TSPSC Group 1 Prelims 2024 Question Paper [Solved]

Exam Date 09.06.2024

1. Which of the following statements is/are true?

A. Smt. Sudha Murty was nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President of India in March 2024.

B. Smt. Sudha Murty is a writer in Kannada language.

C. Smt. M. Bhargavan Snehalatha was appointed as a Supreme Court Judge by the President of India in April 2024.

Choose the correct answer:

1. C only
2. A and B only
3. A and C only
4. A, B and C

Answer: A and B only

Explanation

• Statement A is correct because Smt. Sudha Murty was nominated to the Rajya Sabha in March 2024 by the President of India for her contributions to literature and social service
• Statement B is correct because she is a renowned author who writes extensively in Kannada and English
• Statement C is incorrect because there is no official record confirming the appointment of Smt. M. Bhargavan Snehalatha as a Supreme Court Judge in April 2024

2. Match the following Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) with their companies, as of November 2024

CEO
A. Sundar Pichai
B. Satya Nadella
C. Shantanu Narayen
D. Arvind Krishna

Company
I. Adobe
II. IBM
III. Google
IV. Microsoft

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
2. A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
3. A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
4. A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II

Answer

1. A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II

Explanation

• Sundar Pichai is the CEO of Google, a position he has held since 2015.
• Satya Nadella is the CEO of Microsoft, known for transforming the company’s cloud and enterprise strategy.
• Shantanu Narayen is the CEO of Adobe, leading its expansion in digital media and marketing solutions.
• Arvind Krishna is the CEO of IBM, focusing on hybrid cloud and AI technologies.

3. The Nobel Prize in Physiology for the year 2024 was awarded to two scientists for

1. discoveries concerning genomes of extinct hominins and human evolution
2. discovery of microRNA and its role in post-transcriptional gene regulation
3. discovery of Hepatitis C virus
4. discoveries of receptors for temperature and touch

Answer: discoveries concerning genomes of extinct hominins and human evolution

Explanation

• The 2024 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded for groundbreaking work on ancient DNA, specifically the genomes of extinct hominins such as Neanderthals.
• This research has significantly advanced our understanding of human evolution, migration, and genetic inheritance.
• The other options refer to discoveries awarded in previous years and are not relevant to 2024.

4. Consider the following statements in relation to India’s performance at Paris Paralympic Games 2024

A. India won a total of 29 medals, including 7 gold, 9 silver and 13 bronze

B. India secured 14th place among participating nations

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. B only
2. A only
3. Neither A nor B
4. Both A and B

Answer: Both A and B

Explanation

• India achieved a historic performance at the Paris Paralympics 2024, winning 29 medals in total.
• The medal tally included 7 gold, 9 silver, and 13 bronze, marking one of India’s best showings.
• India ranked 14th among participating nations, reflecting its growing strength in para-sports.

5. The newly elected President of Sri Lanka (September, 2024) Anura Kumara Dissanayake belongs to which political party?

1. Samagi Jana Balavegaya
2. United National Party
3. Sri Lanka Podujana Peramuna
4. Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna

Answer

4. Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna

Explanation

• Anura Kumara Dissanayake was elected President of Sri Lanka in September 2024.
• He is the leader of the Janatha Vimukthi Peramuna (JVP), a prominent leftist party in Sri Lanka.
• His election marked a significant shift in the country’s political landscape, emphasizing reform and anti-corruption.

6. Which of the following statements are true in relation to Oscar Awards 2024?
A. Cillian Murphy won the Best Supporting Actor award for the movie ‘Oppenheimer’.
B. Emma Stone won the Best Actress award for the movie ‘Poor Things’.
C. Christopher Nolan won the Best Actor award.
D. “The Last Repair Shop” won the Best Documentary Short Film award.

1. A, C and D only
2. A and C only
3. B, C and D only
4. B and D only

Answer: 4. B and D only

Explanation:

• Statement A is incorrect: Cillian Murphy won Best Actor, not Supporting Actor.
• Statement B is correct: Emma Stone won Best Actress for Poor Things.
• Statement C is incorrect: Christopher Nolan won Best Director, not Best Actor.
• Statement D is correct: The Last Repair Shop won Best Documentary Short Film.

7. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) successfully launched the mission Divyastra in March 2024.
B. The latest variant of Agni-5 missile is equipped with MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology.
C. India is the first country to have MIRV-equipped missile.
D. Agni-5 is a cruise missile.

1. B only
2. A and B only
3. A, B, C and D
4. C only

Answer: 2. A and B only

Explanation:

• A is correct: ISRO launched Divyastra in March 2024.
• B is correct: The new Agni-5 variant has MIRV technology.
• C is incorrect: The US, Russia, and China already had MIRV.
• D is incorrect: Agni-5 is a ballistic missile, not a cruise missile.

8. Match the following in relation to the 70th National Film Awards, 2024

A. Best Feature Film
B. Best Actor
C. Best Director
D. Best Popular Film

I. Kantara
II. Aattam
III. Salil Chowdhury
IV. Sooraj Barjatya

1. A-III; B-V; C-IV; D-II
2. A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
3. A-III; B-I; C-V; D-II
4. A-III; B-IV; C-V; D-II

Answer: 3. A-III; B-I; C-V; D-II

Explanation:

• Best Feature Film → Kantara
• Best Actor → Aattam
• Best Director → Sooraj Barjatya
• Best Popular Film → Salil Chowdhury

9. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023?

A. It seeks to reserve one-third of total seats for women in both the Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
B. It was the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act.

1. B only

2. A only
3. Neither A nor B

4. Both A and B

Answer: 4. Both A and B

Explanation: A is correct: Provides 33% reservation for women in Parliament and State Assemblies. B is correct: Passed as the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act.

10. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to ‘Khelo India Youth Games 2023’ held in January 2024?
A. They were held in four cities of Tamil Nadu.
B. Conventional sports such as badminton and volleyball were a part of the games.
C. This is the second time that Khelo India Youth Games were held in South India.
D. Traditional sports such as kabaddi and yogasana were part of the games.

1. C and D only
2. A and B only
3. A, B and D only
4. A, B and C only

Answer: 3. A, B and D only

Explanation:

• A is correct: Hosted in four cities of Tamil Nadu.
• B is correct: Included badminton and volleyball.
• C is incorrect: This was the first time in Tamil Nadu.
• D is correct: Included kabaddi and yogasana.

11. Who among the following was appointed as the new Comptroller and Auditor General of India in November 2024?

1. K. Sanjay Murthy
2. Shashi Kant Sharma
3. C.G. Somaiah
4. Girish Chandra Murmu

Answer: 4. Girish Chandra Murmu

Explanation:

• Girish Chandra Murmu was appointed as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India in November 2024.
• He was the first Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir and also held key positions in the Ministry of Finance.
• The other names are either former CAGs or unrelated officials.

12. Where did the 13th Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization (WTO) take place during February–March 2024?

1. New Delhi
2. Geneva
3. Abu Dhabi
4. Belarus

Answer: 3. Abu Dhabi

Explanation:

• The 13th WTO Ministerial Conference was held in Abu Dhabi in early 2024.
• Such conferences are important for reviewing global trade rules and negotiations.
• Geneva is the WTO headquarters but not the host of this conference.

13. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to IITs?
A. India and UAE signed an MoU to establish the first campus of IIT Delhi in Abu Dhabi in 2024.
B. IIT Madras opened its offshore campus in Zanzibar in 2023.

1. B only
2. A only
3. Neither A nor B
4. Both A and B

Answer: 4. Both A and B

Explanation:

• IIT Delhi signed an MoU in 2024 to set up its first international campus in Abu Dhabi.
• IIT Madras inaugurated its Zanzibar campus in 2023.
• Both statements are correct.

14. Consider the following statements:
A. Government of Telangana announced 100% exemption from road tax and registration fee for Electric Vehicles (EVs).
B. The tax exemption is applicable to both GHMC and non-GHMC areas.
C. The exemption benefits are available for three years, until December 31, 2027.

