanation: The rate of a chemical reaction generally increases with higher concentration of reactants and rises with temperature due to increased molecular collisions. Statements (b) and (d) are incorrect, making (a) and (c) correct.

66. Which chemical compound is used to neutralize the acidity of soil increased due to excessive use of Chemical Fertilizers?
(a) Potash
(b) Lime water
(c) Milk of magnesia
(d) Ammonium hydroxide
Answer options:
(1) Only (c)
(2) Only (a) and (d)
(3) Only (b)
(4) All the above

Answer: (3) Only (b)

Explanation: Lime water (calcium hydroxide) is commonly used to neutralize acidic soils caused by excessive fertilizer use. It helps restore pH balance. Other options are not suitable for agricultural soil treatment, so only (b) is correct.

67. Which of the following pair/pairs of metal/metals can be extracted from their ores by using cyanide complex solutions?
(A) Cu and Au
(B) Co and Ag
(C) Au and Ag
(D) Na and Hg
Answer options:
(1) Both (A) and (B)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (D)
(4) Both (C) and (D)

Answer: (2) Only (C)

Explanation: Gold (Au) and Silver (Ag) are extracted using cyanide complex solutions through the cyanidation process. Copper, cobalt, sodium, and mercury are not extracted using this method. Hence, only pair (C) is correct.

68. Identify the type of following chemical reaction: 2KClO₃(s) —Δ—> 2KCl(s) + 3O₂↑
(a) Exothermic reaction
(b) Displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction
(d) Photochemical reaction
Answer options:
(1) Only (c)
(2) Only (b)
(3) Only (a) and (d)
(4) Only (a)

Answer: (1) Only (c)

Explanation: The reaction involves thermal decomposition of potassium chlorate (KClO₃) into potassium chloride (KCl) and oxygen gas (O₂). This is a classic decomposition reaction, making only (c) correct.

69. From the following which isotope is called as heavy hydrogen?
(a) Protium
(b) Deuterium
(c) Tritium
(d) None of the above
Answer options:
(1) Only (c)
(2) Only (b)
(3) Only (d)
(4) Only (a) and (c)

Answer: (2) Only (b)

Explanation: Deuterium is the isotope of hydrogen with one proton and one neutron, making it heavier than protium (which has no neutron). It is commonly referred to as heavy hydrogen. Hence, only (b) is correct.

70. _______ is used to estimate the presence of unsaturation in oils and fats.
(1) Saponification value
(2) Iodine value
(3) Acid value
(4) Viscosity value

Answer: (2) Iodine value

Explanation: The iodine value measures the degree of unsaturation in oils and fats by quantifying how much iodine is absorbed by the double bonds. A higher iodine value indicates more unsaturation.

Here are MCQs 71 to 80 formatted as per your instructions:

71. Who among the following are members of a Committee that recommends the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
(C) Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
(D) Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
(E) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer options:
(1) (A), (B) and (D)
(2) (A), (B), (C) and (E)
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (B) and (E)

Answer: (1) (A), (B) and (D)

Explanation: The committee for recommending the Chief Information Commissioner includes the Prime Minister, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. Other members listed are not part of this statutory committee.

72. Which Article in the Constitution of India provides for the Post of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
(1) Article 148
(2) Article 343
(3) Article 266
(4) Article 248

Answer: (1) Article 148

Explanation: Article 148 of the Indian Constitution establishes the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, who audits government accounts and ensures financial transparency.

73. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Kesavanand Bharati’ Case:
(A) This case was heard by the Constitution Bench of 13 judges headed by Chief justice of India A.N. Ray.
(B) In Seven – Six majority, the bench outlined the basic structure doctrine.
(C) This case changed the decision of Golaknath case.
(D) This case seems to be the instance of judicial activism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer options:
(1) (A), (B) and (C)
(2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (B) Only
(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Answer: (2) (B), (C) and (D)

Explanation: The Kesavananda Bharati case introduced the basic structure doctrine with a 7:6 majority. It overturned the Golaknath ruling and is widely seen as a landmark in judicial activism. However, the bench was headed by Chief Justice S.M. Sikri, not A.N. Ray.

74. The Contingency Fund of India has been placed at the disposal of which authority among the following?
(1) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(2) President of India
(3) Parliament of India
(4) Prime Minister of India

Answer: (2) President of India

Explanation: The Contingency Fund of India is placed at the disposal of the President, who can authorize withdrawals to meet unforeseen expenditures, pending parliamentary approval.

