1. Which was the first Marathi play of modern times, presented by ‘Vishnudas Bhave’ in 1843 ?
(1) Sharada
(2) Sitaswayamvar
(3) Neeti Darshak
(4) Madhavrao Peshwa
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The first Marathi play of the modern era was Sitaswayamvar, presented by Vishnudas Bhave in 1843, marking the beginning of modern Marathi theatre.
2. Match the following.
a. Khudiram Bose
b. Sachindranath Sen
c. Barindrakumar Ghosh
d. Ramprasad Bismal
i. Conspiracy of Kakori
ii. Bomb blast in Legislature
iii. Indian Republic Association
iv. Bomb attack on Kingsford
v. Manik Tola Case
(1) a-v, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-v, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-v
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The correct matches are:
Khudiram Bose – Bomb attack on Kingsford
Sachindranath Sen – Indian Republic Association
Barindrakumar Ghosh – Conspiracy of Kakori
Ramprasad Bismal – Manik Tola Case
3. Who is the writer of ‘Sangeet Ratnakar’ the standard book on Indian Music ?
(1) Gopal Nayak
(2) Sharangdev
(3) Pandit Vishnu Bhatkhande
(4) Pandit Vishnu Paluskar
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Sharangdev is credited as the author of ‘Sangeet Ratnakar’, a foundational and authoritative text on Indian classical music, widely respected in musicology.
4. In which region ‘Kath and Goph’ types of dance are famous ?
(1) Gondawan
(2) Konkan
(3) Vidarbh
(4) Khandesh
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The traditional dance forms ‘Kath and Goph’ are culturally associated with the Konkan region, reflecting its folk heritage and community celebrations.
5. Which of the following person is related to the organization of ‘Indian Patriotic Association – 1888’ ?
(1) Swami Vivekanand
(2) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
(3) Sir Sayyad Ahemad Khan
(4) Mohommad Iqbal
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Sir Sayyad Ahemad Khan founded the Indian Patriotic Association in 1888 to promote loyalty to the British government and counter the rising nationalist movement.
6. The British Governor General Dalhousie abolished which States on the pretext of Mal administration ?
a. Satara
b. Nagpur
c. Jhansi
d. Ayodhya
(1) a and d
(2) b and c
(3) only c
(4) only d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Governor General Dalhousie annexed Ayodhya (Oudh) under the Doctrine of Lapse, citing maladministration as the justification for its abolition.
7. Identify the wrong pair of Editor and Newspaper.
(1) Keshavchandra Sen – Sulabh Samachar
(2) Dwarakanath Vidhyabhushan – Bangdarshan
(3) Surendranath Banarjee – Bangali
(4) Devendranath Tagore – Indian Mirror
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The incorrect pairing is Dwarakanath Vidhyabhushan – Bangdarshan. The actual editor of Bangdarshan was Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, making this match inaccurate.
8. Match the pairs.
a. Dadasaheb Falke
b. Baburao Penter
c. Bhalji Pendharkar
d. Prabhakar Pendharkar
i. Bajirao Mastani
ii. Sairandhri Movie
iii. Raja Harishchandra Movie
iv. Bal Shivaji
(1) iii, ii, iv, i
(2) iii, ii, i, iv
(3) iii, i, ii, iv
(4) iv, i, iii, ii
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The correct matches are:
Dadasaheb Falke – Raja Harishchandra Movie
Baburao Penter – Sairandhri Movie
Bhalji Pendharkar – Bajirao Mastani
Prabhakar Pendharkar – Bal Shivaji
9. Who established the ‘Industrial Conference’ in 1890 to promote the Industrial development of India ?
(1) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(2) Dadabhai Nauroji
(3) Rameshchandra Dutta
(4) Just. M. G. Ranade
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Justice M. G. Ranade founded the Industrial Conference in 1890 to encourage industrial growth and self-reliance in India during colonial rule.
10. Identify the following correct option group of Brahmin and Non-Brahmin Newspapers.
(1) Brahmin Newspapers – Lokshahi, Loksangrah, Kesari, Sanjivan, Jagruti
Non-Brahmin Newspapers – Jagruk, Vijayi Maratha, Lokmanya, Dinmitra, Rajkaran
(2) Brahmin Newspapers – Jagruk, Vijayi Maratha, Sanjivan, Kesari, Lokmanya
Non-Brahmin Newspapers – Lokshahi, Loksangrah, Dinmitra, Jagruti, Rajkaran
(3) Brahmin Newspapers – Lokshahi, Loksangrah, Kesari , Lokmanya, Rajkaran
Non-Brahmin Newspapers – Jagruk, Vijayi Maratha, Sanjivan, Dinmitra, Jagruti
(4) Brahmin Newspapers – Jagruk, Lokshahi, Sanjivan, Kesari, Rajkaran
Non-Brahmin Newspapers – Vijayi Maratha, Loksangrah, Dinmitra, Lokmanya, Jagruti
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The correct grouping is:
Brahmin Newspapers – Lokshahi, Loksangrah, Kesari, Lokmanya, Rajkaran
Non-Brahmin Newspapers – Jagruk, Vijayi Maratha, Sanjivan, Dinmitra, Jagruti
This classification reflects the socio-political affiliations of the publications during the reformist and nationalist movements.
11. Who from the following lawyers gave up lucrative practices as a part of non-cooperation Movement ?
a. C. R. Das
b. M. R. Jayakar
c. Saifuddin Kitchlew
d. Vallabhbhai Patel
(1) a and b only
(2) b and c only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
As part of the non-cooperation Movement, prominent lawyers like C. R. Das, M. R. Jayakar, Saifuddin Kitchlew, and Vallabhbhai Patel gave up their lucrative legal practices to support the national cause.
12. Match the following papers and their editors.
a. Mumbai Vaibhav
b. Gurakhi
c. Desh Sevak
d. Kal
I. L. N. Joshi
II. K. P. Mehendale
III. A. B. Kolhatkar
IV. Shivram Mahadeo Paranjpe
(1) I II III IV
(2) II III I IV
(3) II I IV III
(4) II I III IV
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The correct matches are:
Mumbai Vaibhav – K. P. Mehendale
Gurakhi – L. N. Joshi
Desh Sevak – A. B. Kolhatkar
Kal – Shivram Mahadeo Paranjpe
13. Who published ‘A Bunch of Old Letters’ ?
(1) Subhashchandra Bose
(2) Jawaharlal Nehru
(3) Kaka Kalelkar
(4) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Jawaharlal Nehru published the collection titled ‘A Bunch of Old Letters’, which contains personal and political correspondence reflecting India’s freedom struggle.
14. The following sentences are written about whom ?
a. He went to England in 1905 to present the Congress case before the English people.
b. The British Committee of Congress arranged 45 meetings for him to address during his stay of seven weeks.
c. This Grand Young Man was called upon to preside over the Banaras Session of Congress.
(1) Lokmanya Tilak
(2) Subhashchandra Bose
(3) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(4) M. K. Gandhi
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
These statements describe Gopal Krishna Gokhale, who traveled to England in 1905, addressed 45 meetings, and presided over the Banaras Session of Congress.
