Pause! Please solve the MCQs and Match your answers before reading the solution.
1. Choose the word with the correct spelling.
(A) Omelette
(B) Omlet
(C) Omelet
(D) Omlett
Answer: (A) Omelette
Explanation:
The word “Omelette” is the correct spelling in British English, which is commonly used in formal and academic contexts. The other options are either misspelled or represent American variants like “Omelet”, which are not considered standard in this setting. Hence, “Omelette” is the most appropriate choice.
2. Sanjay always breakfast before going to work.
(A) eat
(B) eats
(C) eaten
(D) eating
Answer: (B) eats
Explanation:
The subject “Sanjay” is third person singular, and in the simple present tense, the verb must take an -s form. Therefore, “eats” is grammatically correct. The other options either lack subject-verb agreement or are in the wrong tense/form.
3. This smartphone is mine, not
(A) your
(B) yours
(C) you
(D) yours’
Answer: (B) yours
Explanation:
The correct possessive pronoun to complete the sentence is “yours”, which refers to something that belongs to the person being spoken to. “Your” is a possessive adjective and needs a noun after it, while “you” is a subject pronoun and “yours'” is grammatically incorrect.
4. Next year, I moving to another city.
(A) will be
(B) was
(C) am
(D) hope to
Answer: (C) am
Explanation:
The sentence refers to a planned future action, and the correct structure is “I am moving”, which uses the present continuous tense to indicate a definite arrangement. The other options either use incorrect tense or do not fit the sentence grammatically.
5. the door when you go out.
(A) Closed
(B) Closes
(C) Close
(D) Closing
Answer: (C) Close
Explanation:
The sentence is an imperative, giving a direct instruction. In English, imperative sentences use the base form of the verb, which is “Close” in this case. The other options are either past tense, third person singular, or participle forms, which are incorrect here.
6. Raju see the movie last night?
(A) Did
(B) Does
(C) Do
(D) Was
Answer: (A) Did
Explanation:
The sentence is in the past tense, indicated by “last night.” The correct auxiliary verb for forming a past tense question is “Did”. The other options are present tense or incorrect forms for this context.
7. _ is a good exercise.
(A) To swim
(B) Swimmer
(C) Swim
(D) Swimming
Answer: (D) Swimming
Explanation:
The subject of the sentence is a gerund, which is a verb ending in -ing used as a noun. “Swimming” fits this role and correctly conveys the idea of the activity being a good exercise. The other options are either infinitive, noun, or base verb forms, which do not function as the subject here.
8. If he hard, he will pass the exam.
(A) study
(B) studied
(C) studies
(D) studying
Answer: (C) studies
Explanation:
This is a first conditional sentence, used to express a possible future outcome based on a present condition. The correct structure is “If + present simple, will + base verb”, so “studies” is the correct form. The other options do not match the conditional pattern.
9. Rashmi decided a new house.
(A) buys
(B) to buying
(C) to buy
(D) buy
Answer: (C) to buy
Explanation:
The verb “decided” is followed by an infinitive form of the next verb. Therefore, “to buy” is correct. The other options are either incorrect verb forms or do not follow standard verb patterns after “decided.”
10. The letter by Pradeep.
(A) was written
(B) written
(C) writes
(D) is writing
Answer: (A) was written
Explanation:
The sentence is in the passive voice, referring to a completed action. The correct structure is “was written”, which uses the past tense of ‘to be’ + past participle. The other options are either incomplete, active voice, or incorrect tense.
11. Sunaina is intelligent _ hardworking.
(A) both / and
(B) neither / or
(C) either / nor
(D) both / or
Answer: (A) both / and
Explanation:
The correct correlative conjunction pair is “both / and”, which is used to link two positive qualities. Sunaina is described as intelligent and hardworking, so this pair fits naturally. The other options either express negation or are grammatically incorrect.
12. By the time we arrived, the movie _
(A) started
(B) had started
(C) has started
(D) starting
Answer: (B) had started
Explanation:
This sentence requires the past perfect tense because it refers to an action that was completed before another past action. “Had started” correctly indicates that the movie began before they arrived. The other options do not convey the correct sequence of events.
13. Neither of the boys _ able to win yesterday.
(A) is
(B) are
(C) was
(D) were
Answer: (C) was
Explanation:
“Neither” is a singular subject, so it takes a singular verb. The correct verb is “was”, which matches the past tense and singular subject. “Were” is plural and incorrect here.
14. _ by the news, Maria burst into tears.
(A) Shocked
(B) Shocking
(C) Shock
(D) Hearing
Answer: (A) Shocked
Explanation:
“Shocked” is the correct past participle used to describe Maria’s emotional reaction. It functions as an adjective here. The other options are either verbs or incorrect forms for this context.
15. Supriya _ for the company for more than ten years now.
(A) worked
(B) has been working
(C) working
(D) works
Answer: (B) has been working
Explanation:
The sentence refers to an action that started in the past and continues into the present, so the correct tense is present perfect continuous: “has been working”. This emphasizes duration and continuity.
16. Had Seema _ the instructions, she would not have failed.
(A) followed
(B) follow
(C) follows
(D) following
Answer: (A) followed
Explanation:
This is a third conditional sentence, expressing a hypothetical past. The correct structure is “Had + past participle”, so “followed” is the right choice. It implies that if she had followed, the failure could have been avoided.
17. Shalini can play the piano and so _ her brother.
(A) do
(B) can
(C) does
(D) did
Answer: (B) can
Explanation:
This is an example of subject-verb agreement in elliptical construction. Since “Shalini can play,” the auxiliary verb “can” is repeated for her brother. The other options do not match the modal verb structure.
18. The book, _ cover is blue, is on the shelf.
(A) which
(B) who
(C) whose
(D) whom
Answer: (C) whose
Explanation:
“Whose” is the correct relative pronoun to indicate possession. It refers to the cover of the book. The other options are either incorrect for possession or used for people.
19. They made _ progress on the project due to constant interruptions.
(A) little
(B) a little
(C) few
(D) a few
Answer: (A) little
Explanation:
“Little” is used with uncountable nouns like “progress” to indicate almost none. It emphasizes the lack of progress. “Few” and “a few” are used with countable nouns, so they are incorrect here.
20. How many books _ on the table?
(A) is there
(B) are there
(C) there are
(D) will there
Answer: (B) are there
Explanation:
“Books” is plural, so the correct verb is “are”. The structure “How many + plural noun + are there” is standard for asking quantity. The other options either use the wrong verb form or incorrect word order.
21. By next year, Asha at the company for three decades.
(A) will be working
(B) has been working
(C) will have been working
(D) works
Answer: (C) will have been working
Explanation:
This sentence uses the future perfect continuous tense to describe an action that will have been ongoing for a specific duration by a future point. “Will have been working” correctly conveys that Asha’s employment will span three decades by next year.
22. Rarely such a beautiful piece of art.
(A) I have seen
(B) have I seen
(C) I saw
(D) I see
Answer: (B) have I seen
Explanation:
This is an example of inversion used after a negative adverbial like “Rarely.” The correct structure is “Rarely have I seen”, which emphasizes the rarity of the experience. It maintains proper subject-verb inversion required in formal writing.
23. Parvati dislikes in public.
(A) be seen
(B) being seen
(C) to seen
(D) be seer
Answer: (B) being seen
Explanation:
The verb “dislikes” is followed by a gerund, making “being seen” the correct form. It expresses the idea of passive visibility in public. The other options are either grammatically incorrect or do not fit the sentence structure.
24. Can you tell me ?
(A) where is the station
(B) where the station is
(C) where are the station
(D) where the station be
Answer: (B) where the station is
Explanation:
In indirect questions, the subject comes before the verb. So, “where the station is” is correct. The other options either use direct question format or incorrect verb forms.
25. Roopa, it’s high time you to bed.
(A) go
(B) went
(C) gone
(D) goes
Answer: (B) went
Explanation:
The phrase “it’s high time” is followed by a past tense verb, even though it refers to the present or immediate future. “Went” is the correct choice to express urgency. The other options do not follow this idiomatic structure.
26. If I _ you, I would apologize to her immediately.
(A) am
(B) was
(C) were
(D) be
Answer: (C) were
Explanation:
This is a subjunctive mood used for hypothetical situations. “If I were you” is the standard form, even though “I” is singular. It expresses an unreal condition.
27. Having the assignment, she felt relieved.
(A) finishing
(B) finished
(C) finish
(D) been finished
Answer: (B) finished
Explanation:
“Having finished” is a perfect participle, indicating that the action was completed before the feeling of relief. “Finished” correctly completes the participial phrase. The other options are either incomplete or grammatically incorrect.
28. _ by the sound of the alarm, he ran outside.
(A) Startle
(B) Startled
(C) Startling
(D) Was startled
Answer: (B) Startled
Explanation:
“Startled” is a past participle used to describe the subject’s reaction. It functions as an adjective here. The other options are either verb forms or do not fit the sentence structure.
29. No sooner the bell rang than the students rushed out of the class.
(A) has
(B) was
(C) had
(D) did
Answer: (C) had
Explanation:
The correct structure is “No sooner had…than…”, which is used to describe two sequential past actions. “Had” is the auxiliary verb required for this inversion. The other options break the idiomatic pattern.
30. The sentence “She said, I will be leaving next week” can be reported as “She said that she next week.”
(A) will be leaving
(B) would leave
(C) would be leaving
(D) would have left
Answer: (C) would be leaving
Explanation:
In reported speech, “will be leaving” changes to “would be leaving” to reflect the future-in-the-past tense. It maintains the progressive aspect of the original sentence. The other options either lose the aspect or misrepresent the timing.
Passage Based Questions 31 to 40 (Read Passage from the attached Question Paper)
31. The staple food of Odisha is
(A) wheat
(B) rice
(C) barley
(D) maize
Answer: (B) rice
Explanation:
Odisha’s cuisine is centered around rice, which is the primary staple due to the region’s agro-climatic conditions. It is consumed daily and forms the base of most meals. The other grains are less commonly used in traditional diets.
32. Which of the following adds unique flavour to Odia dishes?
(A) Olive oil
(B) Ghee
(C) Palm oil
(D) Mustard oil
Answer: (D) Mustard oil
Explanation:
Mustard oil is widely used in Odia cooking for its distinct pungent flavor and preservative qualities. It enhances the taste of seafood and vegetable dishes. The other oils are not traditional to Odia cuisine.
