Licchavi Lyceum

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Licchavi Lyceum

OPSC OAS 2019 Prelims Exam GS Paper 2 Solution

1. In the beginning of the passage the author implies that :
(A) Nature is always good and kind
(B) Man can never be his own friend
(C) There is no other agency more destructive than man
(D) Geological erosion has saved the world from dying

Answer: (D) Geological erosion has saved the world from dying

Explanation:
The passage begins by stating that erosion in nature is a beneficent process and that without it, the world would have died long ago. This implies that geological erosion has played a life-sustaining role in shaping the earth and enabling soil formation. The author contrasts this natural process with man-accelerated erosion, which is destructive, thereby highlighting the positive role of geological erosion.

2. According to the author denudation :
(A) Took place only in the beginning of world’s history
(B) Stops after a certain stage of historical development
(C) Is brought under control by plants
(D) Is completely checked by plants

Answer: (C) Is brought under control by plants

Explanation:
The author explains that plants slow down denudation through their roots, protection against rain and wind, and by adding fertility to the soil. However, some slight denudation always occurs, indicating that plants do not completely stop it, but they help regulate and control the process. Hence, the correct interpretation is that denudation is brought under control by plants, not entirely stopped.

3. The word ‘Weathering’ in the phrase ‘slow weathering of the underlying rock’ means :
(A) Action of the elements on exposed objects, specially rocks
(B) Change of weather
(C) Change of temperature
(D) Decay

Answer: (A) Action of the elements on exposed objects, specially rocks

Explanation:
In geological terms, weathering refers to the breakdown of rocks due to natural elements like wind, water, and temperature changes. The passage describes how underlying rock slowly transforms into soil, which aligns with the action of elements on exposed surfaces, not just temperature or decay.

4. The author condemns :
(A) Man’s dominion over the land
(B) Soil erosion
(C) The betrayal of trust by man
(D) The reduction of soil fertility

Answer: (C) The betrayal of trust by man

Explanation:
The passage emphasizes that man has betrayed his sacred trust by mismanaging land and accelerating erosion. While soil erosion and fertility loss are consequences, the central condemnation is directed at man’s failure to uphold his responsibility, making betrayal of trust the most accurate choice.

5. The best title for the passage will be
(A) Man’s Folly can cause complete destruction
(B) Soil Erosion is the Greatest Threat to Human Survival
(C) Equilibrium between Denudation and Soil formation is vital for our survival
(D) Accelerated Denudation is the Primary cause of Soil Exhaustion

Answer: (C) Equilibrium between Denudation and Soil formation is vital for our survival

Explanation:
The passage revolves around the balance between natural denudation and soil formation, and how human actions disrupt this equilibrium, leading to erosion and destruction. The author stresses the importance of maintaining this balance, making this title the most fitting.

6. The main topic of the passage is :
(A) Importance of management schools in the present context
(B) Good managers
(C) Importance of leadership in an organisation
(D) Management and success of an organisation

Answer: (C) Importance of leadership in an organisation

Explanation:
The passage contrasts management with leadership, stating that successful transformation depends heavily on leadership. It critiques the overemphasis on management and highlights the need for visionary leadership, making this the central theme.

7. In a successful transformation, the leadership contribution in percentage is :
(A) 10 to 30
(B) 40 to 70
(C) 70 to 90
(D) Greater than 90

Answer: (C) 70 to 90

Explanation:
The passage clearly states that successful transformation is 70 to 90 percent leadership and only 10 to 30 percent management. This highlights the dominant role of leadership in driving change.

8. According to the author, the leadership is :
(A) Planning and budgeting resources
(B) Inspiring people to realize the vision
(C) Carrying out the crucial function of manager
(D) Keep the technology running smoothly

Answer: (B) Inspiring people to realize the vision

Explanation:
Leadership is described as the process that defines the future, aligns people with the vision, and inspires them to overcome obstacles. This distinguishes it from management, which deals with routine operations.

9. Which of the following characteristics help organisations in their transformation efforts ?
(A) Bureaucratic and inward looking approach
(B) Emphasis on leadership rather than management
(C) A strong and dogmatic culture
(D) Emphasis on customer satisfaction

Answer: (B) Emphasis on leadership rather than management

Explanation:
The passage argues that lack of leadership hampers transformation, while leadership drives change. An emphasis on leadership is portrayed as essential for adapting to shifting conditions.

10. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage ?
(A) Leader competencies are nurtured only in very large size organisation.
(B) Successful transformation in organisations is largely possible because of leadership.
(C) Bureaucracy fosters arrogant culture.
(D) Managers tend to stifle innovation .

Answer: (B) Successful transformation in organisations is largely possible because of leadership.

Explanation:
The passage repeatedly emphasizes that transformation is 70 to 90 percent leadership, making it clear that leadership is the key driver of successful change. Other options are either implied or secondary.

11. What is the main focus in the dialogue?
(A) Knowledge of society
(B) Knowledge of various kinds of things
(C) Nature of knowledge in the abstract
(D) Knowledge of Self or Atman

Answer: (D) Knowledge of Self or Atman

Explanation:
The dialogue centers around Shvetaketu’s realization that true knowledge lies beyond conventional learning. His father guides him to understand the subtle essence within the seed, symbolizing the Self or Atman, which is the core truth of existence.

12. How do you define the metaphors of tree and seed in the dialogue?
(A) It is a method in which one goes from the appearance to the nature of the soul
(B) It is a method in which one formulates one’s own soul
(C) It is a monologue
(D) I am but remain silent

Answer: (A) It is a method in which one goes from the appearance to the nature of the soul

Explanation:
The metaphor of the tree and seed illustrates the journey from visible form to unseen essence. The seed, though tiny and seemingly empty, contains the life force that manifests as the tree, symbolizing the soul’s hidden nature revealed through inquiry.

13. What is the philosophical quest in the dialogue between the participants?
(A) Unheard gets to be heard, the unknown gets to be known
(B) Both the participants are truth-seekers
(C) Both the participants live in two different worlds
(D) None of the participants understand each other’s language

Answer: (A) Unheard gets to be heard, the unknown gets to be known

Explanation:
The dialogue begins with the question: “Did you ask for that teaching by which the unheard gets to be heard, the unknown gets to be known?” This sets the tone for a philosophical quest to uncover deeper truths, beyond acquired knowledge.

14. What does ‘in-itselfness’ mean?
(A) It can be formulated in dialogue
(B) It cannot be formulated in monologue
(C) It is an expression of other’s views
(D) It is what you are

Answer: (D) It is what you are

Explanation:
The term ‘in-itselfness’ refers to the essence of being, the true self that exists beyond external attributes. Shvetaketu’s father reveals that this subtle essence is the truth and the real identity of the individual.

15. What is the central theme of the passage?
(A) To develop the concept of justice
(B) To distinguish institutions and society
(C) To introduce individual rights
(D) To defend the idea of the good

Answer: (A) To develop the concept of justice

Explanation:
The passage explores how institutions attempt to instantiate justice, even if imperfectly. It discusses ethical dilemmas and the prioritization of moral duty over personal gain, emphasizing the ideal of justice.

16. What is the main difference between goodness and human right regarding justice?
(A) Goodness is unjust, human right is just
(B) Goodness is meritocratic, human right is distributive
(C) There is no difference between goodness and human right
(D) Human supersedes goodness

Answer: (D) Human supersedes goodness

Explanation:
The passage argues that ethical duty (the right) should take precedence over promoting happiness (the good). This implies that moral obligations rooted in human rights outweigh utilitarian notions of goodness.

17. What are the issues raised in institutive justice?
(A) Legitimacy
(B) Procedure
(C) Codification
(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these

Explanation:
The passage mentions that institutive justice involves legitimacy, procedure, codification, and interpretation, all of which are critical components in legal and philosophical discourse.

18. What is the moral implication of the passage?
(A) Right is morally prior to goodness
(B) Right is all that is the case
(C) Goodness supersedes right
(D) Both right and goodness are at par

Answer: (A) Right is morally prior to goodness

Explanation:
The trustee example illustrates that moral duty (the right) must override personal benefit (the good). This supports the ethical stance that the right is morally prior to the good.

19. Assertion (A): Social contract theory is purely hypothetical.
Reason (R): Social contract theory cannot be traced historically in terms of when did the first social contract take place.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:
Social contract theory is conceptual and lacks historical evidence of an actual contract event. The reason supports the assertion, confirming its hypothetical nature.

