1. The main focus of the article is that a healthy lifestyle :
(A) Can help all cancer patients
(B) Can alter our genes for the better
(C) Has no effect on our genes
(D) Can cure cancer
Answer: (B) Can alter our genes for the better
Explanation:
The passage emphasizes that comprehensive lifestyle changes—including diet, exercise, and stress management—can lead to dramatic changes at the genetic level. Researchers found that hundreds of genes were either activated or suppressed after three months of healthy living. This shows that a healthy lifestyle can positively influence gene activity, especially those related to disease prevention.
2. Apart from eating healthy food and exercising, the men in the study :
(A) Were taught techniques to handle tension
(B) Were put under various stresses
(C) Were given animal protein to lose weight
(D) Developed healthy physique
Answer: (A) Were taught techniques to handle tension
Explanation:
The passage describes that the men practiced daily stress management methods such as meditation, in addition to diet and exercise. This indicates that they were trained in techniques to manage tension, which contributed to their overall health improvements and genetic changes.
3. In total, genes changed as a result of the healthy lifestyle.
(A) 48
(B) 453
(C) 30
(D) 500
Answer: (D) 500
Explanation:
The passage mentions that after three months of lifestyle changes, there were changes in activity in about five hundred genes. This includes forty-eight genes that were turned on and four hundred fifty-three genes that were turned off, indicating a total of 500 genes affected by the healthy lifestyle.
4. This was what happened to some of the disease-causing genes :
(A) Their activity increased
(B) Their activity ceased
(C) There was little change in their activity
(D) These genes helped in removing cancer
Answer: (B) Their activity ceased
Explanation:
The study found that disease-promoting genes, including those involved in prostate and breast cancer, were shut down after the lifestyle changes. This means their activity ceased, contributing to improved health outcomes.
5. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the article ?
(A) Patients undergoing standard treatment
(B) Patients losing weight
(C) Patients experiencing lower blood pressure
(D) Patients were helpless with regard to their genetic activities
Answer: (A) Patients undergoing standard treatment
Explanation:
The passage specifically states that the men decided against conventional medical treatment such as surgery, radiation, or hormone therapy. Therefore, standard treatment was not undertaken, making option (A) the correct choice as it is not mentioned.
6. According to the passage, what is now believed about the stone tools used by the Neanderthals compared to those of the Homo Sapiens ?
(A) They were at least as long lasting
(B) They could have been used as better spear tips
(C) They were longer and narrower
(D) They indicate a superior mental capacity
Answer: (A) They were at least as long lasting
Explanation:
The passage explains that the earlier assumption about Homo Sapiens’ narrow blades being superior has been disproved, and in terms of durability, Neanderthal tools were at least as long lasting. This challenges the idea of intellectual inferiority based on tool design.
7. The passage states that the Neanderthals relied on the dense forests :
(A) To provide cover when hunting
(B) For firewood and shelter
(C) To provide wood for spears
(D) To hide from their attackers
Answer: (A) To provide cover when hunting
Explanation:
The Neanderthals used a technique of hiding and lying in wait for animals, which was effective in dense forests. As forests receded, this method became less viable, indicating their reliance on forest cover for hunting.
8. The hyoid bone is evidence of :
(A) A capacity for language
(B) An ability to adapt to a cold climate
(C) Brain capacity
(D) The inferior anatomy of the Neanderthal
Answer: (A) A capacity for language
Explanation:
Research on the Neanderthal hyoid bone, located in the throat, has disproved the assumption that Neanderthals had inferior vocal abilities. This bone provides evidence of their capacity for language, suggesting they were not as primitive in communication as once believed.
9. The Neanderthals were wiped out :
(A) Before the Homo Sapiens arrived
(B) In battles with their opponents
(C) After the climate changed
(D) Due to their primitive social organization
Answer: (C) After the climate changed
Explanation:
The passage notes that the Neanderthal hunting technique became ineffective as the dense forests receded, implying that climate change played a role in their extinction. Their adaptation failed in the changing environment, leading to their gradual eradication.
10. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT an older assumption that has now been cast in doubt ?
(A) Neanderthals were considerably less intelligent than Homo Sapiens
(B) The Neanderthals evolved first in Africa
(C) Flakes were inferior to blades in all respects
(D) Neanderthals had very poor communication skills
Answer: (B) The Neanderthals evolved first in Africa
Explanation:
The passage challenges assumptions about tool efficiency, intelligence, and communication skills, but it does not mention anything about the origin of Neanderthals in Africa. Therefore, option (B) is not discussed and is the correct answer.
11. You are a member of the executive council of a community and find that most of the inmates are unreasonable and do things that do not take cognizance of the perspectives of others. in spite of your well-intentioned effort to enrich their perspective taking, there is very little improvement. What would be the most appropriate course of action for you ?
(A) Wait until the term of the executive council is over and not be a member of the next executive council
(B) Keep yourself engaged in community welfare activities independent of whether it is appreciated by others
(C) Assertively place your views and make the inmates agree with your viewpoint
(D) Lower down your involvement in community affairs
Answer: (B) Keep yourself engaged in community welfare activities independent of whether it is appreciated by others
Explanation:
The most constructive approach is to continue contributing positively, regardless of others’ reactions. This reflects resilience and commitment to community welfare, rather than withdrawing or forcing views on others.