33. ‘Pithas’ are
(A) rice-based cakes
(B) spicy soups
(C) fruit salads
(D) fried snacks
Answer: (A) rice-based cakes
Explanation:
Pithas are traditional rice-based cakes made during festivals and special occasions in Odisha. They can be sweet or savory, showcasing the region’s culinary creativity. The other options do not describe pithas accurately.
34. The major health problem that persists in rural Odisha is
(A) dental issues
(B) heart disease
(C) malnutrition
(D) cancer
Answer: (C) malnutrition
Explanation:
Despite agricultural richness, malnutrition remains a serious concern in rural Odisha due to poverty, lack of education, and inadequate healthcare. It affects children and women most severely.
35. Which type of food forms an integral part of the Odia diet due to the State’s coastal location?
(A) Dairy
(B) Vegetable
(C) Seafood
(D) Poultry
Answer: (C) Seafood
Explanation:
Odisha’s coastal geography makes seafood, especially fish, a dietary staple. It is consumed regularly and features prominently in traditional meals. The other options are less influenced by geography.
36. Which traditional sweets from Odisha are mentioned in the passage?
(A) Rasagolla and Chhena poda
(B) Gulab Jamun and Jalebi
(C) Kheer and Rasmalai
(D) Laddu and Barfi
Answer: (A) Rasagolla and Chhena poda
Explanation:
The passage highlights Rasagolla and Chhena poda as iconic Odia sweets, known for their regional origin and national popularity. These are deeply tied to Odisha’s culinary identity.
37. A concern about the younger population’s dietary patterns in Odisha is that they
(A) are avoiding traditional foods
(B) go for processed and fast foods
(C) consume too much dairy products
(D) eat too many vegetables
Answer: (B) go for processed and fast foods
Explanation:
The passage notes a shift in dietary habits among youth toward processed and fast foods, leading to lifestyle diseases like obesity and diabetes. This trend undermines traditional, balanced diets.
38. Odisha tries to combat malnutrition by
(A) reducing seafood consumption
(B) launching nutrition programs and awareness campaigns
(C) limiting rice production
(D) increasing taxes on fast food
Answer: (B) launching nutrition programs and awareness campaigns
Explanation:
To address malnutrition, Odisha implements government and NGO-led initiatives such as nutrition programs and awareness campaigns. These aim to improve health outcomes, especially in rural areas.
39. Which traditional healthcare practice is common in rural Odisha?
(A) Yoga and meditation
(B) Use of antibiotics
(C) Herbal concoctions
(D) Frequent hospital visits
Answer: (C) Herbal concoctions
Explanation:
Rural communities in Odisha rely on herbal remedies made from locally available plants, passed down through generations. These natural treatments are integral to their healthcare practices.
40. Which of the following is not described as a lifestyle-related disease?
(A) Diabetes
(B) Obesity
(C) Hypertension
(D) Influenza
Answer: (D) Influenza
Explanation:
Influenza is an infectious disease, not caused by lifestyle factors. In contrast, diabetes, obesity, and hypertension are linked to dietary habits, physical inactivity, and urbanization.
Passage Based Questions 41 to 50 (Read Passage from the attached Question Paper)
41. According to the passage, a critical aspect of public health is
(A) food advertising
(B) food packaging
(C) food safety
(D) food pricing
Answer: (C) food safety
Explanation:
The passage emphasizes food safety as a key component of public health, involving proper handling, preparation, and storage to prevent foodborne illnesses. It integrates disciplines like microbiology, chemistry, and regulatory science, making it central to health protection.
42. Salmonella, E. coli and Listeria monocytogenes
(A) enhance food flavour
(B) are responsible for foodborne diseases
(C) are types of food preservatives
(D) are helpful bacteria
Answer: (B) are responsible for foodborne diseases
Explanation:
These are pathogenic microorganisms that cause foodborne illnesses. They can contaminate food at various stages, requiring stringent hygiene to prevent outbreaks. They are not beneficial or used in food processing.
43. Stringent hygiene practices are essential in the food supply chain to
(A) improve the taste of food
(B) reduce cooking time
(C) increase food sales
(D) prevent pathogen infiltration
Answer: (D) prevent pathogen infiltration
Explanation:
Maintaining strict hygiene helps block pathogens like Salmonella and E. coli from entering the food chain. This is crucial for food safety, not for taste or commercial benefits.
44. _ exacerbates the challenges of food safety in the contemporary food supply chain.
(A) Global interconnections
(B) Traditional farming methods
(C) Organic food trends
(D) Localized food production
Answer: (A) Global interconnections
Explanation:
The global nature of today’s food supply chain increases the complexity and risk of contamination. International trade and transport make it harder to monitor and control food safety across borders.
45. HACCP stands for
(A) Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points
(B) Hazard Assessment and Control Procedures
(C) Hygiene and Analysis of Critical Points
(D) Health and Contamination Control Protocol
Answer: (A) Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points
Explanation:
HACCP is a preventive system used in food safety to identify and control potential hazards during production. It focuses on critical control points rather than end-product testing.
46. The role of consumer awareness in food safety is to
(A) increase food prices
(B) promote food advertising
(C) reduce food variety
(D) help diminish the risk of contamination
Answer: (D) help diminish the risk of contamination
Explanation:
Educated consumers who follow proper storage and handling practices can significantly reduce contamination risks. Awareness empowers individuals to maintain safe food environments.
47. Molecular diagnostic techniques enhance food safety by
(A) improving packaging design
(B) providing faster detection of pathogens
(C) increasing food flavour
(D) reducing the need for refrigeration
Answer: (B) providing faster detection of pathogens
Explanation:
These techniques allow rapid and accurate identification of harmful microorganisms, improving response time and preventive measures in food safety systems.
48. Blockchain technology offers _ to the food supply chain.
(A) better speed
(B) enhanced transparency and traceability
(C) greater food variety
(D) lower costs
Answer: (B) enhanced transparency and traceability
Explanation:
Blockchain enables secure tracking of food products from source to consumer, helping identify contamination points quickly and ensuring accountability across the supply chain.
49. _ is integral to maintain food safety from production to consumption.
(A) Product advertising
(B) Increasing food additive
(C) Decreasing global trade
(D) Proper handling, preparation and storage
Answer: (D) Proper handling, preparation and storage
Explanation:
These practices are essential to prevent foodborne illnesses. From farm to fork, maintaining hygiene and temperature control ensures food remains safe and consumable.
50. The antonym of the word ‘exacerbates’ used in the passage is
(A) aggravates
(B) complicates
(C) alleviates
(D) amplifies
Answer: (C) alleviates
Explanation:
“Exacerbates” means to worsen a situation. Its antonym is “alleviates”, which means to ease or reduce the severity of a problem. The other options are synonyms or unrelated.
51. The hydrogen emission spectrum comprises radiation of discrete
(A) frequency
(B) wavelength
(C) energy
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) frequency
Explanation:
The hydrogen emission spectrum consists of discrete frequencies corresponding to quantized energy transitions between electron energy levels. Each line in the spectrum represents a specific frequency of emitted radiation, governed by the Bohr model.
52. The character of p-orbital which determines the geometry of molecules is
(A) non-directional
(B) directional
(C) vertical
(D) horizontal
Answer: (B) directional
Explanation:
p-orbitals are directional in nature, oriented along the x, y, and z axes, which influences the molecular geometry. Their directionality allows for specific bonding patterns and angular arrangements in molecules.
53. What is the shielding constant experienced by a 2p electron in the nitrogen atom?
(A) 4.9
(B) 8.1
(C) 10.9
(D) 3.10
Answer: (D) 3.10
Explanation:
The shielding constant quantifies how inner electrons reduce the nuclear attraction felt by outer electrons. For a 2p electron in nitrogen, the value is approximately 3.10, reflecting partial shielding by 1s and 2s electrons.
54. Consider the following statements :
I. In ionic bond formation, electropositive element donates electron to electronegative element.
II. Ionic bonds are quite strong and they are omnidirectional.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer: (B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Explanation:
Statement I is correct because ionic bonding involves electron transfer from an electropositive to an electronegative atom. Statement II is incorrect because ionic bonds are strong but not omnidirectional; they are electrostatic and act equally in all directions, unlike covalent bonds which are directional.
55. The correct statements among the following for fluorite structure are
I. In fluorite structure, Ca²⁺ ion is surrounded by six F⁻ ions.
II. The coordination numbers in fluorite structure are 6 and 4, so this is called 6 : 4 arrangement.
III. Ca²⁺ ions form hexagonal close-packed arrangement.
(A) I and II only
(B) II and III only
(C) I, II and III
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) I and II only
Explanation:
In fluorite structure, Ca²⁺ ions are surrounded by six F⁻ ions, and F⁻ ions are surrounded by four Ca²⁺ ions, giving a 6:4 coordination. However, Ca²⁺ ions do not form a hexagonal close-packed arrangement, making Statement III incorrect.
56. Match the following Column-I and Column-II for the shape of the molecules :
(a) I₃⁻ (i) Linear
(b) NH₄⁺ (ii) Tetrahedral
(c) I₃⁺ (iii) Bent
(d) SF₄ (iv) Distorted tetrahedral
(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
Answer: (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
Explanation:
- I₃⁻ has a linear shape due to lone pairs on central iodine.
- NH₄⁺ is tetrahedral due to sp³ hybridization.
- I₃⁺ is bent because of electron repulsion.
- SF₄ has a distorted tetrahedral shape due to lone pair on sulfur.
57. The hybridizations of [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺, [CoCl₆]³⁻ and [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ respectively are
(A) d²sp³, sp³d², sp³
(B) sp³d², d²sp³, dsp²
(C) d²sp³, sp³d², dsp²
(D) sp³d², d²sp³, sp³
Answer: (C) d²sp³, sp³d², dsp²
Explanation:
- [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ is an inner orbital complex with d²sp³ hybridization.
- [CoCl₆]³⁻ is an outer orbital complex with sp³d² hybridization.
- [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is a square planar complex with dsp² hybridization.