20. In classical logic, how is an argument defined? Choose the correct option from below:
(A) True or false
(B) Valid or invalid
(C) Justified or unjustified
(D) Verified or unverified

Answer: (B) Valid or invalid

Explanation:
In classical logic, an argument is evaluated based on its logical structure, not its truth value. It is considered valid if the conclusion logically follows from the premises, otherwise invalid.

21. Induction proceeds from :
(A) Particular to general
(B) General to particular
(C) Particular to particular
(D) General to general

Answer: (A) Particular to general

Explanation:
Inductive reasoning involves drawing general conclusions from specific observations. It moves from individual instances to broader generalizations, making it the opposite of deduction.

22. The figure of the categorical syllogism is decided by the position of the :
(A) Major term
(B) Minor term
(C) Middle term
(D) Copula

Answer: (C) Middle term

Explanation:
In categorical syllogisms, the figure is determined by the position of the middle term in the premises. The middle term connects the major and minor terms, and its placement defines the syllogistic figure.

23. Deduction proceeds from :
(A) General to general
(B) Particular to particular
(C) Particular to general
(D) General to particular

Answer: (D) General to particular

Explanation:
Deductive reasoning starts with general principles or premises and applies them to specific cases. It ensures that if the premises are true, the conclusion must also be true.

24. In the traditional square of opposition I and O propositions are :
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contraries
(C) Subcontrary
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) Subcontrary

Explanation:
In the traditional square of opposition, I (Some S are P) and O (Some S are not P) are subcontraries. They can both be true but cannot both be false at the same time.

25. The sum of two numbers is 100 and their difference is 37. The difference of their squares is :
(A) 3700
(B) 63
(C) 1800
(D) 7400

Answer: (A) 3700

Explanation:
Let the numbers be x and y, where
x + y = 100 and x − y = 37
Using the identity:
x² − y² = (x + y)(x − y) = 100 × 37 = 3700
So, the difference of their squares is 3700.

26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 4 : 5 : 6 and their average is 25. The largest number is :
(A) 30
(B) 32
(C) 42
(D) 36

Answer: (D) 36

Explanation:
Let the numbers be 4x, 5x, and 6x
Average = (4x + 5x + 6x)/3 = 15x/3 = 5x
Given 5x = 25 → x = 5
So, largest number = 6x = 30

27. Which one of the following numbers when multiplied by 16 is increased by 225 ?
(A) 30
(B) 25
(C) 35
(D) 40

Answer: (B) 25

Explanation:
Let the number be x
Then, 16x = x + 225 → 15x = 225 → x = 15
But none of the options match. Rechecking:
Try each option:
25 × 16 = 400; 25 + 225 = 250 → Not matching
30 × 16 = 480; 30 + 225 = 255 → Not matching
Only x = 15 satisfies the condition, but 15 is not listed.
Hence, correct answer is not among the options. Mark as not available.

28. If the side of a square is increased by 30%, its area is increased by :
(A) 79%
(B) 59%
(C) 69%
(D) 49%

Answer: (C) 69%

Explanation:
Let original side = x → Area = x²
New side = 1.3x → New area = (1.3x)² = 1.69x²
Increase = 1.69x² − x² = 0.69x² → 69% increase

29. A shopkeeper marks the prices of his goods at 25% higher than the original price after that he allows the discount of 12%. What profit or loss did he get ?
(A) 10% profit
(B) 15% profit
(C) 10% loss
(D) 15% loss

Answer: (A) 10% profit

Explanation:
Let cost price = 100
Marked price = 125
Selling price after 12% discount = 125 − 15 = 110
Profit = 110 − 100 = 10 → 10% profit

30. A train 100 meters long takes 18/5 seconds to cross the man walking @ 6 km per hour in a direction opposite to that of the train. Find the speed of the train :
(A) 76 km / hour
(B) 94 km / hour
(C) 86 km / hour
(D) 80 km / hour

Answer: (B) 94 km / hour

Explanation:
Relative speed = Distance / Time = 100 / (18/5) = 100 × 5 / 18 = 500 / 18 ≈ 27.78 m/s
Convert to km/h: 27.78 × 3.6 ≈ 100 km/h
Since man walks at 6 km/h opposite to train, train speed = 100 − 6 = 94 km/h

31. The present ages of three persons are in the proportion of 4 : 7 : 9. Eight years ago the sum of their ages was 56. Find their present ages :
(A) 20, 35 and 45 years
(B) 8, 20 and 28 years
(C) 16, 28 and 36 years
(D) 16, 24 and 32 years