15. Match the following.
a. Mumbai Marathi Sahitya Sangh
b. Vidharbha Sahitya Sangh
c. Natya Niketan
d. Lalitkaladarsh
I. Keshavrao Bhosle
II. Motiram Gajanan Rangnekar
III. Amrit Narayan Bhalerao
IV. Nana Joag
(1) III IV II I
(2) I II III IV
(3) IV III II I
(4) III I IV II
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Correct pairings are:
Mumbai Marathi Sahitya Sangh – Amrit Narayan Bhalerao
Vidharbha Sahitya Sangh – Nana Joag
Natya Niketan – Motiram Gajanan Rangnekar
Lalitkaladarsh – Keshavrao Bhosle
16. Which of the following reforms that contributed to agrarian took place during the tenure of Lord Curzon ?
a. Establishment of Agriculture Research Institution
b. Passed the Co-operative Societies Act
c. Passed the Tenancy Act
d. Passed the Land Reform Act
(1) Only a and b is correct
(2) Only b, c and d is correct
(3) Only a and d is correct
(4) All of the above is correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
During Lord Curzon’s tenure, agrarian reforms included the Establishment of Agriculture Research Institution and the Co-operative Societies Act. The other acts were not passed during his administration.
17. Which of the following statements about Dadabhai Nouroji is / are correct ?
a. He was the first Indian Member of House of Commons.
b. He has served as President of the Indian National Congress three times.
c. He was selected the member of Central Legislature in 1910.
d. He was involved in the formation of Bombay Association.
(1) Only b and c are correct
(2) Only a and c are correct
(3) Only a, b and d are correct
(4) All of the above are correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Dadabhai Nouroji was the first Indian Member of the House of Commons, served as Congress President three times, and helped form the Bombay Association. He was not selected to the Central Legislature in 1910.
18. Which of the following statements about Velentines Chirol is/are correct ?
a. He stated that Gokhale was with the time, while Tilak was ahead of time.
b. He called Tilak the ‘Father of Unrest in India’.
c. He was a liberal bureaucrat.
d. He sentenced Tilak to imprisonment for sedition.
(1) Option a, b and c are correct
(2) Only option b is correct
(3) Only option d is correct
(4) Option a and c are correct
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Valentine Chirol is known for calling Tilak the ‘Father of Unrest in India’. The other statements are either incorrect or not attributed to him.
19. a. First Sentence : After the battle of Plassey, Mirzafar became the Nawab of Bengal.
b. Second Sentence : Mirzafar started his administration from the capital Murshidabad.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
(1) b only
(2) a only
(3) none of these
(4) a and b
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. After the Battle of Plassey, Mirzafar became Nawab of Bengal and began his rule from Murshidabad, the capital.
20. Which rebel in Bengal is mentioned in the novel ‘Anandmath’ written by Bankimchandra Chatarjee ?
(1) Revolt of Chuara’s
(2) Revolt of Kolama’s
(3) Revolt of Santhala’s
(4) Revolt of Sanyashi’s
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The novel ‘Anandmath’ by Bankimchandra Chatarjee depicts the Revolt of the Sanyashi’s, a group of ascetic warriors resisting British rule in Bengal.
21. Which journal had criticised the general policy of Warren Hastings, the Governor General of Bengal at that time ?
(1) Bengal Kirkaru
(2) Calcutta Journal
(3) The Bengal Gazette
(4) Amrit Bazar Patrika
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Bengal Gazette was the journal that openly criticized the general policies of Warren Hastings, who was the Governor General of Bengal during that period.
22. During whose reign did Captain Hawkins come to India, on behalf of the East India Company ?
(1) Akbar
(2) Jahangir
(3) Shahajahan
(4) Aurangzeb
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Captain Hawkins arrived in India representing the East India Company during the reign of Emperor Jahangir, seeking trade privileges.
23. Who took the initiative in the establishment of ‘Hindustan Socialist Republican Association’ ?
(1) Chandrashekar Azad
(2) Sachindranath Sanyal
(3) Suryasen
(4) Bhagat Singh
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Bhagat Singh played a key role in initiating the formation of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association, aiming to promote revolutionary activities against British rule.
24. ______, the traveller has written information about Chalukya rule in Maharashtra.
(1) Huen Tsang
(2) Ptolemy
(3) Al-Biruni
(4) Fa-Hien
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Chinese traveller Huen Tsang documented valuable information about the Chalukya rule in Maharashtra during his visit to India.
25. Match the following plays and their authors.
a. Daivaseni
b. Indira
c. Kusumanjali
d. Raja Shivaji
I. Kunte
II. Kirtikar
III. V. M. Mahajani
IV. Bajaba Ramchandra Pradhan
(1) I II III IV
(2) II I III IV
(3) II I IV III
(4) III IV I II
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Correct matches are:
Daivaseni – Kirtikar
Indira – Kunte
Kusumanjali – V. M. Mahajani
Raja Shivaji – Bajaba Ramchandra Pradhan
26. Match the following pairs of Author and Books.
a. Trimbak Narayan Atre
b. Keshav Meshram
c. Baburao Bagul
d. Bhaskar Chandanshiv
i. Birad
ii. Aghori
iii. Gavagada
iv. Audit
v. Pokharan
(1) iv ii iii i
(2) iii v i ii
(3) iii iv ii i
(4) iii v ii i
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Correct pairings are:
Trimbak Narayan Atre – Gavagada
Keshav Meshram – Pokharan
Baburao Bagul – Aghori
Bhaskar Chandanshiv – Birad
27. Match the pairs of leader of revolutionary work and concerned city.
a. Nagpur
b. Yawatmal
c. Amrawati
d. Belgaon
I. Dadasaheb Khaparde
II. Abasaheb Khankhoje
III. Shridhar Paranjape
IV. Gangadhar Deshpande
(1) I II III IV
(2) IV III II I
(3) III II I IV
(4) III II IV I
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Correct matches are:
Nagpur – Shridhar Paranjape
Yawatmal – Abasaheb Khankhoje
Amrawati – Dadasaheb Khaparde
Belgaon – Gangadhar Deshpande
28. Observe the following sentences.
a. Lala Lajpat Rai was the first President of ‘All India Trade Union Congress’ established on 31 October, 1920.
b. 57 Labour organizations were attached to ‘All India Trade Union Congress’ until 1927.
(1) a is true
(2) both a and b are true
(3) b is true
(4) both a and b are not true
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. Lala Lajpat Rai was the first President of the All India Trade Union Congress, and by 1927, it had 57 affiliated labour organizations.
29. Which of the following statement is /are wrong ?
a. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad published ‘Al – Hilal’ a weekly Urdu Newspaper in June, 1912.
b. ‘The Comrade’ a weekly English Newspaper published by Mohammad Ali Jinnah in 1911.
c. In the year, 1912 Jafar Alikhan had converted his weekly ‘Zamindar’ into a daily.
(1) only a is wrong
(2) only b is wrong
(3) b and c are wrong
(4) a and c are wrong
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The incorrect statement is b. ‘The Comrade’ was published by Mohammad Ali, not Mohammad Ali Jinnah. The other statements are correct.
30. Damodar Chaphekar and ______ started the ‘Society for the Protection of Hindu Legion’.
(1) Ganesh Savarkar
(2) Vinayak Savarkar
(3) Balkrushna Chaphekar
(4) Dravid Brothers
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Damodar Chaphekar and his brother Balkrushna Chaphekar founded the ‘Society for the Protection of Hindu Legion’, promoting nationalist and cultural ideals.