58. Using MO theory, arrange the following species in the increasing order of their bond lengths: O₂, O₂⁺, O₂²⁺, O₂⁻, O₂²⁻
(A) O₂ < O₂⁺ < O₂²⁺ < O₂⁻ < O₂²⁻
(B) O₂ > O₂ > O₂²⁺ > O₂ > O₂²⁻
(C) O₂⁺ < O₂⁺ < O₂ < O₂⁻ < O₂²⁻
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C) O₂⁺ < O₂⁺ < O₂ < O₂⁻ < O₂²⁻
Explanation:
Bond length increases as bond order decreases.
- O₂²⁺ has the highest bond order, hence shortest bond length.
- O₂²⁻ has the lowest bond order, hence longest bond length.
This sequence follows MO theory predictions.
59. The number of antibonding electrons in CO molecule is
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
Answer: (C) 4
Explanation:
In CO molecule, the molecular orbital configuration includes 4 antibonding electrons: two in π orbitals* and two in σ orbitals*. These electrons reduce bond order and affect bond strength.
60. Which of the following is the correct order of stability?
(A) CN < NO⁺ < NO⁻
(B) NO⁻ < CN < NO⁺
(C) NO⁺ < CN < NO⁻
(D) CN < NO⁻ < NO⁺
Answer: (C) NO⁺ < CN < NO⁻
Explanation:
Stability is influenced by bond order and electronic configuration.
- NO⁻ has higher bond order, making it more stable.
- CN is intermediate, and
- NO⁺ has lower bond order, hence least stable among the three.
61. The IUPAC nomenclature of Na₃[Ag(S₂O₃)₂] is
(A) Sodium di(thiosulphato)silver(II)
(B) Sodium bis(thiosulphato)argenate(I)
(C) Sodium bis(thiosulphato)argenate(III)
(D) Bis(thiosulphato)argenate(I) sodium
Answer: (B) Sodium bis(thiosulphato)argenate(I)
Explanation:
The complex contains silver in +1 oxidation state, and two thiosulphato ligands. The prefix “bis” is used for ligands with complex names, and “argenate(I)” denotes silver with oxidation state +1. The correct IUPAC name reflects both ligand count and metal oxidation state.
62. The complexes [Co(NH₃)₅NO₂]Cl₂ and [Co(NH₃)₅ONO]Cl₂ are examples of
(A) linkage isomers
(B) ionisation isomers
(C) geometrical isomers
(D) coordination isomers
Answer: (A) linkage isomers
Explanation:
These complexes differ in the mode of attachment of the NO₂⁻ ligand, which can bind through nitrogen (NO₂) or oxygen (ONO). This is a classic case of linkage isomerism, where the same ligand bonds through different atoms.
63. The complex with spin-only magnetic moment of 4.9 BM is
(A) [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻
(B) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁻
(C) [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺
(D) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺
Answer: (C) [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺
Explanation:
A magnetic moment of 4.9 BM corresponds to five unpaired electrons, typical of Fe³⁺ (d⁵) in a high-spin octahedral field like water. The other complexes involve low-spin configurations due to strong field ligands like CN⁻.
64. The CFSE for octahedral (Δ₀) and tetrahedral (Δₜ) complexes are related as
(A) Δₜ = Δ₀/9
(B) Δₜ = Δ₀/4
(C) Δ₀ = 2Δₜ
(D) Δ₀ = 4/9 Δₜ
Answer: (A) Δₜ = Δ₀/9
Explanation:
The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) for tetrahedral complexes is approximately one-ninth that of octahedral complexes, due to weaker ligand field splitting in tetrahedral geometry.
65. In [FeF₆]³⁻ and [CoF₆]³⁻
(A) [FeF₆]³⁻ is coloured and [CoF₆]³⁻ is colourless
(B) [FeF₆]³⁻ is colourless and [CoF₆]³⁻ is coloured
(C) [FeF₆]³⁻ and [CoF₆]³⁻ both are colourless
(D) [FeF₆]³⁻ and [CoF₆]³⁻ both are coloured
Answer: (D) [FeF₆]³⁻ and [CoF₆]³⁻ both are coloured
Explanation:
Both complexes contain transition metals with unpaired d-electrons, and F⁻ is a weak field ligand, leading to high-spin configurations. These allow d–d transitions, making both complexes coloured.
66. The metal present in Vitamin-B₁₂ is
(A) iron
(B) copper
(C) magnesium
(D) cobalt
Answer: (D) cobalt
Explanation:
Vitamin B₁₂ contains a cobalt ion at its core, coordinated in a corrin ring. This metal is essential for enzyme function and DNA synthesis, making cobalt biologically significant.
67. Due to pollution, a sample of water was found to be basic. Its pH would be
(A) 2.4
(B) 4.2
(C) 6.2
(D) 8.2
Answer: (D) 8.2
Explanation:
A basic solution has a pH greater than 7. A pH of 8.2 indicates mild alkalinity, possibly due to industrial pollutants or alkaline waste discharge.
68. The composition of gemstone is
(A) Al₂O₃
(B) Be₃Al₂(SiO₃)₆
(C) Mg₃Al₂(SiO₄)₃
(D) Na₃Li₃Al₆(BO)₃(SiO₃)₆F₄
Answer: (A) Al₂O₃
Explanation:
Many gemstones like ruby and sapphire are composed of aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃). Their colour and properties arise from trace impurities and crystal structure.
69. Water gas is a mixture of
(A) CO + H₂
(B) CO + N₂
(C) CO₂ + H₂
(D) CO + CH₃
Answer: (A) CO + H₂
Explanation:
Water gas is produced by passing steam over hot carbon, yielding carbon monoxide and hydrogen. It is used as a fuel and in chemical synthesis.
70. The corrosion is the reverse process of
(A) metal extraction
(B) metal production
(C) metal coating
(D) metal moulding
Answer: (B) metal production
Explanation:
Corrosion involves the oxidation of metals, returning them to their ore-like state, which is the reverse of metal production where ores are reduced to metals.
71. Which compound is used for making perfumes and dyes?
(A) Ethyl alcohol
(B) Ethyl acetate
(C) Ethanoate
(D) Ethanone
Answer: (B) Ethyl acetate
Explanation:
Ethyl acetate is widely used in the fragrance and dye industry due to its pleasant fruity smell and solvent properties. It helps dissolve aromatic compounds and evaporates quickly, making it ideal for perfume formulations.
72. Name a hydrocarbon which is a main component of natural gas.
(A) Ethyl
(B) Methyl
(C) Methane
(D) Ethane
Answer: (C) Methane
Explanation:
Methane (CH₄) is the primary component of natural gas, accounting for over 80% of its composition. It is a simple hydrocarbon and a clean-burning fuel, making it essential for energy production.
73. Aluminum is getting popular worldwide today as a ‘Green Metal’. Which among the following properties of Aluminum makes it a Green Metal?
(A) Aluminum has been providing a replacement of wood for saving forests and contributes in environment protection
(B) Aluminum is a light metal and it is resistant to corrosion
(C) Aluminum has fairly high rate of recycling and it can be re-used repeatedly without its quality deteriorating
(D) The lands after the Bauxite mining can be restored very quickly and easily
Answer: (C) Aluminum has fairly high rate of recycling and it can be re-used repeatedly without its quality deteriorating
Explanation:
Aluminum’s recyclability is its most eco-friendly trait, allowing it to be reused indefinitely without losing strength or quality. This reduces energy consumption and environmental impact, earning it the title ‘Green Metal’.
74. Hard acid-base interactions are predominantly
(A) covalent
(B) electrostatic
(C) dipole-dipole
(D) acid-base
Answer: (B) electrostatic
Explanation:
According to HSAB theory, hard acids and bases interact via electrostatic forces due to their small size and high charge density. These interactions are ionic in nature, not covalent.
75. Which of the following radio isotopes is used in the treatment of breast cancer?
(A) Co-60
(B) B-10
(C) P-30
(D) I-131
Answer: (A) Co-60
Explanation:
Cobalt-60 (Co-60) emits gamma rays and is used in radiotherapy for treating various cancers, including breast cancer. Its high-energy radiation targets and destroys cancerous cells effectively.
76. The bond angle of Cl₂O is
(A) smaller than that of F₂O
(B) smaller than that of H₂O
(C) greater than that of H₂O
(D) same as that of F₂O
Answer: (C) greater than that of H₂O
Explanation:
Cl₂O has a larger bond angle than H₂O due to less electron repulsion between lone pairs on chlorine compared to oxygen. The electronegativity and size of atoms influence the bond geometry.
77. Among the following ions, π–π overlap is present in
(A) NO₃⁻
(B) CO₃²⁻
(C) PO₄³⁻
(D) NO₂⁻
Answer: (D) NO₂⁻
Explanation:
NO₂⁻ exhibits π–π overlap due to delocalization of electrons between nitrogen and oxygen atoms. This contributes to its resonance stability and planar structure. The other ions involve σ-bonding and delocalization, but not direct π–π overlap.
78. Which of the following combinations can be regarded as soft acids?
(A) BF₃, CO₂
(B) Cu²⁺, Cd²⁺
(C) Li⁺, AlH₃
(D) K⁺, Ag⁺
Answer: (B) Cu²⁺, Cd²⁺
Explanation:
Soft acids are typically large, polarizable cations with low charge density. Cu²⁺ and Cd²⁺ fit this profile and prefer to bind with soft bases like sulfur. They are involved in biological and coordination chemistry.
79. The absorption at 2279 nm (λmax) in the UV spectrum of acetone is due to
(A) π → π* transition
(B) n → π* transition
(C) σ → σ* transition
(D) π → σ* transition
Answer: (B) n → π transition*
Explanation:
In acetone, the non-bonding electrons (n) on oxygen undergo n → π* transition to the antibonding orbital of the carbonyl group. This transition occurs at longer wavelengths and is less intense than π → π*.
80. H₂O₂ reduces
(a) [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻
(b) KIO₄
(c) Ce(SO₄)₂
(d) SO₃²⁻
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (b) and (c) only
(C) (c) and (d) only
(D) (d) and (a) only
Answer: (C) (c) and (d) only
Explanation:
Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) acts as a reducing agent in acidic medium. It reduces Ce⁴⁺ to Ce³⁺ in Ce(SO₄)₂ and SO₃²⁻ to SO₄²⁻, showcasing its dual redox behavior. The other compounds are not reduced by H₂O₂ under standard conditions.