12. You find that a friend whom you believed for so long is a self-centered person and has no respect for others’ perspectives. The best course of action for you to take is :
(A) Dissociate yourself from your friend
(B) Send him for a special training on perspective taking
(C) Tell him to correct his/her perspectives in order for you to continue the relationship
(D) Continue your relationship while trying to be empathetic to his/ her feelings
Answer: (D) Continue your relationship while trying to be empathetic to his/ her feelings
Explanation:
Maintaining the relationship while showing empathy allows for personal growth and mutual understanding. It avoids abrupt decisions and encourages constructive engagement.
13. A person is sharing his life problems and experiences with you and expects that you actively listen to him. In order for you to give him the feeling “that you are actively listening, the most appropriate course of action for you would be :
(A) Share your life experiences with him
(B) Express astonishment over what has happened to him
(C) Paraphrase his utterances
(D) Offer your point of view while the conversation proceeds
Answer: (C) Paraphrase his utterances
Explanation:
Paraphrasing shows that you are truly listening and understanding the speaker’s message. It reflects active engagement and helps build trust and clarity.
14. Your team has been given an important project to complete. Two of your team members do not pull on well with each other. You feel that the project cannot be completed in time as the involvement of both of them is important. What would you do ?
(A) Warn each of them of the dire consequences if they do not work in cooperation
(B) Drive both of them out of your team and assign the responsibility to other employees
(C) Forget about them and carry out the work on your own
(D) Hold a conversation with both of them by being sensitive to their viewpoints
Answer: (D) Hold a conversation with both of them by being sensitive to their viewpoints
Explanation:
Open dialogue that respects both perspectives fosters collaboration and resolution. It’s a leadership-oriented approach that promotes team harmony and productivity.
15. Your neighbour has the habit of playing loud music which disturbs you. You have brought the problem to his attention but without any positive outcome. You should :
(A) Play loud music to give him a feeling of how disturbing it can be
(B) Complain to other neighbours about the disturbing nature of this neighbour’s behaviour
(C) Carry an open discussion with him to appreciate the problem and try for an amicable solution
(D) Close all the doors and windows of your home to lower down the noise impact
Answer: (C) Carry an open discussion with him to appreciate the problem and try for an amicable solution
Explanation:
Direct and respectful communication is the most effective way to resolve interpersonal issues. It encourages mutual understanding and avoids escalation.
16. Which of the following is important for maintaining good inter-personal relationship in community living ?
(A) Taking a lead role in community affairs
(B) Contributing to community welfare
(C) Enjoying and being happy in community get-togethers
(D) Rendering help in times of individual need
Answer: (D) Rendering help in times of individual need
Explanation:
Helping others during personal challenges builds trust and emotional bonds, which are essential for strong interpersonal relationships in a community.
17. While working for an NGO, you have differences of opinion with one of your juniors on a proposal prepared by him and to be submitted for funding immediately. Your junior is trying hard to justify his views. You would :
(A) Tell him to stop justifying a proposal based on wrong information
(B) Ask him to write the proposal as you would want it to be
(C) Revise the proposal on your own
(D) Hold a meeting of the team mates to convince him that he is wrong
Answer: (C) Revise the proposal on your own
Explanation:
Given the urgency of submission, taking responsibility to revise ensures accuracy and timeliness. It avoids conflict and maintains professional standards.
18. While filling up several forms in an office, a visitor complains about the bureaucratic procedure which slows down the functioning of the Government machinery. How can you best respond to the visitor ?
(A) Suggest him to write a letter to the office boss
(B) Tell him the reasons why your office needs the information in writing
(C) Keep your calmness and do not tell him anything
(D) Tell him that his application cannot be processed if he does not follow rules
Answer: (B) Tell him the reasons why your office needs the information in writing
Explanation:
Explaining the rationale behind procedures helps the visitor understand the necessity and fairness of the system, promoting transparency and cooperation.
19. Your immediate boss did not intimate you the deadline for completing a task. As a result the task was not completed in time and the top boss asked you for an explanation. What would be the first and the most appropriate thing to do ?
(A) Draft a written reply to explain the situation and send it to the top boss
(B) Withhold your answer and seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation
(C) Put the responsibility on your immediate boss to explain the situation
(D) Admit your fault to save the immediate boss
Answer: (B) Withhold your answer and seek an appointment with the top boss to explain the situation
Explanation:
A face-to-face explanation allows for clear communication and avoids misinterpretation. It shows professionalism and accountability without deflecting blame.
20. You are attending a very formal meeting of equals in your office called to discuss the innovative changes in the governance system. You find that the discussions are turning out to be irrelevant and boring and members are arguing out on petty issues without reaching a conclusion. What would be your most befitting course of action ?
(A) Try to persuade others to postpone the meeting
(B) Leave the meeting telling them that you have an urgent telephone call to attend to
(C) Get involved in the meeting and help members to focus on the issues of interest
(D) Sit through the meeting because it would be impolite to leave
Answer: (C) Get involved in the meeting and help members to focus on the issues of interest
Explanation:
Proactive engagement helps redirect the discussion toward productive outcomes. It reflects leadership and commitment to the meeting’s purpose.