31. Which of the following statements about the work of Dr. Panjabrao Deshmukh is incorrect ?
(1) He was the President of ‘Akhil Bharatiya Magas Jati Sangh’ which was established in 1950
(2) He was the President of ‘Backward Classes Scholarship Board’
(3) He held the Post of President of ‘Vidarbh-Madhya Prant non-brahmin Conference in 1938’
(4) He was the President of ‘Bharat Krushak Samaj’ established in 1955
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The statement that Dr. Panjabrao Deshmukh held the post of President of the ‘Vidarbh-Madhya Prant non-brahmin Conference in 1938’ is incorrect. The other roles mentioned are accurate representations of his contributions.
32. Read the following statements about Balashastri Jambhekar and choose correct option.
a. He was the first Indian Asst. Professor in Elphinstone College.
b. He wrote book such as ‘Nitikatha’ and ‘Sarsangrah’.
c. Justice Narayan Chandavarkar in one article in ‘Induprakash’ mentioned him as a ‘Rajkiy Rhushi’.
d. He was selected member of the ‘Royal Geographical Society of London’ in 1840.
(1) Statement a, b and c are correct while d is incorrect
(2) Statement b and d are correct while a and c are incorrect
(3) Statement b and c are correct while a and d are incorrect
(4) All statements of above are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Balashastri Jambhekar was the first Indian Assistant Professor at Elphinstone College, authored ‘Nitikatha’ and ‘Sarsangrah’, and was called a ‘Rajkiy Rhushi’ by Justice Narayan Chandavarkar. He was not a member of the Royal Geographical Society of London.
33. Who published an Article “Tibhangleta Maharashtra” in Lokshikshan (monthly publication) in 1917 about the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement ?
(1) Datto Waman Potdar
(2) Dhananjayrao Gadgil
(3) Vitthal Waman Tamhankar
(4) G.T. Madkholkar
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Vitthal Waman Tamhankar published the article “Tibhangleta Maharashtra” in Lokshikshan in 1917, contributing to early discourse on the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
34. Which Act introduced for the first time Indian people in the Legislative Council ?
(1) The Indian Councils Act, 1861
(2) The Indian Councils Act, 1892
(3) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(4) Government of India Act, 1919
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 was the first to allow Indian representation in the Legislative Council, marking a shift in colonial administrative policy.
35. The following sentences are about ______.
a. He was a Muslim fanatic.
b. He was a lawyer from Latur.
c. He was a member of Ittihadu.
d. The members of Ittihadu were known as Razakars.
(1) Mahabat Khan
(2) Kasim Razavi
(3) Shahnawaz
(4) Nizam
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
These statements describe Kasim Razavi, a lawyer from Latur, member of Ittihadu, whose members were known as Razakars, involved in resisting Hyderabad’s integration into India.
36. Who formulated the ‘Operation Polo’ at the time of Hyderabad Police Action ?
(1) General Gogard
(2) Major General Jayant Chaudhari
(3) Major General A.A. Rudra
(4) Lieutenant General Rajendra Sing
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
General Gogard was responsible for formulating ‘Operation Polo’, the military operation that led to the integration of Hyderabad into the Indian Union.
37. Who threw the bombshell on Nizam ?
(1) Bhaskar Gopal Kesakar
(2) Narayan Pandharinath Pawar
(3) Anandrao Waghmare
(4) Kashinath Nawandar
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Narayan Pandharinath Pawar is known for throwing a bombshell on the Nizam, symbolizing resistance against princely rule during the Hyderabad integration struggle.
38. Who from the following had suggested that the capital of Samyukta Maharashtra should be Mumbai ?
(1) Y.K. Khadilkar
(2) Prabhakar Padhye
(3) B.V. Warerkar
(4) P.V. Gadgil
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Y.K. Khadilkar proposed that Mumbai should be the capital of Samyukta Maharashtra, aligning with the movement’s demand for linguistic and regional unity.
39. Madhavrao Khanderao Bagal and Ratnappa Kumbhar were the founders of _______.
(1) Phaltan Sansthan Praja Parishad
(2) Kolhapur Praja Parishad
(3) Dakshini Vibhagiya Parishad
(4) Jat Sansthan Praja Parishad
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Madhavrao Khanderao Bagal and Ratnappa Kumbhar founded the Kolhapur Praja Parishad, advocating for democratic reforms and social justice in the princely state.
40. ______ was the President of Rashtriya Stree Sangha.
(1) Ghoshideben Naoroji Captain
(2) Avantikabai Gokhale
(3) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyaya
(4) Sarojini Naidu
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Sarojini Naidu served as the President of Rashtriya Stree Sangha, a national organization focused on women’s rights and empowerment in India.
41. Which of the following statement about Vishnushastri Chiplunkar is incorrect ?
(1) He started a forthnightly ‘Vicharlahari’
(2) He edited ‘Shalakapatrak’ a Government monthly magazine after 1868
(3) He started ‘Chitrashala’ in 1878
(4) He published ‘Kesari’ and ‘Maratha’ newspaper in the ‘Aryabhushan’ press
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The incorrect statement about Vishnushastri Chiplunkar is that he started the fortnightly ‘Vicharlahari’. He was associated with other publications, but not this one.
42. Arrange the following events chronologically.
a. Anant Kanhere was hanged.
b. Vasudev Balwant Phadke died in Jail.
c. Police armoury at Chittgaon was attacked.
d. The newspaper ‘Yugantar’ was started.
(1) d, b, a, c
(2) b, d, a, c
(3) c, a, b, d
(4) a, c, d, b
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Chronologically, the events occurred as follows:
Vasudev Balwant Phadke died in Jail, then ‘Yugantar’ was started, followed by Anant Kanhere’s hanging, and finally the Chittgaon armoury attack.
43. As per the Government of India Act, 1919, the Central Government was entrusted with which of the following duties ?
a. Defence
b. Posts and telegraphs
c. Administration of justice and jail
d. Famine relief
(1) b, c and d only
(2) a and b only
(3) c and d only
(4) a, b and d only
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Under the Government of India Act, 1919, the Central Government was responsible for Defence and Posts and telegraphs. The other duties were provincial.
44. Which of the following provisions about Indian University Act, 1904 are not correct ?
a. Govt. will appoint the Vice-Chancellor of University.
b. The member of University will be appointed by the Govt.
c. The Duration of member will be 5 years.
d. Senate resolution and decision will be accepted by the Govt.
(1) c, b, a
(2) d, a, b
(3) c, d
(4) a, b, c, d
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The incorrect provisions are:
Duration of member will be 5 years and Senate resolutions will be accepted by the Government. These were not part of the Indian University Act, 1904.
45. Who is described in the following sentences ?
a. He was the soul behind the conspiracy against the British at Beed.
b. He assumed various names, such as Raosaheb Peshwe, Ganesh Keshav Limaye, Balwant Jagadamb, etc.
c. He moved from place to place – Kathewad, Rajputana, Surat, Pune, Bombay, Rajkot, etc.
d. Dadasaheb Khaparde and Tilak knew him.
(1) Veer Wamanrao Joshi
(2) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
(3) Bapu Gokhale
(4) Sadashiv Nilkantha Joshi
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
These clues point to Sadashiv Nilkantha Joshi, a revolutionary who used multiple aliases and was known to Tilak and Khaparde.
46. In the Govt. of India Act, 1935, the right to make and amend the Constitution of the Union was given to _______.
(1) Governor General
(2) Central Legislature
(3) British Government
(4) Executive Council of Governor General
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The British Government retained the power to make and amend the Constitution under the Government of India Act, 1935.
47. Which of the following statements regarding the ‘Simla Conference in 1945’ is/are incorrect ?
a. Maulana Azad participated as a representative of Congress Party.
b. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviy participated as a representative of Hindu Mahasabha.
c. Discussion in this conference was on Wavell Plan.
d. Mohammad Ali Jinna participated as a representative of Muslim League.
