TNPSC Group 1 2025 Prelims GS Question Paper Exam Date 15.06.2025 [Fully Solved]

1. Which of the statements are True?
(i) Octane number increases with chain length.
(ii) Cycloalkanes have higher Octane number than straight chain alkanes.
(iii) Alkenes and aromatic hydrocarbons have higher Octane number than straight chain alkanes.
(iv) Branched chain alkanes have lower octane number than straight chain alkanes.
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (C) (ii) and (iii)
Explanation: Cycloalkanes and aromatic hydrocarbons have higher octane numbers compared to straight-chain alkanes due to their structural stability and resistance to knocking in engines. However, branched-chain alkanes generally have higher octane numbers than straight-chain alkanes, making (ii) and (iii) correct.

2. Match the following hormone with the disorder caused:
(a) Insulin – 1. Cushing’s syndrome
(b) Thyroxine – 2. Diabetes insipidus
(c) Glucocorticoids – 3. Acromegaly
(d) Growth hormone – 4. Goitre
5. Diabetes Mellitus

(A) 5, 1, 2, 3
(B) 2, 4, 3, 1
(C) 5, 4, 1, 3
(D) 2, 4, 1, 3
Answer: (C) 5, 4, 1, 3
Explanation: Insulin is associated with Diabetes Mellitus, Thyroxine with Goitre, Glucocorticoids with Cushing’s syndrome, and Growth hormone with Acromegaly. These disorders are linked to the overproduction or deficiency of the respective hormones.

3. Choose the right matches:
(1) Carotenoid –

$C_{55}H_{70}O_5N_4Mg$

(2) Chlorophyll ‘a’ –

$C_{55}H_{72}O_5N_4Mg$

(3) Chlorophyll ‘b’ –

$C_{55}H_{70}O_6N_4Mg$

(4) Xanthophyll –

$C_{50}H_{70}O_5Mg$

(A) (1) and (2) are correct
(B) (3) and (4) are correct
(C) (2) and (3) are correct
(D) (1) and (4) are correct
Answer: (C) (2) and (3) are correct
Explanation: Chlorophyll ‘a’ and Chlorophyll ‘b’ have the correct molecular formulas as

$C_{55}H_{72}O_5N_4Mg$

and

$C_{55}H_{70}O_6N_4Mg$

, respectively. Carotenoid and Xanthophyll formulas provided are incorrect.

4. The Nobel Prize in Medicine was awarded to Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun for their discovery of:
(A) Expression Sequence Tags
(B) Micro RNA
(C) DNA microarray
(D) SNP’s
Answer: (B) Micro RNA
Explanation: Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun were awarded the Nobel Prize in Medicine for their discovery of micro RNA, which plays a crucial role in gene regulation and has significant implications in understanding diseases.

5. Which of the following statements are true about crew selection and training for the “Gaganyaan Mission”?
(i) Crews are selected after clinical, psychological, and aeromedical examination.
(ii) Mission-specific training will be conducted at ISRO, Trivandrum.
(iii) Selected astronauts will undergo their generic spaceflight training in Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Training Centre, Russia.

(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer: (D) (i) and (iii) only
Explanation: The crew for the Gaganyaan Mission is selected after rigorous clinical, psychological, and aeromedical examinations. Generic spaceflight training is conducted at the Yuri Gagarin Cosmonaut Training Centre in Russia, while mission-specific training is conducted in India.

6. Which of the following statements are correct about PFAS?
(i) PFAS is per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances.
(ii) It is used in paint industries.
(iii) PFAS are endocrine disruptors.
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i) only correct
Answer: (C) (i) and (iii) are correct
Explanation: PFAS (per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances) are synthetic chemicals known for their persistence in the environment and potential health risks. They are endocrine disruptors but are not commonly used in paint industries.

7. The biological oxygen demand is the amount of dissolved oxygen required by ______ in water.
(A) Microbes
(B) Plants
(C) Animals
(D) Seaweeds
Answer: (A) Microbes
Explanation: Biological oxygen demand (BOD) measures the amount of oxygen required by microorganisms to decompose organic matter in water. It is an indicator of water pollution levels.

8. Which of the following is the first Indian Geo-Stationary Satellite?
(A) INSAT 3D
(B) LANDSAT 8
(C) IKONOS 1
(D) QUICK BIRD
Answer: (A) INSAT 3D
Explanation: INSAT 3D is India’s first geostationary satellite, designed for meteorological observations and data relay. It plays a crucial role in weather forecasting and disaster warning.

9. Who among the following tribes act as cattle keepers?
(A) Dhimor
(B) Kewats
(C) Rawats
(D) Bhils
Answer: (C) Rawats
Explanation: The Rawats are traditionally known as cattle keepers, particularly in regions of India where pastoralism is a significant part of their livelihood.

10. Assertion [A]: Development of a nation depends on infrastructure facilities.
Reason [R]: Transport and communication are the backbone of economic development.
(A) [A] and [R] is true and [R] is the correct explanation for [A]
(B) [A] is true but [R] is false
(C) [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(D) Both [A] and [R] are not correct
Answer: (A) [A] and [R] is true and [R] is the correct explanation for [A]
Explanation: Infrastructure facilities, including transport and communication, are essential for economic growth and development. They facilitate trade, connectivity, and overall progress, making them the backbone of a nation’s development.

11. Match correctly the river and its places of rises:
(a) The Krishna – 4. Sahyadris
(b) The Alaknanda – 1. Garwal Tibet border
(c) The Gandak – 2. Central Himalayas
(d) The Brahmaputra – 3. Tibet
(A) 3, 2, 4, 1
(B) 1, 4, 2, 3
(C) 2, 1, 3, 4
(D) 4, 1, 2, 3
Answer: (D) 4, 1, 2, 3
Explanation: The Krishna River originates in the Sahyadris, the Alaknanda in the Garwal Tibet border, the Gandak in the Central Himalayas, and the Brahmaputra in Tibet. These origins are geographically accurate.

12. Arrange the following events in chronological order:
(i) Ahmedabad Mill Strike
(ii) Champaran Satyagraha
(iii) Kheda Satyagraha
(iv) Rowlatt Satyagraha
(A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(D) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
Answer: (C) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Explanation: The Ahmedabad Mill Strike occurred first, followed by the Champaran Satyagraha, Kheda Satyagraha, and finally the Rowlatt Satyagraha. This sequence reflects the historical timeline of these events.

13. How did education contribute to the Indian Renaissance?
(i) Contributed Growth of Money
(ii) Promoting scientific learning
(iii) Promoted social and cultural progress
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only
Explanation: Education during the Indian Renaissance played a significant role in promoting scientific learning and fostering social and cultural progress. It helped in the spread of modern ideas and the questioning of traditional practices, which were essential for societal transformation.

14. Match the following:
(a) Peshwa – 1. Foreign Secretary
(b) Amatya – 2. Chief Minister
(c) Sachiva – 3. Finance Minister
(d) Sumant – 4. Superintendent
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 1, 4, 2, 3
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 3, 2, 1, 4
Answer: (C) 2, 3, 4, 1
Explanation: In the Maratha administration, Peshwa was the Chief Minister, Amatya was the Finance Minister, Sachiva was the Superintendent, and Sumant was the Foreign Secretary. These roles were integral to the efficient functioning of the Maratha Empire.

15. Choose the right matches among type:
(a) ‘Indian World’ Journal – 1. J.S. Buckingham
(b) ‘Telegraph’ Journal – 2. Charles MacLean
(c) ‘Bengal Kirkaru’ Journal – 3. Mekenly
(d) ‘Calcutta’ Journal – 4. Duane
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 3, 1, 4, 2
(D) 1, 4, 2, 3
Answer: (B) 2, 3, 1, 4
Explanation: The ‘Indian World’ Journal was associated with Charles MacLean, the ‘Telegraph’ Journal with Mekenly, the ‘Bengal Kirkaru’ Journal with J.S. Buckingham, and the ‘Calcutta’ Journal with Duane. These journals played a crucial role in disseminating information during the colonial period.

16. Assertion [A]: Cinema was becoming popular in the 1940s.
Reason [R]: Anna could achieve his ideals through Cinema Artists.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false but [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Explanation: Cinema gained immense popularity in the 1940s as a medium of entertainment and communication. While Anna used cinema artists to propagate his ideals, this was not the primary reason for cinema’s popularity during that era.

17. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Champaran Agitation – Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Ghadar Party – Lala Hardayal
(C) Ganapathy Festival – Annie Besant
(D) Home Rule Movement – Gandhiji
Answer: (B) Ghadar Party – Lala Hardayal
Explanation: Lala Hardayal was a prominent leader of the Ghadar Party, which aimed to overthrow British rule in India. The Champaran Agitation was led by Gandhiji, the Ganapathy Festival was popularized by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and the Home Rule Movement was led by Annie Besant.

18. In Tuticorin, Tamil Nadu, Subramaniya Siva campaigned for a strike in 1908.
(A) March – April
(B) February – March
(C) January – February
(D) April – May
Answer: (B) February – March
Explanation: Subramaniya Siva, a prominent freedom fighter, campaigned for a strike in Tuticorin during February and March of 1908 to protest against British policies and support the Swadeshi movement.

19. Which of the following statements are true?
(i) The National Population Policy was promulgated in April 1976.
(ii) Included provisions for health care, nutrition, and more stress on education for girls.
(iii) The goal was an eventual average family size of two children.
(A) (i) only correct
(B) (i) and (ii) only correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) only correct
(D) (i), (ii), and (iii) correct
Answer: (D) (i), (ii), and (iii) correct
Explanation: The National Population Policy of 1976 aimed to address population growth by focusing on health care, nutrition, and education, particularly for girls, with the ultimate goal of achieving an average family size of two children.

20. Who founded the Satya Shodak Samaj in 1873?
(A) Jyoti Rao Phule
(B) Sri Narayana Guru
(C) Pandita Ramabai
(D) Dayananda Saraswati
Answer: (A) Jyoti Rao Phule
Explanation: Jyoti Rao Phule founded the Satya Shodak Samaj in 1873 to promote social equality and fight against caste discrimination. The organization worked to uplift the oppressed classes and ensure their rights.

21. Which among the following was the first Christian Ashram established in South?
(A) C.F. Ashram at Pachalur
(B) Christukula Ashram at Tiruppatur
(C) Zion Prayer Center at Madurai
(D) Dyana Ashram at Chennai
Answer: (B) Christukula Ashram at Tiruppatur
Explanation: Christukula Ashram at Tiruppatur was the first Christian Ashram established in South India. It aimed to integrate Christian teachings with Indian cultural and spiritual practices.

22. The Talaikota Battle was also called as
(A) Toppur Battle
(B) Rakahasi – Tangadi Battle
(C) Battle of Rajagambira Rajyam
(D) Battle of Kannanur Kuppam
Answer: (B) Rakahasi – Tangadi Battle
Explanation: The Battle of Talaikota, also known as the Rakahasi-Tangadi Battle, was fought in 1565 between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Deccan Sultanates. It marked the decline of the Vijayanagara Empire.

23. Shivaji was crowned as an independent king at
(A) Raigad
(B) Surat
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Poona
Answer: (A) Raigad
Explanation: Shivaji was crowned as an independent king at Raigad in 1674. This event marked the establishment of the Maratha Empire.

24. In the Indus Valley civilization, the major commodities in internal trade consist of
(1) Cotton
(2) Lumber
(3) Grain and foodstuffs
(4) Livestock
(A) (1), (2), (3) only correct
(B) (1), (2), (4) only correct
(C) (1), (2), (3), (4) correct
(D) (1), (4) only correct
Answer: (C) (1), (2), (3), (4) correct
Explanation: The Indus Valley civilization engaged in internal trade involving cotton, lumber, grain, foodstuffs, and livestock. These commodities were essential for their economy and daily life.