1. A and B only
2. A only
3. A, B and C
4. A and C only

Answer: 3. A, B and C

Explanation:

• Telangana government provides 100% exemption on road tax and registration fees for EVs.
• The scheme covers GHMC and non-GHMC areas.
• It is valid until December 31, 2027.

15. Which of the following statements is/are true in relation to UNESCO’s Creative Cities Network?
A. Kozhikode in Kerala was included as a ‘City of Literature’ in 2023.
B. Jodhpur in Rajasthan was included as a ‘City of Music’ in 2023.

1. Both A and B
2. Neither A nor B
3. B only
4. A only

Answer: 1. Both A and B

Explanation:

• Kozhikode was added as a UNESCO Creative City of Literature in 2023.
• Jodhpur was recognized as a Creative City of Music in 2023.
• Hence, both statements are correct.

16. Who among the following assumed the charge as the new Cabinet Secretary of India in August 2024?

1. N.R. Pillai
2. Dr. T.V. Somanathan
3. Rajiv Gauba
4. M.K. Vellodi

Answer
3. Rajiv Gauba

Explanation

• Rajiv Gauba continued as the Cabinet Secretary of India in August 2024, having held the post since 2019.
• He is known for his role in administrative reforms and inter-ministerial coordination.
• The other names listed are either past officials or not associated with this position in 2024.

17. Arrange the following states in ascending order based on number of assembly seats in each state as of March 2024:
A. Assam
B. Telangana
C. Chhattisgarh
D. Jharkhand
E. Uttarakhand

Choose the correct answer:

1. E, D, C, B, A
2. E, D, A, B, C
3. C, E, B, D, A
4. A, C, B, D, E

Answer

1. E, D, C, B, A

Explanation

• Uttarakhand → 70 seats
• Jharkhand → 81 seats
• Chhattisgarh → 90 seats
• Telangana → 119 seats
• Assam → 126 seats
• Thus, the correct ascending order is E, D, C, B, A.

18. Match the Artificial Intelligence (AI) tools with their developers:

A. ChatGPT
B. Gemini (Bard)
C. Alexa

Developer
I. Apple
II. Amazon
III. OpenAI
IV. Google

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-III; B-IV; C-II
2. A-III; B-II; C-I
3. A-IV; B-III; C-II
4. A-III; B-I; C-IV

Answer

1. A-III; B-IV; C-II

Explanation

• ChatGPT → developed by OpenAI.
• Gemini (formerly Bard) → developed by Google.
• Alexa → developed by Amazon.
• Apple is not linked with these tools.

19. Which of the following statements are true in relation to the second edition of the Oceanographer and Hydrographers Conference under the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC)?
A. It was held in the National Institute of Oceanography in Visakhapatnam.
B. The Conference was held at Chennai and Hyderabad in January 2024.
C. The participants discussed the theme of ‘Our Ocean is Our Future’.
D. Delegates from Maldives and Australia participated in this Conference.

Choose the correct answer:

1. B and C only
2. A and D only
3. B, C and D only
4. A, C and D only

Answer
3. B, C and D only

Explanation

• The second edition of the conference was hosted in Chennai and Hyderabad.
• Theme: “Our Ocean is Our Future”, focusing on maritime cooperation.
• Delegates from Maldives and Australia took part.
• Statement A is incorrect → Visakhapatnam was not the host city.

20. Which of the following statements are true in relation to the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?
A. As of March 2024, NATO has 32 member countries.
B. Sweden joined NATO in 2024.
C. NATO headquarters is located at Paris.
D. Switzerland is a NATO member.

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B and C only
2. A and B only
3. C and D only
4. A, B, C and D

Answer
2. A and B only

Explanation

• NATO has 32 members as of March 2024.
• Sweden joined NATO in 2024.
• HQ is in Brussels (Belgium), not Paris.
• Switzerland is neutral and not a NATO member.

