Licchavi Lyceum

ll

Licchavi Lyceum

MENU

TSPSC 2016 Prelims Question Paper [Fully Solved]

September 1, 2025

1. ‘Barren Island’ which is the only active Volcano in India is situated in which part of India?
Options :

  1. Andaman-Nicobar
  2. Lakshadweep
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Chattisgarh

Answer: 1. Andaman-Nicobar

Explanation:
Barren Island is located in the Andaman Sea and is part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is the only active volcano in India and lies about 135 km northeast of Port Blair. The island is uninhabited and known for its volcanic activity, which has been recorded intermittently since the 18th century.

2. American Presidential Elections are held at, every – years
Options :

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 3

Answer: 1. 4

Explanation:
The President of the United States is elected to a term of four years. The presidential elections are held every four years, typically on the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November. This cycle ensures a regular and predictable schedule for national leadership transitions.

3. The 100th Constitutional Amendment made in 2015 is pertaining to
Options :

  1. National Judicial Appointments Commission
  2. Cooperative Societies
  3. Boundary Adjustment between India and Bangladesh
  4. Anti-defection Law

Answer: 3. Boundary Adjustment between India and Bangladesh

Explanation:
The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2015 enabled the implementation of the Land Boundary Agreement between India and Bangladesh. It facilitated the exchange of enclaves and the adjustment of boundaries, resolving a long-standing issue related to territorial disputes.

4. Who is the first Women appointed recently as the Director General of the Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)?
Options :

  1. Damayanti Sen
  2. Aruna Bahuguna
  3. Vimla Mehra
  4. Archana Ramasundaram

Answer: 4. Archana Ramasundaram

Explanation:
Archana Ramasundaram became the first woman to head a paramilitary force in India when she was appointed as the Director General of SSB. Her appointment marked a historic milestone in the inclusion of women in top security leadership roles.

5. Who is the President of Cuba at present?
Options :

  1. Raul Castro
  2. Fidel Castro
  3. Alberto Herrera
  4. Tomas Estrada Palma

Answer: 1. Raul Castro

Explanation:
As of the time of the 2016 TSPSC exam, Raul Castro was serving as the President of Cuba, having succeeded his brother Fidel Castro. He continued the Communist leadership and initiated economic reforms during his tenure.

6. What is the present name of the BRICS Development Bank?
Options :

  1. World Development Bank
  2. New Development Bank
  3. Euro-Asia Development Bank
  4. Asia-Africa Development Bank

Answer: 2. New Development Bank

Explanation:
The New Development Bank (NDB) was established by the BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) to fund infrastructure and sustainable development projects. It reflects the emerging economies’ initiative to create an alternative to Western-dominated financial institutions.

7. Which film was selected as the Best Picture in the 87th Academy (Oscar) Awards for the year 2014?
Options :

  1. The Theory of Everything
  2. Still Alice
  3. Birdman
  4. Wild Tales

Answer: 3. Birdman

Explanation:
Birdman, directed by Alejandro G. Iñárritu, won the Best Picture at the 87th Academy Awards. The film was praised for its innovative storytelling, cinematography, and performances, especially by Michael Keaton.

8. Who won the Men’s Singles Title in the 2015 Wimbledon Tennis Championship?
Options :

  1. Rafael Nadal
  2. Roger Federer
  3. Novak Djokovic
  4. Andy Murray

Answer: 3. Novak Djokovic

Explanation:
In 2015, Novak Djokovic won the Men’s Singles title at Wimbledon, defeating Roger Federer in the final. His victory reinforced his status as one of the dominant players in modern tennis.

9. “T-Hub” an Initiative of Telangana State Government is
Options :

  1. a technology incubation centre to promote entrepreneurship in the state
  2. a social service centre to promote social justice
  3. an industrial park to encourage inventions
  4. a software park to encourage IT industry only

Answer: 1. a technology incubation centre to promote entrepreneurship in the state

Explanation:
T-Hub is a flagship initiative by the Telangana Government aimed at fostering startups and innovation. It serves as a technology incubation centre, providing mentorship, funding access, and collaborative space for entrepreneurs.

10. GST (Goods and Services Tax), the proposed tax reform by the Central Government, is related primarily to
Options :

  1. Direct Taxes
  2. In-direct Taxes
  3. Sovereign Taxes
  4. Foreign Taxes

Answer: 2. In-direct Taxes

Explanation:
GST is a comprehensive indirect tax reform that subsumes various central and state taxes like excise duty, VAT, and service tax. It aims to create a unified tax structure, improving compliance and ease of doing business.

11. Which of the following Government schemes entered the Guinness World Records for causing the opening of the most bank accounts in one week?
Options :

  1. Pradhan Manthri Sukanya Samriddi Yojana
  2. Pradhan Manthri Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao Yojana
  3. Pradhan Manthri Jandhan Yojna (PMJDY)
  4. Pradhan Manthri Suraksha Bheema Yojana (PMSBY)

Answer: 3. Pradhan Manthri Jandhan Yojna (PMJDY)

Explanation:
The PMJDY scheme was launched to promote financial inclusion by providing banking services to all households. It entered the Guinness World Records for opening the most bank accounts in a single week, highlighting its massive outreach and impact.

12. The Anti-tank missile ‘Nag’ can hit the target on land within a range of
Options :

  1. 1 Km
  2. 2 Km
  3. 3 Km
  4. 4 Km

Answer: 4. 4 Km

Explanation:
The Nag missile, developed by DRDO, is an indigenous anti-tank guided missile with a range of up to 4 kilometers. It is designed to destroy heavily armored vehicles and uses fire-and-forget technology.

13. Who is the present Chairman of the Indian Premier League (IPL) Governing Council?
Options :

  1. Anurag Thakur
  2. Sourav Ganguly
  3. Rajeev Shukla
  4. Anirudh Chowdhary

Answer: 3. Rajeev Shukla

Explanation:
At the time of the 2016 TSPSC exam, Rajeev Shukla was serving as the Chairman of the IPL Governing Council, overseeing the administration and operations of the popular T20 cricket league.

14. Who was crowned as the Miss World for the Year 2015?
Options :

  1. Rolene Strauss
  2. Kristina Bakiu
  3. Mireia Lalaguna
  4. Catharina Choi

Answer: 3. Mireia Lalaguna

Explanation:
Mireia Lalaguna from Spain won the title of Miss World 2015. She stood out for her grace, intelligence, and social commitment, making her the first Spanish woman to win the crown.

15. D.Nageshwar Reddy who was awarded ‘Padma Bhushan’ recently is related to the field of
Options :

  1. Journalism
  2. Literature
  3. Education
  4. Medicine

Answer: 4. Medicine

Explanation:
Dr. D. Nageshwar Reddy is a renowned gastroenterologist and was honored with the Padma Bhushan for his contributions to medical science, particularly in the field of gastroenterology and endoscopy.

16. The United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP-21 or CMP-II) was held in November-December 2015 in
Options :

  1. Paris
  2. London
  3. Madrid
  4. New Delhi

Answer: 1. Paris

Explanation:
The COP-21 conference took place in Paris, where countries negotiated the Paris Agreement to combat climate change by limiting global warming to below 2°C. It was a landmark event in global environmental diplomacy.

17. The most brutal form of the Islamic State Which is a Sunni Muslim Movement that gained ground in Iraq and Syria after the fall of Saddam Hussain is
Options :

  1. Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant (ISIL)
  2. Al-Quaeda
  3. Taliban
  4. Khilafath-Caliphate

Answer: 1. Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant (ISIL)

Explanation:
ISIL, also known as ISIS, emerged as a radical Sunni militant group after the Iraq War and the Syrian civil conflict. It became infamous for its extreme violence, territorial control, and global terror operations.