25. Which is/are the aims of a sound “Theosophical Society”?
(i) Believes in Karma, Yoga, and Indian Philosophy.
(ii) Universal spiritual brotherhood.
(iii) To protect the society from evil practices.
(A) (i) only correct
(B) (ii) and (iii) only correct
(C) (i) and (ii) only correct
(D) (ii) only correct
Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only correct
Explanation: The Theosophical Society aimed to promote universal spiritual brotherhood and believed in Karma, Yoga, and Indian Philosophy. It sought to bridge the gap between science, religion, and philosophy.

26. Assertion [A]: The zonal councils owe their origin to the constitution.
Reason [R]: The zonal councils are the logical outcome of the reorganization of states on a linguistic basis.
(A) [A] and [R] are correct; and [R] is the correct explanation for [A]
(B) [A] and [R] are correct; and [R] is not the correct explanation for [A]
(C) [A] is correct; [R] is wrong
(D) [A] is wrong; [R] is correct
Answer: (B) [A] and [R] are correct; and [R] is not the correct explanation for [A]
Explanation: The zonal councils were established under the States Reorganization Act of 1956 to promote inter-state cooperation. While the linguistic reorganization of states played a role in their emergence, it was not a constitutional provision, hence [A] is incorrect in that context.

27. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act was enacted in the year
(A) 2013
(B) 2017
(C) 2014
(D) 2016
Answer: (A) 2013
Explanation: The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act was enacted in 2013. It aims to ensure a safe and secure working environment for women and lays down procedures for complaint redressal.

28. Arrange the following events in chronological order:

Golaknath v/s State of Punjab
Keshvananda Bharati v/s State of Kerala
Minerva Mills Ltd. v/s State of India
A.K. Gopalan v/s State of Madras
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 4, 1, 2, 3
(D) 1, 3, 2, 4
Answer: (C) 4, 1, 2, 3
Explanation: The correct chronological order is:

A.K. Gopalan v/s State of Madras (1950)
Golaknath v/s State of Punjab (1967)
Keshvananda Bharati v/s State of Kerala (1973)
Minerva Mills Ltd. v/s State of India (1980)
These were landmark cases in Indian constitutional history.

29. Match correctly with the Suitable Act:
(a) Preventive Detention Act (PDA) in India
(b) The National Emergencies Act was signed into law by President Gerald Ford
(c) The Indo-Pakistan war
(d) Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities Act
(A) 2, 1, 4, 3
(B) 1, 4, 3, 2
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: (C) 3, 4, 1, 2
Explanation:

Preventive Detention Act – 1950
COFEPOSA Act – 1976
Indo-Pakistan War – 1971
National Emergencies Act (USA) – 1974
Matching these correctly helps understand national security and legislative history.

30. Consider the following Statements, Choose the correct answer:
(i) January 30th is the Death anniversary of Annal Gandhi Adigal
(ii) January 23rd is the Birth Anniversary of Netaji Subash Chandra Bose
(iii) April 14th is the Birth Anniversary of Annal Ambedkar
(iv) October 13th is the Birth Anniversary of Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(A) (i) and (ii) only correct
(B) (iv) only correct
(C) (iii) only correct
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) only correct
Answer: (D) (i), (ii), (iii) only correct
Explanation:

January 30 – Death anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi
January 23 – Birth anniversary of Netaji Subash Chandra Bose
April 14 – Birth anniversary of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
October 31, not 13 – Birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

31. A remarkable difference between China and India was observed regarding mass politics around air pollution control. This is because China employs the approach of Historical Institutionalism to control air pollution.
(A) Both [A] and [R] are correct; [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) Both [A] and [R] are correct; [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is correct; But [R] is false
(D) [R] is correct; But [A] is false
Answer: (A) Both [A] and [R] are correct; [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
Explanation: The difference between China and India regarding air pollution control stems from China’s use of Historical Institutionalism, which emphasizes long-term strategies and institutional frameworks. This approach has been effective in addressing air pollution challenges.

32. Which of the following are the objectives of Tamil Nadu Safe and Ethical Artificial Intelligence Policy, 2020?
(i) To establish guidelines for the evaluation of AI systems before its rollout for public use
(ii) To provide restricted access to open data, data models, and computing resources
(iii) To promote investments in AI R&D in Tamil Nadu
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer: (B) (i) and (iii) only
Explanation: The Tamil Nadu Safe and Ethical Artificial Intelligence Policy, 2020, aims to establish guidelines for evaluating AI systems before public use and promote investments in AI research and development. Restricted access to open data is not part of the policy’s objectives.

33. Which is/are the objective(s) of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
(i) RTI empowers citizens, promotes transparency, and accountability in the working of the government.
(ii) The Act is a big step towards making citizens informed about the activities of the government.
(iii) This Act provides the right to access information from public authorities, which is guaranteed under Article 13 of the Constitution.
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only
Explanation: The RTI Act, 2005, empowers citizens by promoting transparency and accountability in government operations and ensures citizens are informed about government activities. However, the right to access information is not guaranteed under Article 13 of the Constitution.

34. Which among the following was the first state in India to constitute an institution of Lok Ayukta?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Rajasthan
Answer: (A) Karnataka
Explanation: Karnataka was the first state in India to establish the Lok Ayukta institution in 1984 to address grievances related to corruption and maladministration.

35. Which of the following statements are true about the Election Commission of India?
(i) Conduct elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and to the office of President and Vice-President
(ii) India’s First Woman Chief Election Commissioner was Ms. V.S. Ramadevi
(iii) India’s first Chief Election Commissioner was Mr. S.P. Sen Varma
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only
Explanation: The Election Commission of India conducts elections for Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. Ms. V.S. Ramadevi was India’s first woman Chief Election Commissioner, but Mr. S.P. Sen Varma was not the first Chief Election Commissioner; Sukumar Sen was the first.

36. Match :
(a) Article 257(A)
(b) Article 131
(c) Article 245(1)
(d) Article 275

Grants-in-aid
Judicial proceedings
Supreme Court
State Jurisdiction
42nd Amendment Act
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 3 4 1
(B) 2 1 5 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 5 1 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 5 3 4 1

Explanation:
Article 257(A) is linked to the 42nd Amendment Act, which expanded central authority. Article 131 defines the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in disputes involving states and the Union. Article 245(1) relates to the legislative powers of states, and Article 275 provides for Grants-in-aid to certain states. The correct match is (a) 5, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 1.

37. Choose the correct matches from the following.
(i) Fourth Finance Commission A.K. Chanda
(ii) Tenth Finance Commission – Shri K.C. Pant
(iii) Sixth Finance Commission Dr. Rajamannar
(iv) Ninth Finance Commission – Shri N.K.P. Salve
(A) (i) and (iii) are correct
(B) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Explanation:
The Tenth Finance Commission was chaired by Shri K.C. Pant, and the Ninth Finance Commission by Shri N.K.P. Salve. The Fourth Finance Commission was chaired by Dr. P.V. Rajamannar, not A.K. Chanda. Hence, only (ii) and (iv) are correct.

38. The Financial Position of the Panchayat is reviewed under
(A) Article 243-I
(B) Article 243-E
(C) Article 243-B
(D) Article 243-C
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) Article 243-I

Explanation:
Article 243-I mandates the State Finance Commission to review the financial position of Panchayats every five years. This ensures adequate resource allocation and strengthens local governance.

39. Which of the following statements are true about the qualifications for membership of the state legislature?
(i) 25 years of age in the case of Legislative Assembly
(ii) 30 years of age in the case of Legislative Council
(iii) Possesses such other qualifications as may not be prescribed by law passed by parliament
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (i) and (ii) only

Explanation:
The minimum age for Legislative Assembly is 25 years, and for Legislative Council, it is 30 years. The Constitution allows additional qualifications to be prescribed by law, not “may not be prescribed.” Hence, only (i) and (ii) are correct.

40. The Madras Legislative Council was formed by the
(A) Government of India Act of 1919
(B) Government of India Act of 1935
(C) Indian Councils Act of 1861
(D) Government of India Act of 1858
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) Indian Councils Act of 1861

Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 established Legislative Councils in provinces like Madras. This marked the beginning of representative institutions in British India and laid the foundation for provincial legislative governance.

41. Arrange the following stages in the enactment of Budget in Ascending order

Voting on Demand for grants
Passing of Finance bill
Passing of Appropriation bill
Scrutiny by departmental committees
(A) 2, 3, 1, 4
(B) 1, 2, 4, 3
(C) 4, 1, 3, 2
(D) 3, 1, 4, 2
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 4, 1, 3, 2

Explanation:
The Budget process begins with Scrutiny by departmental committees, followed by Voting on Demand for grants, then Passing of the Appropriation bill, and finally the Finance bill. This sequence ensures thorough review, approval of expenditures, and legal sanction of revenue measures.

42. Consider the following statements about the Electoral College of Presidential Election, which among the following statements is correct?
(A) The nominated member of Lok Sabha
(B) The nominated member of Legislative Councils of States
(C) The Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members the State Legislature and Union Territories
(D) The nominated member of House of states
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) The Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members the State Legislature and Union Territories

Explanation:
The Electoral College for the Presidential Election includes elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories. Nominated members are excluded from this process.

43. Assertion [A] : Article 51-A does not expressly cast any fundamental duty on the state.
Reason [R] : The duty of every citizen of India is the collective duty of the state.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) [A] is true but [R] is false

Explanation:
Article 51-A outlines the Fundamental Duties of citizens, not of the state. These are individual responsibilities, and the idea that they are collective duties of the state is incorrect. Hence, only the assertion is true.

44. Which of the following articles on Fundamental Rights is incorrectly paired?

Article 12 Definition of State
Article 21 – Right to Education
Article 34 – Power of the Parliament to modify the rights
Article 35 Legislation to give effect to the provisions of the fundamental rights
(A) 1 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
Article 21 guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty, not the Right to Education, which is under Article 21A. Article 34 deals with restrictions on Fundamental Rights during martial law, not the power to modify rights. Therefore, these pairs are incorrect.

45. The word “union” is the “Union of States” in our Constitution was inspired by the
(A) Canadian Constitution
(B) England Constitution
(C) Irish Constitution
(D) U.S. Constitution
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) Canadian Constitution

Explanation:
The term “Union of States” in the Indian Constitution was inspired by the Canadian Constitution, which also describes its federation as a union, emphasizing its indivisibility and centralized structure.

46. Choose the right matches :

Power of High Courts to issue certain writs – Article 226
Transfer of certain cases to High Court – Article 178
Establishment of a common High Court for two (or) more states – Article 231
Extension of jurisdiction of High Courts to Union Territories – Article 320
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 4 only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:
Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of rights. Article 231 allows for the establishment of a common High Court for two or more states. The other articles are incorrectly matched.

47. Consider the following statements, and choose the correct answer :
(i) The American Constitution was the first to begin with a preamble.
(ii) “Preamble” to the Indian Constitution, resembles “Independence of the United States” observes N.A. Palkhivala.
(iii) Justice M. Hidayatullah, called the preamble, as the Identity Card of the Constitution.
(iv) A Republic Includes all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.
(A) (i) only correct
(B) (i) and (iv) only correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) only correct
(D) (ii) and (iv) only correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (ii) and (iii) only correct

Explanation:
N.A. Palkhivala likened the Indian Preamble to the Declaration of Independence of the U.S., and Justice M. Hidayatullah described it as the Identity Card of the Constitution. The American Constitution was not the first to have a preamble, and the definition of republic is broader than just access to public office.

48. State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu (SIPCOT) was established by Tamil Nadu Government for the development of
(i) Large Scale Industries
(ii) Medium Scale Industries
(iii) Small Scale Industries
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) (i) and (ii) only

Explanation:
SIPCOT was set up to promote large and medium scale industries in Tamil Nadu. It does not primarily focus on small scale industries, which are supported by other agencies.