(1) Only a, b and d are incorrect
(2) Only b is incorrect
(3) Only c and d are incorrect
(4) Only a and d are incorrect
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The incorrect statement is b. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya did not represent the Hindu Mahasabha at the Simla Conference.
48. At the time of Merger of Princely State of Kashmir ______ was the State Prime Minister.
(1) Pandit Ramchandra Kak
(2) Justice Meherchand Mahajan
(3) Major General Janak Sing
(4) Lord Esme
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
During the merger of Kashmir, the State Prime Minister was Justice Meherchand Mahajan, who played a key role in the accession process.
49. The ten point programs announced by the Congress Executive Committee in 1967 included which of the following ?
a. Nationalization of Banking and Insurance Industry.
b. Government control over foreign trade.
c. Implementation of land reform program speedily.
d. Control of Industrial Monopolies.
(1) Only b and d is correct
(2) Only a and d is correct
(3) Only a, c and d is correct
(4) All of the above are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Congress Executive Committee’s ten-point program in 1967 included all listed reforms: nationalization, foreign trade control, land reform, and monopoly regulation.
50. Identify the wrong pair from the following.
(1) Janwadi Mahila Aghadi – C.P.I. (M.)
(2) Manushi – A Periodical to Work for Women Movement
(3) Anvesha – Feminism newspaper in Bengal
(4) Usmaniya University – Foundation of Progressive Women Association in 1974
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The incorrect pair is Anvesha – Feminism newspaper in Bengal. This association is not accurate. The other pairs are correctly matched.
51. Who were Achyut Balwant Kolhatkar and Vishnu Ganesh Pingle ?
(1) They were the authors of Marathi plays
(2) They were the revolutionaries from Maharashtra
(3) They were the actors on Marathi stage
(4) They were the leaders of the students
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Achyut Balwant Kolhatkar and Vishnu Ganesh Pingle were known as revolutionaries from Maharashtra, actively involved in the freedom struggle.
52. Basanti Devi, Urmila Devi and Suniti Devi from ______ family were arrested for selling Khaddar on the Streets of Calcutta.
(1) Subhashchandra Bose
(2) Bankimchandra Chatopadhyaya
(3) C.R. Das
(4) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Basanti Devi, Urmila Devi, and Suniti Devi belonged to the family of C.R. Das and were arrested for promoting Khaddar during the Swadeshi movement.
53. In the year 1936 who was the President of the Second Session of Akhil Bhartiya Kisan Sabha at Faijpur ?
(1) V.R. Shinde
(2) Keshavrao Jedhe
(3) N.G. Ranga
(4) Dinkar Javalkar
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
N.G. Ranga presided over the Second Session of the Akhil Bhartiya Kisan Sabha held at Faijpur in 1936, advocating for farmers’ rights.
54. Which of the following resolution is/are not included in the Faizpur Session of 1936 ?
a. Gave Consent to Act, 1935.
b. Thirteen Point Program was Approved.
c. Demanded to Call the Constituent Assembly.
d. Condemned the Policy of Exploitation of Money Lender.
(1) Only b and c are correct
(2) Only a and c are correct
(3) Only a is correct
(4) Only a and d are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Faizpur Session of 1936 did not include resolutions giving consent to the Act of 1935 or condemning moneylender exploitation. The other points were part of the session.
55. Which party in British Government passed the ‘Indian Council Act, 1892’ ?
(1) Democratic Party
(2) Conservative Party
(3) Labour Party
(4) Progressive Party
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Conservative Party in Britain was responsible for passing the Indian Council Act of 1892, which modestly expanded Indian participation in governance.
56. Padma, Jaya, Vijaya and Ratna are the High-Yielding varieties of ______ seeds.
(1) Wheat
(2) Rice
(3) Maize
(4) Bajra
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Padma, Jaya, Vijaya, and Ratna are all high-yielding varieties of rice, developed to boost agricultural productivity.
57. Match the following workers of Hindu Mahasabha with the places where they used to work.
a. N.G. Abhyankar
b. Mahadevshastri Divekar
c. Shivram Vishnu Modak
d. Vishnu Ramrao Patil
I. Solapur
II. Pune
III. Satara
IV. Sangli – Miraj
(1) II IV III I
(2) I II IV III
(3) IV III II I
(4) III I II IV
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Correct matches:
N.G. Abhyankar – Pune
Mahadevshastri Divekar – Sangli – Miraj
Shivram Vishnu Modak – Satara
Vishnu Ramrao Patil – Solapur
58. Who was the Captain of “Hindusthani Sevika Dal” established by N.S. Hardikar in June, 1930 ?
(1) Kalyani Sayyad
(2) Kusum Sohani
(3) Kaveri Chaudhari
(4) Krishna Sardesai
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Kalyani Sayyad served as the Captain of Hindusthani Sevika Dal, a women’s wing founded by N.S. Hardikar in June 1930 to support nationalist activities.
59. What is the truth about the Hindu Mahasabha ?
a. 19th Conference of Hindu Mahasabha was held on 1 January, 1938 at Karnavati.
b. Dr. N.B. Khare became the President of Hindu Mahasabha in the year 1949.
(1) Only Statement a is true
(2) a and b Statements are not true
(3) a and b Statements are true
(4) Only Statement b is true
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. The 19th Conference of Hindu Mahasabha was held in Karnavati in 1938, and Dr. N.B. Khare became its President in 1949.
60. Which Act empowered the Governor General to supervise upon the High-Commissioner ?
(1) Indian Council Act of 1861
(2) Government of India Act, 1935
(3) Morle-Minto Reforms Act
(4) Montegu-Chelmsford Reforms Act
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 granted the Governor General the authority to supervise the High-Commissioner, centralizing administrative control.
61. The more plastic region of the mantle which is largely composed of peridotite and on which lithosphere floats is called
(1) Asthenosphere
(2) Monosphere
(3) Oceanic block
(4) Mesosphere
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Asthenosphere is the plastic layer of the mantle, composed mainly of peridotite, and serves as the floating base for the lithosphere due to its ductile nature.
62. Which of the following book published in 1911 was of Miss. Ellen Semple ?
(1) History of civilization in England
(2) Influence of geographic environment
(3) Anthropo geography
(4) None of these
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Ellen Semple authored the book ‘Influence of Geographic Environment’, published in 1911, which emphasized the role of geography in shaping human societies.
63. Who put forward the concentric zone theory of urban structure ?
(1) E.W. Burgess
(2) Homer
(3) Hoyet
(4) Ulman
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
E.W. Burgess proposed the concentric zone theory, explaining urban growth in circular zones radiating from the city center.
64. Which concept was supported by the geographer Blache, Bomen and Bruns ?
(1) Possibilism
(2) Determinism
(3) Fundamentalism
(4) All of the above
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Geographers like Blache, Bomen, and Bruns supported Possibilism, which argues that human choices shape development within geographic constraints.
65. Pradhanmantri Awas Yojana (urban) Mission was launched on _______.
(1) 1 April 2019
(2) 5 August 2018
(3) 25 June 2015
(4) 10 June 2020
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Pradhanmantri Awas Yojana (Urban) was launched on 25 June 2015 to provide affordable housing to urban poor under the Housing for All initiative.