18. The Nobel Peace Prize for the year 2015 was awarded to
Options :

  1. Liu Xiaobo
  2. National Dialogue Quartet of Tunisia
  3. Kailash Satyarthi & Malala Yousafjai
  4. Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons

Answer: 2. National Dialogue Quartet of Tunisia

Explanation:
The National Dialogue Quartet was honored with the 2015 Nobel Peace Prize for its role in building a pluralistic democracy in Tunisia following the Arab Spring, promoting peaceful political transition.

19. The Dictator of North Korea at present is
Options :

  1. Kim Jong-Un
  2. Kim Jong-il
  3. Kim-II-Sung
  4. Kim-Tu-Bong

Answer: 1. Kim Jong-Un

Explanation:
Kim Jong-Un is the current Supreme Leader of North Korea, succeeding his father Kim Jong-il. His regime is known for its authoritarian control, nuclear ambitions, and isolationist policies.

20. Who authored the famous novel ‘The Fountain Head’?
Options :

  1. George Orwell
  2. Charles Dickens
  3. Oliver Goldsmith
  4. Ayn Rand

Answer: 4. Ayn Rand

Explanation:
Ayn Rand wrote ‘The Fountainhead’, a novel that explores individualism, architectural integrity, and the philosophy of Objectivism. The protagonist, Howard Roark, symbolizes the struggle for creative freedom.

21. The name of the former Bombay nurse who died in May 2015 after spending 42 years in Bed in a Vegetative state after a sexual assault in 1972
Options :

  1. Aruna Stephens
  2. Aruna Dambekar
  3. Aruna Rodrigues
  4. Aruna Shanbaug

Answer: 4. Aruna Shanbaug

Explanation:
Aruna Shanbaug was a nurse at KEM Hospital, Mumbai, who became the face of the euthanasia debate in India after surviving a brutal sexual assault in 1972. She remained in a vegetative state for 42 years until her death in May 2015, drawing national attention to patient rights and long-term care.

22. The name of the Organisation founded by the Nobel Laureate Kailash Satyarthi, which works for a child friendly society is
Options :

  1. M.V.Foundation
  2. Bachpan Bachao Andolan
  3. Arushi
  4. Child Relief and You (CRY)

Answer: 2. Bachpan Bachao Andolan

Explanation:
Bachpan Bachao Andolan is a child rights organization founded by Kailash Satyarthi, focusing on eliminating child labour, trafficking, and promoting education. It played a key role in rescuing thousands of children and advocating for child-friendly policies.

23. Gajendra Chauhan, whose appointment was in news, is the Chairman of ?
Options :

  1. Indian Council of Historical Research
  2. Children’s Film Society, India
  3. Film and Television Institute of India
  4. The Energy and Resources Institute

Answer: 3. Film and Television Institute of India

Explanation:
Gajendra Chauhan was appointed as the Chairman of FTII, Pune, sparking controversy and protests among students and alumni due to concerns over his credentials and political affiliations. The issue highlighted debates on autonomy and merit in cultural institutions.

24. The 14th and Current Attorney General of India is
Options :

  1. Milon K. Banerjee
  2. Mukul Rohtagi
  3. Goolam Vahanavathi
  4. Soli Sorabji

Answer: 2. Mukul Rohtagi

Explanation:
Mukul Rohtagi served as the 14th Attorney General of India, the chief legal advisor to the Government of India. He was appointed in 2014, and his tenure involved representing the government in key constitutional and legal matters.

25. R.K.Laxman who passed away recently was a famous
Options :

  1. Journalist
  2. Medical Doctor
  3. Cartoonist
  4. Writer

Answer: 3. Cartoonist

Explanation:
R.K. Laxman was one of India’s most celebrated cartoonists, best known for his iconic creation “The Common Man” and his daily cartoon strip “You Said It” in The Times of India. His work captured the humor and irony of Indian politics and society.

26. Which Hyderabadi Cricketer was the Coach of the Ireland Cricket team for the 2011 ICC World Cup?
Options :

  1. Venkatapathy Raju
  2. M.V.Narasimha Rao
  3. M.V.Sridhar
  4. Shivalal Yadav

Answer: 2. M.V.Narasimha Rao

Explanation:
M.V. Narasimha Rao, a former Hyderabadi cricketer, served as the coach of Ireland’s national cricket team during the 2011 ICC World Cup, contributing to their competitive performance and strategic development.

27. Citrus Canker disease is caused by
Options :

  1. Virus
  2. Fungi
  3. Bacteria
  4. Mosquito

Answer: 3. Bacteria

Explanation:
Citrus Canker is a bacterial disease caused by Xanthomonas axonopodis, affecting citrus plants like oranges and lemons. It leads to lesions on leaves, stems, and fruit, reducing yield and marketability.

28. Good Electricity conductor among the following
Options :

  1. Gold
  2. Copper
  3. Silver
  4. Aluminium

Answer: 3. Silver

Explanation:
Silver is the best conductor of electricity among all metals due to its high electrical conductivity. However, it is less commonly used than copper due to its cost, despite superior performance.

29. Skin pigmentation is mainly due to
Options :

  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Melanocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Leucocytes

Answer: 2. Melanocytes

Explanation:
Melanocytes are specialized skin cells that produce melanin, the pigment responsible for skin, hair, and eye color. They play a crucial role in protecting the skin from UV radiation.

30. Quinine is obtained from which part of the plant?
Options :

  1. Stem Bark
  2. Leaves
  3. Roots
  4. Fruit

Answer: 1. Stem Bark

Explanation:
Quinine, used to treat malaria, is extracted from the stem bark of the Cinchona tree. It has been historically significant in antimalarial treatment, especially before the development of synthetic drugs.

31. Vaccine for Rabis was discovered by which scientist?
Options :

  1. J.J.Baird
  2. Louis Pasteur
  3. John Gutten Burg
  4. William Harvey

Answer: 2. Louis Pasteur

Explanation:
Louis Pasteur, a renowned French microbiologist, developed the rabies vaccine in the 1880s. His work laid the foundation for modern immunology, and he is credited with pioneering the germ theory of disease.

32. Gall Bladder stones are deposits of
Options :

  1. Calcium
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Glucose
  4. Cholesterol

Answer: 4. Cholesterol

Explanation:
Gallstones are primarily formed from cholesterol deposits in the gall bladder. These stones develop when bile contains too much cholesterol, not enough bile salts, or when the gall bladder doesn’t empty properly.

33. Plants get Nitrogen from
Options :

  1. Rain
  2. Air
  3. Rock
  4. Soil

Answer: 4. Soil

Explanation:
Plants absorb nitrogen mainly from the soil in the form of nitrates and ammonium ions. These compounds are produced through nitrogen fixation by bacteria and decomposition of organic matter.

34. The disease carrying agents are called
Options :

  1. Pathogens
  2. Vectors
  3. Placids
  4. Scalars

Answer: 2. Vectors

Explanation:
Vectors are organisms, typically insects like mosquitoes or ticks, that transmit disease-causing pathogens from one host to another. They play a crucial role in the spread of infectious diseases.

35. Which of the following is a Biodiesel plant?
Options :

  1. Jatrapha curcas
  2. Terminalia catupa
  3. Pterocarpus marsupium
  4. Ricinus

Answer: 1. Jatrapha curcas

Explanation:
Jatropha curcas is widely cultivated for biodiesel production due to its oil-rich seeds. The plant is drought-resistant, grows in poor soils, and its oil can be processed into renewable fuel.

36. Gobar gas contains
Options :

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Methane
  3. Butane
  4. Carbon monoxide

Answer: 2. Methane

Explanation:
Gobar gas, produced from cow dung and organic waste, primarily contains methane, which is a combustible gas used for cooking and lighting. It also contains carbon dioxide and traces of hydrogen sulfide.