49. The Scheme “Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan” focuses on
(i) To improve the socio-economic condition of tribal communities
(ii) To empower tribal women and promote gender equality
(iii) To provide high quality education for the tribal children
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (iii) only
(D) (i) and (ii) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (i) and (ii) only

Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram Abhiyan aims to uplift tribal communities by improving their socio-economic conditions and empowering tribal women. Education is not its primary focus.

50. From the following in the year 1962 in the wake of Chinese invasion which Act was passed?
(i) Anti-Secession Act
(ii) Anti-Immigration Act
(iii) Anti-Trafficking Act
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) (i) only

Explanation:
In 1962, following the Chinese invasion, the Anti-Secession Act was enacted to curb activities that threatened national unity and territorial integrity. The other acts were not related to this context.

51. Assertion [A] : Social Justice basically does not deal with equal social opportunities.
Reason [R] : Social Justice is non-proportional to either social equality or social rights.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are false
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are false

Explanation:
Social Justice is fundamentally about ensuring equal social opportunities, and it is closely tied to social equality and rights. Both the assertion and the reason are incorrect, as they misrepresent the core values of social justice.

52. Assertion [A] : The overall policy framework for the social sectors in India is laid out by the Central Government.
Reason [R] : The State governments have considerable flexibility in designing policies.
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(C) Both [A] and [R] are not true
(D) [A] is true and [R] is false
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
The Central Government provides the overall policy framework for social sectors, while State Governments enjoy flexibility in implementation. However, the reason does not directly explain the assertion, making it a non-causal relationship.

53. Choose the right matches
(i) The first communal order for distribution of appointments among various castes – 1920
(ii) First Backward class commission of Tamilnadu was appointed – 1970
(iii) Ambasankar Commission – Reservation totalling to 69%
(iv) Report on Tamilnadu Backward classes Commission justifying the existing reservation – 8th July 2011
(A) (i) and (iv) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (iii) and (iv) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only

Explanation:
The first Backward Class Commission in Tamil Nadu was appointed in 1970, and the Ambasankar Commission recommended 69% reservation. These are the accurate matches, while the others are either misdated or misattributed.

54. Match the following schemes with their respective beneficiaries
(a) Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatravas Yojana
(b) Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana
(c) Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram Yojana
(d) Pradhan Mantri Janjantiya Vikas Mission

Scheduled tribes
Minorities
Scheduled castes
Senior citizens
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) 3 4 2 1

Explanation:
Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatravas Yojana targets Scheduled Castes, Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana supports Senior Citizens, Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram benefits Minorities, and Pradhan Mantri Janjantiya Vikas Mission is aimed at Scheduled Tribes.

55. The Justice Party was established in the year 1916 by whom?
(A) T.M. Nair and Thiyagaraya Chetty
(B) P. Rangaiah Naidu and P. Ananda Charlu
(C) Chidamparam Pillai and Subramania Siva
(D) Jotirao Phule and Ram Mohan Roy
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) T.M. Nair and Thiyagaraya Chetty

Explanation:
The Justice Party was founded in 1916 by T.M. Nair and Thiyagaraya Chetty to represent non-Brahmin interests in the Madras Presidency, marking a significant moment in South Indian political history.

56. Arrange the event in Chronological order
(1) South Indian liberal Federation was formed
(2) Madras United League was renamed as Madras Dravidian Association
(3) Periyar E.V.R. transformed the Justice Party into Dravidar Kazhagam
(4) The Ministry of A. Subbarayalu Reddiar fought against the Swarajya Party
(A) (2), (4), (1), (3)
(B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
(C) (1), (2), (4), (3)
(D) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)

Explanation:
The Madras United League was first renamed as the Madras Dravidian Association, followed by the formation of the South Indian Liberal Federation, then the Reddiar Ministry’s opposition to the Swarajya Party, and finally Periyar’s transformation of the Justice Party into Dravidar Kazhagam.

57. The following statements are about the Tamil Nadu Government’s initiatives : Find the correct statements.
(a) Allocation of 5 crores to translate all the works of Annal Ambedkar into Tamil through Tamil Development Department
(b) 10 crores for establishment of Tamil Parapurai Kazhagam
(c) Allocation of 5 crore for creation of separate department of Tamil Literature in JNU, Delhi
(d) 30 lakhs financial support for Theera Kaadhal Thirukural Project
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (a) and (d) only
(D) (c) and (d) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (a) and (c) only

Explanation:
The Tamil Nadu Government allocated ₹5 crores for translating Ambedkar’s works and another ₹5 crores for establishing a Tamil Literature department at JNU. The other initiatives are either not officially confirmed or misstated.

58. “Over half of India’s GDP comes from rural India and almost two thirds of rural GDP comes from non-farm activities. Despite this, there are too many people engaged in low productivity occupations, and a lot more work of better, predictable nature is needed to enable a better life for rural India’s inhabitants, especially the young”.
What can be inferred from the above statement about the economic contribution of rural India to the overall GDP?
(A) Rural India contributes less than half of India’s GDP
(B) Rural India contributes more than half of India’s GDP, but its economy heavily depends on farm activities
(C) The GDP of rural India is solely driven by agricultural activities
(D) Rural India contributes more than half of India’s GDP, and a significant portion comes from non-farm activities
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) Rural India contributes more than half of India’s GDP, and a significant portion comes from non-farm activities

Explanation:
The statement highlights that rural India contributes over half of the GDP, and non-farm activities account for two-thirds of rural GDP. This shows the growing importance of non-agricultural sectors in rural development.

59. Which of the following statements are true about “The Chief Minister’s Breakfast Scheme”?
(i) It has increased student attendance to high schools
(ii) Primary school children benefit from the scheme
(iii) The scheme has led to improvement in learning skills among children
(iv) The scheme is limited to government schools only
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iv) only
(D) (ii) and (iv) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only

Explanation:
The Chief Minister’s Breakfast Scheme is designed for primary school children and has shown positive impact on learning outcomes. Claims about high school attendance and school type limitations are either unsupported or inaccurate.

60. Match the four engines of development in the Budget 2025-2026 :
(a) 1st Engine
(b) 2nd Engine
(c) 3rd Engine
(d) 4th Engine

MSMEs
Export
Agriculture
Investment in people
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:
The Budget 2025–2026 identifies Agriculture as the first engine, MSMEs as the second, Investment in people as the third, and Export as the fourth. These sectors are prioritized to drive inclusive and sustainable development.

61. Which of the following statement(s) are correct about “Tamil Pudalvan” Scheme?
(i) Launched on October 2024.
(ii) Improve the financial status of all male students studying in government school after school education.
(iii) Monthly financial assistance of Rs. 1,000.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (i) and (iii) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (ii) and (iii) only

Explanation:
The Tamil Pudalvan Scheme provides monthly financial assistance of ₹1,000 to male students in government schools pursuing education beyond school level. The launch date is not officially confirmed as October 2024, making only (ii) and (iii) valid.

62. Why Business Firms choose Tamil Nadu as their preferred destination for investment?
(A) The State of the Art Infrastructure
(B) Tax Concessions
(C) More number of unemployed
(D) More number of graduates
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) The State of the Art Infrastructure

Explanation:
Tamil Nadu attracts investment due to its advanced infrastructure, including industrial parks, transport connectivity, and power supply. These facilities create a business-friendly environment, making it a top choice for firms.

63. Name the scheme, a Tri-ministerial effort which includes Women and Child Development, Health and Family Welfare and Human Resource Development.
(A) Integrated Child Development Scheme
(B) Child Development Scheme
(C) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme
(D) Smart City Mission
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme

Explanation:
The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao Scheme is a collaborative initiative involving the Ministries of Women and Child Development, Health and Family Welfare, and Human Resource Development. It focuses on gender equality and girl child empowerment.

64. Assertion [A] : During 2001 to 2026, for the states Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh, the population is expected to increase by 45-55%.
Reason [R] : More than half of demographic transition is expected during that period.
(A) [A] is true, [R] is false
(B) [R] is true, [A] is false
(C) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
Between 2001 and 2026, states like Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh are projected to see a population increase of 45–55%. This is due to the ongoing demographic transition, where birth and death rates decline, leading to population growth.

65. Assertion [A] : The demographic dividend is defined as a rise in the rate of Economic growth due to a rising share of working age people in a population.
Reason [R] : India is in the midst of process where it faces the window of opportunity created by Demographic Dividend.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
A demographic dividend refers to economic growth resulting from a larger working-age population. India is currently experiencing this window of opportunity, making both the assertion and reason valid, with the reason correctly explaining the assertion.

66. Match with the schemes and its main focus :
(a) PMGSY
(b) DDUGKY
(c) NRLM
(d) MGNREGA

Focus on rural youth between the age of 15 to 35 years from poor families
Sustainable livelihood opportunities
Rural connectivity
Livelihood security in rural areas
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 3 1 2 4

Explanation:
PMGSY aims to improve rural connectivity through road infrastructure. DDUGKY targets rural youth aged 15–35 from poor families for skill development. NRLM promotes sustainable livelihood opportunities for rural poor. MGNREGA ensures livelihood security by providing wage employment.

67. Match the following : Water Conservation Programmes and States
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat
(d) Haryana

Jal Jeevan Hariyali
Neeru – Chettu
Jal Hi Jeevan Hai
Sujalam Sufalam Jal Sanchay Abhiyan
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 1 2 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3

Explanation:
Neeru – Chettu is a water conservation initiative of Andhra Pradesh. Jal Jeevan Hariyali is implemented in Bihar. Sujalam Sufalam Jal Sanchay Abhiyan belongs to Gujarat, and Jal Hi Jeevan Hai is a programme of Haryana.

68. Assertion [A] : There has been a significant rise in the percentage of labour force engaged in Industrial sector during 1990s and 2000s.
Reason [R] : There has been a significant rise in employment in the construction sector between 1991 and 2011.
(A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
The industrial sector saw a rise in labour force participation during the 1990s and 2000s, largely driven by growth in construction employment between 1991 and 2011, making the reason a valid explanation.

69. Which of the following is not the function of the Finance Commission in India?
(A) Preparation of Union budget
(B) The distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the union and the states
(C) Recommend the principles which should govern the Grants-in-aid
(D) Any other matter to be referred to the President to promote sound finance
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) Preparation of Union budget

Explanation:
The Finance Commission is responsible for tax distribution, grants-in-aid recommendations, and advising the President on financial matters. It does not prepare the Union budget, which is the role of the Ministry of Finance.

70. Which of the following statement is true?
(1) Increasing Bank rate policy reduces borrowing among businessmen
(2) To control inflation RBI increases bank rate policy
(3) Bank rate policy helps to control increasing price of goods
(A) Statement (2) and (3) are correct
(B) Statement (1) and (2) are correct
(C) Statement (1) and (3) are correct
(D) Statement (1), (2) and (3) are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) Statement (1), (2) and (3) are correct

Explanation:
An increase in bank rate makes borrowing more expensive, discouraging loans. The RBI uses this tool to control inflation, and it helps stabilize prices by reducing excess demand.

71. Match the following :
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) S.N. Agarwal
(c) J.P. Narayan
(d) M.N. Roy

People’s plan
Sarvodhaya plan
Gandhian plan
National Planning Commission
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Explanation:
Jawaharlal Nehru is linked to the National Planning Commission, S.N. Agarwal with the Gandhian plan, J.P. Narayan with the Sarvodhaya plan, and M.N. Roy with the People’s plan, reflecting their respective ideologies.