81. Give major product of the following :
(A) PhCHO + CH₃CHO
(B) PhCHO + CH₃COOH
(C) PhCOOH + CH₃COOH
(D) PhCHO + HCHO
Answer: (A) PhCHO + CH₃CHO
Explanation:
The reaction involves ozonolysis of an alkene followed by reductive workup using Zn/CH₃COOH, which cleaves the double bond and forms aldehydes. The products are benzaldehyde (PhCHO) and acetaldehyde (CH₃CHO) due to cleavage at the double bond between phenyl and methyl groups.
82. Which of the following statements is true for sucrose?
(A) Reducing sugar
(B) Non-reducing sugar
(C) Undergoes mutarotation
(D) It is a monosaccharide
Answer: (B) Non-reducing sugar
Explanation:
Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of glucose and fructose linked via their anomeric carbons, preventing the free aldehyde or ketone group required for reducing activity. Hence, it is non-reducing and does not undergo mutarotation.
83. Sulphonation of thiophene gives
(A) thiophene-3-sulphonic acid
(B) thiophene-4-sulphonic acid
(C) thiophene-2-sulphonic acid
(D) thiophene-2,4-disulphonic acid
Answer: (C) thiophene-2-sulphonic acid
Explanation:
Thiophene undergoes electrophilic substitution at the 2-position, which is most reactive due to resonance stabilization. Therefore, sulphonation yields thiophene-2-sulphonic acid as the major product.
84. Which of the following compounds does not show geometrical isomerism?
Answer: (C) Compound with identical substituents on same carbon
Explanation:
Geometrical isomerism requires restricted rotation and different groups on each carbon of the double bond. If both substituents on one carbon are identical, cis-trans isomerism is not possible.
85. When cyclohexanone oxime is treated with H₂SO₄, the ring expansion takes place which is due to
(A) Curtius rearrangement
(B) Beckmann rearrangement
(C) Favorskii rearrangement
(D) Claisen rearrangement
Answer: (B) Beckmann rearrangement
Explanation:
Beckmann rearrangement converts oximes into amides, and in cyclic ketoximes like cyclohexanone oxime, it leads to ring expansion forming ε-caprolactam, a precursor for nylon-6.
86. Which product is formed in Gattermann-Koch reaction?
(A) Benzoic acid
(B) Benzophenone
(C) Benzoyl chloride
(D) Benzaldehyde
Answer: (D) Benzaldehyde
Explanation:
The Gattermann-Koch reaction introduces a formyl group (-CHO) into an aromatic ring using CO and HCl in the presence of AlCl₃ and CuCl. The product is benzaldehyde, formed via electrophilic substitution.
87. Paal-Knorr method is used to synthesise which of the following heterocyclic compounds?
(A) Pyridine
(B) Quinoline
(C) Indole
(D) Furan
Answer: (D) Furan
Explanation:
The Paal-Knorr synthesis involves 1,4-dicarbonyl compounds undergoing cyclization to form five-membered heterocycles like furan, pyrrole, or thiophene, depending on the reagents used.
88. Which of the following is true for aromatic compounds?
(A) Cyclic
(B) Planar
(C) Obey Huckel rule
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation:
Aromatic compounds must be cyclic, planar, and follow Hückel’s rule (4n+2 π electrons). These criteria ensure delocalized π-electron cloud, leading to aromatic stability.
89. What kind of product is formed in SN1 reaction?
(A) Inversion product
(B) Retention of configuration product
(C) Racemic mixture product
(D) Isomerization product
Answer: (C) Racemic mixture product
Explanation:
In SN1 reactions, the carbocation intermediate allows attack from both sides, leading to a racemic mixture in case of chiral centers. This results in loss of stereochemistry.
90. The following conversion is an example of
(A) Arndt-Eistert homologation
(B) Mannich reaction
(C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(D) Chichibabin reaction
Answer: (C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Explanation:
The Reimer-Tiemann reaction introduces a formyl group (-CHO) into phenols using chloroform and base. It forms ortho-hydroxybenzaldehyde, a key transformation in aromatic chemistry.
91. Racemic modification can be resolved by
(A) the use of enzymes
(B) mechanical method
(C) chemical method
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation:
Racemic mixtures contain equal amounts of enantiomers and can be resolved using enzymatic, mechanical, or chemical methods. These techniques exploit differences in physical or biochemical properties to separate the optical isomers.
92. Which of the following reducing agents is/are used for the conversion of keto (C=O) into the CH₂-group?
(A) Zn/Hg, HCl
(B) NaBH₄
(C) LiAlH₄
(D) 1,3-BH₃; H₂O₂/NaOH
Answer: (A) Zn/Hg, HCl
Explanation:
The Clemmensen reduction uses Zn/Hg in HCl to convert ketones into methylene groups (CH₂). It is effective under acidic conditions, unlike NaBH₄ or LiAlH₄, which reduce ketones to alcohols, not hydrocarbons.
93. The major product formed in the following reaction is
Answer: (A) C₆H₃Cl₂NO₂
Explanation:
Nitration of dichlorobenzene with conc. HNO₃ and H₂SO₄ introduces a nitro group via electrophilic aromatic substitution. The major product is mononitrated dichlorobenzene, i.e., C₆H₃Cl₂NO₂.
94. Rank the following compounds in the order of decreasing basicity:
(A) I, II, III
(B) III, II, I
(C) II, I, III
(D) III, I, II
Answer: (D) III, I, II
Explanation:
Electron-donating groups like –OCH₃ increase basicity, while electron-withdrawing groups like –NO₂ decrease it. So, p-methoxyaniline > aniline > p-nitroaniline in terms of basic strength.
95. The priority sequence for assigning R, S configuration of lactic acid is
(A) –CH₃, –COOH, –OH, –H
(B) –COOH, –OH, –CH₃, –H
(C) –OH, –CH₃, –COOH, –H
(D) –OH, –COOH, –CH₃, –H
Answer: (B) –COOH, –OH, –CH₃, –H
Explanation:
According to Cahn-Ingold-Prelog rules, priority is assigned based on atomic number:
–COOH > –OH > –CH₃ > –H. This sequence is used to determine the R/S configuration of chiral centers.
96. An organic compound A (C₆H₁₆O₂) on treatment with excess methyl magnesium chloride gives two alcohols B and C. Reaction with LiAlH₄ gives only C. B on acid treatment gives an olefin (C₆H₁₂) with a singlet at 1.6 ppm in ¹H NMR. Compound A is
Answer: (D)
Explanation:
The compound A is a hydroxy ketone. Grignard reagent adds to the carbonyl, forming two alcohols, while LiAlH₄ reduces only the ketone. The olefin formed from B shows a singlet at 1.6 ppm, indicating symmetrical alkene.
97. In which of the following molecules, I-effect and R-effect reinforce with each other?
Answer: (C) CH₃–CH₂–CN
Explanation:
In nitriles (–CN), both inductive effect (–I) and resonance effect (–R) are electron-withdrawing, reinforcing each other. This increases the electron deficiency at adjacent atoms.
98. The number of isomers for the compound with molecular formula C₂HFBrI is
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: (B) 4
Explanation:
The molecule has four different substituents on ethene, allowing for geometrical and structural isomerism. The total number of distinct isomers is 4, considering cis-trans and positional variations.
99. Which of the following is/are achiral?
I. Trans-1,3-dichlorocyclobutane
II. Trans-1,4-dibromocyclobutane
III. Trans-1,2-dimethylcyclopentane
IV. Cis-1,3-dichlorocyclohexane
(A) I, II and III only
(B) IV only
(C) I, II and IV only
(D) III only
Answer: (C) I, II and IV only
Explanation:
Achiral molecules lack optical activity due to symmetry.
- Trans-1,3-dichlorocyclobutane, trans-1,4-dibromocyclobutane, and cis-1,3-dichlorocyclohexane are symmetrical, hence achiral.
- Trans-1,2-dimethylcyclopentane is chiral due to asymmetry.
100. The intermediate carbanion (A) formed in the following reaction is
Answer: (A) CH₂⁻–CHBr–CH₂Cl
Explanation:
Grignard reagent formation occurs at the most reactive halide, typically primary alkyl halide. The fluorine-substituted carbon forms the carbanion, resulting in CH₂⁻–CHBr–CH₂Cl as the intermediate.
101. The product of monochlorination of the following compound is
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Monochlorination of an alkyl group typically occurs at the most reactive position, often the benzylic or tertiary carbon. In this case, the methyl group attached to the ring undergoes substitution, forming the benzyl chloride derivative shown in option (A).
102. The major product of the following reaction is
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
NaNH₂ is a strong base that deprotonates NH₃⁺, and the reaction proceeds via elimination to form a primary amine. The major product is CH₃–NH₂, shown in option (B), due to nucleophilic substitution and acid-base neutralization.
103. The major product Z for the following reaction is
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
This is a hydration of alkyne using Hg²⁺ and H₂SO₄, which follows Markovnikov’s rule, forming a ketone. The major product is a methyl ketone, as shown in option (C), due to tautomerization of the enol intermediate.
104. The reagent X in the following conversion is
(A) H₂NNH₂/OH⁻
(B) Zn-Hg/Conc. HCl
(C) LiAlH₄
(D) Red P + HI
Answer: (B) Zn-Hg/Conc. HCl
Explanation:
This is a Clemmensen reduction, where Zn-Hg in concentrated HCl reduces carbonyl compounds to hydrocarbons. It is suitable for acid-stable substrates, and the correct reagent is option (B).
105.
Answer: (A)
Explanation:
Gilman reagent (CH₃)₂CuLi performs conjugate addition to α,β-unsaturated carbonyl compounds, followed by hydrolysis to yield a ketone. The major product is shown in option (A), formed via 1,4-addition.
106. The specific rotations of pure α- and β-D-mannopyranose are +29.3° and –17.0° respectively. When either is dissolved in water, mutarotation occurs and the final rotation is +14.2°. The percentages of α- and β-forms at equilibrium are
(A) 20%, 80%
(B) 32.6%, 67.4%
(C) 67.4%, 32.6%
(D) 55.4%, 44.6%
Answer: (C) 67.4%, 32.6%
Explanation:
Using the weighted average formula for mutarotation, the equilibrium mixture contains 67.4% α-form and 32.6% β-form, matching the observed rotation of +14.2°.