37. “Tsunami” is derived from
Options :

  1. Latin
  2. Greek
  3. Japanese
  4. Sanskrit

Answer: 3. Japanese

Explanation:
The word “Tsunami” comes from Japanese, where “tsu” means harbor and “nami” means wave. It refers to the giant sea waves caused by underwater earthquakes or volcanic eruptions.

38. The Indian Biodiversity Hotspot
Options :

  1. Aravali Hills
  2. Western Ghats
  3. Papa Ghats
  4. Red Hills

Answer: 2. Western Ghats

Explanation:
The Western Ghats are one of the eight hottest hotspots of biodiversity in the world. They host a rich variety of flora and fauna, many of which are endemic, and are crucial for ecological balance.

39. The 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference has agreed to reduce the Global Temperature well below
Options :

  1. 1ºC
  2. 2ºC
  3. 3ºC
  4. 4ºC

Answer: 2. 2ºC

Explanation:
The Paris Agreement, adopted at the 2015 UN Climate Change Conference, aims to limit global temperature rise to well below 2ºC above pre-industrial levels, with efforts to cap it at 1.5ºC.

40. The first movie of Shyam Benegal produced in Telangana
Options :

  1. Nishant
  2. Bazar
  3. Bobby
  4. Ankur

Answer: 4. Ankur

Explanation:
Ankur, directed by Shyam Benegal, was his debut film and was shot in Telangana. It explored social themes like feudalism, gender roles, and class conflict, and is considered a milestone in parallel cinema.

41. The Hyderabadi actress who got ‘Padma Sri’ award is
Options :

  1. Telangana Shakuntala
  2. Tabu
  3. Aditi Rao Hydari
  4. Dia Mirza

Answer: 2. Tabu

Explanation:
Tabu, a critically acclaimed Hyderabadi actress, was honored with the Padma Shri for her contribution to Indian cinema. Known for her versatile roles and powerful performances, she has received numerous awards nationally and internationally.

42. What is ‘Oneirology’
Options :

  1. The scientific study of dreams
  2. The scientific study of birds
  3. The scientific study of fears
  4. The scientific study of insects

Answer: 1. The scientific study of dreams

Explanation:
Oneirology is the branch of science that deals with the study of dreams. It explores the mechanisms, meanings, and psychological impact of dreaming, often intersecting with neurology and psychology.

43. Where was Andhra Samvardhini Granthalaya started in 1905?
Options :

  1. Warangal
  2. Nalgonda
  3. Secunderabad
  4. Hyderabad

Answer: 4. Hyderabad

Explanation:
The Andhra Samvardhini Granthalaya, a prominent library and cultural institution, was established in Hyderabad in 1905. It played a key role in promoting Telugu literature and education during the pre-independence era.

44. Which of the following dance forms is usually performed by males and also called ‘Dance of Warriors’?
Options :

  1. Kuchipudi
  2. Bharatha Natyam
  3. Perini Thandavam
  4. Lavani

Answer: 3. Perini Thandavam

Explanation:
Perini Thandavam is a warrior dance form traditionally performed by male dancers. Originating in Telangana, it was used to invoke Shiva’s energy before going to war and is characterized by vigorous movements and rhythmic intensity.

45. The large Community of Craftsmen in Nirmal of Adilabad district is referred to as
Options :

  1. Ikkat
  2. Trilinga
  3. Parvata
  4. Nakkash

Answer: 4. Nakkash

Explanation:
The Nakkash community in Nirmal, Adilabad district, is renowned for its wooden toy craftsmanship and decorative art. Their work is famous for intricate designs, often painted with natural dyes and traditional motifs.

46. When did the traditional Pochampally Saree receive the Geographic Indication (GI) status?
Options :

  1. in 2004
  2. in 2005
  3. in 2006
  4. in 2007

Answer: 2. in 2005

Explanation:
The Pochampally Saree, known for its Ikat weaving technique, received Geographic Indication (GI) status in 2005. This recognition protects its regional identity and supports the weavers of Telangana.

47. Where are Navabrahma temples situated in Telangana State?
Options :

  1. Vargal, Medak District
  2. Keesara, Ranga Reddy District
  3. Alampur, Mahaboobnagar District
  4. Vemulawada, Karimnagar District

Answer: 3. Alampur, Mahaboobnagar District

Explanation:
The Navabrahma temples are a group of nine ancient temples located in Alampur, Mahaboobnagar district. Built during the Chalukya period, they are dedicated to Lord Shiva and are known for their architectural elegance.

48. The period of high inflation, low economic growth and high unemployment is termed as
Options :

  1. Stagnation
  2. Stagflation
  3. Reflation
  4. Take-off stage

Answer: 2. Stagflation

Explanation:
Stagflation is an economic condition characterized by high inflation, low growth, and high unemployment. It presents a policy dilemma, as measures to control inflation may worsen unemployment and vice versa.

49. If total expenditure is more than receipts of a country, we get
Options :

  1. Revenue deficit
  2. Budget deficit
  3. Fiscal deficit
  4. Primary deficit

Answer: 2. Budget deficit

Explanation:
A budget deficit occurs when a country’s total expenditure exceeds its total receipts, excluding borrowings. It reflects the imbalance in government finances, often leading to increased borrowing.

50. Majority share of National Income in India during the last 15 years is provided by
Options :

  1. Agricultural sector
  2. Industrial sector
  3. Service sector
  4. Government sector

Answer: 3. Service sector

Explanation:
Over the past 15 years, the service sector has emerged as the largest contributor to India’s national income, driven by growth in IT, finance, education, healthcare, and telecommunications.

51. In which method, the market value of all final goods and services produced is added in a country in a year to measure National Income?
Options :

  1. Output method
  2. Income method
  3. Expenditure method
  4. Point method

Answer: 1. Output method

Explanation:
The Output method calculates National Income by adding the market value of all final goods and services produced in a country during a year. It avoids double counting by excluding intermediate goods, focusing only on final production.

52. The project which has been proposed by Telangana Government to irrigate 3.41 lakh acres of chronically fluoride and drought affected areas of Nalgonda district and a part of Mahabubnagar district is
Options :

  1. Jurala-Pakhala
  2. Palemvagu Project
  3. Swarna Project
  4. Nakkalagandi Project

Answer: 4. Nakkalagandi Project

Explanation:
The Nakkalagandi Project was proposed to provide irrigation facilities to fluoride-affected and drought-prone areas in Nalgonda and Mahabubnagar districts. It aims to improve agricultural productivity and livelihoods in these regions.

53. District wise analysis of micro, small and medium scale industries in Telangana in recent years indicates that more than two fifths of investment (40%) was made in
Options :

  1. Rangareddy district
  2. Medak district
  3. Mahabubnagar district
  4. Hyderabad district

Answer: 1. Rangareddy district

Explanation:
Rangareddy district attracted the highest investment in MSME sector, accounting for over 40% of total investment. Its proximity to Hyderabad, availability of infrastructure, and industrial zones contributed to this growth.

54. As per the 2011 census, in Telangana, female, male and total literacy rates were the lowest in the district of
Options :

  1. Hyderabad
  2. Mahabubnagar
  3. Medak
  4. Nizamabad

Answer: 2. Mahabubnagar

Explanation:
According to the 2011 Census, Mahabubnagar recorded the lowest literacy rates across male, female, and total population in Telangana. This reflects challenges in educational access and infrastructure in the district.

55. During the year 2014-15, the sectoral analysis reveals that the growth of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) in Telangana is highest in
Options :

  1. Agricultural sector
  2. Industrial sector
  3. Services sector
  4. Government sector

Answer: 3. Services sector

Explanation:
In 2014–15, the Services sector showed the highest growth in Telangana’s GSDP, driven by IT, finance, education, and healthcare. It reflects the state’s shift towards a knowledge-based economy.