72. Achieved growth rate of Eleventh Five Year plan is
(A) 8.2%
(B) 9.0%
(C) 10.0%
(D) 7.0%
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 8.2%

Explanation:
The Eleventh Five Year Plan targeted 9% growth, but achieved an average of 8.2%, reflecting strong performance despite global economic challenges.

73. According to Ragner Nurkse the starting point and continuation for development lies in
(A) Organised money market
(B) Increasing the rate of capital formation
(C) Technological growth
(D) Removal of dualistic economy
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Increasing the rate of capital formation

Explanation:
Ragnar Nurkse emphasized that development begins with capital formation, which fuels investment, employment, and economic expansion, especially in underdeveloped economies.

74. When one sees the person who taught not forgetting what they taught is dealt in the chapter
(A) Detectives
(B) Hopefulness in Trouble
(C) Tyranny of rule
(D) Benignity (perspective)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) Detectives

Explanation:
The chapter on Detectives explores the virtue of remembering and respecting one’s teacher, highlighting the moral value of gratitude and intellectual integrity.

75. “Ozhukkaaraak Kolka Oruvandhan Nenjaththu Azhukkaaru Iladha Iyalpu”. What is the meaning of the word “Azhukkaaru”?
(A) Love
(B) Submissive
(C) Jealous
(D) Good Character
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) Jealous

Explanation:
In this Thirukkural, the word “Azhukkaaru” refers to jealousy, implying that a person of discipline and virtue is free from envy and impure thoughts.

76. Pick out the incorrectly paired from the following :
(1) 1962 The Madras State (Alteration of Name) Act was passed by the Parliament
(2) 1967 Perarignar Anna Sworn in as the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu
(3) 1968 Perarignar Anna was elected to the Rajya Sabha
(4) 1969 The Madras State (Alteration of Name) Act came into force
(A) (1) only incorrect
(B) (1) and (2) are incorrect
(C) (1) and (3) are incorrect
(D) (1) and (4) are incorrect
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (1) and (3) are incorrect

Explanation:
The Madras State (Alteration of Name) Act was passed in 1968, not 1962. Also, Perarignar Anna was not elected to the Rajya Sabha in 1968. Therefore, both statements (1) and (3) are incorrectly paired.

77. Find out the rightly matched pair/s from the following and choose the correct answer from the code given.
(1) 1925 – Periyar EVR started the periodical ‘Kudi Arasu’
(2) 1928 The English periodical ‘Revolt’ was started
(3) 1934 Periyar published ‘Viduthalai’ as a Tamil Daily Newspaper
(4) 1937 Periyar brought out the Tamil Weekly ‘Pagutharivu’
Codes
(A) Only (1) and (2) are correct
(B) Only (1) and (3) are correct
(C) Only (1) and (4) are correct
(D) Only (1), (2) and (4) are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) Only (1) and (2) are correct

Explanation:
Periyar started ‘Kudi Arasu’ in 1925, and the English journal ‘Revolt’ was launched in 1928. The other publications are either misdated or not accurately attributed to those years.

78. Assertion [A] : Tamilnadu Women Conference held on 13.11.1938 at Chennai under the leadership of T. Neelambikai Ammaiyar.
Reason [R] : This conference passed a resolution for abolition of caste discrimination and the title “Periyar” was conferred on E.V. Ramasamy by this Tamil Nadu Women Conference.
(A) [A] is true [R] is false
(B) [A] is false and [R] is false
(C) [A] is false [R] is true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(D) [A] is true and [R] is true
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) [A] is true and [R] is true

Explanation:
The Tamil Nadu Women’s Conference held in 1938 under T. Neelambikai Ammaiyar passed a resolution for abolition of caste discrimination and conferred the title “Periyar” on E.V. Ramasamy, making both statements true.

79. Match correctly books/journals with authors
(a) The Mirror of the year
(b) History of the Justice Party
(c) From Sir Theagarayar to Dr. Kalaignar
(d) Justice Movement

A.P. Patro
N.S. Elango
Muthusami Pillai
A.R. Mudaliar
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 3 2 4
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) 1 3 2 4

Explanation:
A.P. Patro authored The Mirror of the Year, Muthusami Pillai wrote History of the Justice Party, N.S. Elango penned From Sir Theagarayar to Dr. Kalaignar, and A.R. Mudaliar contributed to Justice Movement.

80. The members of the Justice Party were sent to meet Joint select committee in London for finalise Government India Act in 1919
(i) Arcot Ramasamy Mudaliyar
(ii) Koka Apparao
(iii) T.A. Ramalingam
(iv) S.K. Thulasiram
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii), (ii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iv)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (i), (ii), (iv)

Explanation:
Arcot Ramasamy Mudaliyar, Koka Apparao, and S.K. Thulasiram were the Justice Party representatives who met the Joint Select Committee in London regarding the Government of India Act, 1919.

81. Choose the right matches among type.
(1) Krishnabai Nimbkar – Madras Youth League
(2) Rukmini Lakshmipathi – President of the Madras Women’s Students Organisation
(3) Antony Ammal
(4) Manjubhashini – Pankaja Textile Mill

Acting President of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee during Quit India Movement
(A) (1) and (3) are correct
(B) (1) and (2) are correct
(C) (2) and (3) are correct
(D) (3) and (4) are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (1) and (2) are correct

Explanation:
Krishnabai Nimbkar was associated with the Madras Youth League, and Rukmini Lakshmipathi served as President of the Madras Women’s Students Organisation. The other matches are not historically accurate.

82. Assertion [A] : The company asked the Collector of Ramnad to Summon Kattabomman to his office at Ramnad.
Reason [R] : Kattabomman was asked to meet the Collector in connection with the arrears of tribute that he owed to the company.
(A) [A] is true [R] is true
(B) Both [A] and [R] is false
(C) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
Kattabomman was summoned by the Collector of Ramnad due to arrears of tribute owed to the British East India Company, making both the assertion and reason true, with a direct causal link.

83. Arrange the following events in chronological order :
(1) Salt Satyagraha
(2) Swadeshi Movement
(3) Quit India Movement
(4) Non Co-operation Movement
(A) (1), (2), (4), (3)
(B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(C) (2), (3), (1), (4)
(D) (2), (4), (1), (3)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Explanation:
The correct chronological order is:
Swadeshi Movement (1905) → Non-Cooperation Movement (1920) → Salt Satyagraha (1930) → Quit India Movement (1942).

84. Identify the person who uttered that, “Nothing can be done without shedding of blood. Japan was prepared to sacrifice 20,000 men and gained a victory over Russia. If 15 crores of Indians do the same, ‘Swaraj will be obtained’.”
(A) V.O. Chidambaram Pillai
(B) Subramania Siva
(C) Subramania Bharathi
(D) Vanchi Aiyar
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Subramania Siva

Explanation:
Subramania Siva made this revolutionary statement to inspire Indians to fight for Swaraj with determination and sacrifice, drawing parallels with Japan’s victory over Russia.

85. Choose the right matches among type :

Porpanaikottai – A sangam age fort
Iron Knife – Pallavaram
Merchant Guild Inscription – Mayiladumparai
Sarcophagus – Marungur
(A) 1 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 3 and 4 are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:
Porpanaikottai is identified as a Sangam age fort, and an Iron Knife was discovered at Pallavaram, confirming both matches. The other pairings do not align with verified archaeological records.

86. Arrange the following with reference to different stages of human development :

The Nomadic stage
The pastoral stage
The hunting stage
The agricultural stage
(A) 2, 3, 1, 4
(B) 1, 4, 3, 2
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 4, 1, 2, 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 3, 1, 2, 4

Explanation:
Human development progressed from the hunting stage, to the nomadic stage, followed by the pastoral stage, and finally the agricultural stage, marking the transition from survival to settlement.

87. ‘The Ocean of birth swims, swims and does not join the Lord’ – What is the philosophy of this Kural?
(A) Siva Philosophy
(B) Vidhya Philosophy
(C) Surrender Philosophy
(D) Soul Philosophy
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) Soul Philosophy

Explanation:
This Kural reflects the Soul Philosophy, portraying the endless cycle of birth and rebirth and the soul’s struggle to attain union with the divine, emphasizing spiritual liberation.

88. Thirukkural Uraiasiriarkal :
(i) Pariperumal
(ii) Dharumar
(iii) Ki.Va.Ja
(iv) Dhandapani Thesigar
(A) (i) only
(B) (i), (ii) only
(C) (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (iv) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (i), (ii) only

Explanation:
Pariperumal and Dharumar are recognized commentators (Uraiasiriarkal) of the Thirukkural, known for their traditional interpretations. The others are not conventionally listed among the classical commentators.

89. Assertion [A] : That is the land or country which forces free from fierce famine, wasting plague and ravages of enemies
Reason [R] : Poets consider it their primary duty to wish the country and wish for the development of its people. They want all countries to be special, not just their own.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) [A] is false but [R] is true
(C) Both [A] and [R] are true, [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) Both [A] and [R] are true, [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
A country free from famine, plague, and enemy attacks is considered ideal. Poets often express universal goodwill, wishing for the prosperity of all nations, making both the assertion and reason true and connected.

90. Which of the following statements are true?

All the religions were accepted and appreciated in Thirukkural
Every religions ratified the views of Thiruvalluvar
He didn’t believe morality
Valluvar said that men with high principles deserved to live as.
(A) 1 and 2 only correct
(B) 2 and 3 only correct
(C) 2 and 4 only correct
(D) 3 and 4 only correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 2 and 4 only correct

Explanation:
Thiruvalluvar’s views were endorsed by multiple religious traditions, and he emphasized that men of high principles deserve a noble life. The claim that he didn’t believe in morality is incorrect, as morality is central to his teachings.

91. Arrange the following in order :

The goodness of the help to domestic life
The possession of love
Domestic life
The obtaining of sons
(A) 3, 1, 4, 2
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 1, 2, 4, 3
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 3, 1, 4, 2

Explanation:
The sequence begins with domestic life, followed by the goodness of help it brings, then the obtaining of sons as a result, and finally the possession of love, which crowns family virtue.

92. Which book features the series “Pagaivar pull Aarga”?
(A) Natrinai
(B) Kalitthogai
(C) Aingkurunuru
(D) Purananuru
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) Aingkurunuru

Explanation:
The phrase “Pagaivar pull Aarga” appears in Aingkurunuru, a classical Tamil anthology known for its intimate poetic expressions and landscape-based themes.

93. Who gave special importance to Village Administration?
(A) Cheras
(B) Cholas
(C) Pandyas
(D) Pallavas
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Cholas

Explanation:
The Chola dynasty is renowned for its efficient village administration, including local self-governance, village assemblies, and detailed record-keeping, which influenced future governance models.

94. Assertion [A] Some poets live on their prize money. Most of the poets have their own professions. They don’t depend on prizes.
Reason [R] : When poets who make a living out of their prizes get prizes of low value / below their expectation; they reject it.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
(C) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(D) [A] is false, [R] is true
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct

Explanation:
While some poets rely on prize money, most have independent professions. It’s also true that some reject prizes if unsatisfactory, but this does not fully explain the broader reality of poets’ livelihoods.

95. One man, 3 women and 4 boys can do a piece of work in 96 hours, 2 men and 8 boys can do it in 80 hours, 2 men and 3 women can do it in 120 hours then 5 men and 12 boys can do it in
(A) 39 1/11 hours
(B) 42 7/11 hours
(C) 43 4/11 hours
(D) 44 hours
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 42 7/11 hours

Explanation:
By forming equations based on work rates of men, women, and boys, and solving them, the total time for 5 men and 12 boys to complete the work is calculated as 42 7/11 hours.

96. The diagonal of a rectangle is thrice its smaller side. The ratio of the length to the breadth of the rectangle is
(A) 3:1
(B) √3:1
(C) 2:1
(D) 2√2:1
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) 2√2:1

Explanation:
Let the smaller side be x, and the other side be y. The diagonal is √(x² + y²) = 3x. Solving gives y = 2√2 x, so the ratio of length to breadth is 2√2:1.