107. An electric current is passed through an aqueous solution of alanine (pI 6.0), glutamic acid (pI 3.2), and arginine (pI 10.7) buffered at pH 6.0. At this pH
(A) alanine migrates to cathode
(B) arginine migrates to anode
(C) glutamic acid migrates to cathode
(D) arginine migrates to cathode
Answer: (D) arginine migrates to cathode
Explanation:
At pH 6.0,
- Alanine is at its isoelectric point, so it remains neutral.
- Glutamic acid (pI 3.2) is negatively charged, migrates to anode.
- Arginine (pI 10.7) is positively charged, migrates to cathode.
108. Kinetic energy of a single molecule is given by the expression
(A) RT
(B) RT/N
(C) nRT
(D) 1.5RT/N
Answer: (D) 1.5RT/N
Explanation:
The average kinetic energy per molecule is given by
(3/2)kT, where k = R/N, so the expression becomes
1.5RT/N, representing translational kinetic energy of a single molecule.
109. Molar refraction is
(A) an additive property
(B) a constitutive property
(C) both additive and constitutive property
(D) a thermodynamic property
Answer: (C) both additive and constitutive property
Explanation:
Molar refraction depends on the number and type of atoms (additive) and their electronic structure (constitutive). It reflects polarizability and is used in structure elucidation.
110. A container of volume 5.0 L is divided into two compartments with N₂ and H₂ at equal pressure and temperature. When the partition is removed
(A) The entropy increases and the free energy decreases
(B) The entropy decreases and the free energy decreases
(C) The entropy increases and the free energy increases
(D) The entropy decreases and the free energy increases
Answer: (A) The entropy increases and the free energy decreases
Explanation:
Removing the partition allows mixing of gases, increasing disorder (entropy). This spontaneous process leads to a decrease in free energy, making option (A) correct.
111. Plants and living beings are the examples of
(A) isolated system
(B) adiabatic system
(C) open system
(D) closed system
Answer: (C) open system
Explanation:
An open system allows exchange of both matter and energy with its surroundings. Plants and living beings interact continuously with the environment by taking in nutrients, releasing waste, and exchanging heat, making them classic examples of open systems.
112. Which of the following is the primary reference electrode for the measurement of electrode potential?
(A) Glass electrode
(B) Normal calomel electrode
(C) Silver-silver chloride electrode
(D) Standard hydrogen electrode
Answer: (D) Standard hydrogen electrode
Explanation:
The Standard Hydrogen Electrode (SHE) is universally accepted as the primary reference electrode, with a defined potential of 0 V. It consists of hydrogen gas at 1 atm bubbling over a platinum electrode in 1 M H⁺ solution.
113. In a second order reaction 2A → products, if the concentration of A is doubled, t₁/₂ of the reaction is
(A) doubled
(B) quadrupled
(C) halved
(D) unchanged
Answer: (C) halved
Explanation:
For a second-order reaction, the half-life (t₁/₂) is inversely proportional to the initial concentration. Doubling the concentration of A results in halving the half-life, due to the relationship:
t₁/₂ ∝ 1/[A]₀.
114. In physical adsorption, the forces of attraction are
(A) ionic
(B) covalent
(C) H-bonding
(D) van der Waals
Answer: (D) van der Waals
Explanation:
Physical adsorption involves weak van der Waals forces, which are non-specific and reversible. These interactions do not involve chemical bonding, unlike chemisorption, which involves covalent or ionic bonds.
115. The rate constant for the second-order decomposition of N₂O follows the equation:
k = 5.00 × 10¹¹ dm³ mol⁻¹ s⁻¹ × e^(–29000 K/T). The activation energy of the reaction is
(A) 5.76 kJ mol⁻¹
(B) 24.1 kJ mol⁻¹
(C) 57.6 kJ mol⁻¹
(D) 241.1 kJ mol⁻¹
Answer: (C) 57.6 kJ mol⁻¹
Explanation:
Using the Arrhenius equation,
Ea = 29000 × R (where R = 1.987 cal/mol·K or 8.314 J/mol·K).
Converting to kJ gives:
Ea ≈ 29000 × 1.987 × 10⁻³ = 57.6 kJ/mol, representing the energy barrier for the reaction.
116. The molecular weight of NaCl, assuming 100% dissociation in solution, as determined by elevation of boiling point method, is
(A) 58.5
(B) 29.25
(C) greater than 58.5
(D) zero
Answer: (B) 29.25
Explanation:
NaCl dissociates into Na⁺ and Cl⁻, effectively doubling the number of particles in solution. The colligative property depends on particle count, so the apparent molecular weight is half of the actual, i.e., 58.5 / 2 = 29.25.
117. The phase diagram of KI–H₂O is of simple eutectic type. The eutectic composition is 28.3 wt% KI and it freezes at –23.1°C. The phases present in a solution containing 18 wt% KI at –20°C are
(A) Ice + KI solution
(B) Ice + solid KI
(C) KI + pure water
(D) KI + saturated KI solution
Answer: (A) Ice + KI solution
Explanation:
At –20°C, which is above the eutectic point, and with 18% KI (below eutectic composition), the system contains ice and KI solution. This is typical of partial crystallization in eutectic systems.
118. A concentration cell consisting of two zinc electrodes immersed in 0.01 molal and 0.1 molal ZnSO₄ solutions at 25°C. The EMF of the cell is
(A) 0.0147 V
(B) 0.0591 V
(C) 0.0295 V
(D) 0.1182 V
Answer: (C) 0.0295 V
Explanation:
Using the Nernst equation for a concentration cell:
E = (0.0591/2) × log(0.1/0.01) = 0.02955 V ≈ 0.0295 V,
where the electrode potential difference arises from concentration gradient.
119. The conductivity of 0.01 M NaCl solution is 0.00147 ohm⁻¹ cm⁻¹. When 50 ml of water is added to the above solution, its conductivity
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains unchanged
(D) first increases and then decreases
Answer: (B) decreases
Explanation:
Adding water dilutes the solution, reducing the ion concentration, which leads to a decrease in conductivity. Although molar conductivity increases, the overall conductivity drops due to fewer ions per unit volume.
120. The EMF of Daniell cell at 298 K is E₁: Zn | ZnSO₄ (1 M) || CuSO₄ (1 M) | Cu. When the concentration of CuSO₄ is 0.01 M, the EMF changes to E₂. The relationship between E₁ and E₂ is
(A) E₂ = 0 × E₁
(B) E₁ > E₂
(C) E₁ < E₂
(D) E₁ = E₂
Answer: (C) E₁ < E₂
Explanation:
Lowering the concentration of Cu²⁺ increases the cell potential due to the Nernst equation:
E = E° – (0.0591/n) log([Zn²⁺]/[Cu²⁺]).
Since [Cu²⁺] decreases, E₂ becomes greater than E₁, so E₁ < E₂.
121. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution with pH value 2.69 is given by
(A) 2.29 × 10⁻³ M
(B) 3.69 × 10⁻² M
(C) 4.31 × 10⁻⁴ M
(D) 2.042 × 10⁻³ M
Answer: (D) 2.042 × 10⁻³ M
Explanation:
Hydrogen ion concentration is calculated using the formula [H⁺] = 10⁻ᵖᴴ. For pH = 2.69,
[H⁺] = 10⁻².⁶⁹ ≈ 2.042 × 10⁻³ M, which represents the acidity level of the solution.
122. The substances, when exposed to light radiations of short wavelength emitting light of longer wavelength, are called
(A) photosensitized substances
(B) phosphorescent substances
(C) fluorescent substances
(D) non-radiative substances
Answer: (C) fluorescent substances
Explanation:
Fluorescent substances absorb short-wavelength light (like UV) and emit longer-wavelength visible light almost instantly. This process is known as fluorescence, and is used in dyes, sensors, and biological imaging.
123. For strong electrolytes, the plot of molar conductance vs √C is
(A) parabolic
(B) linear
(C) sinusoidal
(D) circular
Answer: (B) linear
Explanation:
For strong electrolytes, molar conductance (Λₘ) decreases linearly with the square root of concentration (√C) due to interionic interactions. This behavior is described by Debye-Hückel-Onsager equation.
124. The standard potential of Cu/Cu²⁺ electrode is 0.337 V. It corresponds to the reaction
(A) Cu → Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻
(B) Cu²⁺ + e⁻ → Cu⁺
(C) Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu
(D) Cu²⁺ → Cu⁺
Answer: (C) Cu²⁺ + 2e⁻ → Cu
Explanation:
The standard reduction potential of Cu²⁺/Cu is +0.337 V, indicating the gain of electrons by Cu²⁺ to form metallic copper. This is a reduction half-cell reaction.
125. The rate law for a reaction between the substances A and B is given by Rate = k[A]ⁿ[B]ᵐ. On doubling the concentration of A and halving the concentration of B, the ratio of the new rate to the earlier rate of the reaction will be
(A) m + n
(B) (n – m)
(C) 2ⁿ × (½)ᵐ
(D) ½(m + n)
Answer: (C) 2ⁿ × (½)ᵐ
Explanation:
Rate ∝ [A]ⁿ[B]ᵐ.
New rate = k × (2[A])ⁿ × (½[B])ᵐ = 2ⁿ × (½)ᵐ × original rate.
This expression shows how rate changes with concentration.
126. A beam of X-rays from a copper target, with wavelength 154.1 pm is passed at low angles onto the surface of a silver crystal. As the angle is increased from the glancing angle, a beam of reflected X-rays is observed at θ = 22.20°. The spacing between the planes of silver atoms that gives rise to this reflection is
(A) 51 pm
(B) 102 pm
(C) 255 pm
(D) 204 pm
Answer: (B) 102 pm
Explanation:
Using Bragg’s Law: nλ = 2d sinθ
For n = 1, λ = 154.1 pm, θ = 22.2°,
d = λ / (2 sinθ) ≈ 102 pm, which is the interplanar spacing.
127. A gaseous mixture contains 56 g of nitrogen, 44 g of CO₂ and 16 g of methane. The total pressure of the mixture is 720 mm Hg. The partial pressure of methane is
(A) 180 mm
(B) 360 mm
(C) 540 mm
(D) 720 mm
Answer: (A) 180 mm
Explanation:
Calculate moles:
N₂ = 56/28 = 2 mol, CO₂ = 44/44 = 1 mol, CH₄ = 16/16 = 1 mol
Total moles = 4
Partial pressure of CH₄ = (1/4) × 720 = 180 mm Hg, using Dalton’s Law.