56. The financial assistance given under Ambedkar Overseas Vidya Nidhi to SC students in Telangana is
Options :

  1. 5 Lakh Rupees
  2. 10 Lakh Rupees
  3. 15 Lakh Rupees
  4. 20 Lakh Rupees

Answer: 2. 10 Lakh Rupees

Explanation:
The Ambedkar Overseas Vidya Nidhi provides ₹10 lakh financial support to SC students from Telangana pursuing higher education abroad, promoting educational equity and global exposure.

57. The amount of loan extended to farmers without any interest upto 180 days under the Rythu Bandhu Pathakam in Telangana is
Options :

  1. One Lakh Rupees
  2. Two Lakh Rupees
  3. Fifty Thousand Rupees
  4. Three Lakh Rupees

Answer: 3. Fifty Thousand Rupees

Explanation:
Under the Rythu Bandhu Pathakam, farmers in Telangana receive interest-free loans up to ₹50,000 for 180 days, helping them meet seasonal agricultural expenses and reduce dependence on informal credit.

58. Right to Education Act does not contain
Options :

  1. Approaching Court of Law against Private Schools for non-implementation
  2. File a complaint against any official for non-implementation
  3. Free and Compulsory education to children below 14 years
  4. Reservation of seats in Private schools

Answer: 1. Approaching Court of Law against Private Schools for non-implementation

Explanation:
The Right to Education Act ensures free and compulsory education and mandates reservation in private schools, but it does not explicitly provide for legal action against private schools for non-compliance. It focuses more on administrative remedies.

59. The Water Grid project in Telangana is known as
Options :

  1. Mission Kakatiya
  2. Mission Bhageeratha
  3. Mission Godavari
  4. Mission Trushna

Answer: 2. Mission Bhageeratha

Explanation:
Mission Bhageeratha is Telangana’s flagship Water Grid project, aimed at providing safe drinking water to every household. It involves large-scale pipeline infrastructure and water treatment systems.

60. The Scheme “Pradhan Mantri Aadarsh Gram Yojana” (PMAGY) aims at
Options :

  1. Integrated development of 1000 Scheduled Castes majority villages
  2. Integrated development of 1000 most backward villages
  3. Integrated development of all drought-prone areas
  4. Integrated development of all tribal areas

Answer: 1. Integrated development of 1000 Scheduled Castes majority villages

Explanation:
PMAGY targets the holistic development of Scheduled Castes majority villages, focusing on infrastructure, education, health, and livelihoods. It aims to reduce social disparities and promote inclusive growth.

61. Who is the present Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes?
Options :

  1. Dilip Singh Buria
  2. Bizay Sonkar Shastri
  3. Bhuta Singh
  4. Dr PL Punia

Answer: 4. Dr PL Punia

Explanation:
Dr. PL Punia, a senior bureaucrat and politician, served as the Chairman of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, focusing on safeguarding the rights and welfare of SC communities through policy oversight and grievance redressal.

62. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul of the Constitution’?
Options :

  1. Right to Equality
  2. Right to Constitutional Remedies
  3. Right to Freedom of Religion
  4. Right to Property

Answer: 2. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Explanation:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies the heart and soul of the Constitution because it empowers citizens to approach courts if their fundamental rights are violated, ensuring legal protection and enforcement.

63. How many times can the President of India seek re-election?
Options :

  1. Once
  2. Thrice
  3. Twice
  4. any number of times

Answer: 4. any number of times

Explanation:
The Indian Constitution does not limit the number of terms a President can serve. A person can seek re-election any number of times, provided they meet the eligibility criteria and secure electoral support.

64. “Narmada Bachao Andolan” is a
Options :

  1. Tribal Movement
  2. Environmental Movement
  3. Peasants Movement
  4. Forest Dwellers Movement

Answer: 2. Environmental Movement

Explanation:
The Narmada Bachao Andolan is an environmental movement opposing the construction of large dams on the Narmada River, highlighting issues of displacement, ecological damage, and livelihood loss for affected communities.

65. Who recommended for establishment of the Ombudsman type of Institutions in India?
Options :

  1. Justice P.B.Gajendra Gadkar
  2. Justice Alladi Kuppuswamy
  3. Justice Y.V.Chandrachud
  4. Justice Fazal Ali

Answer: 4. Justice Fazal Ali

Explanation:
Justice Fazal Ali recommended the creation of an Ombudsman-like institution, which later evolved into the concept of Lokpal, aimed at addressing corruption and administrative grievances in public offices.

66. First Vigilance Commissioner of India was
Options :

  1. M.T.Raju
  2. Santhanam
  3. N.Srinivas Raju
  4. K.V.Chowdhary

Answer: 2. Santhanam

Explanation:
K. Santhanam was appointed as the first Vigilance Commissioner of India, laying the foundation for the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) to combat corruption in public administration.

67. When was the expression “Unity and Integrity of the Nation” added in the Preamble to the Constitution?
Options :

  1. in 1952
  2. in 1976
  3. in 1978
  4. in 1995

Answer: 2. in 1976

Explanation:
The phrase “Unity and Integrity of the Nation” was added to the Preamble through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976, during the Emergency period, to emphasize national cohesion and strength.

68. The term ‘Bahujan’ was first used by
Options :

  1. Mayavathi
  2. Kansiram
  3. Buddha
  4. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar

Answer: 3. Buddha

Explanation:
The term ‘Bahujan’, meaning ‘the majority of people’, was originally used by Gautama Buddha in the phrase “Bahujana hitaya bahujana sukhaya”, signifying welfare and happiness of the masses.

69. Which one of these states does not have a Nuclear Power Plant?
Options :

  1. Uttar Pradesh
  2. Gujarat
  3. Karnataka
  4. Kerala

Answer: 4. Kerala

Explanation:
Kerala does not host any nuclear power plant, whereas Uttar Pradesh (Narora), Gujarat (Kakrapar) and Karnataka (Kaiga) have operational nuclear facilities contributing to India’s energy grid.

70. Coriolis force is zero at
Options :

  1. Tropic of Capricorn
  2. Tropic of Cancer
  3. Equator
  4. Arctic Circle

Answer: 3. Equator

Explanation:
The Coriolis force, which affects the direction of moving objects due to Earth’s rotation, is zero at the Equator. It increases with latitude, being strongest at the poles, and influences wind and ocean currents.

71. Lahul and Spiti Valleys are located in the State of
Options :

  1. Himachal Pradesh
  2. Assam
  3. Jammu & Kashmir
  4. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: 1. Himachal Pradesh

Explanation:
The Lahul and Spiti Valleys are situated in the northern part of Himachal Pradesh, known for their cold desert terrain, Buddhist monasteries, and high-altitude passes. These valleys are among the least populated regions in India due to their harsh climate.

72. “Zawar” mines are famous for
Options :

  1. Gold and Silver
  2. Zinc and Lead
  3. Copper
  4. Manganese

Answer: 2. Zinc and Lead

Explanation:
The Zawar mines, located in Rajasthan, are among the oldest zinc and lead mines in the world. Operated by Hindustan Zinc Limited, they are known for their rich mineral deposits and historic mining techniques.

73. The capacity of Ultra Mega Thermal Power Project in India is (in Mega Watts)
Options :

  1. 2000 MW and above
  2. 3000 MW and above
  3. 4000 MW and above
  4. 5000 MW and above

Answer: 3. 4000 MW and above

Explanation:
An Ultra Mega Thermal Power Project in India is defined by a capacity of 4000 MW or more. These projects aim to meet the growing energy demands and are part of the infrastructure development strategy.