97. If x : 7.5 = 8 : y = 7 : 17.5 find x : y
(A) 3:22
(B) 1:7
(C) 3:20
(D) 3:23
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 3:20

Explanation:
Solving the proportion:
x/7.5 = 8/y = 7/17.5
From this, x = 3 and y = 20, giving the ratio x : y = 3:20.

98. If Rs. 1,600 is divided among P and Q in the ratio 5 : 3 then Q’s share is
(A) 900
(B) 600
(C) 1000
(D) 1200
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 600

Explanation:
Total parts = 5 + 3 = 8
Q’s share = (3/8) × 1600 = 600

99. L.C.M. of (2x² – 3xy), (4x – 6y)³ and (8x³ – 27y³) is ?
(A) 2x(2x-3y)³ (4x² + 6xy + 9y²)
(B) 2³ x²(2x-3y)³ (4x² + 6xy + 9y²)
(C) 2² x²(2x-3y)²(4x² + 6xy + 9 y²)
(D) 2²x² (2x-3y)² (4x +6xy +9y)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 2³ x²(2x-3y)³ (4x² + 6xy + 9y²)

Explanation:
Factoring each expression and taking the highest powers of common terms gives the LCM as 2³ x² (2x-3y)³ (4x² + 6xy + 9y²).

100. Peter got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks. However, Paul who took the same examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the passing marks. What were the passing marks in the examination?
(A) 35
(B) 65
(C) 85
(D) 70
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 85

Explanation:
Let maximum marks = x
Peter: 0.3x = passing marks – 10
Paul: 0.4x = passing marks + 15
Solving gives passing marks = 85.

101. Akila scored 80% of marks in an examination. If her score was 576 marks then find the maximum marks of the examination
(A) 720
(B) 620
(C) 820
(D) 710
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 720

Explanation:
Akila scored 576 marks, which is 80% of the total. So, maximum marks = (576 × 100) / 80 = 720.

102. Find the next term.
0.5, 0.6, 1.5, 4, 8.9,
(A) 12.6
(B) 13.5
(C) 14.3
(D) 17.0
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) 17.0

Explanation:
The sequence follows a pattern of multiplying and adding. Each term increases rapidly, and the next logical value is 17.0.

103. A, B, C, D, E and F are cousins. No two cousins are of the same age but all have birthdays on the same date. The youngest is 17 years old and the oldest E is 22. F is somewhere between B and D in age. A is older than B. C is older than D. Which of the following is not possible?
(A) D is 20 years old
(B) F is 18 years old
(C) F is 19 years old
(D) F is 20 years old
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) F is 20 years old

Explanation:
Given the age constraints and relative positions, F cannot be 20 years old without violating the condition that C is older than D and F is between B and D.

104. In a dice, if 2 is adjacent to 3, 5 and 6, then which of the following is necessarily true?
(A) 3 is adjacent to 6
(B) 1 is adjacent to 4
(C) 2 is adjacent to 4
(D) 2 is adjacent to 1
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 1 is adjacent to 4

Explanation:
If 2 is adjacent to 3, 5, and 6, then the remaining pair 1 and 4 must be opposite faces, making them adjacent to each other.

105. Five girls are sitting in a row. Rosy is not adjacent to Sivanandhini and Abi. Anuradha is not adjacent to Sivanandhini. Rosy is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then, Anuradha is adjacent to whom out of the following?
(A) Rosy
(B) Sivanandhini
(C) Monika
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) Rosy

Explanation:
With Monika in the middle, and Rosy adjacent to her, the arrangement places Anuradha next to Rosy, satisfying all conditions.

106. One Rutherford is equal to
(A) 10⁸ disintegrations per second
(B) 10⁴ disintegrations per second
(C) 10⁶ disintegrations per second
(D) 1 disintegration per second
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 10⁶ disintegrations per second

Explanation:
One Rutherford is defined as 10⁶ disintegrations per second, a unit used to measure radioactivity.

107. Kessler syndrome refers to
(A) Radio Frequency Interference in space
(B) Light Pollution in space
(C) Accumulation satellite fragments, spent rocket stages and other discarded materials in space
(D) Formation of Cirrus, Cumulus, Cumulo Nimbus clouds that distracts the light penetration
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) Accumulation satellite fragments, spent rocket stages and other discarded materials in space

Explanation:
Kessler syndrome describes the dangerous buildup of space debris, which can lead to collisions and cascading damage in orbit.

108. Assertion [A] : University students think more critically about the new subjects and situation they encounter.
Reason [R] : University professors encourage conceptual learning and understanding of the new subject concepts at the primary levels.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false but [R] is true
(D) [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) [A] is true but [R] is false

Explanation:
University students do engage in critical thinking, but university professors do not teach at primary levels, making the reason incorrect.

109. Match the following and find out the correct sequence.
(a) Abiotic component
(b) Bagasse
(c) Carcinogen
(d) Carnivorous

The crushed cane after extraction of juice
Animals that feed on other animals
Non-living component in an eco system
Toxic organic compound causing cancer
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 1 2 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:
Abiotic component = non-living part of ecosystem,
Bagasse = crushed sugarcane residue,
Carcinogen = cancer-causing compound,
Carnivorous = animal that eats other animals.

110. Assertion [A] : Overloading of Nitrogen in the environment can cause an imbalance to the natural nitrogen cycle.
Reason [R] : Nitrogen becomes a pollutant when it escapes into the environment and reacts with other organic compounds.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
Excess nitrogen disrupts the natural cycle and becomes a pollutant when it reacts with organic compounds, leading to environmental imbalance.

111. Which of the following caused by earthquake?
(i) Lightning
(ii) Landslide
(iii) Thundering
(iv) Tsunami
(v) Floods
(A) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) only
(D) (ii) and (v)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) (ii), (iv) and (v)

Explanation:
Earthquakes can trigger landslides, cause tsunamis, and lead to floods due to dam failures or changes in river flow. Lightning and thundering are unrelated to seismic activity.

112. Match the following :
(a) Sanitary landfills
(b) Incineration
(c) Pulverizing
(d) Pyrolysis

Burning of waste
Deposit the refuse and compost it with bulldozers
Combustion in absence of oxygen
Spreading the waste on fields
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 2 1 3 4

Explanation:
Sanitary landfills involve composting refuse with bulldozers, Incineration is burning waste, Pyrolysis is combustion without oxygen, and Pulverizing refers to spreading waste on fields.

113. Choose the incorrect answer of forest types and their species in India.
(1) Evergreen forest – Rose wood, Toon, Ebony, Gurjan
(2) Monsoon forest – Silver fir, Walnut, Deodar, White Willow
(3) Tropical forest – Chir, Blue Pine, Spruce, Cypress
(A) (1) only
(B) (1) and (3) only
(C) (2) only
(D) (2) and (3) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (2) and (3) only

Explanation:
Monsoon forests do not contain temperate species like Silver fir or Deodar, and Tropical forests do not include Chir or Blue Pine, which are found in temperate zones.

114. Consider the statements on monsoon and choose the right answer
(i) Most monsoon rainfall is caused by the depression over Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal.
(ii) The amount of rainfall increases with increasing distance from the sea shore.
(iii) The eastern coastal area of Tamil Nadu remains dry during South West monsoon.
(A) (i) is true
(B) (i) and (iii) are true
(C) (ii) and (iii) are true
(D) (i) and (ii) are true
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (i) and (iii) are true

Explanation:
Monsoon rainfall is driven by depressions over the seas, and the eastern coast of Tamil Nadu remains dry during the South West monsoon. Rainfall does not increase with distance from the coast.

115. Match correctly the Nationalist Papers and its Authors :
(a) Subramaniya Bharathi
(b) Mrs. Annie Besant
(c) G. Subramanya Iyer
(d) P. Anandacharlu

Swadesamithran
Madras Mahajana Sabha
India
New India
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 4 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:
Subramaniya Bharathi edited India, Annie Besant edited New India, G. Subramanya Iyer was associated with Swadesamithran, and P. Anandacharlu with Madras Mahajana Sabha.

116. Match the following :
(a) Home Rule Movement
(b) Kudi Arasu
(c) Women’s Swadeshi League
(d) Abolition of Devadasi system

S. Ambujammal
Annie Besant
Muthulakshmi Reddy
E.V. Ramasamy
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 2 1 4
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:
Home Rule Movement was led by Annie Besant, Kudi Arasu was published by E.V. Ramasamy, Women’s Swadeshi League was founded by S. Ambujammal, and Muthulakshmi Reddy worked for abolition of Devadasi system.

117. Arrange the Conquests of Iltutmish in Chronological order :
(1) Bengal
(2) Bilsa Fort
(3) Gwalior
(4) Ranthambhor
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (1), (3), (4), (2)
(C) (4), (1), (3), (2)
(D) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (1), (3), (4), (2)

Explanation:
Iltutmish first conquered Bengal, followed by Gwalior, then Ranthambhor, and finally Bilsa Fort, marking his territorial expansion.

118. Which of the following statements are true about the Houses at Mohenjo-daro?
(i) It was discovered in Montgomery District of Punjab.
(ii) Mohenjo-daro the houses were made of Kiln-burnt bricks.
(iii) Kiln-burnt bricks in large quantities were used for drains.
(A) (i) and (iii) only
(B) (i) only
(C) (ii) and (iii) only
(D) (ii) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (ii) and (iii) only

Explanation:
Mohenjo-daro houses were built using kiln-burnt bricks, and these were also used extensively for drainage systems. The site is located in Sindh, not Montgomery District.

119. Pick out the incorrectly paired from the following :
(1) Smoke and Ashes : Opium’s Hidden Histories – Amitav Ghosh
(2) The Golden Road – William Dalrymple
(3) Twilight Prisoners : The Rise of the Hindu Right and the Decline of India – Minakshi Dewan
(4) The Final Farewell : Understanding the Last Rites and Rituals of India’s Major Faiths – Siddhartha Deb
(A) (1) and (4) are incorrect
(B) (1) and (2) are incorrect
(C) (2) and (3) are incorrect
(D) (3) and (4) are incorrect
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (2) and (3) are incorrect

Explanation:
The Golden Road is not authored by William Dalrymple, and Twilight Prisoners is not written by Minakshi Dewan, making both pairs incorrect.

120. Assertion [A] : In 1946, the Muslim League withdrew its acceptance to the Cabinet Mission Plan.
Reason [R] : The Muslim League joined the interim government formed in 1946.
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(D) [A] is false, but [R] is true
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
The Muslim League did withdraw from the Cabinet Mission Plan and later joined the interim government, but the reason does not explain the withdrawal, making both statements true but unrelated.

121. Assertion [A] : DMK played a leading role in the Anti-Hindi campaign.
Reason [R] : It urged people to write under the Tamil identity.
(A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
The DMK was a key leader in the Anti-Hindi agitation, promoting Tamil identity and encouraging people to use Tamil in education and administration, which directly explains their role in the movement.

122. On 24th September 1932, Poona pact was signed between
(A) Gandhi – Irwin
(B) Gandhi – Jinnah
(C) Gandhi – Ambedkar
(D) Gandhi – Ramsay Mac Donald
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) Gandhi – Ambedkar

Explanation:
The Poona Pact was signed between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to resolve differences over separate electorates for the Depressed Classes, ensuring reserved seats instead.

123. Choose the right matches :
(1) Ferosha Metha
(2) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
(3) Dadabhai Naoroji
(4) S.N. Banerjee
Disciple of Gokhale
Servants of India Society
Drain Theory
Safety Valve Theory
(A) (2) and (3) are correct
(B) (1) and (2) are correct
(C) (2) and (4) are correct
(D) (3) and (4) are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) (2) and (3) are correct

Explanation:
Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society, and Dadabhai Naoroji proposed the Drain Theory. The other pairings are either incorrect or misattributed.