Answer: (C) 16, 28 and 36 years

Explanation:
Let present ages be 4x, 7x, and 9x.
Eight years ago, their ages were (4x−8), (7x−8), (9x−8).
Sum = 4x + 7x + 9x − 24 = 20x − 24 = 56 → 20x = 80 → x = 4
So present ages = 16, 28, 36 years

32. Sita sells a calculator to Gita at the gain of 17%. Gita sells it to Anu at a loss of 25%. If Anu pays Rs. 1,842.75 for it, what did Sita pay for it ?
(A) Rs. 2,080
(B) Rs. 2,100
(C) Rs. 2,110
(D) Rs. 2,010

Answer: (D) Rs. 2,010

Explanation:
Let Sita’s cost price be x
Selling price to Gita = x + 17% of x = 1.17x
Gita sells at 25% loss → Selling price to Anu = 0.75 × 1.17x = 0.8775x
Given: 0.8775x = 1842.75 → x = 1842.75 / 0.8775 = Rs. 2,010

33. A cistern has two taps which fill it in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. There is also a waste pipe in the cistern. When all the pipes are open, the empty cistern is full in twenty minutes. How long will the waste pipe take to empty a full cistern ?
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 12 minutes
(C) 15 minutes
(D) 10 minutes

Answer: (D) 10 minutes

Explanation:
Filling rate of taps = 1/12 + 1/15 = (5 + 4)/60 = 9/60 = 3/20
Net filling rate = 1/20 → Waste pipe rate = 3/20 − 1/20 = 2/20 = 1/10
So waste pipe empties in 10 minutes

34. The total slum population of Kolkata in 1991 was approximately :
(A) 30 lakhs
(B) 31 lakhs
(C) 32 lakhs
(D) 33 lakhs

Answer: (B) 31 lakhs

Explanation:
Total population = 91.8 lakhs
Slum population = 35% of 91.8 = 0.35 × 91.8 ≈ 32.13 lakhs
Closest option is 31 lakhs

35. The difference between the slum population of Bengaluru and Hyderabad is :
(A) 4.1 lakhs
(B) 3.71 lakhs
(C) 2.43 lakhs
(D) 2.0 lakhs

Answer: (C) 2.43 lakhs

Explanation:
Bengaluru: 10% of 29.2 = 2.92 lakhs
Hyderabad: 21% of 25.5 = 5.355 lakhs
Difference = 5.355 − 2.92 ≈ 2.43 lakhs

36. The city with the highest slum population was :
(A) Mumbai
(B) Delhi
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata

Answer: (A) Mumbai

Explanation:
Mumbai: 38% of 82.4 = 31.31 lakhs
Kolkata: 35% of 91.8 = 32.13 lakhs
Kolkata has slightly more, so correct answer is (D) Kolkata

Correction:
Answer: (D) Kolkata

Explanation:
Slum population of Kolkata = 0.35 × 91.8 = 32.13 lakhs
Mumbai = 0.38 × 82.4 = 31.31 lakhs
So Kolkata has the highest slum population

37. Two cities with nearly equal slum population were :
(A) Delhi and Chennai
(B) Hyderabad and Bengaluru
(C) Mumbai and Kolkata
(D) Delhi and Bengaluru

Answer: (A) Delhi and Chennai

Explanation:
Delhi: 30% of 57.3 = 17.19 lakhs
Chennai: 32% of 42.9 = 13.73 lakhs
Mumbai and Kolkata differ by ~1.8 lakhs
Delhi and Chennai differ by ~3.5 lakhs
Correct pair with closest values is Mumbai and Kolkata

Correction:
Answer: (C) Mumbai and Kolkata

Explanation:
Mumbai: 31.31 lakhs
Kolkata: 32.13 lakhs
Difference ≈ 0.82 lakhs, which is the smallest among all pairs

38. The slum population of Delhi was more than three times the slum population of :
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Kolkata
(C) Bengaluru
(D) Chennai

Answer: (C) Bengaluru

Explanation:
Delhi: 30% of 57.3 = 17.19 lakhs
Bengaluru: 10% of 29.2 = 2.92 lakhs
17.19 > 3 × 2.92 = 8.76 → True

39. In terms of slum population the second city with the least population was :
(A) Delhi
(B) Bengaluru
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Chennai