74. Which part of China is the highest populated region?
Options :

  1. Northern
  2. Southern
  3. Eastern
  4. Western

Answer: 3. Eastern

Explanation:
Eastern China is the most densely populated region, home to major cities like Beijing, Shanghai, and Guangzhou. The region benefits from fertile plains, industrial development, and coastal access, supporting high population density.

75. Which of the following Latitudes is a Great Circle
Options :

  1. 23° 4′ 5″
  2. 3°
  3. Polar Circle
  4. Equator

Answer: 4. Equator

Explanation:
The Equator is the only latitude line that forms a Great Circle, dividing the Earth into Northern and Southern Hemispheres. It represents the largest circumference of the Earth.

76. Which state has the highest population among the following?
Options :

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Uttar Pradesh
  3. Karnataka
  4. Bihar

Answer: 2. Uttar Pradesh

Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India, with over 200 million residents. It plays a significant role in national politics, agriculture, and cultural heritage.

77. El Nino current flows along the coast of
Options :

  1. South America
  2. Japan
  3. Africa
  4. Canada

Answer: 1. South America

Explanation:
The El Niño current originates in the Pacific Ocean and affects the western coast of South America, especially Peru and Ecuador. It disrupts weather patterns, causing droughts and floods globally.

78. Which one of these Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) is NOT a ‘Maharatna’?
Options :

  1. Indian Oil Corporation
  2. Coal India Limited
  3. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation
  4. ONGC

Answer: 3. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation

Explanation:
Hindustan Petroleum Corporation is classified as a Navratna, not a Maharatna. Maharatna status is granted to PSUs with large turnover, profitability, and global presence, like ONGC and Coal India.

79. What are the main population characteristics of the developed countries?
Options :

  1. Low birth rate, High death rate
  2. High birth rate, Low death rate
  3. Low birth rate, Low death rate
  4. High birth rate, High death rate

Answer: 3. Low birth rate, Low death rate

Explanation:
Developed countries typically exhibit low birth and death rates due to advanced healthcare, education, and family planning. This leads to stable population growth and aging demographics.

80. ‘For a Living Planet’ is the slogan of
Options :

  1. Green Peace
  2. Earth Summit, 1992
  3. WWF
  4. Kyoto Protocol

Answer: 3. WWF

Explanation:
World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) uses the slogan “For a Living Planet” to emphasize its mission of conserving biodiversity, promoting sustainable development, and protecting the natural environment.

81. In Telangana, decadal population growth rate is the highest during the period of
Options :

  1. 1961–71
  2. 1971–81
  3. 1981–91
  4. 1991–2001

Answer: 3. 1981–91

Explanation:
During the 1981–91 decade, Telangana experienced its highest population growth rate, driven by urbanization, migration, and developmental activities. This period marked a significant demographic shift in the region.

82. Which of the following states is the largest state in terms of geographical area?
Options :

  1. Telangana
  2. West Bengal
  3. Bihar
  4. Kerala

Answer: 1. Telangana

Explanation:
Among the options listed, Telangana is the largest in geographical area. It was formed in 2014 and comprises ten districts initially, later reorganized into 33 districts, covering a vast landmass in southern India.

83. Telangana State Forest Academy is located at
Options :

  1. Mulugu
  2. Rampalli
  3. Dhulapalli
  4. Kagaznagar

Answer: 3. Dhulapalli

Explanation:
The Telangana State Forest Academy is situated at Dhulapalli, near Hyderabad. It serves as a training and research center for forest officers and staff, promoting sustainable forest management.

84. Sirnapalli Hills are located in the district of
Options :

  1. Adilabad
  2. Nizamabad
  3. Mahabubnagar
  4. Khammam

Answer: 2. Nizamabad

Explanation:
The Sirnapalli Hills, known for their natural beauty and biodiversity, are located in Nizamabad district of Telangana. They are part of the region’s ecological heritage and attract local tourism.

85. The river water irrigation project constructed with Automatic Siphon Technology in Telangana
Options :

  1. Upper Manair
  2. Koil Sagar
  3. Ali Sagar
  4. Sarla Sagar

Answer: 4. Sarla Sagar

Explanation:
Sarla Sagar is notable for using Automatic Siphon Technology, a rare engineering method for water regulation. It was built with American assistance and is one of the oldest projects of its kind in India.

86. The proposed Bhadradri Thermal Power Plant is located at
Options :

  1. Manuguru, Khammam
  2. Bhadrachalam, Khammam
  3. Palvancha, Khammam
  4. Kothagudem, Khammam

Answer: 1. Manuguru, Khammam

Explanation:
The Bhadradri Thermal Power Plant is proposed at Manuguru in Khammam district. It is part of Telangana’s plan to enhance power generation capacity using coal-based thermal energy.

87. The head quarter of Southern Telangana Agro-climatic Zone is located at
Options :

  1. Palem
  2. Suryapet
  3. Shadnagar
  4. Bhuvangiri

Answer: 1. Palem

Explanation:
Palem serves as the headquarter for the Southern Telangana Agro-climatic Zone, facilitating agricultural research, planning, and climate-based crop advisories for the region’s farmers.

88. Which Kakatiya King issued the Motupalli Abhaya Sasanam?
Options :

  1. Rudradeva
  2. Ganapatideva
  3. Prataparudra
  4. Mahadeva

Answer: 2. Ganapatideva

Explanation:
Ganapatideva, a prominent Kakatiya ruler, issued the Motupalli Abhaya Sasanam, a royal decree promoting trade and safety for merchants. It reflects the progressive governance and economic vision of the Kakatiya dynasty.

89. Identify the Qutbshahi Sultan who built the famous ‘Badhshahi Ashur Khana’ in Madina area of Hyderabad
Options :

  1. Sultan Quli Qutbshah
  2. Jamsheed Quli Qutbshah
  3. Ibrahim Quli Qutbshah
  4. Muhammad Quli Qutbshah

Answer: 1. Sultan Quli Qutbshah

Explanation:
Sultan Quli Qutbshah, the founder of the Qutb Shahi dynasty, built the Badhshahi Ashur Khana in Hyderabad. It is a Shia religious structure used during Muharram, showcasing Persian-influenced architecture.

90. The Eight Point Formula was proclaimed by
Options :

  1. Marri Chenna Reddy
  2. Kasu Brahmananda Reddy
  3. Smt. Indira Gandhi
  4. Burgula Rama Krishna Rao

Answer: 3. Smt. Indira Gandhi

Explanation:
The Eight Point Formula was introduced by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in response to the Telangana agitation. It aimed to address regional disparities through administrative and developmental measures.

91. Who was the author of the Book ‘They Burn’?
Options :

  1. T.V.Narayana
  2. Subedar Sayanna
  3. G.Ramappa
  4. V.Shyam Sundar

Answer: 1. T.V.Narayana

Explanation:
T.V. Narayana authored the book ‘They Burn’, which highlights social injustices and struggles, particularly focusing on Dalit issues and marginalized communities in India.

92. ‘Rayyat’ was a
Options :

  1. Urdu News paper
  2. Hindi News paper
  3. Marathi News paper
  4. Kannada News paper

Answer: 1. Urdu News paper

Explanation:
‘Rayyat’ was an Urdu newspaper that played a role in political and social awareness, especially among the Muslim population during the freedom movement.

93. When did K. Chandra Shekar Rao become the Deputy Speaker of the A.P.Legislature Assembly?
Options :

  1. 1997
  2. 1998
  3. 1999
  4. 1996

Answer: 1. 1997

Explanation:
K. Chandrashekar Rao, the founder of TRS and first Chief Minister of Telangana, served as the Deputy Speaker of the Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly in 1997, marking a key phase in his political career.

94. Who founded the Talli Telangana Party?
Options :

  1. Vimalakka
  2. Surepalli Sujatha
  3. Vijaya Shanti
  4. K.Aruna

Answer: 3. Vijaya Shanti

Explanation:
Vijaya Shanti, a popular actress turned politician, founded the Talli Telangana Party to support the Telangana statehood movement, emphasizing regional identity and empowerment.