75. Which of the following statements are correct in reference to the ‘Bommai Case’ in reference to the Emergency in the State?
(A) The ‘Bommai Case’ Judgement was delivered by the Supreme Court in 1994.
(B) States can appeal to the Supreme Court when President’s rule is introduced in the States.
(C) If President’s Rule is imposed without valid reason/s the Supreme Court can quash the decision of the Central Government.
(D) An order to dissolve a State Assembly requires the approval of the Parliament.
Answer options:
(1) Only (C) and (D)
(2) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D)
(4) Only (A), (B) and (C)

Answer: (2) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Explanation: The S.R. Bommai case (1994) strengthened federalism by allowing judicial review of President’s Rule. It affirmed that States can appeal, and invalid imposition can be quashed. Also, dissolution of State Assemblies requires Parliamentary approval.

76. Identify the incorrect pair:
(1) July 22, 1947 – Adoption of National Flag by the Constituent Assembly.
(2) January 24, 1950 – Adoption of National Anthem by the Constituent Assembly.
(3) January 25, 1950 – Adoption of National Calendar by the Government.
(4) January 26, 1950 – Adoption of National Emblem by the Government.

Answer: (3) January 25, 1950 – Adoption of National Calendar by the Government

Explanation: The National Calendar was adopted in 1957, not in 1950. All other pairs are historically accurate, making option (3) incorrect.

77. Consider the following statement/s regarding constitutional amendment/s in India and Choose the correct option/s.
(A) Dadra and Nagar Haveli territories were included in India as per the 10ᵗʰ Amendment.
(B) The territories of Diu, Daman and Goa were included in India as per the 11ᵗʰ Amendment.
(C) Legislature was established in Union Territories as per the 15ᵗʰ Amendment.
(D) The state of Meghalaya was created as per the 22ⁿᵈ Amendment.
Answer options:
(1) (A) and (C) correct
(2) (B) and (D) correct
(3) (B) and (C) correct
(4) (A) and (D) correct

Answer: (4) (A) and (D) correct

Explanation: The 10ᵗʰ Amendment (1961) added Dadra and Nagar Haveli to India. The 22ⁿᵈ Amendment (1969) facilitated the creation of Meghalaya. The 11ᵗʰ Amendment relates to Vice-President’s election, and the 15ᵗʰ Amendment concerns High Court judges, not Union Territories.

78. The Central Information Commission includes one Chief Information Commissioner and Maximum how many Information Commissioners?
(1) Five Information Commissioners
(2) Ten Information Commissioners
(3) Six Information Commissioners
(4) Eight Information Commissioners

Answer: (2) Ten Information Commissioners

Explanation: The Right to Information Act, 2005 provides for one Chief Information Commissioner and up to ten Information Commissioners in the Central Information Commission.

79. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the citizenship of India?
(A) India has single citizenship system.
(B) Citizenship Act was passed in 1955.
(C) Part 4 of the Indian Constitution provides citizenship.
Answer options:
(1) Only (A) & (C) Correct
(2) Only (A) Correct
(3) Only (A) & (B) Correct
(4) All of the above are correct

Answer: (3) Only (A) & (B) Correct

Explanation: India follows a single citizenship system, and the Citizenship Act was enacted in 1955. However, citizenship provisions are found in Part II (Articles 5 to 11), not Part IV. Hence, (A) and (B) are correct.

80. Which Articles in the Constitution provide for the electoral system in our country?
(1) Articles 124 to 128
(2) Articles 324 to 329
(3) Articles 256 to 259
(4) Articles 274 to 279

Answer: (2) Articles 324 to 329

Explanation: Articles 324 to 329 of the Indian Constitution deal with the electoral system, covering the Election Commission, conduct of elections, and legislation related to elections.

81. The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning:
(A) The state makes discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment.
(B) The state avoids preferential treatment for any particular religion.
(C) The state treats all religions equally.
(D) Freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people.
(E) Educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instructions.
Answer options:
(1) (A), (B) and (C)
(2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (A), (C), (D) and (E)
(4) (B) and (D)

Answer: (2) (B), (C) and (D)

Explanation: A secular state in India means the government does not favor any religion, treats all religions equally, and guarantees freedom of faith and worship. Discrimination or religious instruction in state-run institutions is not permitted, making statements (B), (C), and (D) correct.

82. Delhi was called National Capital Territory by which Constitution Amendment Act?
(1) 63ʳᵈ Constitutional Amendment Act
(2) 69ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act
(3) 91ˢᵗ Constitutional Amendment Act
(4) 93ʳᵈ Constitutional Amendment Act

Answer: (2) 69ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act

Explanation: The 69ᵗʰ Amendment Act, 1991 granted Delhi the status of National Capital Territory and provided for a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers, enhancing its administrative structure.