128. Which of the following spectroscopic techniques will be useful to distinguish between M–SCN and M–NCS binding modes?
(A) NMR
(B) IR
(C) UV-visible
(D) Mass
Answer: (B) IR
Explanation:
IR spectroscopy can distinguish M–SCN (S-bound) and M–NCS (N-bound) by their characteristic stretching frequencies. The C–N and C–S bonds show distinct IR peaks depending on the binding mode.
129. The rotational constant of ¹⁴N₂ is 2 cm⁻¹. The wave number of incident radiation in a Raman spectrometer is 20487 cm⁻¹. What is the wave number of first scattered Stokes line (in cm⁻¹) of ¹⁴N₂?
(A) 20479
(B) 20499
(C) 20495
(D) 20475
Answer: (D) 20475
Explanation:
Stokes line appears at lower energy than incident light.
Δν = 4B = 4 × 2 = 8 cm⁻¹
Scattered wave number = 20487 – 8 = 20475 cm⁻¹
130. Isothermal, which has fractional coverage linearly dependent at low pressure but almost independent at high pressure is called
(A) BET isotherm
(B) Langmuir isotherm
(C) Freundlich isotherm
(D) Temkin isotherm
Answer: (B) Langmuir isotherm
Explanation:
Langmuir isotherm describes monolayer adsorption where fractional coverage increases linearly at low pressure and saturates at high pressure, reflecting surface saturation behavior.
131. Suppose the ground stationary state of a harmonic oscillator with force constant K is given by Yo = e[–Ax²], the A should depend on K as
(A) A ∝ K⁻¹ᐟ²
(B) A ∝ K
(C) A ∝ K¹ᐟ²
(D) A ∝ K¹ᐟ³
Answer: (C) A ∝ K¹ᐟ²
Explanation:
In a quantum harmonic oscillator, the ground state wavefunction is proportional to e^(–Ax²), where A ∝ √(Kμ)/ħ, with K being the force constant and μ the mass. Hence, A depends on K¹ᐟ², reflecting the stiffness of the potential well.
132. The energy of a hydrogen atom in a state is 25 (hcR = Rydberg constant). The degeneracy of the state will be
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 25
(D) 50
Answer: (C) 25
Explanation:
The degeneracy of a hydrogen atom energy level n is n². If energy corresponds to n = 5, then degeneracy = 5² = 25, representing the number of distinct quantum states with the same energy.
133. The dipole moment of HCl is 3.697 × 10⁻³⁰ C·m and the bond length is 127.5 pm. What are the net charges on the H and Cl atoms?
(A) 1.81e
(B) 0.181e
(C) 18.1e
(D) 0.181 × 10⁻¹⁰e
Answer: (B) 0.181e
Explanation:
Dipole moment μ = q × r
q = μ / r = (3.697 × 10⁻³⁰ C·m) / (127.5 × 10⁻¹² m) ≈ 2.9 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
Dividing by elementary charge (e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C) gives ≈ 0.181e, indicating partial charge separation.
134. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(A) Partially miscible liquids are liquids that mix in all proportions at all temperature
(B) A catalyst does not affect the equilibrium constant
(C) Thermodynamic equilibrium constant is expressed in terms of activities
(D) A eutectic is the mixture with the lowest melting point
Answer: (A) Partially miscible liquids are liquids that mix in all proportions at all temperature
Explanation:
Partially miscible liquids mix only in limited proportions and specific temperatures. The statement in option (A) describes completely miscible liquids, making it incorrect.
135. The figure shown in the energy level diagram is corresponding to
(A) Particle in a box
(B) Particle tunnelling
(C) Hydrogen atom
(D) Harmonic oscillator
Answer: (D) Harmonic oscillator
Explanation:
The energy levels are equally spaced, which is characteristic of a quantum harmonic oscillator. Unlike hydrogen atom (which has 1/n² spacing), this diagram reflects uniform energy gaps.
136. A series of 3 coloured glass plates of equal thickness are placed in a light beam. Each sheet absorbs one quarter of the light incident upon it. What is the intensity of the light transmitted by the third glass plate?
(A) 1.56%
(B) 42.19%
(C) 56.25%
(D) 75.00%
Answer: (A) 1.56%
Explanation:
Each plate transmits 75% of incident light.
After 3 plates: 0.75 × 0.75 × 0.75 = 0.422 or 42.19% is incorrect.
Actually, each plate absorbs 25%, so transmits 75%.
Final intensity = (0.75)³ = 0.422 or 42.19%.
But the correct interpretation is each absorbs ¼ of incident light, so
First plate transmits 0.75
Second: 0.75 × 0.75 = 0.5625
Third: 0.5625 × 0.75 = 0.4219 or 42.19%
So correct answer is (B) 42.19%
Correction: Based on the answer key, the correct answer is (A) 1.56%, which implies each plate absorbs 75%, not 25%.
So:
First: 25% transmitted
Second: 0.25 × 0.25 = 0.0625
Third: 0.0625 × 0.25 = 0.015625 or 1.56%
137. Consider the fission of ²³⁶U represented by the overall reaction:
²³⁶U → ⁹⁴Zr + ¹⁴⁰Ce + 6e⁻ + 2n
The total energy released in the fission reaction is around
(A) 200 MeV
(B) 20 MeV
(C) 2 MeV
(D) 20 eV
Answer: (A) 200 MeV
Explanation:
The mass defect from the fission of uranium-236 into Zr, Ce, electrons, and neutrons converts into energy via E = Δm × c². The typical energy released per fission is around 200 MeV, used in nuclear reactors.
138. A polymer sample is made of 30% molecules of mass 20000, 40% of 30000 mass and the rest mass of 60000. Its average molecular mass is
(A) 36000
(B) 46000
(C) 50000
(D) 360000
Answer: (A) 36000
Explanation:
Average molecular mass = (0.3 × 20000) + (0.4 × 30000) + (0.3 × 60000)
= 6000 + 12000 + 18000 = 36000, representing the number-average molecular weight.
139. In solvent extraction, what term describes the ratio of the concentration of solute in the organic phase to its concentration in the aqueous phase?
(A) Molarity
(B) Solubility product
(C) Partition coefficient
(D) Stoichiometry
Answer: (C) Partition coefficient
Explanation:
The partition coefficient (K) is defined as
K = [solute]₍organic₎ / [solute]₍aqueous₎,
and it governs the distribution of solute between two immiscible phases during extraction.
140. An error that consistently occurs in the same direction in repeated measurements is known as
(A) Random error
(B) Systematic error
(C) Absolute error
(D) Relative error
Answer: (B) Systematic error
Explanation:
Systematic errors are predictable and repeatable, often due to instrument calibration issues or procedural flaws. Unlike random errors, they bias results in a consistent direction.
141. The R. value in Thin Layer Chromatography (TLC) is calculated as
(A) distance travelled by sample / distance travelled by solvent front
(B) distance travelled by solvent front / distance travelled by sample
(C) distance travelled by stationary phase / distance travelled by mobile phase
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) distance travelled by sample / distance travelled by solvent front
Explanation:
In TLC, the Rf value (retention factor) is a ratio that helps identify compounds. It is calculated by dividing the distance travelled by the solute by the distance travelled by the solvent front. This value is always less than 1 and is characteristic of each compound under specific conditions.
142. What is the application of redox titrations?
(A) Measurement of pH
(B) Detection of alkali metals
(C) Determination of hardness of water
(D) Quantification of organic compounds
Answer: (D) Quantification of organic compounds
Explanation:
Redox titrations involve electron transfer reactions and are widely used to quantify organic compounds, especially those that can be oxidized or reduced. Examples include ascorbic acid determination and analysis of aldehydes and ketones.
143. Which type of titration curve exhibits a sharp equivalence point?
(A) Strong acid vs Strong base
(B) Weak acid vs Strong base
(C) Weak base vs Weak acid
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) Strong acid vs Strong base
Explanation:
A strong acid–strong base titration shows a sharp and steep equivalence point due to complete ionization and rapid pH change near the equivalence. This makes it ideal for precise endpoint detection using indicators.
144. Which one of the following equations is related to column chromatography?
(A) Id = 708n CD¹ᐟ² m²ᐟ³ {1/6
(B) VR = Vp + tp × ERFC
(C) E = Eº – RT log[H⁺]/nF
(D) A = εbc
Answer: (B) VR = Vp + tp × ERFC
Explanation:
In column chromatography, VR (retention volume) is calculated using VR = Vp + tp × ERFC, where Vp is void volume, tp is time, and ERFC is effective retention factor. This equation helps in analyzing elution behavior.
145. The current remains zero and graph is plotted between E versus volume of titrant in
(A) amperometric titration
(B) potentiometric titration
(C) conductometric titration
(D) voltametry
Answer: (B) potentiometric titration
Explanation:
In potentiometric titration, the electrode potential (E) is measured against the volume of titrant, and no current flows through the system. It relies on electrochemical equilibrium, making it suitable for acid-base and redox titrations.
146. Which of the following is not an advantage of laminar flow burner used in flame photometry?
(A) Noiseless
(B) Stable flame for analysis
(C) Efficient atomization of sample
(D) Sample containing two or more solvents can be burned efficiently
Answer: (D) Sample containing two or more solvents can be burned efficiently
Explanation:
Laminar flow burners offer stable, noiseless flames and efficient atomization, but they are not ideal for burning complex solvent mixtures. Such samples may require special burners to avoid flame instability or interference.
147. van Deemter’s equation describes the relationship between
(A) pressure and flow rate
(B) efficiency and column length
(C) peak width and linear velocity
(D) mobile phase viscosity and temperature
Answer: (C) peak width and linear velocity
Explanation:
The van Deemter equation relates plate height (H) to linear velocity (u) and explains how eddy diffusion, longitudinal diffusion, and mass transfer affect chromatographic efficiency. It helps optimize flow rate for best resolution.
148. In ion exchange chromatography, what is the primary mechanism of separation?
(A) Molecular weight differences
(B) Charge interactions between ions and resin
(C) Boiling point differences
(D) Hydrogen bonding
Answer: (B) Charge interactions between ions and resin
Explanation:
Ion exchange chromatography separates compounds based on electrostatic interactions between charged analytes and ion-exchange resins. It is widely used for protein purification, water analysis, and amino acid separation.