95. Which committee was constituted to inquire into the events related to the 1952 Mulki Movement?
Options :

  1. Bhargava Committee
  2. Justice Jagan Mohan Reddy Committee
  3. Wanchu Committee
  4. Tharkunde Committee

Answer: 2. Justice Jagan Mohan Reddy Committee

Explanation:
The Justice Jagan Mohan Reddy Committee was formed to investigate the 1952 Mulki agitation, which revolved around employment rights and local identity in Hyderabad State.

96. Who was the first Martyr of the Telangana Peasant Armed Struggle?
Options :

  1. Doddi Komaraiah
  2. Chityala Ailamma
  3. Doddi Mallaiah
  4. B.Krishnamoorthi

Answer: 1. Doddi Komaraiah

Explanation:
Doddi Komaraiah is remembered as the first martyr of the Telangana Peasant Armed Struggle, which opposed feudal oppression and sought agrarian reforms during the Nizam’s rule.

97. During the 1857 revolt where did Begum Hazrat Mahal led the revolt?
Options :

  1. Bhopal
  2. Lucknow
  3. Khanpur
  4. Bareilly

Answer: 2. Lucknow

Explanation:
Begum Hazrat Mahal led the 1857 revolt in Lucknow, resisting British forces after the exile of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah. She played a crucial role in mobilizing troops and public support.

98. The Cabinet Mission which visited India in 1946 was led by
Options :

  1. R.J.Moore
  2. A.V.Campbell
  3. Pethick Lawrence
  4. David Warner

Answer: 3. Pethick Lawrence

Explanation:
The Cabinet Mission of 1946, led by Pethick Lawrence, aimed to discuss India’s constitutional future and transfer of power. It proposed the formation of a Constituent Assembly.

99. Which of the following Satyagarahas associated with the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930–31) was led by Gandhi?
Options :

  1. Kheda Satyagraha
  2. Salt Satyagaraha
  3. Bardoli Satyagraha
  4. Ahmedabad Satyagraha

Answer: 2. Salt Satyagaraha

Explanation:
The Salt Satyagraha, also known as the Dandi March, was led by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930 as part of the Civil Disobedience Movement, protesting the British monopoly on salt.

100. Who among the following founded the All India Scheduled Castes Federation?
Options :

  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. M.C.Rajah
  3. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
  4. Babu Jagjivanram

Answer: 3. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar

Explanation:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar founded the All India Scheduled Castes Federation to represent Dalit interests and advocate for social justice, political representation, and constitutional rights.

101. Which of the following communities is recognized as a minority under the Indian Constitution?
Options :

  1. Muslims
  2. Christians
  3. Parsis
  4. Sikhs

Answer: 1. Muslims

Explanation:
Under the Indian Constitution, Muslims are recognized as a minority community based on religion. Other recognized minorities include Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains, ensuring cultural and educational rights under Articles 29 and 30.

102. Which one of the following was NOT associated with the Indian National Army?
Options :

  1. G.S. Dhillon
  2. Aruna Asaf Ali
  3. Shah Nawaz Khan
  4. P.K. Sahgal

Answer: 2. Aruna Asaf Ali

Explanation:
Aruna Asaf Ali was a prominent leader in the Quit India Movement, but she was not associated with the Indian National Army (INA). The INA was led by Subhas Chandra Bose, and key members included G.S. Dhillon, Shah Nawaz Khan, and P.K. Sahgal.

103. Kishori Shakti Yojana aims at
Options :

  1. Empowering adolescent girls in the age group of 11–18 years
  2. Empowering girls of all ages
  3. Empowering college-going girls
  4. Imparting Karate training to school-going girls

Answer: 1. Empowering adolescent girls in the age group of 11–18 years

Explanation:
Kishori Shakti Yojana is a government initiative focused on empowering adolescent girls (11–18 years) through nutrition, education, vocational skills, and health awareness, aiming to improve their self-esteem and future opportunities.

104. The Committee on the status of women was headed by
Options :

  1. Mrinal Gore
  2. Mamatha Benerjee
  3. Mary John
  4. Vina Mazumdar

Answer: 4. Vina Mazumdar

Explanation:
The Committee on the Status of Women in India, formed in 1971, was headed by Vina Mazumdar, a pioneering feminist and academic. The committee’s report, “Towards Equality”, became a landmark in gender policy and women’s rights.

105. Social inclusion is adopted as growth strategy for the first time in the
Options :

  1. 5th Five Year Plan
  2. 11th Five Year Plan
  3. 8th Five Year Plan
  4. 10th Five Year Plan

Answer: 2. 11th Five Year Plan

Explanation:
The 11th Five Year Plan (2007–2012) emphasized “inclusive growth”, integrating social inclusion as a core strategy. It aimed to ensure that economic benefits reach marginalized and disadvantaged groups.

106. In the ‘bar dancer’ judgement, the Supreme Court
Options :

  1. allowed the employment of women as dancers
  2. prohibited the employment of women as dancers
  3. allowed some of the hotels to employ dancers
  4. allowed some forms of dance

Answer: 1. allowed the employment of women as dancers

Explanation:
In the ‘bar dancer’ judgment, the Supreme Court of India upheld the right of women to work as dancers, stating that banning dance bars violated their right to livelihood and expression, provided regulations were followed.

107. The National Commission for Women was set up in the year
Options :

  1. 1990
  2. 1992
  3. 1993
  4. 1994

Answer: 2. 1992

Explanation:
The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established in 1992 to protect and promote women’s rights in India. It functions as a statutory body for policy review, legal support, and advocacy.

108. The year 2001 was announced by the Indian Government as
Options :

  1. Girl Child Year
  2. Women’s Empowerment Year
  3. Year of Girl Education
  4. Year of the Empowerment of the Disabled

Answer: 2. Women’s Empowerment Year

Explanation:
The Government of India declared 2001 as the Year of Women’s Empowerment, launching initiatives to promote gender equality, education, and economic participation of women across sectors.

109. Who was the first Commercial Mobile Service Provider in India?
Options :

  1. Reliance Net Connect
  2. Tata Group Indicom
  3. Modi Telestra’s Mobilenet
  4. BSNL’s Cell One

Answer: 3. Modi Telestra’s Mobilenet

Explanation:
Modi Telestra’s Mobilenet was the first commercial mobile service provider in India, launched in the mid-1990s, marking the beginning of cellular telephony in the country.

110. Oyo Rooms is a business network started by a college dropout in India. The network is associated with
Options :

  1. Working Women’s Hostels
  2. Tuition Classes
  3. Hotel Rooms
  4. Start-up ideas for college dropouts

Answer: 3. Hotel Rooms

Explanation:
Oyo Rooms, founded by Ritesh Agarwal, is a hospitality network that aggregates budget hotels across India. It revolutionized the hotel booking experience by offering standardized, affordable stays.

111. What should come in the place of question mark?
[(573 × 99 + 473) + (537 × 101 − 437)] + 125 + ? = 1234
Options :

  1. 364
  2. 246
  3. 356
  4. 346

Answer: 2. 246

Explanation:
First, calculate each part:
573 × 99 = 56727 → 56727 + 473 = 57100
537 × 101 = 54237 → 54237 − 437 = 53800
57100 + 53800 = 110900
Now, 110900 + 125 + ? = 1234 → So, ? = 1234 − 125 − 110900 = −109791
But this contradicts the question. The actual intended logic is likely simplified or symbolic. Based on the official key, the correct answer is 246, possibly derived from a pattern or approximation.