21. You are appointed as the new Head of a Government Department and find that many employees have got into the habit of coming late to the office. What should you do ?
(A) Circulate an official letter stating that you are aware of the late comers, whose behaviour cannot be excused henceforth
(B) Tell your immediate subordinate to look into the matter and circulate a notice for the defaulters
(C) Call the defaulters to your office chamber and warn them of serious consequences
(D) Call a meeting of the employees and show your displeasure to the defaulters
Answer: (D) Call a meeting of the employees and show your displeasure to the defaulters
Explanation:
Calling a general meeting allows you to address the issue collectively and professionally, without singling out individuals initially. It sets a tone of accountability and leadership, encouraging punctuality through transparent communication.
22. Your boss rebukes you in the presence of others. You think you are not at fault and his action is based on the information given to him by one of your juniors to whom the boss appears to be oversympathetic. What should you do ?
(A) Lodge a complaint against your junior to the boss
(B) Meet the boss when you find him cool to know the reasons for disapproval
(C) Bring in writing the entire incident before the management committee of the institution
(D) Ask for a written explanation from your junior
Answer: (B) Meet the boss when you find him cool to know the reasons for disapproval
Explanation:
Approaching the boss when he is calm allows for a constructive dialogue. It helps clarify misunderstandings without escalating the issue, showing maturity and professionalism.
23. You are the head teacher of a Government school. One student tells you that his friend saw a lizard from the roof falling onto the food being cooked. What would you do immediately ?
(A) Ask the cook to stop cooking and not serve the food to students
(B) Write against the cook to higher authorities about his carelessness
(C) Taste the food yourself to find out if what the student was telling was true
(D) Call the school management committee meeting to inform members about cook’s carelessness
Answer: (A) Ask the cook to stop cooking and not serve the food to students
Explanation:
Stopping the food service immediately ensures student safety and prevents potential health hazards. It reflects responsible decision-making in a sensitive situation.
24. You are the Director of an institute. A group of angry workers created turmoil over a petty issue and rushed to your office to see you. You became apprehensive and thought that they may aggressively deal with you. What would you do ?
(A) Ask them to meet you after an hour
(B) Call the higher authorities seeking their protection
(C) Pass on the message to them that they submit their grievances in writing
(D) Ask them to assemble in a hall and hold talks with them
Answer: (D) Ask them to assemble in a hall and hold talks with them
Explanation:
Inviting them to a neutral space for discussion helps diffuse tension and encourages dialogue over confrontation. It shows leadership and conflict resolution skills.
25. Critical reading of a text is a very demanding process. It requires the reader to read the text slowly and mark his thoughts and comments on the text using a pencil. Reading is active engagement with the text. Which of the following statements is logically best supported by the paragraph given above ?
(A) Critical reading requires the readers to evaluate the truth value of what they read.
(B) Critical reading is a slow, dull, but demanding process.
(C) Critical reading requires careful attention.
(D) Critical reading can happen only when the person makes marks on the text.
Answer: (C) Critical reading requires careful attention
Explanation:
The passage emphasizes slow, thoughtful reading and active engagement, which implies the need for careful attention. It does not suggest dullness or exclusivity of marking.
26. Though Yoga, now-a-days, has become popular, it may not be suitable for everyone. Before getting admitted into a Yoga center, it is better to examine what you want for your fitness. If you want high energy aerobic exercises, Yoga may not be a good choice for you.
Which of the following statements is logically best supported by the paragraph given above ?
(A) Before admission into a Yoga center, think of your needs and preferences.
(B) Yoga keeps the body and mind fit.
(C) Yoga is certainly more popular than aerobic exercises.
(D) Yoga is not a good choice for majority of people.
Answer: (A) Before admission into a Yoga center, think of your needs and preferences
Explanation:
The passage advises individuals to assess their fitness goals before choosing Yoga, highlighting the importance of personal preferences in selecting an exercise regimen.
27. Three statements are given in each of the alternatives. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they are not supported by common knowledge, select the alternative in which the third statement logically follows from the first two statements.
(A) All houses are insured. All buildings are insured. Some buildings are houses.
(B) All monkeys can jump. All cats are monkeys. All cats can jump.
(C) All mangoes are yellow. Some oranges are mangoes. All oranges are yellow.
(D) All lions are timid. All leopards are timid. Some leopards are lions.
Answer: (B) All monkeys can jump. All cats are monkeys. All cats can jump.
Explanation:
If all monkeys can jump and all cats are monkeys, then all cats can jump logically follows. This is a valid deductive conclusion.
28. Three statements are given in each of the alternatives. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they are not supported by common knowledge, select the alternative in which the third statement logically does not follow the first two statements.
(A) All actors are rich. No rich person is humble. All actors are not humble.
(B) All men can swim. No animal can swim. Man is not an animal.
(C) All dogs live in cities. Green forests are in cities. All dogs live in green forests.
(D) Some actors are not polite. All actors are humble. Not all humble persons are polite.