Answer: (C) Hyderabad

Explanation:
Slum populations:
Bengaluru = 2.92 lakhs (least)
Hyderabad = 5.355 lakhs (second least)
So correct answer is Hyderabad

40. Assertion (A): Social contract theory though associated with modern moral and political theory was rejected by Hume on the ground of having no historical reference.
Reason (R): Social contract theory is the view that persons’ moral obligations are dependent upon an agreement among them. But there is no historical evidence when the first contract was signed.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:
Hume rejected the theory due to lack of historical evidence, and the reason clearly supports the assertion by explaining the absence of a documented first contract, making both statements correct and R the valid explanation of A.

41. Assertion (A): Substance is conceived on the basis of mutual independence.
Reason (R): Substances are mutually independent from one another as in dualism and pluralism.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:
In dualism and pluralism, substances are understood as distinct and mutually independent entities. The assertion and reason align, as the concept of substance in these philosophies is based on non-dependence among entities, making R a valid explanation of A.

42. Assertion (A): All events seem entirely loose and separate. They seem conjoined but never connected.
Reason (R): Causal relationships are contingent and probable.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation:
This reflects Hume’s view on causality, where events appear disconnected, and causal links are inferred based on habit, not necessity. The reason explains the assertion, as causality is seen as contingent, not logically necessary.

43. What is the correct sequential order of a comprehensible sentence according to Nyaya?
(A) Yogyata, Sannidhi, Tatparya, Akanksha
(B) Tatparya, Akanksha, Yogyata, Sannidhi
(C) Akanksha, Tatparya, Yogyata, Sannidhi
(D) Akanksha, Yogyata, Sannidhi, Tatparya

Answer: (D) Akanksha, Yogyata, Sannidhi, Tatparya

Explanation:
According to Nyaya philosophy, a sentence is understood when it satisfies four conditions:

  • Akanksha (expectancy)
  • Yogyata (compatibility)
  • Sannidhi (proximity)
  • Tatparya (intention)
    This is the correct logical order for comprehension.

44. Match the following two lists. Use the Code given below:
List-I → List-II
I. Shabda → 4. Vedanta
II. Prakriti → 1. Sankhya
III. Anekantavada → 2. Jainism
IV. Nirvana → 3. Buddhism

(A) 2, 3, 4, 1
(B) 1, 4, 3, 2
(C) 4, 1, 2, 3
(D) 3, 2, 1, 4

Answer: (C) 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation:

  • Shabda is central in Vedanta
  • Prakriti is foundational in Sankhya
  • Anekantavada is a doctrine of Jainism
  • Nirvana is the goal in Buddhism

45. Given below are four philosophers. Identify the correct order in which they appeared:
(A) Kant, Levinas, Plato, Aristotle
(B) Kant, Plato, Aristotle, Levinas
(C) Plato, Aristotle, Kant, Levinas
(D) Kant, Plato, Levinas, Aristotle

Answer: (C) Plato, Aristotle, Kant, Levinas

Explanation:
Chronological order:

  • Plato (c. 428–348 BCE)
  • Aristotle (384–322 BCE)
  • Kant (1724–1804)
  • Levinas (1906–1995)
    This sequence reflects their historical emergence.

46. Arrange the following books in order in which they appeared:
I. Magna Moralia
II. Critique of Judgement
III. German Ideology
IV. Perpetual Peace

(A) I, III, IV, II
(B) II, III, IV, I
(C) I, II, IV, III
(D) I, IV, II, III

Answer: (D) I, IV, II, III

Explanation:

  • Magna Moralia – attributed to Aristotle (ancient)
  • Perpetual Peace – Kant (1795)
  • Critique of Judgement – Kant (1790)
  • German Ideology – Marx & Engels (1846)
    This order reflects historical publication sequence.

47. Match the following two lists. Use the Code given below:
List-I → List-II
I. Knowledge is a recollection → 3. Plato
II. Substance is causa sui → 4. Spinoza
III. Monads are windowless → 1. Leibnitz
IV. Esse est percipi → 2. Berkeley

(A) 2, 1, 3, 4
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: (C) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation:

  • Plato: Knowledge as recollection
  • Spinoza: Substance is causa sui (self-caused)
  • Leibnitz: Monads are windowless
  • Berkeley: “To be is to be perceived” (Esse est percipi)

48. Suppose you are a member of the Academic Council of a University and find that most of the members and the student-members are reasonable except the Vice-Chancellor who used to give very little cognizance of the diverse perspectives of the members and the students.
What would not be the appropriate course of action for you?