112. Pointing to a woman in a photograph, a man says “she is the mother-in-law of the wife of the father of my only son”. How the woman in the photograph related to the man?
Options :

  1. Mother
  2. Sister
  3. Wife
  4. Sister-in-law

Answer: 1. Mother

Explanation:
Break it down:

  • “My only son” → man’s son
  • “Father of my only son” → the man himself
  • “Wife of the father of my only son” → man’s wife
  • “Mother-in-law of man’s wife” → man’s mother
    So, the woman in the photograph is his mother.

113. If red is called yellow, yellow is called blue, blue is called white, white is called green, green is called pink and pink is called purple, then what is the colour of sky?
Options :

  1. Red
  2. Blue
  3. White
  4. Pink

Answer: 3. White

Explanation:
The actual colour of the sky is blue.
According to the code:

  • Blue is called white
    So, the answer is white.

114. The present age of ‘X’ is four times of his son ‘Y’. Five years ago the age of ‘X’ was 7 times of the age of ‘Y’. What will be total age of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ seven years from now?
Options :

  1. 57
  2. 40
  3. 50
  4. 64

Answer: 4. 64

Explanation:
Let Y’s present age = x → X’s age = 4x
Five years ago:
X − 5 = 7(Y − 5) → 4x − 5 = 7(x − 5)
→ 4x − 5 = 7x − 35 → 3x = 30 → x = 10
So, Y = 10, X = 40
Seven years from now:
Y = 17, X = 47 → Total = 64

115. Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark in the given expression in order to make the expression ‘K ≤ H’ definitely true?
H > I = J ? K ≤ L < M
Options :

  2. <
  3. ≤
  4. ≥

Answer: 2. <

Explanation:
To ensure K ≤ H, we need a logical chain from H to K.
Given: H > I = J ? K
To make K ≤ H, the symbol between J and K must be <, so that the inequality flows correctly.
Hence, the correct symbol is <.

**116. Statements: Some letters are words; All words are sentences.
Conclusions:

  1. All sentences are letters.
  2. All sentences being words is a possibility.**
    Options :
  3. Only 1
  4. Only 2
  5. Both 1 and 2 follow
  6. None follows

Answer: 2. Only 2

Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: All sentences are not necessarily letters.
Statement 2 is logically possible, as all words are sentences, and possibility is allowed in syllogism.
So, Only 2 follows.

117. Which digit is placed on the opposite surface to the surface where 5 is present in the above cube?
Options :

  1. 2
  2. 6
  3. 4
  4. 1

Answer: 2. 6

Explanation:
From cube visualization, opposite faces are determined by non-adjacent numbers.
Given arrangement shows 6 opposite to 5.

118. In a row of forty boys facing north, R is twelfth from the left end and T is eighteenth from the right end. How many boys are between R and T in the row?
Options :

  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 13
  4. 11

Answer: 2. 12

Explanation:
R is 12th from left → Position = 12
T is 18th from right → Position = 40 − 18 + 1 = 23
Boys between R and T = 23 − 12 − 1 = 10
But official key says 12, possibly due to inclusive counting or misalignment. Based on logic, 10 is correct.

119. Who is facing Farida?
Options :

  1. Bhupen
  2. Anita
  3. Chandana
  4. Devesh

Answer: 3. Chandana

Explanation:
From seating arrangement:

  • Edward faces Chandana
  • Farida is between Edward and Bhupen
    So, the person opposite Farida is Chandana.

120. What is the difference between average strength per subject of colleges C and A?
Options :

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 24
  4. 21

Answer: 4. 21

Explanation:
College A: (354 + 459 + 256 + 99) = 1168 → Avg = 1168 / 4 = 292
College C: (358 + 487 + 265 + 138) = 1248 → Avg = 1248 / 4 = 312
Difference = 312 − 292 = 20
But official key says 21, possibly due to rounding or data variation. Based on calculation, 20 is correct.

121. Directions: In the question given below, there is a statement followed by two assumptions numbered (I) and (II). An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the given assumptions and decide which of the assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement.
Assumption I: It is possible to earn money from ‘You Tube’.
Assumption II: People are interested to earn money from possible sources.
Options :

  1. If only assumption (I) is implicit.
  2. If only assumption (II) is implicit.
  3. If neither (I) nor (II) is implicit.
  4. If both (I) and (II) are implicit.

Answer: 4. If both (I) and (II) are implicit.

Explanation:
The statement implies that YouTube is a viable platform for earning, and also assumes that people seek income from available opportunities. Hence, both assumptions are implicit.

122. Directions: In the question given below there is a statement followed by two courses of actions numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the suggested course(s) of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement: The meteorological department has issued a notification forecasting less rainfall during next year’s monsoon.
Course of Action I: The farmers should be advised to be ready for the eventuality.
Options :

  1. If only Course of Action (I) is suggested.
  2. If only Course of Action (II) is suggested.
  3. If neither Course of Action (I) nor (II) is suggested.
  4. If both Course of Action (I) and (II) are suggested.

Answer: 1. If only Course of Action (I) is suggested.

Explanation:
Since less rainfall is forecasted, it is logical to advise farmers to prepare for possible drought conditions. Only Course of Action I is relevant.

123. Directions: In the question given below there is a pair of events (I & II). You have to read both the events (I) and (II); and then decide the nature of relationship (cause and effect) that exists between them.
Event I: The government has opened a temporary hospital near Medarm during Sammakka-Sarakka bi-annual celebrations.
Event II: Devotees in lakhs are expected to participate in the celebrations.
Options :

  1. If (I) is the effect and (II) is its immediate and principal cause.
  2. If (I) is the immediate and principal cause and (II) is its effect.
  3. If (I) is an effect but (II) is not its immediate and principal cause.
  4. If (II) is an effect but (I) is not its immediate and principal cause.

Answer: 1. If (I) is the effect and (II) is its immediate and principal cause.

Explanation:
The large gathering of devotees is the reason for setting up a temporary hospital, making Event II the cause and Event I the effect.

124. What is the percentage increment we find in the total number of employees in the given period?
Options :

  1. 50
  2. 25
  3. 60
  4. 75

Answer: 3. 60

Explanation:
From the bar diagram, total employees in 2011 = 30 + 20 + 10 = 60
Total in 2015 = 60 + 50 + 40 = 150
Increment = 150 − 60 = 90
Percentage = (90 / 150) × 100 = 60%

125. What is the difference between the amount that is saved and the amount spent on house rent?
Options :

  1. Rs. 4,000
  2. Rs. 5,000
  3. Rs. 6,000
  4. Rs. 7,000

Answer: 3. Rs. 6,000

Explanation:
Total income = ₹40,000
Saving = 20% = ₹8,000
House Rent = 30% = ₹12,000
Difference = ₹12,000 − ₹8,000 = ₹4,000
But official key says ₹6,000, possibly due to misprint. Based on calculation, correct answer is ₹4,000.

126. What is the code for 22491036560?
Options :

  1. ##$*+<%>^><
  2. @#$*+<%>^><
  3. ##$*+<>%^><
  4. @#$*+<%>^>^

Answer: 2. @#$+<%>^><*

Explanation:
Number starts and ends with even digits (2 and 0) → apply Exception II
So, first digit = @, last digit = ^
Code: @#$+<%>^><*

127. In a certain code language ‘NALGONDA’ is written as ‘OCMIPPEC’. How is ‘WARANGAL’ written in that code language?
Options :

  1. XDSCOIBN
  2. XCSCIOBN
  3. XCSCOIBM
  4. XCSCOINB

Answer: 4. XCSCOINB

Explanation:
The code follows a letter shifting pattern. Applying the same logic to WARANGAL gives XCSCOINB.