83. Consider the following statements given above is/are correct?
(A) The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952 after India’s First General Elections were held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952.
(B) The first session of first Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May 1952.
(C) The first Lok Sabha lasted its full tenure and dissolved on 1 April 1957.
(D) Shri. G.V. Mavalankar was the first Deputy Speaker of First Lok Sabha.
Answer options:
(1) (A) Only
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) (D) Only

Answer: (2) (A) and (B)

Explanation: The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952 after the first general elections, and its first session began on 13 May 1952. G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker, not Deputy Speaker, making statements (A) and (B) correct.

84. Consider the following provision/s with respect to ‘National Commissions’ in India.
(A) ‘National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes’ was established under Article 339 of the Constitution of India.
(B) The ‘National Commission for Women’ was established under the ‘National Commission for Women Act 1990.
(C) The ‘National Commission for Minorities’ was established under the ‘National Commission for Minorities Act’ 1992.
(D) On 27ᵗʰ December 1993 an ordinance was passed to establish the ‘National Human Rights Commission’.
Answer options:
(1) (A) and (C)
(2) (B) and (D)
(3) (A) and (D)
(4) (B) and (C)

Answer: (4) (B) and (C)

85. Which article empowers the High Courts to issue directions for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
(1) Article 226
(2) Article 135
(3) Article 143
(4) Article 133

Answer: (1) Article 226

Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for other legal purposes, making it a key provision for judicial remedies.

86. Karpoori Thakur was recently in news. Which of the following is not true about him?
(1) He is also known as ‘Jan Nayak’.
(2) He was First non-congress Chief Minister of Bihar.
(3) He was born in 1924, in a village in Samastipur District.
(4) He won State Assembly election in 1952 from Samastipur Constituency.

Answer: (4) He won State Assembly election in 1952 from Samastipur Constituency

Explanation: Karpoori Thakur was indeed known as ‘Jan Nayak’, born in 1924 in Samastipur, and became the first non-Congress CM of Bihar. However, he won his first election from Tajpur, not Samastipur Constituency, making statement (4) incorrect.

87. Which is the India’s rank in global hunger Index 2023?
(1) 100
(2) 111
(3) 101
(4) 123

Answer: (2) 111

88. Consider the correct statements given below:
(A) The interior design of Lok Sabha in the new Parliament is based on the theme of National Animal Lion.
(B) The design of Rajya Sabha is based on the theme of India’s National Flower Lotus.
(C) The new Parliament building was inaugurated on 28ᵗʰ May, 2023.
(D) The historic Ashok Chakra has been installed beside the speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer options:
(1) Statements (b), (c) are correct.
(2) Statements (a), (b), (c) are correct.
(3) Statements (b), (c), (d) are correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) are correct.

Answer: (1) Statements (b), (c) are correct.

89. Identify the correct statements regarding Asian Games – 2023.
(a) This competition was held in Hangzhou, China.
(b) Shooter Lovelina Borgohain played a role of flag bearer for India at the time of inauguration.
(c) India got 4ᵗʰ position with 28 gold medals.
(d) India got total 107 medals in this competition.
Answer options:
(1) (a), (b), (c)
(2) (a), (b), (d)
(3) (b), (c), (d)
(4) (a), (c), (d)

Answer: (4) (a), (c), (d)

Explanation: The Asian Games 2023 were held in Hangzhou, China. India ranked 4ᵗʰ, winning 28 gold medals and a total of 107 medals. The flag bearer was Harmanpreet Kaur, not Lovlina Borgohain, making (b) incorrect.

90. Select the correct statements:
(a) The Nobel Peace Prize, 2023 was awarded to Narges Mohammadi.
(b) Narges Mohammadi is a champion of equality and women’s rights.
(c) In 2004, Narges Mohammadi joined the Defenders of Human Right Center founded by Shirin Ebadi.
Answer options:
(1) Only (a), (b)
(2) Only (b), (c)
(3) Only (a), (c)
(4) All of the above

Answer: (1) Only (a), (b)

Explanation: Narges Mohammadi received the 2023 Nobel Peace Prize for her advocacy of women’s rights and equality. She joined the Defenders of Human Rights Center in 2004, founded by Shirin Ebadi, confirming all three statements as correct.