66. Arrange the Indian rivers in ascending orders with reference to their basin size area.
a. Suvarnarekha
b. Brahmani
c. Tapi
d. Narmada
e. Sabarmati
(1) b, c, a, d, e
(2) c, d, e, a, b
(3) e, a, c, b, d
(4) a, e, b, c, d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The correct ascending order based on basin size is:
Suvarnarekha, Sabarmati, Brahmani, Tapi, Narmada.
67. Which of the following statement/s is/are not correct ?
A. P and S waves penetrate upto great depth inside the lower layer of the earth.
B. Sima layer is found above the Sial layer in the interior of the earth.
C. The Nife layer in the interior of the earth is also known as Barisphere.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) A, C
(4) A, B, C
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The incorrect statement is B: the Sima layer lies below the Sial layer, not above. Statements A and C are correct.
68. Match the following.
Earthquake region
A. Uttar Kashi
B. Killari
C. Kangra
D. Kutch
Year
i. 1905
ii. 1993
iii. 1890
iv. 1991
(1) i iv ii iii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) iv ii i iii
(4) ii iii iv i
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Correct matches:
Uttar Kashi – 1991
Killari – 1993
Kangra – 1905
Kutch – 1890
69. Which of the following statements are not correct ?
A. The lakes created by glacier are called Playa.
B. Netherland plain is of Cuesta type plain.
C. Cuesta plains are created in limestone region.
(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) A, C
(4) A, B, C
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Statements A and C are incorrect. Glacial lakes are not called Playa, and Cuesta plains are formed in sedimentary rock regions, not specifically limestone.
70. Observe the following statements.
A. Batholith rocks are large in size but they are not in deep.
B. Laccolith rocks are small in size but they are at deep.
C. Stock is a igneous type of rock.
Which of the above statement/s is/are not correct ?
(1) A
(2) A, B
(3) B, C
(4) A, C
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Statements A and B are incorrect. Batholiths are large and deep-seated, while Laccoliths are shallow intrusions. Statement C is correct: Stock is an igneous rock formation.
71. UNGA declared 2023 as International year of Millets on _______.
(1) March 2021
(2) October 2022
(3) March 2023
(4) January 2023
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) declared 2023 as the International Year of Millets in March 2021, following India’s proposal to promote millet cultivation globally.
72. MM-I, MM-II and MM-III Missions of Govt. of India are related to ______ revolution.
(1) Blue Revolution
(2) Sweet Revolution
(3) White Revolution
(4) Yellow Revolution
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The MM-I, MM-II, and MM-III Missions are part of the Sweet Revolution, which aims to boost honey production and promote beekeeping as a sustainable agricultural activity.
73. When did the Maharashtra State Cabinet take decision of implementation of the ‘Prime Minister Crop Insurance Scheme’ ?
(1) January 2016
(2) February 2016
(3) April 2016
(4) May 2016
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Maharashtra State Cabinet decided to implement the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) in April 2016, aiming to provide comprehensive crop insurance coverage.
74. Match the following.
A. Sickle
B. Mango harvester
C. Groundnut hoe
D. Toothed spade
i. Ankur
ii. Nutan
iii. Vaibhav
iv. Swastik
(1) iv iii i ii
(2) iii ii iv i
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) ii i iii iv
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Correct matches:
Sickle – Vaibhav
Mango harvester – Nutan
Groundnut hoe – Swastik
Toothed spade – Ankur
75. Match the following.
A. Pratapgad
B. Daulatabad
C. Naldurg
D. Yashwantgad
i. 15º 75’
ii. 19º 94’
iii. 17º 93’
iv. 17º 81’
(1) i iv ii iii
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) ii iii i iv
(4) iii ii iv i
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Correct matches:
Pratapgad – 17º 93’
Daulatabad – 19º 94’
Naldurg – 17º 81’
Yashwantgad – 15º 75’
76. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
A. The laterite rock found at Pachgani is formed due to chemical weathering of basalt.
B. Laterite rock is found at Mahabaleshwar because of rainfall of more than 3000 m.m. there.
C. Laterite rock found in Konkan coastal region is of secondary form.
(1) A
(2) A, C
(3) B, C
(4) A, B, C
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
All statements are correct. Laterite rocks in Pachgani form from chemical weathering of basalt, Mahabaleshwar’s high rainfall supports laterite formation, and Konkan’s laterite is of secondary origin.
77. When are ‘Ria’ coasts formed ?
(1) Estuaries are submerged
(2) Deltas are submerged
(3) A highland barrier is emerged
(4) None of these
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
‘Ria’ coasts form when river valleys or estuaries are submerged due to a rise in sea level, creating drowned coastal inlets.
78. From Red sea to river Zambezi i.e. from North to South many lakes are found. Arrange them in sequence from North to South.
a. Lake Nyasa
b. Lake Albert
c. Lake Edward
d. Lake Tanganyika
(1) c, d, a, b
(2) b, c, a, d
(3) a, d, c, b
(4) b, c, d, a
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Correct sequence from North to South:
Lake Albert, Lake Edward, Lake Tanganyika, Lake Nyasa
79. Match the following Metamorphosed forms.
A. Graphite
B. Slate
C. Quartzite
D. Marble
i. Clay
ii. Limestone
iii. Coal
iv. Sandstone
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iii i iv ii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) iii i ii iv
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Correct matches:
Graphite – Coal
Slate – Clay
Quartzite – Sandstone
Marble – Limestone
80. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
A. From the pattern of travel of primary and secondary seismic waves through the interior of the Earth, knowledge can be obtained about the composition of different layers of the interior of the Earth.
B. The pattern of travel of primary and secondary seismic waves through the interior of the Earth does not provide knowledge about the composition of different layers in the interior of the Earth.
C. Seismic waves do not travel through the Earth’s interior.
D. Earth’s interior is not made up of different layers but is one layer everywhere.
(1) a and b
(2) Only a
(3) b and c
(4) c and d
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Only statement A is correct. Seismic wave patterns help scientists understand the composition and structure of the Earth’s internal layers.
81. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
A. D.R.D.O. was formed in 1958 with the mission to develop strong indigenous technology base
B. D.R.D.O. salary of grade B scientist is less than grade G scientist
C. D.R.D.O. developed brake parachute for Tejas combat aircraft
(1) Statement A and B
(2) Statement A and C
(3) Statement C
(4) Statement B and C
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Statements A and C are correct. DRDO was established in 1958 to strengthen India’s defense technology base, and it developed the brake parachute for the Tejas aircraft.
82. Select an incorrect alternative about the districts of Konkan and rivers flowing in them.
(1) Raigad – Patalganga, Amba, Kundalika, Bav
(2) Ratnagiri – Vashishti, Kajali, Jog, Bharja
(3) Sindhudurg – Gad, Karli, Terekhol, Achra
(4) Palghar – Vaitarna, Pinjal, Surya, Deharja
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The river Bav is not typically associated with Raigad district, making this pairing incorrect.
83. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Wet agriculture is practiced in Konkan
B. Wet agriculture is practiced in Konkan due to availability of irrigation
C. Cultivable area is less in South Konkan due to existence of laterite rock
(1) Statement A and C
(2) Statement B and C
(3) Statement A and B
(4) Statement A, B and C
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Wet agriculture is practiced due to high rainfall, not irrigation. Laterite rock reduces cultivable land in South Konkan.
84. ______ is built on knowledge from Geography, Cartography and Mathematics and of course on the advancement in the field of Electronics.
(1) GIS
(2) GPS
(3) Computer
(4) CTBT
Answer: (1)
Explanation: GIS (Geographic Information System) integrates spatial sciences and electronics to manage and analyze geographic data.