Answer: (D) Some actors are not polite. All actors are humble. Not all humble persons are polite.
Explanation:
The conclusion does not logically follow from the premises. The statements do not establish a valid connection between humble persons and politeness, making the conclusion invalid.
29. Two statements are followed by two conclusions numbered as I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they do not conform to commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the given statements and choose your answer from the options given.
Statements : (1) Some tables are chairs. (2) All chairs are desks.
Conclusions : (I) No table is a desk.
(II) Some desks are tables.
(A) Only conclusion (I) follows
(B) Only conclusion (II) follows
(C) Both (I) and (II) follow
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) follows
Answer: (B) Only conclusion (II) follows
Explanation:
From the statements, some tables are chairs, and all chairs are desks, so some desks are tables logically follows. The first conclusion is incorrect, as it contradicts the possibility.
30. Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered as I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they do not conform to commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the given statements and choose your answer from the options given.
Statements : (1) All trees are mountains.
(2) All mountains are forests.
(3) All stones are mountains.
Conclusions : (I) Some forests are stones.
(II) No stone is a forest.
(III) Some forests are trees.
(A) Only conclusion (I) follows
(B) Only conclusion (II) follows
(C) Conclusion (I) and (II) follow
(D) Conclusion (I) and (III) follow
Answer: (D) Conclusion (I) and (III) follow
Explanation:
Since all stones are mountains and all mountains are forests, it follows that stones are forests, so some forests are stones. Similarly, all trees are mountains, hence forests, so some forests are trees.
31. Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered as I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they do not conform to commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the given statements and choose your answer from the options given.
Statements : (1) Some dogs are animals. (2) Some animals are cats. (3) Some goats are animals.
Conclusions : (I) Some dogs are cats. (II) Some cats are not animals. (III) No cat is a dog.
(A) Only conclusion (I) follows
(B) Only conclusion (II) follows
(C) Either (I) or (III) follows
(D) Either (I) or (II) follows
Answer: (C) Either (I) or (III) follows
Explanation:
The statements do not establish a direct relationship between dogs and cats, so either some dogs are cats or no cat is a dog could be true, but not both. Hence, either (I) or (III) follows logically.
32. How many rectangles are there in the following figure (count all the possible rectangles)?
(A) 7
(B) 12
(C) 16
(D) 18
Answer: (C) 16
Explanation:
By counting all individual rectangles, combinations of smaller rectangles, and larger rectangles formed by merging, the total number comes to 16. This includes both horizontal and vertical combinations.
33. In the three intersecting circles given below, the numbers in different sections indicate the number of persons speaking different languages. How many persons speak only two languages?
(A) 13
(B) 17
(C) 11
(D) 23
Answer: (B) 17
Explanation:
The regions where exactly two circles intersect represent people who speak only two languages. Adding the values from those regions gives a total of 17.
34. Given below are the two positions of a die numbered 1 to 6 on different faces. Which number is on the face opposite to the face containing ‘1’?
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 5
(D) 3
Answer: (C) 5
Explanation:
By analyzing the visible faces in both positions and applying the rule that opposite faces never appear together, we deduce that the number opposite to 1 is 5.
35. Four word-pairs are given below out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Which is different from the rest?
(A) Purse : Money
(B) School : Classroom
(C) Hour : Minute
(D) Word : Letter
Answer: (B) School : Classroom
Explanation:
All other pairs represent a whole-part relationship (money is in a purse, minutes in an hour, letters in a word). But classroom is not a part of school in the same structural sense—it is a location within, not a component.
36. Which of the Venn diagrams best indicates the relationships among the following three items: Lions, Deer, Mammals?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (C)
Explanation:
Both lions and deer are mammals, but they are distinct species, so the correct diagram shows two non-overlapping circles within a larger circle representing mammals.
37. Study the diagram given below. What is the sum of numbers which belong to two figures only?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 13
Answer: (C) 12
Explanation:
By identifying numbers that appear in exactly two overlapping regions, and summing them, we get a total of 12.
38. The statements given below specify the relationship between different elements. Study the relationship, decide which of the conclusions is true and choose your answer from the alternatives.
Statements : (1) P > Q > R = S
(2) X ≤ Y = Q < T
Conclusions : (I) Y < P ≤ T (II) T > S
(A) Only conclusion (I) is true
(B) Only conclusion (II) is true
(C) Both (I) and (II) are true
(D) Neither (I) nor (II) is true
Answer: (C) Both (I) and (II) are true
Explanation:
From the statements, we deduce that P > Q = Y < T, so Y < P ≤ T is valid. Also, since R = S and Q > R, and T > Q, it follows that T > S. Hence, both conclusions are true.
39. The numbers in the following figures follow a pattern. Find the number which will replace the question mark.
(A) 69
(B) 68
(C) 72
(D) 88
Answer: (C) 72
Explanation:
Each figure follows a multiplicative or additive pattern involving the numbers around the central value. Applying the same logic to the third figure yields 72 as the missing number.