81. The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning
1 The state makes discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment
2 The state avoids preferential treatment for any particular religion
3 The state treats all religions equally
4 Freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people
5 Educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instructions

Answer: 2, 3, and 4

Explanation: A secular state ensures equal treatment of all religions, avoids preferential treatment, and guarantees freedom of worship. Religious instruction is not universally permitted in all institutions.

82. Delhi was called National Capital Territory by which Constitution Amendment Act
1 63rd Constitutional Amendment Act
2 69th Constitutional Amendment Act
3 91st Constitutional Amendment Act
4 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act

Answer: 2 69th Constitutional Amendment Act

Explanation: The 69th Amendment Act (1991) granted Delhi the status of National Capital Territory, with a legislative assembly and council of ministers.

83. Consider the following statements about First Lok Sabha
1 The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952 after India’s First General Elections were held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952
2 The first session of the first Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May 1952
3 The first Lok Sabha lasted its full tenure and dissolved on 1 April 1957
4 Shri G.V. Mavalankar was the First Deputy Speaker of the First Lok Sabha

Answer: 1 and 2

Explanation: The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952, and its first session began on 13 May 1952. G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker, not the Deputy Speaker, and the Lok Sabha dissolved on 4 April 1957.

84. Consider the following provision/s with respect to various ‘National Commissions’ in India
1 National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was established under Article 339 of the Constitution of India
2 The National Commission for Women was established under the National Commission for Women Act 1990
3 The National Commission for Minorities was established under the National Commission for Minorities Act 1992
4 On 27th December 1993, an ordinance was passed to establish the National Human Rights Commission

Answer: 2 and 3

Explanation: The National Commission for Women and the National Commission for Minorities were established under their respective acts in 1990 and 1992. Article 338, not 339, provides for the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

85. Which article empowers the High Courts to issue directions for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
1 Article 226
2 Article 135
3 Article 143
4 Article 133

Answer: 1 Article 226

Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue directions, orders, or writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for any other purpose.

86. Karpoori Thakur was recently in news. Which of the following is not true about him
1 He is also known as ‘Jan Nayak’
2 He was the first non-Congress Chief Minister of Bihar
3 He was born in 1924, in a village in Samastipur District
4 He won the State Assembly election in 1952 from Samastipur Constituency

Answer: 4 He won the State Assembly election in 1952 from Samastipur Constituency

Explanation: Karpoori Thakur did not win the 1952 State Assembly election from Samastipur Constituency. He is known as ‘Jan Nayak’, was the first non-Congress Chief Minister of Bihar, and was born in 1924 in Samastipur District.

87. Which is India’s rank in the Global Hunger Index 2023
1 100
2 111
3 101
4 123

Answer: 3 101

Explanation: India ranked 101 in the Global Hunger Index 2023, which measures and tracks hunger at global, regional, and national levels.

88. Consider the correct statements given below
1 The interior design of Lok Sabha in the new Parliament is based on the theme of National Animal Lion
2 The design of Rajya Sabha is based on the theme of India’s National Flower Lotus
3 The new Parliament building was inaugurated on 28th May 2023
4 The historic Ashok Chakra has been installed beside the speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation: All statements are correct. The new Parliament building reflects India’s cultural heritage, with Lok Sabha themed on the Lion, Rajya Sabha on the Lotus, and the Ashok Chakra installed beside the Speaker’s seat. It was inaugurated on 28th May 2023.

89. Identify the correct statements regarding Asian Games – 2023
1 This competition was held in Hangzhou, China
2 Shooter Lovlina Borgohain played the role of flag bearer for India at the time of inauguration
3 India got 4th position with 28 gold medals
4 India got a total of 107 medals in this competition

Answer: 1, 3, 4

Explanation: The Asian Games 2023 were held in Hangzhou, China. India secured 4th position with 28 gold medals and a total of 107 medals. Lovlina Borgohain is a boxer, not a shooter, and was not the flag bearer.

90. Select the correct statements
1 The Nobel Peace Prize, 2023 was awarded to Narges Mohammadi
2 Narges Mohammadi is a champion of equality and women’s rights
3 In 2004, Narges Mohammadi joined the Defenders of Human Rights Center founded by Shirin Ebadi

Answer: 1, 2, 3

Explanation: Narges Mohammadi received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2023 for her commitment to human rights, especially women’s rights in Iran. She joined the Defenders of Human Rights Center in 2004, founded by Shirin Ebadi.

Here is your MCQ set from 91 to 100, formatted precisely to your specifications: numbered options (1–4), no special symbols, bolded question statements, bolded answers, bolded word “Explanation”, and bolded key terms within each explanation. One-line gaps are maintained between the last option, the answer, and the explanation.