128. In the following sequence of alphabets, which letter would be the sixteenth from left if all the vowels interchange their positions with their succeeding letters?
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
Options :

  1. K
  2. P
  3. N
  4. O

Answer: 2. P

Explanation:
Vowels (A, E, I, O, U) are replaced by their next letters: B, F, J, P, V
Modified sequence:
BCDFGHJKLMNPQRSTVWXYZ
16th letter = P

129. A vessel contains 100 coins of five different colours, each colour contributing 20 coins. Coins of four colours weigh one gram each. Coins of the remaining colour weigh 0.9 gram each. If we use a balance and suitable measuring weights, then what is the minimum number we need to weigh to find out the colour of the coins that weigh 0.9 gram?
Options :

  1. Four times
  2. Three times
  3. Two times
  4. One time

Answer: 4. One time

Explanation:
We can weigh one coin from each colour group, assigning different counts (e.g., 1 from first, 2 from second, etc.). The total weight deviation will reveal the lighter group in one weighing.

130. Which number should come in the place of question mark in the following series? 10, 15, 30, 75, 225, ?
Options :

  1. 787.5
  2. 767.5
  3. 757.5
  4. 747.5

Answer: 1. 787.5

Explanation:
Pattern:
10 × 1.5 = 15
15 × 2 = 30
30 × 2.5 = 75
75 × 3 = 225
225 × 3.5 = 787.5

131. Identify the correctly spelt word among the following.
Options :

  1. Enterpreneurship
  2. Enterprenuership
  3. Entreprenueship
  4. Entrepreneurship

Answer: 4. Entrepreneurship

Explanation:
The correct spelling is Entrepreneurship, which refers to the process of starting and managing a business venture, especially involving risk and innovation.

132. Identify the meaning of the idiom ‘butterflies in the stomach’
Options :

  1. Excited
  2. Depressed
  3. Nervous
  4. Hungry

Answer: 3. Nervous

Explanation:
The idiom ‘butterflies in the stomach’ describes a feeling of nervousness or anxiety, often experienced before a performance, exam, or important event.

133. Identify the grammatically wrong sentence among the following.
Options :

  1. The virtue has its own reward.
  2. Twelve inches make a foot.
  3. The only one who can make a perfect cake is you.
  4. He is a honest person.

Answer: 4. He is a honest person.

Explanation:
The correct usage is “an honest person” because ‘honest’ begins with a vowel sound, requiring the article ‘an’ instead of ‘a’.

134. The following sentence is divided into four parts. Identify the part in which there is error.
The agreement on (1) / which all of us have (2) / worked so hard will (3) / be sign tomorrow (4).
Options :

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 4

Answer: 4. 4

Explanation:
The error is in part (4): “be sign tomorrow” should be “be signed tomorrow” to maintain correct passive voice construction.

135. The following sentence is divided into four parts. Identify the part in which there is error.
Very few young trainees (1) / willingly undertake (2) / a posting to a branch (3) / located of a rural area (4).
Options :

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 1
  4. 4

Answer: 4. 4

Explanation:
The phrase “located of a rural area” is incorrect. It should be “located in a rural area” to follow proper prepositional usage.

136. What should I ___ to the party tonight?
Options :

  1. ware
  2. where
  3. were
  4. wear

Answer: 4. wear

Explanation:
The correct word is “wear”, which means to put on clothes or accessories. The other options are either misspelled or contextually incorrect.

137. Arjun was a better speaker than his brother. Select one of the following sentences with meaning similar to the above sentence.
Options :

  1. Arjun’s brother is not a better speaker.
  2. Arjun’s brother was not a better speaker.
  3. Arjun’s brother was not so good speaker as Arjun was.
  4. Arjun’s brother was not as good as Arjun.

Answer: 4. Arjun’s brother was not as good as Arjun.

Explanation:
This sentence correctly conveys the comparative meaning that Arjun was the superior speaker between the two.

138. Identify the word that is opposite in meaning of the word ‘INADVERTENT’.
Options :

  1. adequate
  2. available
  3. intentional
  4. negligent

Answer: 3. intentional

Explanation:
‘Inadvertent’ means unintentional or accidental. Its opposite is ‘intentional’, which means done deliberately.

139. Identify the most appropriate meaning of the word ‘INCEPTION’.
Options :

  1. encumber
  2. skilful
  3. conceive
  4. Start

Answer: 4. Start

Explanation:
‘Inception’ refers to the beginning or commencement of something, such as a project, idea, or institution.

140. ___ in the company for many years, he knew everyone and everything.
Options :

  1. Having working
  2. Having worked
  3. Worked been
  4. Been worked

Answer: 2. Having worked

Explanation:
The correct phrase is “Having worked”, which is a perfect participle used to indicate prior experience leading to the present knowledge.

141. My friends encouraged me for this job.
Options :

  1. apply
  2. to apply
  3. in apply
  4. applying

Answer: 2. to apply

Explanation:
The correct construction is “encouraged me to apply”, using the infinitive form after the verb “encouraged.” This maintains proper verb-object-infinitive structure.

142. The beep sound reminded me the washing machine.
Options :

  1. turn off
  2. to turn off
  3. turning off
  4. for turning off

Answer: 2. to turn off

Explanation:
The correct phrase is “reminded me to turn off”, using the infinitive to indicate an action to be done. “Reminded me the washing machine” is incorrect without the verb.

143. Identify the grammatically correct sentence.
Options :

  1. No other boy is as taller as Subhash.
  2. Gold is one of the more precious metal.
  3. Mohan is the young boy in the class.
  4. The meteorological department says “this year, Hyderabad will face the hottest summer in the decade”.

Answer: 4. The meteorological department says “this year, Hyderabad will face the hottest summer in the decade”.

Explanation:
This sentence is grammatically correct, with proper subject-verb agreement, tense, and comparative structure. The other options contain errors in comparative adjectives and article usage.

144. Fill the gap with appropriate question tag. The servants have not closed the doors, ___
Options :

  1. haven’t they
  2. have they
  3. didn’t they
  4. did they

Answer: 2. have they

Explanation:
The sentence is negative, so the question tag must be positive. “Have they” correctly matches the present perfect tense and polarity of the sentence.

145. Fill the gap with appropriate question tag. Aravind has not come home, ___
Options :

  1. did he
  2. is he
  3. has he
  4. had he

Answer: 3. has he

Explanation:
The sentence uses present perfect negative, so the correct tag is “has he”, maintaining tense consistency and positive polarity.

146. Identify the choice that cannot fit in the blank. The girl will ___ in the garden.
Options :

  1. play
  2. plays
  3. be playing
  4. have to play

Answer: 2. plays

Explanation:
“Will” is followed by a base verb or infinitive structure, not a simple present tense like “plays.” Hence, “plays” is grammatically incorrect in this context.

147. Identify the choice that cannot fit in the blank. India ___ the cricket match.
Options :

  1. has won
  2. won
  3. lost
  4. has been winning

Answer: 4. has been winning

Explanation:
“Has been winning” implies ongoing action, which doesn’t fit with the completed event implied by the sentence. The other options reflect past or completed actions.

148. Identify the choice that fits in the blank. I am certain you have ___ a mistake.
Options :

  1. make
  2. made
  3. making
  4. had made

Answer: 2. made

Explanation:
“Have made” is the correct present perfect tense, indicating a completed action with relevance to the present. “Made” fits grammatically and contextually.

149. The fog was so dense that one could hardly see ___
Options :

  1. of
  2. through
  3. into
  4. it

Answer: 4. it

Explanation:
The sentence requires a pronoun object to complete the idea. “See it” is correct, referring to the fog. The other options are prepositions, which don’t fit here.

150. Identify the nearest meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence. The boss praised Raju for his commitment.
Options :

  1. admired
  2. insulted
  3. awarded
  4. fired

Answer: 1. admired

Explanation:
“Praised” means to express approval or admiration. The closest synonym is “admired”, while the other options convey opposite or unrelated meanings.