124. Match correctly the Excavated materials with their corresponding Excavation place :
(a) Shell Bangles
(b) Ring Well
(c) Roman Coins
(d) Silver Stamps

Azhagankulam
Thulukkarpatti
Kezhadi
Vembakottai
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 1 4 2 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 4 3 1 2

Explanation:
Shell Bangles were found at Vembakottai, Ring Well at Kezhadi, Roman Coins at Azhagankulam, and Silver Stamps at Thulukkarpatti, reflecting distinct cultural layers.

125. Assertion [A] : Muhammad Ghur attacked the Fortress of Tabarhind, a strategic point for the Chauhans of Ajmer.
Reason [R] : The Ruler of Ajmer Prithvi Raj Chauhan marched to Tabarhinda and faced the invader in the first Battle of Tarain (1191)
(A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A], [A] only is correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
Muhammad Ghur’s attack on Tabarhind prompted Prithvi Raj Chauhan to respond, leading to the first Battle of Tarain in 1191, making both statements true and causally linked.

126. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Right to Privacy – Justice K.S. Puttaswamy Rtd. Vs. Union of India
Passive Euthanasia – Common Cause (Regd. Society) Vs. Union of India
Right to Vote – Ministry of Defence Vs. Babita Puniya
NOTA in Elections – Swapnil Tripathi Vs. Supreme Court of India
(A) 1 and 3 are correct
(B) 1 and 2 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 3 and 4 are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation:
Right to Privacy was upheld in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy Vs. Union of India, and Passive Euthanasia in Common Cause Vs. Union of India. The other cases are incorrectly matched.

127. With reference to the functional items placed within the purview of municipalities, consider the following.
(i) Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries
(ii) Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society
(iii) Small-scale industries, including food processing industries
(iv) Technical training and vocational education
Which of the above is/are correct statements?
(A) (i) and (iv) are correct
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) (i) and (ii) are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (i) and (ii) are correct

Explanation:
Municipalities are responsible for regulating slaughter houses and tanneries, and for protecting weaker sections. The other items fall under state or central schemes, not core municipal duties.

128. The Union Executive consists of the

Council of Ministers
President of India
Central Secretariat
Vice President
Choose the correct answer by using the code given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation:
The Union Executive includes the President, Vice President, and Council of Ministers. The Central Secretariat is an administrative body, not part of the executive.

129. What is the definition of a child under the POCSO Act?
(A) Below 14 years of age
(B) Below 16 years of age
(C) Below 18 years of age
(D) Below 21 years of age
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) Below 18 years of age

Explanation:
Under the POCSO Act, a child is defined as any person below 18 years, ensuring protection from sexual offences.

130. Assertion [A] : Every Citizen shall have the right to move freely throughout the Territory of India or to reside and settle in any part of the country.
Reason [R] : This Right shall be subject to restrictions imposed by the state in the interests of the general public or for the protection of the interests of any Scheduled Caste.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
The right to move freely and settle is guaranteed under Article 19, but it is subject to reasonable restrictions for public interest or protection of Scheduled Castes, making both statements true and connected.

131. Which of the following statements is incorrect about India’s Act East Policy?
(A) This policy promotes proactive diplomacy with political and military intervention to curb insurgency in the Asia-Pacific region
(B) This policy was originally conceived as an economic initiative
(C) This policy focuses on the extend neighbourhood in Asia-Pacific region
(D) This policy promotes enhanced connectivity to Asia-Pacific region through North-Eastern Region
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) This policy promotes proactive diplomacy with political and military intervention to curb insurgency in the Asia-Pacific region

Explanation:
India’s Act East Policy was conceived as an economic initiative to strengthen ties with the Asia-Pacific region, especially through the North-Eastern Region. It does not involve military intervention, making option (A) incorrect.

132. The objective of the National Human Rights Commission are :
(i) To strengthen the institutional arrangements through which human rights issues could be addressed in their entirety in a more focussed manner
(ii) To look into allegations of excesses, independently of the government
(iii) To contrast and strengthen the efforts that have already been made in this direction.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Explanation:
The National Human Rights Commission aims to strengthen institutional mechanisms, investigate violations independently, and support existing efforts to uphold human rights across India.

133. Match the following (Women Empowerment)
(a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
(b) National Food Security Act
(c) Rights of persons with Disabilities Act
(d) Mental Health Care Act

2013
2016
2017
1971
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 3 4 2 1
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 4 1 2 3

Explanation:
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was enacted in 1971, National Food Security Act in 2013, Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act in 2016, and Mental Health Care Act in 2017.

134. Which of the following is correctly pair/pairs?

Fifth Law Commission – K.V.K. Sundaram
Tenth Law Commission – Justice K.K. Mathew
Nineteenth Law Commission – Justice M. Jagannadha Rao
Twentieth Law Commission – B.S. Chauhan
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) 3 and 4

Explanation:
Justice M. Jagannadha Rao chaired the Nineteenth Law Commission, and B.S. Chauhan led the Twentieth Law Commission. The other pairings are incorrect.

135. Assertion [A] : Art. 121 prohibits any discussion in parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.
Reason [R] : The objective of Art. 121 is to ensure the independence and dignity of the Judiciary.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false; [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
Article 121 restricts parliamentary discussion on judicial conduct to preserve judicial independence and dignity, making both the assertion and reason true and directly related.

136. Assertion [A] : Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the concurrent list or state list
Reason [R] : VIII schedule of the constitution contains union list, state list and concurrent list
(A) [A] is true, but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false but [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) [A] is true, but [R] is false

Explanation:
Parliament has residuary powers over subjects not in the State or Concurrent Lists. The VIII Schedule deals with languages, not legislative lists, making the reason incorrect.

137. Match the Article :
(a) Audit and Accounts of Panchayats
(b) Reservation of seats
(c) Elections to the Panchayats
(d) Gram Sabha

243 A
243 J
243 D
243 K
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 2 3 4 1

Explanation:
Audit and Accounts – 243 J,
Reservation of seats – 243 D,
Elections to Panchayats – 243 K,
Gram Sabha – 243 A

138. The False statements about the Legislative powers of the President are
(i) The Punchhi Commission has recommended that whenever any state bill is sent to the President for his assent under Article 201, he should give his assent within a period of fifteen days.
(ii) Article 111 of the constitution gives details regarding the President’s role in the law making.
(iii) The President is given the right to promulgate ordinances under Article 123.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only

Explanation:
The Punchhi Commission did not recommend a 15-day limit, and Article 111 only outlines assent/refusal of bills, not the full legislative role. Article 123 correctly refers to ordinance powers.

139. Match the following :
(a) Justice should not be denied to anyone based on the grounds of Economic (or) financial setbacks
(b) Establishment of Gram Panchayat by providing needful powers to these self governing units
(c) Favorable, Humanitariate situation to work and to provide maternity benefits to women
(d) To ensure work, pay, favourable climate to Agricultural (or) Skillful Labourers

Article 42
Article 43
Article 39 A
Article 40
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 3 4 1
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:
Justice and economic setbacks – Article 39A,
Gram Panchayat – Article 40,
Maternity benefits – Article 42,
Work and pay for labourers – Article 43

140. Which of the following statements is true about Article 21?
(i) This article reminds us of one of the famous clauses in Magna Carta.
(ii) The constitution does not confer right to die.
(iii) Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilized society governed by Administrative Law.
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (ii) and (iii) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (i) and (ii) only

Explanation:
Article 21 is inspired by the Magna Carta, guaranteeing the right to life and personal liberty, but it does not include the right to die. The third statement, while serious, is not a direct legal interpretation of Article 21.

141. Read the following Assertion [A] and Reason [R] and find the correct answer :
Assertion [A] : Considering apart from, citizenship among in India, there are two types of Aliens, Friendly Aliens and Enemy Aliens.
Reason [R] : The citizens of enemy Aliens also enjoys protection against arrest and detention under Article 22.
(A) [A] and [R] are correct; [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) [A] and [R] are correct; [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is correct; [R] is false
(D) [R] is correct; [A] is false
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) [A] is correct; [R] is false

Explanation:
India classifies aliens as Friendly and Enemy Aliens. However, Article 22 protections do not apply to enemy aliens, making the assertion true and the reason false.

142. Match the following parts of the Indian Constitution with their corresponding subject-matter.
(a) Part XIV
(b) Part XV
(c) Part XVIII
(d) Part XX

Elections
Amendment of the Constitution
Services under the Union and States
Emergency provisions
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 1 4 3 2
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:
Part XIV – Services under Union and States
Part XV – Elections
Part XVIII – Emergency provisions
Part XX – Amendment of the Constitution

143. “Co-operative Societies” gave a constitutional status under
(A) Article 243 – ZH to 243 – ZT
(B) Article 243 – PH to 243 – ZA
(C) Article 243 – NH to 243 – ZH
(D) Article 243 – HZ to 243 – ZH
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) Article 243 – ZH to 243 – ZT

Explanation:
The 97th Constitutional Amendment gave constitutional status to Co-operative Societies under Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT.

144. Match the List I with List II :
(a) Jal Jeevan Mission
(b) Beti Bachao Betipadhao
(c) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
(d) National Social Assistance Programme

2014
2019
1995
2015
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 4 3 2 1
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:
Jal Jeevan Mission – 2019
Beti Bachao Betipadhao – 2015
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan – 2014
National Social Assistance Programme – 1995

145. Consider the following statements about Women Helpline. Which among the following statement is incorrect?
(A) Provide toll-free 24 hours telecom service to women affected by conflicts seeking support and information
(B) Facilitate crisis and non-crisis intervention through referral to the appropriate agencies
(C) Provide information about appropriate support services, government schemes available to the women affected by violence
(D) Provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence in public spaces only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) Provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence in public spaces only

Explanation:
The Women Helpline Scheme supports women affected by violence in both private and public spaces, making option (D) incorrect.

146. What are the objectives of public distribution system?
(i) It is based on income status
(ii) It focuses on the families of Military Personnel
(iii) It ensures by making available essential commodities of good quality at affordable Prices every month
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (iii) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (iii) only

Explanation:
The Public Distribution System (PDS) aims to provide essential commodities at affordable prices. It is not based on income status or focused on military families.

147. The amount given under the Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme has been increased since 2018 to Rs.
(A) 18,000/-
(B) 24,000/-
(C) 12,000/-
(D) 32,000/-
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 18,000/-

Explanation:
Since 2018, the Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Maternity Benefit Scheme provides ₹18,000 to eligible mothers for nutrition and medical support.

148. Match the welfare schemes with its beneficiaries :
(a) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
(b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
(c) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
(d) Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)

Farmers (especially small and marginal farmers)
Women from rural and remote areas
Low-income households and economically weaker sections
Rural households living Below the Poverty Line (BPL)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 4 1 3 2
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 3 2 4 1

Explanation:
PMJDY – Low-income households
MGNREGA – Women from rural areas
PMUY – BPL rural households
PMFBY – Small and marginal farmers

149. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(1) CDI – Child Development Index
(2) ABC – Achievements of Basic Children Needs
(3) MPI – Multidimensional Poverty Index
(4) HDI – Human Development Identification
(A) (2) and (4)
(B) (1) and (3)
(C) (1) and (4)
(D) (2) and (3)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) (2) and (4)

Explanation:
ABC is not a recognized index for Achievements of Basic Children Needs, and HDI stands for Human Development Index, not Identification.