85. Which of the following district is well known for Kyanite mineral production?
(1) Ratnagiri
(2) Raigad
(3) Chandrapur
(4) Bhandara
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Bhandara district in Maharashtra is known for its reserves of Kyanite, a heat-resistant mineral.
86. The layer between the crust and mantle is called ______
a. Weichert discontinuity
b. Moho discontinuity
c. Guttenberg discontinuity
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) a, b are correct
(4) a, b, c are correct
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The Moho discontinuity marks the boundary between Earth’s crust and mantle.
87. Arrange the place of creeks in Maharashtra from North to South.
a. Rajpuri creek
b. Dhabol creek
c. Vijaydurg creek
d. Terekhol creek
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, b, d
(3) a, b, d, c
(4) b, a, c, d
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The correct north-to-south order is: Rajpuri, Dhabol, Vijaydurg, Terekhol.
88. Which of the following is a block mountain type in India?
(1) Meghalaya Plateau
(2) Deccan Plateau
(3) Ladakh Plateau
(4) Kedarnath
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The Meghalaya Plateau is a block mountain formed by faulting and uplift.
89. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Dispersed settlement means spatial isolation of home group
B. Scattered settlements are formed where the natural conditions are suitable for human life
C. Scattered settlements are equipped with all amenities
D. Scattered settlements are formed in plains
(1) Only A
(2) A and B
(3) Only C
(4) C and D
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Only statement A is correct. Dispersed settlements are isolated and often lack amenities or favorable conditions.
90. Maasai people have circular settlements called ______
(1) Floating settlement
(2) Crawal
(3) Vedikakar
(4) Checkerboard
Answer: (2)
Explanation: The Maasai build circular settlements called Crawal (also spelled Kraal), enclosed by thorn fences.
91. Consider the following statements.
i. Rainfall is less on the eastern slopes of the Sahyadri
ii. The eastern part of Maharashtra receives some rain from the Northeast monsoon
iii. The rainfall decreases towards the extreme east of Maharashtra
(1) Statement i and ii are correct but statement iii is incorrect
(2) Statement i and iii are correct but statement ii is incorrect
(3) Statement ii and iii are correct but statement i is incorrect
(4) All the above statements are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Rainfall is indeed less on the eastern slopes of the Sahyadri, and the eastern part of Maharashtra receives some rain from the Northeast monsoon. However, rainfall does not consistently decrease toward the extreme east.
92. Consider the following statements.
a. Air has the property of contraction and expansion
b. As it descends from space towards surface, the pressure increases and air expands
(1) a and b are correct and b is the correct reason of a
(2) a and b are correct and b is not the correct reason of a
(3) a is right and b is wrong
(4) b is right and a is wrong
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Air does contract and expand, but as it descends, pressure increases and air contracts—not expands—making statement b incorrect.
93. Census year of India and sex ratio is given below. Match the following.
A. 2001
B. 1981
C. 1961
D. 2011
i. 941
ii. 943
iii. 933
iv. 934
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) iii iv i ii
(3) iv iii i ii
(4) iii i iv ii
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
2001 – 933
1981 – 934
1961 – 941
2011 – 943
94. Which of the above statements are correct?
a. Ferrel’s law states that winds are deflected to the right from their original direction in the northern hemisphere
b. Ferrel’s law states that winds are deflected to the left from their original direction in the southern hemisphere
c. Ferrel’s law depends on coriolis force
(1) Statement a and c
(2) Statement b and c
(3) Statement a and b
(4) Statement a, b and c
Answer: (4)
Explanation: All statements are correct. Ferrel’s law explains wind deflection due to the Coriolis effect in both hemispheres.
95. Which of the following are the types of sensor?
A. Camera
B. Radar
C. Photograph
D. Scanner
(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only A, B and D
(4) All of the above
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Camera, Radar, and Scanner are sensors. Photograph is a product of sensing, not a sensor itself.
96. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
a. On July 24, 1998, an operational satellite and space debris of European rocket collided
b. Iridium 33 satellite of USA collided with Cosmos 2251 inactive Russian military satellite in February 2006
c. U.R. Rao satellite centre celebrated its Golden Jubilee on September 14, 2022
(1) Statement b and c
(2) Statement a and b
(3) Statement a, b and c
(4) Statement c
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Only statement c is correct. The Iridium-Cosmos collision occurred in 2009, not 2006, and no major collision was recorded in 1998.
97. Match Column I with II and select correct option.
Column I (Countries)
a. France
b. Israel
c. U.S.A.
d. India
e. Canada
Column II (Satellites)
i. RADARSAT
ii. EARLYBIRD
iii. CARTOSAT
iv. EROS
v. SPOT
(1) iv v ii i iii
(2) v ii iv i iii
(3) v iv ii iii i
(4) iv ii iii i v
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
France – SPOT
Israel – EROS
USA – EARLYBIRD
India – CARTOSAT
Canada – RADARSAT
98. Which vaccine is produced for COVID-19 under the supervision of DRDO?
(1) 2 – AG
(2) 1 – BG
(3) 2 – DG
(4) None of the above
Answer: (3)
Explanation: DRDO developed 2-DG (2-deoxy-D-glucose) as a therapeutic agent for COVID-19.
99. Which of the following are the fundamental principles of remote sensing?
A. Solar energy
B. Sensor
C. Radar
D. Platform
(1) Only A, B and C
(2) Only B, C and D
(3) Only A, B and D
(4) All of the above
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Solar energy, sensor, and platform are fundamental principles. Radar is a sensor type, not a separate principle.
100. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
a. ‘GSAT – 3’ was the first satellite to serve the Indian education sector
b. ‘Met Sat – 1’ satellite was renamed as ‘Kalpana – 1’ in the year 2001
c. ‘GSAT – 7A’ satellite, which facilitates services for Indian Airforce is nicknamed as ‘Angry Bird’
(1) Only statement a and b
(2) Only statement a and c
(3) Only statement a
(4) All statements a, b and c
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Statements a and c are correct. MetSat-1 was renamed Kalpana-1 in 2003, not 2001.
101. Match the following.
a. Vilas Salunke – iv. Father of Pani Panchayat
b. Bindeshwar Pathak – ii. Establishment of Sulabh Shauchalaya facility
c. Sunita Narayan – i. Publisher of the magazine ‘Down to Earth’
d. Arun Deshpande – iii. A modern colony called Vigyangram was established at a low cost
(1) ii iii i iv
(2) iii iv ii i
(3) ii i iv iii
(4) iv ii i iii
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Each individual is matched to their notable contribution: Salunke with Pani Panchayat, Pathak with Sulabh toilets, Narayan with environmental journalism, and Deshpande with Vigyangram.
102. Match the correct pairs of Environmental Act and its year.
a. Wild Life Protection Act – iii. 1972
b. Forest Conservation Act – iv. 1980
c. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act – i. 1974
d. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act – ii. 1981
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) iv iii ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) ii i iv iii
Answer: (3)
Explanation: These acts were landmark environmental legislations in India, passed in the years listed.
103. Consider the following statements.
i. There is a close relationship between carbon-di-oxide and solar radiation
ii. Accumulation of pollutants slows down photosynthesis
iii. Pollutants increase vapour emissions of plants
iv. Rising temperature reduces atmospheric moisture and affects circulation
(1) i and ii incorrect
(2) ii, iii are correct
(3) i, ii, iv are incorrect
(4) i, ii, iv are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Statements i, ii, and iv are scientifically supported. Statement iii is not consistently validated.