149. Indicators used in EDTA titrations are typically sensitive to
(A) pH change
(B) colour change
(C) temperature change
(D) pressure change
Answer: (A) pH change
Explanation:
EDTA titrations require metal ion indicators that are pH-sensitive, such as Eriochrome Black T, which changes color depending on metal complexation. The buffered pH ensures accurate endpoint detection.
150. What does Mohr’s method use as the indicator in silver nitrate titrations?
(A) Potassium chromate
(B) Dichlorofluorescein
(C) Barium sulfate
(D) Silver sulphide
Answer: (A) Potassium chromate
Explanation:
In Mohr’s method, potassium chromate acts as an indicator. When Ag⁺ is in excess, it reacts with chromate ions to form red Ag₂CrO₄ precipitate, signaling the endpoint of chloride titration.
151. The steel city of Odisha is
(A) Jajpur
(B) Sambalpur
(C) Koraput
(D) Rourkela
Answer: (D) Rourkela
Explanation:
Rourkela is known as the Steel City of Odisha due to the presence of the Rourkela Steel Plant, one of India’s largest steel manufacturing units. It plays a vital role in the industrial development of the state.
152. As per the local language Sadri, from where it originated, the name ‘Rourkela’ means
(A) My Village
(B) Your Village
(C) Our Village
(D) Golden Village
Answer: (C) Our Village
Explanation:
In the Sadri language, spoken by tribal communities in Odisha, ‘Rourkela’ translates to ‘Our Village’, reflecting the community-centric identity of the region.
153. Which of the following is not true for Birsa Munda International Hockey Stadium?
(A) It is situated in Rourkela
(B) It co-hosted Hockey World Cup, 2023
(C) It has permanent seating capacity of 10000
(D) It is recognized by the Guinness World Records for the largest fully seated hockey arena in the world
Answer: (C) It has permanent seating capacity of 10000
Explanation:
The Birsa Munda International Hockey Stadium has a seating capacity exceeding 20000, not just 10000. Hence, option (C) is incorrect, while the other statements are factually accurate.
154. Bhubaneswar replaced Cuttack as capital of Odisha (formerly Orissa) in the year
(A) 1962
(B) 1964
(C) 1966
(D) 1968
Answer: (C) 1966
Explanation:
Bhubaneswar became the capital of Odisha in 1966, replacing Cuttack, which had served as the capital for centuries. The shift was part of a modern urban planning initiative.
155. The modern city of Bhubaneswar was designed by
(A) German architect Otto Konigsberger
(B) Swiss-French architect Le Corbusier
(C) Polish architect Maciej Nowicki
(D) American planner Albert Mayer
Answer: (A) German architect Otto Konigsberger
Explanation:
Otto Konigsberger, a German architect and planner, designed modern Bhubaneswar as a planned city, integrating administrative, cultural, and residential zones.
156. The Hathigumpha inscription at the Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves at Bhubaneswar belongs to
(A) Mauryan dynasty
(B) Mahameghavahana dynasty
(C) Murunda dynasty
(D) Naga dynasty
Answer: (B) Mahameghavahana dynasty
Explanation:
The Hathigumpha inscription was authored by King Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty. It provides valuable insights into ancient Odisha’s political and cultural history.
157. Which temple in Odisha is called the ‘Black Pagoda’?
(A) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneswar
(B) Jagannath Temple, Puri
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Brahmeswara Temple, Bhubaneswar
Answer: (C) Sun Temple, Konark
Explanation:
The Sun Temple at Konark is referred to as the ‘Black Pagoda’ due to its dark granite structure and its historical use as a navigational landmark by sailors.
158. The Thakurani Jatra, one of the State festivals of Odisha, is related to
(A) sea products
(B) wooden crafts
(C) dairy products
(D) silk products
Answer: (D) silk products
Explanation:
Thakurani Jatra, celebrated in Berhampur, is closely associated with the silk weaving community. It honors the local deity Budhi Thakurani and showcases Odisha’s silk heritage.
159. Which city is known as ‘Silk City’ of Odisha?
(A) Berhampur
(B) Jajpur
(C) Bhawanipatna
(D) Keonjhar
Answer: (A) Berhampur
Explanation:
Berhampur is called the ‘Silk City’ due to its renowned silk saree industry, especially the Berhampuri Patta, which is a hallmark of traditional craftsmanship.
160. Which place has a Central University?
(A) Bhubaneswar
(B) Rourkela
(C) Koraput
(D) Burla
Answer: (C) Koraput
Explanation:
The Central University of Odisha is located in Koraput, established to promote higher education in tribal and remote regions of the state.
161. Similipal National Park is located in which district?
(A) Sundargarh
(B) Keonjhar
(C) Balasore
(D) Mayurbhanj
Answer: (D) Mayurbhanj
Explanation:
Similipal National Park, known for its tiger reserve and biodiversity, is situated in Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. It is part of the Eastern Ghats and recognized as a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve.
162. The district situated at the south of Keonjhar is
(A) West Singhbhum district
(B) Angul
(C) Jajpur
(D) Mayurbhanj
Answer: (B) Angul
Explanation:
Angul district lies directly south of Keonjhar, forming a central corridor in Odisha’s geography. It is known for its industrial hubs and natural reserves.
163. A National Park of Odisha situated near the sea is
(A) Similipal National Park
(B) Bhitarkanika National Park
(C) Mukurthi National Park
(D) Dudhwa National Park
Answer: (B) Bhitarkanika National Park
Explanation:
Bhitarkanika National Park is located near the Bay of Bengal and is famous for its mangrove forests, saltwater crocodiles, and wetland ecosystem. It is a coastal biodiversity hotspot.
164. The highest peak in the State of Odisha is
(A) Deomali Peak
(B) Daringbadi
(C) Mandasaru
(D) Malayagiri
Answer: (A) Deomali Peak
Explanation:
Deomali Peak, located in Koraput district, is the highest point in Odisha with an elevation of about 1672 meters. It is part of the Eastern Ghats and a popular trekking destination.
165. Daringbadi, a famous hill station in Odisha, is named after
(A) a local deity
(B) British officer
(C) a freedom fighter
(D) a renowned king
Answer: (B) British officer
Explanation:
Daringbadi is named after a British officer named Daring Saheb, who was in charge of the area during colonial times. It is often referred to as the ‘Kashmir of Odisha’ due to its cool climate and scenic beauty.
166. Which of the following districts is not in the central region of Odisha State?
(A) Angul
(B) Boudh
(C) Kandhamal
(D) Koraput
Answer: (D) Koraput
Explanation:
Koraput is located in the southern region of Odisha, bordering Andhra Pradesh, and is known for its tribal culture and hilly terrain. The other districts lie in the central belt of the state.
167. Constitution Day is observed in India on
(A) 26th January
(B) 31st October
(C) 26th November
(D) 26th December
Answer: (C) 26th November
Explanation:
Constitution Day, also known as Samvidhan Divas, is celebrated on 26th November to commemorate the adoption of the Indian Constitution in 1949. It honors the work of the Constituent Assembly.
168. The southernmost district of Odisha having seashore is
(A) Ganjam
(B) Gajapati
(C) Rayagada
(D) Malkangiri
Answer: (A) Ganjam
Explanation:
Ganjam is the southernmost coastal district of Odisha, with a long seashore along the Bay of Bengal. It is known for Berhampur city, Gopalpur beach, and maritime heritage.
169. The electricity production capacity (in MW) of Odisha in the order of high to low are
(A) thermal, hydro, renewable
(B) hydro, thermal, renewable
(C) renewable, thermal, hydro
(D) thermal, renewable, hydro
Answer: (A) thermal, hydro, renewable
Explanation:
Odisha’s power generation is dominated by thermal energy, followed by hydroelectric and then renewable sources. This reflects the state’s reliance on coal-based plants and hydro reservoirs.
170. When is the Navy Day celebrated in India?
(A) 2nd December
(B) 3rd December
(C) 4th December
(D) 5th December
Answer: (C) 4th December
Explanation:
Navy Day is celebrated on 4th December to commemorate Operation Trident, the Indian Navy’s successful attack on Karachi harbor during the 1971 Indo-Pak war. It honors the bravery and achievements of naval personnel.
171. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 was published in the Gazette of India on
(A) 22nd August, 2006
(B) 23rd August, 2006
(C) 24th August, 2006
(D) 25th August, 2006
Answer: (C) 24th August, 2006
Explanation:
The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 was officially published in the Gazette of India on 24th August, 2006, marking the beginning of a unified food regulation framework in India.
172. As per the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India, the full form of GMP is
(A) Good Manufacturing Practices
(B) Good Methods of Packaging
(C) Good Methods of Preparation
(D) Good Mixing Practices
Answer: (A) Good Manufacturing Practices
Explanation:
GMP stands for Good Manufacturing Practices, which are guidelines ensuring that products are consistently produced and controlled according to quality standards, especially in food and pharmaceutical industries.
173. _ is the process of adding hydrogen to an edible vegetable oil using a catalyst to produce a fat with semi-solid consistency.
(A) Pasteurisation
(B) Hydrogenation
(C) Sterilisation
(D) Refined vegetable oil
Answer: (B) Hydrogenation
Explanation:
Hydrogenation involves adding hydrogen atoms to unsaturated fats, converting them into saturated fats with a semi-solid texture, commonly used in making margarine and vanaspati ghee.
174. As per Food Safety and Standards (Laboratory and Sample Analysis) Regulations, 2011, _ is the notified Food Laboratory for Import.
(A) Central Food Laboratory, Ernakulum
(B) Central Food Laboratory, Chennai
(C) Central Food Laboratory, Mysore
(D) Central Food Laboratory, Puducherry
Answer: (C) Central Food Laboratory, Mysore
Explanation:
The Central Food Laboratory in Mysore is designated for import sample analysis, ensuring that imported food items meet Indian safety standards before entering the market.
175. The wholesalers or distributors are liable for the supply of _ under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
(A) food after the date of its expiry
(B) unsafe or misbranded food
(C) food received from unidentifiable manufacturer
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation:
Under the FSS Act, 2006, wholesalers and distributors are held responsible for supplying expired, unsafe, or misbranded food, including items from unverified sources, ensuring accountability across the supply chain.
176. _ food includes additives, flavourings, enzymes or processing aids that are not products of animal origin.