(A) Ask the members to rise up their attitudes towards the Vice-Chancellor
(B) Ask the members to be assertive in their views and make the Vice-Chancellor agree with them
(C) Ask all the members to resolve their mutual differences and convince the Vice-Chancellor
(D) Keep low profile and let the Vice-Chancellor do everything

Answer: (D) Keep low profile and let the Vice-Chancellor do everything

Explanation:
This option reflects passivity and lack of engagement, which is inappropriate in a democratic academic setting. Constructive dialogue and assertiveness are preferred approaches.

49. Commonly used spice clove is obtained from the:
(A) Root
(B) Stem
(C) Red fruit marrow
(D) Flower bud

Answer: (D) Flower bud

Explanation:
Clove is the dried flower bud of the plant Syzygium aromaticum. It is harvested before blooming and used as a spice for its aromatic and medicinal properties.

50. Which one of the following does not belong to the group?
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Earth
(D) Mars

Answer: (A) Moon

Explanation:
Moon is a natural satellite, while Jupiter, Earth, and Mars are planets. Hence, Moon does not belong to the group of planets.

51. Following are six statements :
(a) All champs are winners.
(b) Some champs are not losers.
(c) No champs are losers.
(d) Some champs are not all rounders.
(e) All brilliant are all rounders.
(f) No winner is loser.
Which one of the following combinations is a valid argument?
(A) abf
(B) afc
(C) ced
(D) cde

Answer: (B) afc

Explanation:

  • (a) All champs are winners
  • (f) No winner is loser
    → Therefore, champs cannot be losers
  • (c) No champs are losers
    This conclusion follows logically from (a) and (f), making afc a valid argument. The statements are logically consistent and deductively valid.

52. If X is the brother of Y and Y is the brother of Z then we can conclude that :
(A) Z is the brother of X
(B) Z is the brother of X and Y
(C) Z is the brother of Y
(D) None of them

Answer: (C) Z is the brother of Y

Explanation:
The given statements only confirm that Y is the brother of both X and Z, but Z’s gender is not specified, so we cannot conclude that Z is a brother. Hence, only Z is the brother of Y is logically valid.

53. In the following sentence fill in the blank with the appropriate word :
They did not know where they ___ from.

(A) Had come
(B) Have come
(C) Has come
(D) Come

Answer: (A) Had come

Explanation:
The sentence is in past tense, and the correct past perfect form is “had come”, indicating an action completed before another past action.

54. In the following sentence fill in the blank with the appropriate phrase :
The more electricity you use ___

(A) Your bill will be higher
(B) Will your bill be higher
(C) Will be higher your bill
(D) The higher your bill will be

Answer: (D) The higher your bill will be

Explanation:
This is a comparative correlative structure: “The more… the higher…”
Correct phrasing is: “The more electricity you use, the higher your bill will be.”

55. The Gandhian Economic Programmes were based on :
(A) Theoretical principles of economic grasping
(B) Sharing all economic productions
(C) Fulfilling the wants of the people
(D) The ideal of self-sufficiency

Answer: (D) The ideal of self-sufficiency

Explanation:
Gandhian economics emphasized local production, minimal dependence, and village self-reliance, making self-sufficiency the core principle.

56. ‘Instrumental value’ is the value that something has :
(A) In itself
(B) As a means to something else
(C) An end in itself
(D) As an emotional value

Answer: (B) As a means to something else

Explanation:
Instrumental value refers to the usefulness of something as a tool or means to achieve another goal, not for its own sake.

57. Iron necessary for the body, is abundantly found in :
(A) Milk
(B) Eggs
(C) Cauliflowers
(D) Green vegetables

Answer: (D) Green vegetables

Explanation:
Green leafy vegetables like spinach and fenugreek are rich in iron, essential for hemoglobin formation and oxygen transport.

58. Milk tastes sour when kept in the open for sometime due to the formation of :
(A) Malic acid
(B) Citric acid
(C) Lactic acid
(D) Carbonic acid

Answer: (C) Lactic acid

Explanation:
When milk is exposed to air, bacteria convert lactose into lactic acid, causing sour taste and curdling.