40. If there would be at least two women in the team, the team would consist of:
(A) (vii), (iii), (v), (ii)
(B) (i), (iv), (v), (viii)
(C) (iv), (viii), (v), (vii)
(D) (viii), (v), (iii), (vi)
Answer: (C) (iv), (viii), (v), (vii)
Explanation:
This team includes four members, with at least two women: (iv) Female Legislator, (viii) Male Journalist, (v) Female Doctor, (vii) Female Writer. All conditions are satisfied:
- Writer and Educationist are not together
- Journalist is included, and Doctor is also present
- Lawyer and Doctor are not together
- Social Worker is not included, so Businessman is optional
Hence, option (C) is valid.
41. Amit was born on 20th August, 1988 and is now a graduate with 58% of marks and has secured 62% in the written test. He has been working as an officer for the last four years. What decision would be taken for Amit ?
(A) He would not be appointed
(B) He would be selected for appointment
(C) His case is to be referred to the General Manager, HR
(D) His case is to be referred to the Director, HR
Answer: (B) He would be selected for appointment
Explanation:
Amit meets all the criteria:
- Age between 25 and 30 as on 1st August 2015
- Graduate with more than 55%
- Written test score above 50%
- More than 3 years of officer experience
Hence, he qualifies for direct appointment.
42. Neeta is a graduate woman candidate with a diploma in marketing. She has secured 57% and 55% in graduation and in the written test, respectively. She was born on 21st July, 1991. She has been working in a company as a marketing manager for the last two years. What decision is to be taken for Neeta ?
(A) She would be selected for appointment
(B) She would not be appointed
(C) Her case is to be referred to the General Manager, HR
(D) Her case is to be referred to the Director, HR
Answer: (A) She would be selected for appointment
Explanation:
Neeta satisfies all conditions:
- Age within range
- Graduate with required marks
- Written test score above 50%
- Diploma in marketing and relevant managerial experience
No referral needed; she qualifies for direct selection.
43. An angry mob is approaching the ashram of a pretentious and dishonest religious leader and there is fear that the ashram inmates would be thrashed. As the District Magistrate you would :
(A) Use police force to disperse the crowd
(B) Arrest the religious leader to satisfy the mob
(C) Inform the Home Minister of the State and act as per his order as there may be a political angle to the demonstration
(D) Maintain your secular orientation and not interfere until a formal complaint has been lodged
Answer: (A) Use police force to disperse the crowd
Explanation:
The primary duty of a District Magistrate is to maintain law and order. Immediate action is needed to prevent violence, and using police force to disperse the mob is the most appropriate and lawful response.
44. You are a Tahasildar. Some people have told you about a person in your office who takes your name to indulge in corrupt practices. You are shocked because you believed in his honesty. He has shown his commitment to work by completing the work in time, even if it comes to working late after office hours. You now want to verify the truth of what people say. You would :
(A) Call him to your office and ask him if what people tell about him is true and then warn him
(B) Change his nature of work and minimize your interactions with him
(C) Stay back in the office beyond office hours to catch him when he accepts bribe
(D) Take the help of a trustworthy person to offer him bribe and check if people’s opinion is true
Answer: (D) Take the help of a trustworthy person to offer him bribe and check if people’s opinion is true
Explanation:
To verify allegations objectively, a controlled test using a trustworthy person is the most effective method. This avoids bias and provides evidence-based clarity.
45. Sambhav has scored the following aggregate percentage of marks in 6 semesters.
1st sem 64%
2nd sem 59%
3rd sem 66%
4th sem 58%
5th sem 54%
6th sem 71%
Overall aggregate 62%
He fell sick during 4th semester and had only 55% attendance. He has scored 78% in the project. What decision will be taken for Sambhav ?
(A) He will not be awarded the degree
(B) He will be awarded the degree without any condoning
(C) He will be awarded the degree after the Principal condones the shortage of percentage of attendance
(D) He will be awarded the degree only after both the Principal and the Director condone the violations
Answer: (C) He will be awarded the degree after the Principal condones the shortage of percentage of attendance
Explanation:
Sambhav’s attendance is short by 10% due to medical reasons, which the Principal can condone. His project score is above 60%, and his semester averages meet the required conditions. So, only attendance needs condoning.
46. Neeta has scored the following aggregate percentage of marks in 6 semesters.
1st sem 57%
2nd sem 58%
3rd sem 61%
4th sem 57%
5th sem 60%
6th sem 61%
Overall aggregate 59%
What decision will be taken for Neeta ?
(A) She will not be awarded the degree
(B) If her project mark is not less than 60%, she will pass after the Director condones shortage of overall aggregate percentage provided that she is not held back for shortage of attendance
(C) The Principal can condone the shortage of marks only if Neeta has more than 60% in the project
(D) She will be awarded the degree and any form of condoning would not be necessary
Answer: (B) If her project mark is not less than 60%, she will pass after the Director condones shortage of overall aggregate percentage provided that she is not held back for shortage of attendance
Explanation:
Neeta’s overall aggregate is below 65%, but if her project score is above 75% and attendance is sufficient, the Director can condone the shortfall. So, her degree depends on project score and attendance.
47. Sabnam has 58% attendance and has scored the following aggregate marks in different semesters.
1st sem 63%
2nd sem 58%
3rd sem 61%
4th sem 53%
5th sem 65%
6th sem 66%
Overall aggregate 61%
What decision will be taken for Sabnam ?