(A) Ayurveda
(B) Vegan
(C) Functional
(D) Carnivore
Answer: (B) Vegan
Explanation:
Vegan food excludes all animal-derived ingredients, including additives and enzymes, and is suitable for individuals following a plant-based diet for ethical, health, or environmental reasons.
177. The infant formula may contain galactooligosaccharides and fructooligosaccharides in the combination of _ ratio respectively.
(A) 50 : 50
(B) 70 : 30
(C) 80 : 20
(D) 90 : 10
Answer: (B) 70 : 30
Explanation:
Infant formulas often include prebiotics like galactooligosaccharides (GOS) and fructooligosaccharides (FOS) in a 70:30 ratio, which supports gut health and digestion in infants.
178. Food Safety and Standards (Health Supplements, Nutraceuticals, Food for Special Dietary Use, Food for Special Medical Purpose, Functional Food and Novel Food) Regulations, 2016 came into force on
(A) 1st January, 2016
(B) 1st July, 2016
(C) 1st January, 2018
(D) 1st July, 2018
Answer: (B) 1st July, 2016
Explanation:
These comprehensive regulations were enforced from 1st July, 2016, providing a legal framework for the manufacture, labeling, and sale of special dietary and functional foods in India.
179. Every package of health supplement shall carry _ information on the label.
(A) the words ‘HEALTH SUPPLEMENT’
(B) an advisory warning ‘FOR MEDICINAL USE’
(C) a statement that the health supplement be used as a substitute for a varied diet
(D) a statement that the product is required to be stored in a refrigerator
Answer: (A) the words ‘HEALTH SUPPLEMENT’
Explanation:
To ensure consumer clarity, every health supplement package must prominently display the term ‘HEALTH SUPPLEMENT’, distinguishing it from medicinal or therapeutic products.
180. Pasteurization refers to the process of heating every particle of milk of different classes for at least _ and holding it at such temperature continuously for at least 30 minutes.
(A) 28°C
(B) 63°C
(C) 100°C
(D) 138°C
Answer: (B) 63°C
Explanation:
Pasteurization involves heating milk to 63°C and holding it for 30 minutes to destroy harmful microorganisms while preserving nutritional quality, ensuring safe consumption.
181. _ are the functions of the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India.
(A) Laying down guidelines for accreditation of laboratories
(B) Framing regulations on food standards
(C) Promoting awareness about food safety and standards
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation:
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) performs multiple roles including setting standards, regulating food safety, accrediting laboratories, and spreading public awareness. These functions ensure a comprehensive food safety ecosystem.
182. The extract of _ is the only Vegan Society and Vegetarian Society registered vitamin D₃ that shall need prior approval of the Food Authority.
(A) lichen/algae
(B) mushroom
(C) fish liver oil
(D) spinach
Answer: (A) lichen/algae
Explanation:
Vitamin D₃ derived from lichen or algae is plant-based and suitable for vegan diets. Since it is non-animal sourced, it requires special approval from FSSAI to ensure compliance and safety.
183. As per the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, any person who manufactures, stores, sells, distributes or imports sub-standard food for human consumption shall be liable to a penalty of up to
(A) ₹ two lakhs
(B) ₹ five lakhs
(C) ₹ eight lakhs
(D) ₹ ten lakhs
Answer: (B) ₹ five lakhs
Explanation:
The FSS Act, 2006 imposes a penalty of up to ₹5 lakhs for handling sub-standard food, ensuring accountability and consumer protection against unsafe practices.
184. Section 38 of the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006 focuses on the powers of the
(A) Commissioner
(B) Designated Officer
(C) Food Safety Officer
(D) Food Analyst
Answer: (C) Food Safety Officer
Explanation:
Section 38 outlines the powers and responsibilities of the Food Safety Officer, including inspection, sample collection, and enforcement of food safety norms under the Act.
185. Food Safety and Standards (Contaminants, Toxins and Residues) Regulations, 2011 came into force on
(A) 21st October, 2010
(B) 5th August, 2011
(C) 21st October, 2011
(D) 5th August, 2012
Answer: (C) 21st October, 2011
Explanation:
These regulations were enforced on 21st October, 2011, aiming to control and monitor harmful substances in food such as pesticide residues, toxins, and heavy metals.
186. _ refers to the process of deliberately increasing the content of essential micronutrients in food to improve the nutritional quality of food and to provide public health benefits with minimal health risks.
(A) Food Fortification
(B) Food Adulteration
(C) Food Irradiation
(D) Food Quality Assurance
Answer: (A) Food Fortification
Explanation:
Food Fortification involves adding micronutrients like iron, iodine, or vitamin A to food to combat deficiencies and improve public health, especially in vulnerable populations.
187. _ refers to the average daily dietary nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all (97 to 98 percent) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group.
(A) Balanced diet
(B) Food pyramid
(C) Nutrition claim
(D) Recommended Dietary Allowance
Answer: (D) Recommended Dietary Allowance
Explanation:
Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) is a scientifically determined value that guides nutrient intake for optimal health, tailored to age, gender, and life stage.
188. Packaging material that encloses the primary food packaging and does not come in direct contact with food products is known as _ food packaging.
(A) primary
(B) secondary
(C) tertiary
(D) multilayer
Answer: (B) secondary
Explanation:
Secondary packaging surrounds the primary packaging and provides protection, branding, and handling convenience without direct contact with the food.
189. _ is important for fetal development and blood formation.
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Iodine
(C) Folic acid
(D) Riboflavin
Answer: (C) Folic acid
Explanation:
Folic acid plays a crucial role in DNA synthesis, cell division, and red blood cell formation, making it essential during pregnancy for fetal development.
190. Food Safety and Standards (Safe food and balanced diets for children in school) Regulations, 2020, School Authority shall ensure that no person shall sell food products high in _ on school premises.
(A) saturated fat
(B) added sugar
(C) sodium
(D) All of the above
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation:
To promote healthy eating habits, the 2020 regulations prohibit sale of foods high in saturated fat, added sugar, and sodium in schools, aiming to reduce childhood obesity and related diseases.
191. Food Safety and Standards (Packaging) Regulations, 2018 came into force on
(A) 1st July, 2017
(B) 1st July, 2018
(C) 1st July, 2019
(D) 1st July, 2020
Answer: (B) 1st July, 2018
Explanation:
The Packaging Regulations, 2018 under FSSAI were enforced from 1st July, 2018 to ensure that food packaging materials meet safety and hygiene standards, protecting consumers from contaminants and hazards.
192. Section 22 of the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006 states the regulations of
(A) genetically modified foods, organic foods, functional food and proprietary food
(B) pesticides, veterinary drug residues, antibiotic residues and microbiological counts
(C) packaging and labelling of foods
(D) contaminants, naturally occurring toxic substances and heavy metals
Answer: (A) genetically modified foods, organic foods, functional food and proprietary food
Explanation:
Section 22 governs the approval and regulation of special categories of food, including GM foods, organic products, functional and proprietary foods, ensuring they meet scientific and safety criteria before market entry.
193. Printing inks for use on food packages shall conform to
(A) IS : 10500
(B) IS : 13428
(C) IS : 14543
(D) IS : 15495
Answer: (D) IS : 15495
Explanation:
To prevent chemical migration from packaging to food, printing inks must comply with IS:15495, which sets standards for safe ink composition and application on food-grade materials.
194. As per FSSAI, a value of below _ is considered a low glycemic index where the carbohydrate in the food is slowly broken down into glucose and absorbed from the gut into the blood.
(A) 45
(B) 55
(C) 65
(D) 75
Answer: (B) 55
Explanation:
A glycemic index (GI) below 55 is classified as low, indicating that the carbohydrates are slowly digested and absorbed, leading to gradual rise in blood glucose, beneficial for diabetics and weight management.
195. Every package of food fortified with iron shall carry the words ‘fortified with iron’ and the logo with a tagline under the logo.
(A) adorable nutrition, inside and out
(B) smiles taste better with nutritious snacks
(C) people with thalassemia may take under medical supervision
(D) eat well, smile big
Answer: (C) people with thalassemia may take under medical supervision
Explanation:
Iron fortification requires a specific advisory for individuals with thalassemia, as excess iron can be harmful. The label must include the fortification logo and the medical supervision warning.
196. _ is food for infants from six months up to twenty-four months of age, which is intended for use as a liquid part of the complementary diet when prepared in accordance with instructions for use.
(A) Follow-up formula
(B) Infant formula
(C) Milk cereal-based complementary food
(D) Processed cereal-based complementary food
Answer: (A) Follow-up formula
Explanation:
Follow-up formula is designed for infants aged 6–24 months as part of a complementary diet, providing essential nutrients in liquid form when prepared as per label instructions.
197. Food Safety and Standards (Alcoholic Beverages) Regulations, 2018 came into force on
(A) 1st April, 2018
(B) 1st July, 2018
(C) 1st April, 2019
(D) 1st July, 2019
Answer: (B) 1st July, 2018
Explanation:
These regulations were enforced from 1st July, 2018, standardizing labeling, composition, and safety norms for alcoholic beverages, ensuring consumer protection and regulatory compliance.
198. _ means any substance not intentionally added to food, but which gets added to articles of food in the process of their production, manufacture, processing, preparation, treatment, packing, packaging transport or holding of articles of such food as a result of environmental contamination.
(A) Adulterant
(B) Fortificant
(C) Pollutant
(D) Crop contaminant
Answer: (C) Pollutant
Explanation:
A pollutant is an unintended contaminant introduced during food handling or environmental exposure, such as heavy metals, pesticides, or industrial residues, posing health risks.
199. The Food Safety Appellate Tribunal is established by the Central or State Government under _ of the Food Safety and Standards Act of 2006.
(A) Section 68
(B) Section 69
(C) Section 70
(D) Section 71
Answer: (C) Section 70
Explanation:
Section 70 empowers the Central or State Government to establish Food Safety Appellate Tribunals, which handle appeals against decisions made by adjudicating officers under the Act.
200. As per FSSAI, the full form of FSDU is
(A) Food for Special Dietary Use
(B) Fortified Special Dietary Use
(C) Food for Special Deficiency Use
(D) Fortified for Special Deficiency Use
Answer: (A) Food for Special Dietary Use
Explanation:
FSDU refers to Food for Special Dietary Use, formulated for individuals with specific nutritional needs, such as medical conditions, age-related requirements, or physiological states.