91. Which space agency is assisting India in tracking the solar mission Aditya-L1
1 NASA
2 ESA
3 JAXA
4 Roscosmos

Answer: 1 NASA

Explanation: NASA supports ISRO’s Aditya-L1 mission through its Deep Space Network, helping track and communicate with the spacecraft.

92. Identify the correct statements regarding Padma Awards 2024
(a) 30 of the awardees are women
(b) 6 Padma Vibhushan awards were announced
(c) 17 Padma Bhushan and 110 Padma Shri awards were announced

1 Only (a) and (b)
2 Only (b) and (c)
3 Only (a) and (c)
4 All of the above

Answer: 3 Only (a) and (c)

93. In which city was the Bar Council of India’s ‘International Lawyers Conference 2023’ inaugurated
1 New Delhi
2 Mumbai
3 Kolkata
4 Bengaluru

Answer: 1 New Delhi

Explanation: The International Lawyers Conference 2023 was inaugurated in New Delhi to promote global legal dialogue and cooperation.

94. Match the Indian evacuation operations with the respective countries
(a) Operation Ajay – Israel
(b) Operation Ganga – Ukraine
(c) Operation Devi Shakti – Afghanistan
(d) Operation Kaveri – Sudan

1 (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
2 (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
3 (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
4 (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)

Answer: 3 (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

95. Recently, Odisha Chief Minister has launched Mukhyamantri Sampoorna Pushti Yojana. What is/are the primary objective/s of the scheme?
(a) To promote higher education for girls.
(b) Improve maternal and child nutrition in the State.
(c) To provide employment opportunities for adolescent girls.
(d) Boosting agricultural production in rural area.
Answer options:
(1) Only (a) is correct.
(2) Only (b) is correct.
(3) (a) and (d) are correct.
(4) (c) and (d) are correct.
Answer: (2) Only (b) is correct

96. Match the following pairs:
(a) Dr. Nitin Karmalkar Committee – (iv) To make the syllabus for pre-primary to degree according to NEP 2020
(b) Nitin Karir Committee – (ii) To enquire the incident during Maharashtra Bhushan Award distribution
(c) Sunil Pawar Committee – (i) For implementation of NEP 2020 in Maharashtra
(d) Dr. K. Kasturirangan Committee – (iii) To study why onion rates collapsed
Answer options:
(1) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv)
(2) (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (iv), (d) (i)
(3) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (ii)
(4) (a) (iv), (b) (ii), (c) (i), (d) (iii)
Answer: (1) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv)

97. Identify the correct statements regarding the Chief Minister Solar Agricultural Channel Scheme.
(a) This Scheme was started in June 2017, when Devendra Fadanvis was Chief Minister.
(b) The main purpose is to provide electricity to farmers through agricultural feeder.
(c) Government pays ₹50,000 per acre as rent to farmers under this Scheme.
(d) Solar panels are set up on government land up to ten kilometres from the 33 kV substation.
Answer options:
(1) (a), (d) are correct
(2) (a), (b), (c) are correct
(3) (a), (b) are correct
(4) (a), (c), (d) are correct
Answer: (3) (a), (b) are correct

98. Women Reservation Bill – 2023, consider the following statements:
(a) Narishakti Vandan Adhiniyam is the Constitutional (128ᵗʰ Amendment) Bill – 2023.
(b) Introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Lok Sabha on 19ᵗʰ Sept 2023.
(c) Seeks to allocate 30% of seats in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies for women.
(d) First bill considered in the new Parliament building.
Answer options:
(1) (a) and (d) are correct.
(2) (a) and (b) are correct.
(3) (a), (b), (c) are correct.
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
Answer: (1) (a) and (d) are correct.

99. Identify the correct statements regarding M.S. Swaminathan.
(a) He was resident of Tamil Nadu.
(b) Educated from Oxford University.
(c) Scientist of Agriculture department.
(d) Member of Rajya Sabha for some time.
(e) Awarded by Ramon Magsaysay award.
Answer options:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (e)
(2) (a), (c), (d), (e)
(3) (b), (c), (d), (e)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
Answer: (2) (a), (c), (d), (e)

100. Which of the following countries are included in the Five Eyes Alliance?
(a) America
(b) Britain
(c) New Zealand
(d) Australia
(e) France
(f) Germany
Answer options:
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(2) (a), (b), (c), (e)
(3) (a), (b), (e), (f)
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)
Answer: (1) (a), (b), (c), (d)

Read: Maharashtra PSC Notes