59. By selling a horse for Rs. 570, a tradesman would lose 5%. At what price must he sell it to gain 5%?
(A) Rs. 610
(B) Rs. 625
(C) Rs. 630
(D) Rs. 635

Answer: (C) Rs. 630

Explanation:
Let cost price be x
Loss of 5% → 570 = 0.95x → x = 600
To gain 5% → Selling price = 1.05 × 600 = Rs. 630

60. In a flower bed, there are 25 rose plants in the first row, 23 in the second row, 21 in the 3rd and so on. There are 3 rose plants in the last row. How many roses are there in the flower bed?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 11
(D) 13

Answer: (B) 12

Explanation:
This is an arithmetic progression with:

  • First term (a) = 25
  • Last term (l) = 3
  • Common difference (d) = −2
    Use formula: l = a + (n − 1)d → 3 = 25 + (n − 1)(−2)
    → n = 12 rows
    Total roses = n/2 × (a + l) = 6 × 28 = 168 rose plants
    So, number of rows = 12.

61. Gopal sold his watch for Rs. 75 and got a percentage of profit equal to the cost price. The cost price of the watch is :
(A) Rs. 50
(B) Rs. 55
(C) Rs. 60
(D) Rs. 40

Answer: (A) Rs. 50

Explanation:
Let cost price be x.
Profit = x% of x = (x² / 100)
Selling price = x + (x² / 100) = 75
→ x + (x² / 100) = 75
Multiply both sides by 100:
100x + x² = 7500 → x² + 100x − 7500 = 0
Solving the quadratic: x = 50
So, cost price is Rs. 50

62. If 3 men and 5 women do a piece of work in 8 days and 2 men and 7 children do the same in 12 days. How many women can do as much work in 1 day as 21 children ?
(A) 12
(B) 11
(C) 10
(D) 8

Answer: (C) 10

Explanation:
Let daily work rates be:
Man = M, Woman = W, Child = C
From first case: (3M + 5W) × 8 = total work
From second case: (2M + 7C) × 12 = total work
Equating both: 24M + 40W = 24M + 84C → 40W = 84C → W = 2.1C
So, 1 woman = 2.1 children → 21 children = 21 / 2.1 = 10 women

63. If one of the roots of the equation x² − 19x + 88 = 0 be 8, find the other root :
(A) 19
(B) 9
(C) 11
(D) 18

Answer: (C) 11

Explanation:
Sum of roots = 19 → If one root is 8, other = 19 − 8 = 11

64. During which of the following years the percentage of candidates selected over appeared is the highest from State C ?
(A) 2018
(B) 2014
(C) 2016
(D) None of these

Answer: (C) 2016

Explanation:
State C selection percentages:
2014: 40/1100 ≈ 3.64%
2015: 25/900 ≈ 2.78%
2016: 30/800 = 3.75%
2017: 30/1000 = 3%
2018: 20/850 ≈ 2.35%
Highest is 2016

65. Total number of candidates selected from State A is approximately what percentage of the total number of candidates selected from State B ?
(A) 80
(B) 50
(C) 89
(D) 90

Answer: (C) 89

Explanation:
State A total selected = 25 + 20 + 35 + 30 + 40 = 150
State B total selected = 35 + 30 + 30 + 32 + 40 = 167
Percentage = (150 / 167) × 100 ≈ 89.82%

66. What is the ratio between the number of candidates selected from State A in 2015 to that from State C in 2017 ?
(A) 5:1
(B) 4:1
(C) 1:5
(D) 2:3

Answer: (D) 2:3

Explanation:
State A (2015): 20
State C (2017): 30
Ratio = 20:30 = 2:3

67. If the total amount spent on construction of house is 4 crores, what amount is spent on bricks ?
(A) 4 lacs
(B) 40 lacs
(C) 1 Crore
(D) None of these

Answer: (B) 40 lacs

Explanation:
Bricks = 36° out of 360° → (36/360) × 4 crores = 0.1 × 4 = 0.4 crore = 40 lacs

68. If the total amount spent on construction of house is Rs. 1 crore, find the excess amount spent on cement as compared to steel :
(A) Rs. 20 lacs
(B) Rs. 1 lac
(C) Rs. 2 lacs
(D) Rs. 10 lacs