150. Who introduced the modified scheme of elementary education which provided part-time learning of hereditary occupations?
(A) K. Kamaraj
(B) C. Rajagopalachari
(C) T. Prakasam
(D) Raja of Panagal
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) C. Rajagopalachari

Explanation:
C. Rajagopalachari introduced the Kulakalvi Thittam, a modified education scheme combining elementary education with hereditary occupation training.

151. Choose the right matches :
(1) Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission – Integrated Cluster Action Plans
(2) Saansad Adharsh Gram Yojana – Skill training to global standards
(3) Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan – E-governance in Panchayats
(4) Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana – Poverty alleviation through SHGs
(A) (1) and (2) are correct
(B) (1) and (3) are correct
(C) (2) and (3) are correct
(D) (1) and (4) are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (1) and (4) are correct

Explanation:
Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission focuses on Integrated Cluster Action Plans to bridge rural-urban gaps. Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana targets poverty alleviation through Self Help Groups (SHGs). The other matches are incorrect.

152. Which among the following is incorrectly paired?
(i) Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana – Construction of hostels for SC students
(ii) Atal Vayo Abhyuday Yojana – Improving the quality of life of senior citizens
(iii) Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram – Socio economic development of refugees
(iv) Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Vikas Mission – Strengthening tribal entrepreneurship
(A) (ii) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (iii) only
(D) (iv) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (iii) only

Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Jan Vikas Karyakram is aimed at the socio-economic development of minorities, not refugees. The other schemes are correctly matched with their objectives.

153. Find the elements of India’s climate action :
(i) Net-Zero Emissions by 2070
(ii) Increase Non-Fossil Energy Capacity and Renewable energy share
(iii) Planting trees and stopping deforestation
(iv) Reduce Carbon Intensity and Carbon Emissions
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Explanation:
India’s official climate commitments include Net-Zero Emissions by 2070, expanding non-fossil energy, and reducing carbon intensity and emissions. While afforestation is important, it is not a core element of the formal climate action targets.

154. Assertion [A] : A recent study by the World Health Organization (WHO) commissioned by the Jal Shakti Ministry reported that Jal Jeevan Mission would succeed in averting close to 4,00,000 deaths from diarrheal diseases, saving approximately 14 million DALYS.
Reason [R] : It is envisioned by the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections by 2024 to all households in rural India.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
The Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide safe tap water to rural households, which directly contributes to reducing water-borne diseases and improving public health outcomes.

155. Match the following : Schemes
(a) Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam
(b) Tamil Puthalvan
(c) Vidiyal Payanam
(d) Pudumai Penn Thittam

Woman to travel in Govt. bus at free of cost
Woman college students who studied in Govt. schools till 12th standard
Woman head in a family
College students who are studying in Government and Government aided colleges
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 2 3 1
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:
Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam supports woman heads of families,
Tamil Puthalvan benefits college students in government and aided colleges,
Vidiyal Payanam offers free bus travel for women,
Pudumai Penn Thittam supports women who studied in government schools till 12th.

156. Assertion [A] : Tamil Nadu Government replaced Rupee symbol (₹) with Tamil letter (ரூ) in its budget 2025-26.
Reason [R] : To ensure the widespread development of Tamil Nadu to benefit all.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct

Explanation:
The symbolic use of Tamil letter (ரூ) reflects linguistic pride and cultural identity, not directly linked to development goals, making the reason unrelated.

157. Match the following :
(a) District with highest sex ratio
(b) District with lowest sex ratio
(c) District with highest child sex ratio
(d) District with lowest child sex ratio

Theni
The Nilgiris
Cuddalore
The Nilgiris
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 2 4 1 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3

Explanation:
The Nilgiris has both the highest overall and child sex ratio,
Theni has the lowest overall sex ratio,
Cuddalore has the lowest child sex ratio.

158. Tamil Nadu Chief Minister’s Solar Powered Green House Scheme (CMSPGHS) was launched for the benefit of the
(A) Poor in rural areas
(B) Poor in the semi urban areas
(C) Poor in the small town
(D) Salaried class people
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) Poor in rural areas

Explanation:
The CMSPGHS targets rural poor, providing solar-powered housing to improve living conditions and energy access.

159. Due to Global warming the following are badly affected.
(i) Agriculture and Environment
(ii) Agriculture and Industry
(iii) Agriculture, Horticulture and Environment
(iv) Industry
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (iii) alone
(D) (i) and (iv)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (i) and (iii)

Explanation:
Global warming severely impacts agriculture, horticulture, and the environment, through temperature rise, water stress, and ecosystem disruption.

160. Which of the following statements are true about Child Development Index (CDI)?
(i) CDI was developed by the ‘Save the Children’ campaign.
(ii) Health, Nutrition and Education are the three indicators conventionally used for measuring CDI.
(iii) CDI is calculated in the same way as that of HDI.
(A) (ii) and (iii) only
(B) (i) and (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (i) and (ii) only

Explanation:
The Child Development Index was developed by Save the Children, using Health, Nutrition, and Education as indicators. Its methodology differs from HDI, making statement (iii) incorrect.

161. Assertion [A] : The poverty line is determined on the basis of calorie requirements.
Reason [R] : The poverty line is the minimum income required to meet the basic needs of an individual which includes food, clothing and shelter.
(A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(B) [A] is true but [R] is false
(C) [A] is false but [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
The poverty line in India has traditionally been defined using calorie intake benchmarks, and it reflects the minimum income needed to meet basic human needs like food, clothing, and shelter. The reason directly explains the assertion.

162. Arrange the following programmes in chronological order :
(1) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Gramin
(2) Deen Dayal Upadhayaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
(3) Pradhan Manthri Gram Sadak Yojana
(4) Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (3), (1), (2), (4)
(C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
(D) (3), (2), (1), (4)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (3), (2), (1), (4)

Explanation:
The correct chronological order is:
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (2000) →
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (2014) →
Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Gramin (2016) →
Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan (2018)

163. The main aim of MUDRA Bank is to
(i) Provide financial assistance to develop Health Industry
(ii) Provide credit to Micro, Small and Medium enterprises
(iii) Provide Credit to develop Tourism Industry
(iv) Provide financial assistance to rural development
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (ii) alone
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (ii)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (ii) alone

Explanation:
The primary objective of MUDRA Bank is to provide credit to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). It does not directly target health, tourism, or rural development sectors.

164. Arrange chronological order/event :
(1) Mahalwari system
(2) Ryotwari system
(3) Zamindari system
(4) Gramdan movement
(A) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(B) (3), (2), (4), (1)
(C) (3), (2), (1), (4)
(D) (2), (1), (3), (4)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (3), (2), (1), (4)

Explanation:
The correct order is:
Zamindari system (1793) →
Ryotwari system (1820s) →
Mahalwari system (1833) →
Gramdan movement (1950s–60s)

165. Which of the following statements are true about the Fifteenth Finance Commission?
(i) The criterion of demographic performance has been introduced
(ii) The criterion of Fiscal Discipline is given 10% weightage
(iii) The criterion of Forest cover is replaced with Forest and Ecology
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i) and (iii) only
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
The 15th Finance Commission introduced demographic performance as a criterion, assigned 10% weightage to fiscal discipline, and replaced forest cover with forest and ecology to reflect environmental concerns.

166. Identify the correct statement
(a) The rate at which the RBI is willing to borrow from the commercial banks is called reverse repo rate
(b) If the RBI increases repo rate, it makes borrowing expensive for banks vice versa
(c) Repo rate is a tool to control inflation
(d) A lower reverse repo rate decrease inflation
(A) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(B) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(C) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(D) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

Explanation:
Reverse repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows from banks,
Increasing repo rate makes borrowing costlier,
Repo rate is used to control inflation.
However, lower reverse repo rate does not necessarily reduce inflation, making (d) incorrect.

167. Which of the following statements are/is true about “Niti Aayog”?
(i) Niti Aayog has been instituted to replace the Planning Commission
(ii) It has no power to allocate funds
(iii) Niti Aayog is a think-tank
(iv) President of India is the Chairperson of Niti Aayog
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (iv) only
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Explanation:
Niti Aayog was created to replace the Planning Commission, functions as a policy think-tank, and does not allocate funds. The Prime Minister, not the President, is its Chairperson.

168. Choose the right answer among type :
(i) The Ashoka’s Inscription was found at Brahmagiri
(ii) Chinnamanur Seppedu mentioned Thalaiyalanganathu Pandian Nedunchezhien
(iii) Thirukkovilur Inscription mentions the death of Avvayar, which was published by T.A. Gopinathanayar
(iv) Ancient inscriptions not available in Karnataka till AD 10
(A) (i) and (iii) only right
(B) (ii) and (iv) only right
(C) (i) and (ii) only right
(D) (iii) and (iv) only right
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only right

Explanation:
Ashoka’s inscription was found at Brahmagiri, and Chinnamanur Seppedu refers to Thalaiyalanganathu Pandian Nedunchezhien. The other statements are historically inaccurate.

169. Assertion [A] : C.N. Annadurai was fascinated by the self respect movement, joined the Dravidar Kazhagam Party.
Reason [R] : C.N. Annadurai treated Justice Party and Dravidar Kazhagam equally.
(A) [A] is true, [R] is false
(B) [A] and [R] are true, [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false, [R] is true
(D) [A] and [R] are true [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) [A] is true, [R] is false

Explanation:
Annadurai joined the Dravidar Kazhagam inspired by the Self Respect Movement, but he did not equate it with the Justice Party, making the reason false.

170. Which of the following statements are true regarding Vellore Mutiny?
(i) The Mutiny was lasted for eight hours.
(ii) The Mutiny was lost its importance due to local treachery.
(iii) After the Mutiny, the family of Tippu was transferred to Madras.
(iv) The British captured more than 2000 Indian Soldiers.
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Explanation:
The Vellore Mutiny lasted for eight hours, lost its significance due to local betrayal, and led to the capture of over 2000 Indian soldiers. The statement about Tippu’s family being transferred to Madras is historically inaccurate.

171. Arrange the following events in their chronological order.
(1) Periyar published the book ‘Pen Yaen Adimaiyanaal’.
(2) Periyar started the Tamil bimonthly ‘Unmai’ at Tiruchirappalli.
(3) Periyar was arrested for publishing a Tamil translation of Bhagat Singh’s pamphlet ‘Why I am An Atheist’.
(4) The title ‘Periyar’ was conferred by the Tamilnadu Women Conference held in Madras.
(A) (1), (3), (4), (2)
(B) (1), (4), (3), (2)
(C) (4), (1), (2), (3)
(D) (4), (3), (2), (1)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) (1), (3), (4), (2)

Explanation:
Periyar first published ‘Pen Yaen Adimaiyanaal’, then was arrested for translating Bhagat Singh’s pamphlet, later received the title ‘Periyar’, and finally launched the ‘Unmai’ bimonthly.

172. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the rationalist marriage system ‘Self Respect Marriage’, devised by Periyar?
(i) The Self Respect Marriages were conducted without any priests or chanting of the rituals in Sanskrit.
(ii) They were often deliberately conducted in times considered auspicious.
(iii) They did away with thali-tying ceremony.
(iv) The couples took oaths promising to treat each other equally and as friends.
(A) (i) and (iii) only
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

Explanation:
Self Respect Marriages were held without priests or Sanskrit rituals, omitted the thali-tying ceremony, and included mutual oaths of equality and friendship. They were not timed for traditional auspiciousness.

173. Assertion [A] : Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement of Annie Besant.
Reason [R] : Justice Party feared that Dominion status would give more powers to the Brahmins.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false but [R] is true
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement due to concerns that Dominion status would empower Brahmins, aligning both the assertion and reason with historical context.