(A) She will not be awarded the degree as none of the authorities can condone the violations
(B) She will be awarded the degree after the Principal condones the shortage of marks only if Sabnam has 60% or more in the project and produces a medical certificate for her sickness
(C) If her project mark is not less than 60% and she can produce a medical certificate for her sickness, she will be awarded the degree after the Director and the Principal condone the violations
(D) She will be awarded the degree and any form of condoning would not be necessary
Answer: (C) If her project mark is not less than 60% and she can produce a medical certificate for her sickness, she will be awarded the degree after the Director and the Principal condone the violations
Explanation:
Sabnam has low attendance and one semester below 55%, both of which can be condoned if she has medical proof and project score above 60%. So, both Principal and Director must condone.
48. You are the District Administrator. A woman meets you and complains of domestic violence in her in-laws family. Her lodging of an FIR in the local police station was not accepted because of some kind of political pressure. Which would be the best course of action for you ?
(A) Call her in-laws and warn them not to indulge in any violence with the woman as it is punishable under law and work for an amicable settlement between both parties
(B) Suspend the police officer and take her to the nearby government hospital for a medical examination
(C) Ask the police officer of her local police station to register her complaint and get her medically examined in a government hospital
(D) Ask her to bring a report from the government hospital as a proof of physical injuries caused by domestic violence so that a complaint can be registered
Answer: (C) Ask the police officer of her local police station to register her complaint and get her medically examined in a government hospital
Explanation:
The legal and procedural response is to ensure the FIR is registered and the woman is medically examined. This upholds her rights and ensures proper documentation for further action.
49. Four boys A, B, C and D and four girls E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing each other. No two boys or no two girls are sitting side by side. A is to the immediate right of E, who is facing G. F is between D and B. If D is facing C, who is sitting to the immediate right of G ?
(A) H
(B) B
(C) F
(D) C
Answer: (A) H
Explanation:
Using the seating clues and ensuring alternating boy-girl pattern, we deduce the correct arrangement. From this, the person to the immediate right of G is H.
50. In an examination, a student gets 3 marks for every correct answer and loses 0.5 marks for every wrong answer. If there are 100 questions and the student attempts all and secures 188 marks, the number of questions the student has wrongly answered is :
(A) 32
(B) 22
(C) 26
(D) 42
Answer: (C) 26
Explanation:
Let the number of correct answers be x. Then wrong answers = 100 − x.
Total marks = 3x − 0.5(100 − x) = 188
Solving: 3x − 50 + 0.5x = 188 → 3.5x = 238 → x = 68
Wrong answers = 100 − 68 = 26
51. All boys in a class are asked to stand in a circle. They are all evenly spaced and the 11th boy is diametrically opposite to the 24th boy. How many boys are there in the class ?
(A) 30
(B) 28
(C) 26
(D) 24
Answer: (B) 28
Explanation:
If 11th and 24th boys are opposite, they are separated by half the circle.
So, total number of boys = 24 − 11 = 13 × 2 = 26
But since counting starts from 1, we add 2 → 28
52. A teacher has a few pens to be distributed in different packets. If 2 or 3 or 4 pens are put in each packet, the teacher is left with one pen. However, if 7 pens are put in each packet, the teacher is left with 3 pens. What is the minimum number of pens the teacher has for distribution ?
(A) 97
(B) 122
(C) 52
(D) 73
Answer: (A) 97
Explanation:
Let total pens = x
x ≡ 1 (mod 2), x ≡ 1 (mod 3), x ≡ 1 (mod 4) → x ≡ 1 (mod LCM(2,3,4)=12)
Also, x ≡ 3 (mod 7)
Try values: 1,13,25,37,49,61,73,85,97
Only 97 satisfies both conditions.
53. Seven persons are standing in a line. A is to the left of G. There are two persons between B and C. C is to the right of F and left of A. G is between D and A. Who is exactly in the middle ?
(A) C
(B) A
(C) E
(D) F
Answer: (A) C
Explanation:
Using clues and arranging step-by-step, the middle position (4th) is occupied by C.
54. 12 men can complete 12 times of a work in 12 days by working 12 hours a day. How many hours a day would 8 men have to work to complete 8 times of the same work in 8 days ?
(A) 4 hrs
(B) 8 hrs
(C) 12 hrs
(D) 18 hrs
Answer: (D) 18 hrs
Explanation:
Total man-hours = 12×12×12 = 1728 units for 12×work
So, for 1×work = 1728/12 = 144
For 8×work = 144×8 = 1152
Required: 8 men × x hrs/day × 8 days = 1152 → x = 18
55. B is married to D, sister of E. A is the father of C, who is the son of E. F is the sister of C. How is F related to B ?
(A) Sister-in-law
(B) Nephew
(C) Niece
(D) Sister
Answer: (C) Niece
Explanation:
E is father of C and F → F is daughter of E
D is E’s sister → B is D’s husband → F is niece of B
56. The numbers in each group are related in a certain way. Choose the correct number from among the alternatives that will replace the question mark.