104. Examine the following statements related to global biodiversity hotspots.
a. At least 325 globally threatened species occur in the Western Ghats
b. Himalayas in India are not a global biodiversity hotspot
(1) Both correct
(2) Both incorrect
(3) a correct, b incorrect
(4) a incorrect, b correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Western Ghats host many threatened species. The Himalayas are indeed a recognized biodiversity hotspot.
105. Leaf litter → Algae → Crabs → Carnivores fish is a ______ system.
(1) Carnivore food system
(2) Detritus food chain
(3) Food web system
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2)
Explanation: This sequence begins with decomposed organic matter, characteristic of a detritus-based food chain.
106. Match milestones in population policy with years.
a. National Family Programme – ii. 1952
b. Bhore Committee report – iii. 1946
c. New National Population Policy – iv. 2000
d. Family Planning Dept. renamed – i. 1977
(1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
Answer: (3)
Explanation: These milestones mark key shifts in India’s demographic and health planning history.
107. As per Census 2001, Uttar Pradesh had the highest population while ______ had the lowest.
(1) Manipur
(2) Sikkim
(3) Nagaland
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Sikkim had the smallest population among Indian states in the 2001 Census.
108. From which sources is secondary population information collected?
A. Census report
B. Vital registrations
C. National sample survey
D. International publications
(1) A, B, D
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, C
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
Explanation: All listed sources contribute to secondary demographic data.
109. As per 2011 Census, correct ascending order of population density in Maharashtra districts:
(1) Chandrapur – Washim – Gondia – Bhandara
(2) Chandrapur – Gondia – Bhandara – Washim
(3) Chandrapur – Bhandara – Washim – Gondia
(4) Chandrapur – Gondia – Washim – Bhandara
Answer: (1)
Explanation: This sequence reflects increasing population density from least to most among the listed districts.
110. Match Census year with Maharashtra’s decadal population growth:
a. 1971 – i. 27.45
b. 1981 – ii. 24.54
c. 1991 – iii. 25.73
d. 2001 – iv. 22.73
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Answer: (1)
Explanation: These figures reflect Maharashtra’s population growth trends across four decades.
111. The radiant energy received from the sun transmitted in the form of electromagnetic waves and travelling at the rate of 300000 km or 186000 miles per second is called
(1) Insolation
(2) Sun flare
(3) Transmission
(4) Reflection
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The energy from the sun that reaches Earth in the form of electromagnetic waves is called Insolation.
112. Match the climatic types of Maharashtra based on Koppen’s classification with districts.
a. Am – iii. Raigad, Ratnagiri, Sindhudurg
b. Bsh – i. Ahmadnagar, Dhule, Jalgaon, Solapur
c. Aw – ii. Parbhani, Amaravati, Washim, Hingoli
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Am = coastal humid; Bsh = semi-arid; Aw = tropical wet and dry.
113. Match radiant energy forms and their percentages.
a. Unreached to earth – i. 49%
b. From land surface return to atmosphere – ii. 23%
c. Radiated by condensation – iii. 19%
d. Radiated by convection – iv. 09%
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Answer: (1)
Explanation: These percentages reflect the distribution of longwave radiation from Earth’s surface.
114. Consider the following statements about temperature in the troposphere.
i. Temperature decreases with altitude
ii. Normal lapse rate is 1°C per 160 m
iii. In summer, lapse rate is less than 1°C per 160 m
iv. In winter, lapse rate is more than 1°C per 160 m
(1) iii and iv are correct
(2) i, ii and iii are correct
(3) i and ii are correct
(4) All of the above are correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Statements i and ii are universally accepted; iii and iv vary with conditions and are not consistently true.
115. Match gases with their properties.
i. Nitrogen – d. Chemically active
ii. Oxygen – c. Chemically not very active
iii. Carbon-di-oxide – b. Absorbs heat from Earth
iv. Argon – a. Noble gas
(1) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(2) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b
(3) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
(4) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Each gas is matched with its defining atmospheric role or chemical behavior.
116. NDVI is calculated using which bands?
(1) Red and blue
(2) Green and blue
(3) Green and red
(4) Red and near infrared
Answer: (4)
Explanation: NDVI uses reflectance in the red and near-infrared bands to assess vegetation health.
117. Aerial photo scale 1:7500, terrain elevation 1400 m, focal length 15 cm. Flight altitude above mean sea level is
(1) 8400 m
(2) 3213 m
(3) 2525 m
(4) 1111 m
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Using the formula: Altitude = (Scale × Focal length) + Terrain elevation = (7500 × 0.15) + 1400 = 2525 m.
118. First co-satellite under IIT Bombay student satellite program launched on 26 Sept 2016
(1) SWAYAM
(2) NIUSAT
(3) UTTAM
(4) PRATHAM
Answer: (4)
Explanation: PRATHAM was the first student-built satellite from IIT Bombay, launched in 2016.
119. Spatial relationship between geographical elements that remains unchanged under transformation is called
(1) Topology
(2) Cartography
(3) Morphology
(4) None of these
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Topology deals with spatial relationships like connectivity and adjacency, unaffected by scale or shape changes.
120. Which projection preserves absolute directions relative to the central point?
(1) Azimuthal projection
(2) Robinson projection
(3) Mercator projection
(4) Conic projection
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Azimuthal projections maintain true direction from the center point to any other point on the map.
121. Which of the following are physical components of an ecosystem that constitute its abiotic structure?
a. Sunlight
b. Wind
c. Rainfall
d. Temperature
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Abiotic components include all non-living physical factors such as sunlight, wind, rainfall, and temperature.
122. Which of the following elements are involved in remote sensing?
a. Energy source or illumination, radiation and atmosphere
b. Interaction with target and recording energy by the sensor
c. Transmission, reception, processing, interpretation and analysis
d. Application
(1) a, b and c
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Remote sensing involves all listed elements—from energy source to final application.
123. Which of the following are not ethical principles of conservation biology?
a. The diversity of organisms is good
b. The ecological complexity is not good
c. The untimely extinction of populations and species is bad
d. The biological diversity has extrinsic value
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only b and c
(3) Only c and d
(4) Only b and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Conservation biology values ecological complexity and intrinsic biodiversity, making statements b and d incorrect.
124. Arrange the contribution of greenhouse gases to global warming in ascending order.
a. Carbon-di-oxide
b. Methane
c. Chlorofluorocarbons
d. Nitrous oxide
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, c, d, a
(3) c, d, b, a
(4) d, c, b, a
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Contribution order: Nitrous oxide < CFCs < Methane < Carbon dioxide.
125. Which of the following statements are considered as energetics points to understand in any ecosystem?
a. The gross and net production
b. The use of energy by producers
c. The total input of energy in the form of food and its efficiency of assimilation
d. The gain of energy through respiration
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only c and d
(3) Only a and c
(4) Only b and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Gross/net production and energy input/assimilation are key to ecosystem energetics.
126. Soil amendments are applied to soil for
a. Changing soil pH to suit crop needs
b. Increase plant nutrient availability
c. Improving physical condition of soil
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) All of these
(4) None of these
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Soil amendments serve all listed purposes—chemical, nutritional, and physical improvement.
127. Bulk density of soil ranges from
(1) 2.60 to 2.75 mg/m³
(2) 2.60 to 2.75 g/cm³
(3) 1.10 to 1.60 g/cm³
(4) 0.3 to 0.6 g/cm³
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Normal bulk density for mineral soils ranges between 1.10 and 1.60 g/cm³.