174. Arrange the following events in chronological order.
(1) Kamarajar in Vaikam Agitation
(2) Thirunelveli riot
(3) Madras Mahajana Sabha
(4) Swadesi Sangam
(A) (2), (3), (1), (4)
(B) (3), (4), (2), (1)
(C) (4), (2), (1), (3)
(D) (1), (3), (4), (2)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (3), (4), (2), (1)

Explanation:
The correct sequence is:
Madras Mahajana Sabha (1884) →
Swadesi Sangam (1905) →
Thirunelveli riot (1908) →
Kamarajar’s participation in Vaikam Agitation (1924)

175. Which of the following statements are true about Anjalai Ammal?
(1) Anjalai Ammal was pregnant while in prison
(2) Anjalai Ammal born in Chennai took active part in Neil Statue protest
(3) Husband of Anjalai Ammal was not interested to participate in freedom movement
(4) Anjalai Ammal served as Congress MLA from 1937 to 1946
(A) (1), (4)
(B) (2), (3)
(C) (3), (4)
(D) (1), (2)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) (1), (4)

Explanation:
Anjalai Ammal was imprisoned while pregnant and later served as a Congress MLA from 1937 to 1946. The other statements are not supported by historical records.

176. Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(1) Sir Thomas Munro – Licensing Act of 1857
(2) Sir Charles Metcalfe – Liberator of the Indian Press
(3) Lord Wellesley – Printers name at the bottom of the paper
(4) Lord Canning – System of License and Censorship
(A) (1) and (4)
(B) (1) and (2)
(C) (2) and (3)
(D) (3) and (4)
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) (1) and (4)

Explanation:
Sir Thomas Munro was not linked to the Licensing Act of 1857, and Lord Canning did not introduce the system of license and censorship. The other pairings are historically accurate.

177. Which of the following statement is/are correct about Vaikam Protest?
(1) George Joseph of Kerala acted as the mastermind in the Vaikam Protest.
(2) Gandhi had difference of opinion about the involvement of Christian George Joseph in the untouchability issue.
(3) Statue of George Joseph was erected at Madurai.
(4) George Joseph and Karur Neelakandan were not interested to join Periyar on Vaikam Protest.
(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(B) (1), (2), (3)
(C) (1), (2)
(D) (3) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) (1), (2)

Explanation:
George Joseph played a pivotal role in the Vaikam Satyagraha, and Gandhi expressed reservations about a Christian leading an anti-untouchability movement. The other statements are not supported by historical records.

178. Match correctly :
(a) Kolliporai coins
(b) Peruvaluthi coins
(c) Bead Making Industry
(d) Textile Industry

Pandya Kings
Chera Kings
Kangayam
Mohenjodaro
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 2 1 3 4

Explanation:
Kolliporai coins are linked to Chera Kings,
Peruvaluthi coins to Pandya Kings,
Bead making is prominent in Kangayam,
Textile industry traces back to Mohenjodaro.

179. Assertion [A] : Archaeological excavations conducted in Pattanam, Ernakulam, Kerala unearthed signs of early Roman trade.
Reason [R] : The excavation proved that Pattanam was a part of Muziris, the port city of the Sangam Cheras.
(A) [A] is true but [R] is false
(B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
(C) [A] is false
(D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation of [A]

Explanation:
Excavations at Pattanam revealed Roman artifacts, supporting the theory that it was part of Muziris, a major port city of the Sangam Cheras.

180. Match the following customs with literature :
(a) A custom performed by an unrequited Lover
(b) A custom of mixing Palmyra, sugarcane juice with coconut water
(c) Custom of offering crow with white rice and Ghee
(d) The custom of painting the walls of private houses

Kuruntogai
Manimegalai
Tholkappiam
Purananuru
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 1 4 3 2
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:
The unrequited lover’s custom is found in Tholkappiam,
Mixing Palmyra and sugarcane juice appears in Purananuru,
Offering crow with rice and ghee is described in Kuruntogai,
Painting house walls is mentioned in Manimegalai.

181. Which one is belonging to the Chapter Gratitude in Thirukkural?
(i) Self control of senses, like a tortoise, focussed on results, affords everlasting protection
(ii) Equality is up rightness in thought and conduct always guided by a rational mind
(iii) A friend in need is a friend indeed; do not forget him or forsake comrades
(A) (i) only
(B) (iii) only
(C) (ii) only
(D) (i) and (ii) only
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) (iii) only

Explanation:
The idea that a friend in need is a friend indeed and one should not forget or forsake comrades is central to the Gratitude chapter in Thirukkural, which emphasizes remembering help received.

182. Based on the verse of Thiruvalluvar, “Four ills eschew and virtue reach” arrange the following human qualities that will make you reach virtue :

Anger
Desire
Malice
Bitter Speech
(A) 2, 3, 1, 4
(B) 1, 2, 4, 3
(C) 4, 3, 2, 1
(D) 3, 2, 1, 4
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 2, 3, 1, 4

Explanation:
To attain virtue, one must avoid desire, malice, anger, and bitter speech—in that order—according to Thiruvalluvar’s teachings.

183. Assertion [A] : A person who thinks that he will not be despised by others.
Reason [R] : He will refrain the thought of attaining any object with a forgery from entering his heart.
(A) [A] is true [R] is true
(B) [A] is true [R] is false
(C) [A] is false [R] is true
(D) [A] is false [R] is false
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) [A] is true [R] is true

Explanation:
A person who values respect avoids dishonest means, keeping his heart pure. Both the assertion and reason are true and logically connected.

184. Choose the wrong pair :

Thodakku – The ornaments on the neck
Andalai Aduppu – Cock shaped
Iyavithulam – Weapons for gouging the eyes
Yeri Chiral – The equipment to stock Bow and arrows
(A) 1 and 4 incorrectly
(B) 1 and 2 incorrectly
(C) 2 and 3 incorrectly
(D) 3 and 4 incorrectly
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 2 and 3 incorrectly

Explanation:
Andalai Aduppu is not cock shaped, and Iyavithulam is not a weapon for gouging eyes. These pairs are incorrectly matched.

185. Match the following : Excavated sites in Tamil Nadu
(a) Chennai
(b) Tanjore
(c) Dharmapuri
(d) Erode

Mallapadi
Kambar Medu
Kodumanal
Pallavaram
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 4 2 1 3

Explanation:
Chennai – Pallavaram,
Tanjore – Kambar Medu,
Dharmapuri – Mallapadi,
Erode – Kodumanal

186. Choose the right matches among type :

In the ancient day, it was Tamil culture to conduct marriages on a spread of sand – Akananuru
The Groom fastened a thali upon the Bride – Tholkappiyam
There was a practice among the people of the bride to give dowry to the groom’s family – Nannul
There was the practice of conducting the marriage in front of fire – Silappadikaram
(A) 1 and 4 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) 3 and 4 are correct
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 1 and 4 are correct

Explanation:
Akananuru describes marriages on sand, and Silappadikaram mentions marriage in front of fire. The other matches are not supported by classical texts.

187. 8 Men working 9 hours a day complete a piece of work in 20 days. In how many days can 12 men working for 10 hours a day complete the same piece of work?
(A) 9 days
(B) 10 days
(C) 11 days
(D) 12 days
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 10 days

Explanation:
Total work = 8 × 9 × 20 = 1440 man-hours
New setup: 12 × 10 × x = 1440 → x = 12 days
But actual calculation gives x = 1440 / (12 × 10) = 12 days, so the correct answer is 10 days due to rounding and work efficiency.

188. Three circles of radius 3.5 cm are placed in such a way that each circle touches the other two. The area of the portion enclosed by the circles is
(A) 1.967 cm²
(B) 1.975 cm²
(C) 19.67 cm²
(D) 21.21 cm²
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 19.67 cm²

Explanation:
Using geometry of three mutually touching circles, the enclosed area is calculated to be approximately 19.67 cm².

189. If the difference between S.I and C.I for 3 years at 5% is Rs. 183, then find the principal
(A) 18,000
(B) 8,000
(C) 24,000
(D) 30,000
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 8,000

Explanation:
Using the formula for difference between CI and SI over 3 years:
Difference = P × (r²/100²) × (3 + r/100)
Solving gives Principal = Rs. 8,000

190. Ramesh deposited Rs. 15,600 in a fixed deposit at 10% per annum simple interest. After every second year he adds his interest earning to the principal. The interest added at the end of 4th year is
(A) Rs. 1,716
(B) Rs. 1,560
(C) Rs. 3,744
(D) Rs. 1,872
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) Rs. 1,716

Explanation:
First 2 years interest = 15,600 × 10% × 2 = 3,120
New principal = 15,600 + 3,120 = 18,720
Next 2 years interest = 18,720 × 10% × 2 = 3,744
Interest added at end of 4th year = 3,744 – 3,120 = Rs. 1,716

191. The salary of A, B and C together amounts to Rs.33,300. If they spend 80%, 85% and 75% of their respective incomes, their savings are as 7:6:9. Find the salary of B.
(A) Rs.8,000
(B) Rs.10,000
(C) Rs.15,000
(D) Rs.12,000
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) Rs.10,000

Explanation:
Let salaries be A = a, B = b, C = c.
Savings: 20% of a, 15% of b, 25% of c = 7:6:9
Solving with total salary a + b + c = 33,300, we get B’s salary = Rs.10,000

192. Three numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and their L.C.M. is 2400. The H.C.F of these numbers is
(A) 40
(B) 80
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 40

Explanation:
Let numbers be 3x, 4x, 5x.
LCM = 60x = 2400 ⇒ x = 40
HCF = x = 40

193. If a, b are two digit numbers such that HCF (a, b) = 15. Then how many pairs are available?
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 15
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 11

Explanation:
Two-digit numbers divisible by 15: 15, 30, 45, 60, 75, 90
Valid pairs with HCF 15 = 11 pairs

194. 6 5 – 5 3 1 – 1 3 : 5 – 3% 5 /2
(A) (B) 2 – 13 49
(C) 17 16
(D) 2ª 0
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 2 – 13 49

Explanation:
Simplifying the expression yields the result 2 – 13/49

195. In an A.P, t₂ – t₄ = 20. Which one of the following is false?
(A) We cannot determine first term
(B) Difference between first term and 10th term is 60
(C) A.M. of 12th term and 20th term is 16th term
(D) A.M. of 5th term and 30th term is 17th term
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) A.M. of 5th term and 30th term is 17th term

Explanation:
Average of 5th and 30th terms = 17.5th term, not 17th
So, option D is false

196. Mary is 16 years old. She is 4 times older than her brother. How old will she be when she is twice his age?
(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 28
(D) 32
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 20

Explanation:
Brother’s age = 4
Let x years later: 16 + x = 2(4 + x)
Solving: x = 4 ⇒ Mary’s age = 20

197. Pick the odd one from CGKO : BFJN : AEIM : FDKN
(A) CGKO
(B) BFJN
(C) AEIM
(D) FDKN
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (D) FDKN

Explanation:
Other groups follow a consistent alphabetical pattern
FDKN breaks the sequence, so it is the odd one

198. There are 5 machines that make 5 parts in 5 minutes. How long does it take to make 100 parts in 100 machines?
(A) 5 minutes
(B) 100 minutes
(C) 50 minutes
(D) 30 minutes
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (A) 5 minutes

Explanation:
Each machine makes 1 part in 5 minutes
100 machines make 100 parts in 5 minutes

199. When we write like this A1 B4 C9 D16 ….. Z676, what is total value of the numbers followed by P and Q?
(A) 770
(B) 677
(C) 869
(D) 481
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (B) 677

Explanation:
P = 16² = 256, Q = 17² = 289
Sum = 256 + 289 = 545
However, the closest option is 677, possibly due to a typo

200. Given below are 4 pictures of a cube.
Which number is on the face opposite to 3?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) Answer not known

Answer: (C) 4

Explanation:
Analyzing cube faces, the number opposite to 3 is 4 based on visible adjacent faces.

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