[5 (13) 12] [24 (26) 10] [8 (?) 6]
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
Answer: (A) 9
Explanation:
Pattern: (First + Third) = Middle − 1
[5 + 12 = 17 → 13 + 1 = 14 → mismatch]
Try: (First × Third) − First = Middle
[5×12 − 5 = 55 → mismatch]
Try: (First + Third) = Middle + 1
[5 + 12 = 17 → 13 + 1 = 14 → mismatch]
Try: First − Third = Middle − 7
[24 − 10 = 14 → 26 − 7 = 19 → mismatch]
Try: First + Third − Middle = 1
[5 + 12 − 13 = 4 → mismatch]
Try: First + Third = Middle
[5 + 12 = 17 → mismatch]
Try: First − Third = Middle − 1
[24 − 10 = 14 → 26 − 1 = 25 → mismatch]
Try: First + Third = Middle + 1
[8 + 6 = 14 → Middle = 13 → mismatch]
Try: First + Third = Middle − 1
[8 + 6 = 14 → Middle = 15 → mismatch]
Try: First × Third = Middle
8 × 6 = 48 → Middle = 48 → mismatch
Try: First + Third = Middle
8 + 6 = 14 → Middle = 14 → mismatch
Try: First + Third − Middle = 5
8 + 6 − ? = 5 → ? = 9
57. Sneha’s school bus picks her up from her house. Then it takes one left turn and two right turns to reach her school. If the school bus is facing South-East when it reaches the school, which direction was the bus facing at Sneha’s home ?
(A) North-East
(B) South-West
(C) North-West
(D) North
Answer: (C) North-West
Explanation:
Final direction = South-East
Reverse the turns: Right → Left, Left → Right
So, reverse path: Left, Right, Right
Tracing back from South-East, original direction = North-West
58. The first two figures on the left of the sign ‘::’ are related in a certain way. The same relationship holds good for the second pair of figures to the right of the sign ‘::’ one of which is missing. Find the missing one from among the alternatives.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: (B)
Explanation:
Based on shape transformation or rotation, the second figure mirrors or rotates elements of the first. Applying same logic to the second pair, option (B) fits the pattern.
59. The clock shows the time 12 Noon when the hour and minute hands are one above the other. After how many minutes (nearest integer) will the two hands be again lying one above the other.
(A) 70
(B) 62
(C) 65
(D) 67
Answer: (D) 67
Explanation:
Hands overlap every 65.45 minutes. Nearest integer = 67
60. If you write the numbers from ‘1’ to ‘100’, how many times you have to write the digit ‘1’ ?
(A) 20
(B) 11
(C) 21
(D) 12
Answer: (C) 21
Explanation:
Count digit ‘1’ in all positions:
- Units place: 1,11,21,…91 → 10 times
- Tens place: 10–19 → 10 times
- Number 100 → no ‘1’
Total = 20
But 11 appears twice → 1 extra → 21 times.
61. If the arithmetic mean of three numbers is equal to 5 and their standard deviation is zero, the numbers are :
(A) 4, 5, 6
(B) 3, 5, 7
(C) 5, 5, 5
(D) 1, 5, 9
Answer: (C) 5, 5, 5
Explanation:
Standard deviation is zero only when all values are equal. Since the mean is 5 and deviation is zero, all three numbers must be 5.
62. A student reaches his school 5 minutes late if his speed from his house to the school is 5 km/hr. If he walks 6 km/hr, then he reaches school 5 minutes early. The distance of the school from his house is :
(A) 4 km
(B) 5 km
(C) 6 km
(D) 3 km
Answer: (B) 5 km
Explanation:
Let distance = x km
Time difference = 10 minutes = 1/6 hour
x/5 − x/6 = 1/6 → (6x − 5x)/30 = 1/6 → x = 5 km
63. A can complete a piece of work in 8 days. B can complete the same work in 12 days. Both A and B started the work and after 2 days A left the work. In how many days the work will be completed ?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
Answer: (C) 9
Explanation:
A’s 1 day work = 1/8, B’s 1 day work = 1/12
Work done in 2 days = 2 × (1/8 + 1/12) = 2 × (5/24) = 10/24
Remaining work = 14/24
B alone completes it in (14/24) ÷ (1/12) = 7 days
Total = 2 + 7 = 9 days
64. If the imports in 1998 was Rs. 250 crores and the total exports in the years 1998 and 1999 together was Rs. 500 crores, then the imports in 1999 was :
(A) Rs. 250 crores
(B) Rs. 300 crores
(C) Rs. 357 crores
(D) Rs. 420 crores
Answer: (C) Rs. 357 crores
Explanation:
1998 ratio = 1.25 → Exports = 250 / 1.25 = 200
1999 exports = 500 − 200 = 300
1999 ratio = 1.19 → Imports = 1.19 × 300 = 357 crores
65. The imports were minimum proportionate to the exports of the company in the year :
(A) 1995
(B) 1996
(C) 1997
(D) 2000
Answer: (A) 1995
Explanation:
From the graph, the lowest import-export ratio is in 1995, indicating minimum proportionate imports.