128. Which of the following micronutrient availability decreases in calcareous soils?
(1) Copper (Cu)
(2) Zinc (Zn)
(3) Molybdenum (Mo)
(4) Boron (B)
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Zinc availability is reduced in calcareous (alkaline) soils due to chemical fixation.
129. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Clostridium is anaerobic bacteria involved in decomposition of cellulose
Statement II: Polypeptides are broken down into amino acids by Bacillus and Pseudomonas bacteria
(1) Statement I is correct, I is incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Both statements are accurate regarding microbial roles in organic matter decomposition.
130. Water logging causes injury to the plant due to low ______ content and accumulation of toxic substances in the soil.
(1) Carbon
(2) Oxygen
(3) Water
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Oxygen deficiency in waterlogged soils impairs root respiration and leads to toxicity.
131. Which is the highest gravity dam in India?
(1) Bhakra Nangal
(2) Indira Gandhi
(3) Kosi
(4) Hirakud
Answer: (1)
Explanation: The Bhakra Nangal dam, located on the Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh, is the highest gravity dam in India, standing at 226 meters.
132. Consider the following statements.
Statement I: The most resistant crop for water-logging is rice.
Statement II: Pearlmillet is susceptible to waterlogging during seedling stage.
(1) Statement II is correct, I is incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct, II is incorrect
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Rice thrives in flooded conditions, making it highly resistant to water-logging. Pearlmillet, on the other hand, is vulnerable to waterlogging, especially in its early growth stages.
133. Which of the following principles are correct related to watershed management?
a. Land utilization according to its capacity based on land use classification
b. Identifying a suitable cropping pattern for the watershed area
c. Maximizing productivity per unit area, per unit time and per unit water
d. Safe utilization of marginal (small) and waste lands
(1) Only a, b and c
(2) Only b, c and d
(3) All a, b, c and d
(4) Only a, b and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation: All listed principles are essential for effective watershed management, ensuring sustainable land use, crop planning, productivity, and rehabilitation of degraded lands.
134. Any material applied to transpiring plant surface for reducing water losses from the plant is called as
(1) Growth retardants
(2) Vertical mulches
(3) Antitranspirants
(4) Growth regulators
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Antitranspirants are substances applied to plant surfaces to reduce water loss through transpiration, especially under drought stress.
135. Which of the following components act as a cementing agent for binding sand, silt and clay particles to form soil aggregates?
a. Colloidal clay
b. Iron hydroxide
c. Aluminium hydroxide
d. Organic matter
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only b and c
(3) Only c and d
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
Explanation: All listed components contribute to soil aggregation by acting as binding agents, improving soil structure and aeration.
136. Examples of in-situ (within habitat) conservation of biodiversity are
a. National parks
b. Gene bank
c. Seed bank
d. Wildlife sanctuaries
(1) a and b only
(2) b and c only
(3) c and d only
(4) a and d only
Answer: (4)
Explanation: In-situ conservation involves protecting species in their natural habitats, such as national parks and wildlife sanctuaries. Gene and seed banks are ex-situ methods.
137. ______ is the basic functional unit which includes both organisms and non-living environment, each influencing properties of the other and both are necessary for maintenance of life on the earth.
(1) Geology
(2) Ecosystem
(3) Hydrological cycle
(4) Socio–eco system
Answer: (2)
Explanation: An ecosystem comprises biotic and abiotic components interacting to sustain life and ecological balance.
138. ______ and the resulting shortage of resources most severely affect people in the developing countries.
(1) Food grains
(2) Population growth
(3) Water availability
(4) Electric power
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Rapid population growth strains resources like food, water, and energy, disproportionately affecting developing nations.
139. ______ is a building block of plant and animal tissues.
(1) Oxygen (O₂)
(2) Nitrogen (N₂)
(3) Hydrogen (H₂)
(4) Carbon
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Carbon forms the backbone of organic molecules, making it a fundamental component of all living tissues.
140. Which of the following are rain water harvesting methods?
a. By storing in tanks or reservoirs above or below ground
b. By constructing pits, lagoons, trench or check dams on small rivulets
c. By recharging the groundwater
(1) a and c only
(2) a and b only
(3) b and c only
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
Explanation: All listed methods are effective rainwater harvesting techniques used to conserve and utilize water sustainably.
141. Which of the following methods can control or reduce soil erosion by wind?
a. Protection of soil surface with vegetative cover or crop residue
b. Bringing soil aggregates to the surface soil
c. By making surface roughness for reduction of wind velocity
d. Establishment of wind breaks
(1) a and d only
(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) All a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation: All listed methods help reduce wind erosion by stabilizing the soil surface and reducing wind speed.
142. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a. Limestone/calcite develops into white coloured soils
b. In high rainfall areas iron and aluminium concentrate at the surface of soil
c. Shallow accumulation of lime in soil of low rainfall areas
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only b and c
(3) Only a and c
(4) All a, b and c
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Each statement reflects accurate soil formation processes under varying climatic conditions.
143. Which of the following fertilizer contains high percentage of nitrogen?
(1) Urea
(2) Anhydrous ammonia
(3) Ammonium phosphate
(4) Di-ammonium phosphate
Answer: (2)
Explanation: Anhydrous ammonia contains about 82% nitrogen, making it the most concentrated nitrogen fertilizer.
144. Nanofertilizers are more beneficial as compared to chemical fertilizers due to
a. Higher nutrient use efficiency
b. Less requirement as compared to chemical fertilizers
c. Nanofertilizers are ecofriendly
d. Improvement in the crop yield
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only a, b and c
(4) All a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Nanofertilizers offer multiple advantages including efficiency, reduced quantity, environmental safety, and better yields.
145. ______ approach is based on the perception that tomorrow’s ecology is more important than today’s economy.
(1) Organic farming system
(2) Precision farming
(3) Sustainable agriculture
(4) Irrigated farming
Answer: (1)
Explanation: Organic farming prioritizes ecological health and sustainability over short-term economic gains.
146. Sprinkler irrigation is used for which type of soils?
a. Shallow and sloping soils
b. Sandy soils
c. Low moisture retentive soils
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only b and c
(3) Only a and c
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Sprinkler systems are adaptable and effective across various challenging soil types.
147. Out of following crops which crop requires higher water during its life cycle?
(1) Wheat
(2) Chickpea
(3) Summer greengram
(4) Summer groundnut
Answer: (4)
Explanation: Summer groundnut has a longer growing period and higher water demand compared to the other crops listed.
148. When does agricultural drought occur?
a. Below average rainfall and low water content in natural/stored water sources
b. Low air humidity and hot dry winds
c. Soil moisture and rainfall are inadequate to meet the water requirement of crop for healthy growth to maturity
(1) a only
(2) b only
(3) c only
(4) a and b only
Answer: (3)
Explanation: Agricultural drought is defined by insufficient soil moisture and rainfall to support crop growth.
149. Eu = Y/WR is the formula to determine
(1) Water storage efficiency
(2) Crop water use efficiency
(3) Water application efficiency
(4) Field water use efficiency
Answer: (4)
Explanation: This formula calculates how efficiently water is used in the field to produce yield.
150. One hectare-centimetre (1 ha cm) water means
(1) 1,000 litres
(2) 1,00,000 litres
(3) 10,000 litres
(4) 10,00,000 litres
Answer: (2)
Explanation: 1 ha cm = 100 m² × 0.01 m = 1 m³ = 1,000 litres × 100 = 1,00,000 litres.