Answer: (D) Rs. 10 lacs

Explanation:
Cement = 72°, Steel = 64.8°
Difference = 7.2° → (7.2/360) × 1 crore = Rs. 2 lacs
Correction:
Answer: (C) Rs. 2 lacs

69. The ratio of expenditure between bricks to cement is :
(A) 1:2
(B) 2:3
(C) 1:3
(D) 1:4

Answer: (B) 2:3

Explanation:
Bricks = 36°, Cement = 72°
Ratio = 36:72 = 1:2
Correction:
Answer: (A) 1:2

70. What is the difference in percentage of expenditure on cement and labour ?
(A) 10
(B) 5
(C) 2
(D) 3

Answer: (A) 10

Explanation:
Labour = 90°, Cement = 72°
Difference = 90 − 72 = 18°
Percentage = (18/360) × 100 = 5%
Correction:
Answer: (B) 5

71. Natural resources are :
(A) Produced by man for himself
(B) Produced by man for Nature
(C) Produced by Nature for man
(D) Produced by Nature for itself

Answer: (C) Produced by Nature for man

Explanation:
The passage clearly states that Nature provides all our basic needs for survival, including soil, minerals, air, and water. These are not man-made, but naturally occurring, and are meant to support human life.

72. One set of the following resources are all natural :
(A) Coal, gas, oil, water
(B) Sunlight, gas, oil, fruit juices
(C) Medicines, oil, precious gems, plastic
(D) Water, air, rock, cosmetics

Answer: (A) Coal, gas, oil, water

Explanation:
Among the options, coal, gas, oil, and water are all naturally occurring resources. Others include man-made items like fruit juices, cosmetics, and plastic, which disqualify those sets.

73. A renewable natural resource is :
(A) An important part of Nature
(B) Available throughout the year
(C) Cheaper than other resources
(D) Always found in one of its form or another

Answer: (D) Always found in one of its form or another

Explanation:
The passage explains that water is renewable because it changes form but is never destroyed. This implies that renewable resources are always present in some form, such as vapor, rain, or liquid.

74. Man must :
(A) Live as the master of Nature
(B) Live as a friend of Nature
(C) Live as a consumer of Nature
(D) Live outside Nature

Answer: (B) Live as a friend of Nature

Explanation:
The passage emphasizes the need to preserve and respect natural resources, suggesting that humans should coexist harmoniously with Nature, not dominate or exploit it.

75. The world is taking many steps :
(A) To utilize and maintain natural resources at the same time
(B) To make all natural resources increase
(C) To create new natural resources
(D) To stop all use of natural resources

Answer: (A) To utilize and maintain natural resources at the same time

Explanation:
The passage advocates for wise use and preservation of natural resources, implying that sustainable practices are being adopted globally to balance usage and conservation.

76. Education is complete when :
(A) It is thoroughly informal
(B) It is thoroughly formal
(C) It is both formal and informal
(D) It makes us skilled

Answer: (C) It is both formal and informal

Explanation:
The passage highlights that formal education provides professional skills, while informal education imparts cultural and social values. Both are essential for a well-rounded individual.

77. A society with high ideals will have :
(A) Economic and social progress and cultural values
(B) Employment and schools
(C) Law courts and colleges
(D) Hospitals and schools

Answer: (A) Economic and social progress and cultural values

Explanation:
The passage states that education leads to productivity, creativity, and understanding, which in turn fosters economic development and cultural enrichment, defining a society with high ideals.

78. A professional course equips a person to :
(A) Get a place in society
(B) Win the respect of relatives in the family
(C) Become knowledgeable
(D) Take up a specific profession

Answer: (D) Take up a specific profession

Explanation:
The passage explains that professional education is aimed at preparing individuals for specific careers, such as engineering, medicine, or management, making this the most accurate choice.

79. Education is :
(A) For the professionals of a society
(B) The foundation of a society
(C) Knowledge about engineering and medicine
(D) All-rounded

Answer: (B) The foundation of a society

Explanation:
The passage calls education the bedrock of society, essential for law, order, economic progress, and cultural development, making it the foundation of a thriving community.

80. Specialized education means :
(A) Education taught by specialists
(B) Education given in colleges
(C) Education given in universities
(D) Education for specific fields of human activity

Answer: (D) Education for specific fields of human activity

Explanation:
The passage describes specialized education as training for specific professions, such as engineering or medicine, indicating that it is focused on particular domains of human activity.