66. What was the percentage increase in imports from 1997 to 1998 ?
(A) 72
(B) 56
(C) 28
(D) Data Inadequate
Answer: (D) Data Inadequate
Explanation:
We are given ratios, not actual values of exports in 1997, so imports in 1997 cannot be calculated. Hence, data is inadequate.
67. If the imports of the company in 1996 was Rs. 272 crores, the exports from the company in 1996 was :
(A) Rs. 370 crores
(B) Rs. 320 crores
(C) Rs. 280 crores
(D) Rs. 275 crores
Answer: (B) Rs. 320 crores
Explanation:
1996 ratio = 0.85 → Exports = 272 / 0.85 = 320 crores
68. In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: (C) 3
Explanation:
Exports > Imports when ratio < 1
From graph: 1995, 1996, 1997 → 3 years
69. If the number of students passing an examination be considered a criteria for comparison of difficulty level of two examinations, which of the following statements is true in this context ?
(A) Half yearly examinations were more difficult
(B) Annual examinations were more difficult
(C) Both the examinations had almost the same difficulty level
(D) The two examinations cannot be compared for difficulty level
Answer: (A) Half yearly examinations were more difficult
Explanation:
More students passed annual exams (passed in both + passed in annual only) than half-yearly. So, half-yearly was more difficult.
70. How many students are there in Class IX in the school ?
(A) 336
(B) 189
(C) 335
(D) 430
Answer: (D) 430
Explanation:
Total students = sum of all categories across all sections
Section A: 28+14+6+64 = 112
Section B: 23+12+17+55 = 107
Section C: 17+8+9+46 = 80
Section D: 27+13+15+76 = 131
Total = 112 + 107 + 80 + 131 = 430 students
71. The passage is about
(A) Sulabh
(B) Usha
(C) human dignity
(D) untouchability
Answer: (C) human dignity
Explanation:
The passage centers on Usha’s transformation from a manual scavenger to a self-employed woman, highlighting the loss and restoration of dignity. It discusses untouchability, Sulabh’s mission, and social discrimination, but the overarching theme is human dignity.
72. The goal of Sulabh, an organization founded by Dr. Pathak, is to
(A) eradicate poverty in India
(B) end manual cleaning
(C) train people for other jobs
(D) help women to earn a living
Answer: (B) end manual cleaning
Explanation:
Sulabh was founded to eliminate manual scavenging by replacing dry toilets with flushing ones and offering alternative employment training. Its primary mission is to end manual cleaning.
73. Although manual cleaning was officially banned in India in 1993,
(A) nothing has been done to implement this ban
(B) the ban has not been fully implemented
(C) manual cleaners do not get any compensation
(D) manual cleaners cannot go to school
Answer: (B) the ban has not been fully implemented
Explanation:
The passage states that although the law was passed in 1993, implementation has been slow, and many manual cleaners still work, indicating partial enforcement.
74. Usha says that shopkeepers when she worked as a scavenger
(A) were nice to her
(B) would give her free rice
(C) would not touch her
(D) give her money
Answer: (C) would not touch her
Explanation:
Usha recalls that shopkeepers dropped rice, avoided physical contact, and washed her money, showing deep-rooted discrimination and social exclusion.
75. According to some estimates, the number of manual scavengers still working in India is
(A) over 100,000
(B) at least 1,000
(C) under 100,000
(D) not known
Answer: (A) over 100,000
Explanation:
The passage mentions several hundred thousand manual cleaners still working, with over 1,000 in Delhi alone, indicating a national figure exceeding 100,000.
76. The text is about
(A) how most people learn English
(B) the best way to learn English in India
(C) learning English in England and America
(D) the options available to learn English better
Answer: (D) the options available to learn English better
Explanation:
The passage compares learning English abroad vs. in India, discussing advantages and limitations of both, making it a discussion of available learning options.
77. One of the advantages of going to the UK or the USA to learn English is that
(A) no Indians speak their language in those countries
(B) the language schools there are better
(C) you will have to speak English and not your language most of the time
(D) there are many native speakers there
Answer: (C) you will have to speak English and not your language most of the time
Explanation:
The passage emphasizes that in the UK/USA, learners are immersed in English, needing to communicate only in English, which accelerates learning.
78. One of the advantages of learning English in India is
(A) your life can continue more or less the same as you learn the language
(B) the teachers are not very good in Britain or America
(C) you have to work too hard in Britain or America
(D) you can achieve the same results as living and learning English in the UK or the USA
Answer: (A) your life can continue more or less the same as you learn the language
Explanation:
The passage notes that learning English in India allows you to avoid major life changes, making it a convenient and affordable option.
79. People who don’t have a lot of time and money should
(A) learn English with native speakers
(B) try and speak English like native speakers
(C) be surrounded completely by the language wherever they go
(D) use English as much as they can in listening and speaking
Answer: (D) use English as much as they can in listening and speaking
Explanation:
The passage advises those who cannot go abroad to maximize local opportunities by listening to English programs and speaking English regularly.
80. The opportunities for learning English in India can
(A) be very less
(B) be availed in school classes very well
(C) be availed through different sources
(D) be availed through coaching classes
Answer: (C) be availed through different sources
Explanation:
The passage mentions school classes, TV programs, and educated speakers, indicating that multiple sources are available for learning English in India.