21. Arrange the following political parties in ascending order based on percentage of votes secured by these parties out of total votes polled in the general elections to Telangana State Assembly held on 30th November 2023

A. Indian National Congress
B. Bharatiya Janata Party
C. Bharat Rashtra Samithi
D. Communist Party of India

1. D, B, C, A
2. D, A, C, B
3. C, B, D, A
4. A, C, B, D

Answer: 1) D, B, C, A

Explanation:

• Based on the official election data from November 2023:
  • Communist Party of India (CPI) secured the least vote share
  • Followed by BJP, then BRS, and Congress with the highest vote share
• The correct ascending order is: CPI < BJP < BRS < INC

22. In which of the following cities was SEMICON India 2024 held for shaping the Semiconductor Future?

1. Bengaluru
2. Hyderabad
3. Greater Noida
4. Ahmedabad

Answer: 1) Bengaluru

Explanation:

• SEMICON India 2024 was hosted in Bengaluru, Karnataka
• The event focused on boosting India’s semiconductor ecosystem and attracting global investments
• Bengaluru was chosen for its strong tech infrastructure and innovation ecosystem

23. Which of the following states ranked first for the second consecutive year in the State Food Security Index 2024, of the Food Safety Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)?

1. Gujarat
2. Karnataka
3. Kerala
4. Tamil Nadu

Answer: 4) Tamil Nadu

Explanation:

• Tamil Nadu topped the State Food Security Index 2024 for the second consecutive year
• The ranking is based on food safety compliance, infrastructure, and public awareness
• Kerala and Gujarat followed closely, but Tamil Nadu maintained its lead

24. Consider the following statements in relation to ‘Operation Dronagiri’

A. It is a pilot project under the National Geospatial Policy 2022
B. It is a new project under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India
C. It was launched in November, 2024
D. In the first phase, it will be implemented in Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra

1. A and C only
2. A, C and D only
3. B and D only
4. B, C and D only

Answer: 2) A, C and D only

Explanation:

• Operation Dronagiri is a pilot initiative under the National Geospatial Policy 2022
• It was launched in November 2024
• In the first phase, it will be implemented in Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Assam, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
• Statement B is incorrect: it is not under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

25. Chronologically arrange the following palaces according to the year of beginning of the construction

A. Malwala Palace
B. Hill Fort Palace
C. Falaknuma Palace
D. Asmangarh Palace
E. Paigah Palace

1. B, C, D, A, E
2. A, C, D, E, B
3. D, B, C, E, A
4. C, A, B, E, D

Answer: 2) A, C, D, E, B

Explanation:

• Malwala Palace: constructed in the early 18th century
• Falaknuma Palace: built in 1884
• Asmangarh Palace: built in the late 19th century
• Paigah Palace: constructed in the early 20th century
• Hill Fort Palace: built in 1915
• The chronological order is: A → C → D → E → B

26. Consider the following statements
A. A fine Qutbshahi painting found in Diwan-i-Hafiz belongs to Abul Hasan Tana Shah.
B. This book contains 15 pages of miniature paintings illustrating the portraits of Muhammad Shah.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. B only
2. A only
3. Neither A nor B
4. Both A and B

Answer: 4. Both A and B

Explanation:

• The Diwan-i-Hafiz manuscript includes a Qutbshahi painting attributed to Abul Hasan Tana Shah, the last ruler of the Qutb Shahi dynasty.
• It also contains 15 miniature paintings with portraits of Muhammad Shah, reflecting Persian artistic influence.

27. Match the following temples with the places where they are located

A. Nagaresvara Temple
B. Erakesvara Temple
C. Rameshvara Temple
D. Chennakesava Swami Temple

Places
I. Nandikandi
II. Vemulavada
III. Gangapuram
IV. Pillalamarri

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
2. A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
3. A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
4. A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II

Answer: 2. A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV

Explanation:

• Nagaresvara Temple → Nandikandi
• Erakesvara Temple → Vemulavada
• Rameshvara Temple → Gangapuram
• Chennakesava Swami Temple → Pillalamarri

28. Which community was engaged in making slivers of cotton ready for spinning?

1. Devangula
2. Netakani
3. Doodekula
4. Kunche Erukula

Answer: 3. Doodekula

Explanation:

• The Doodekula community specialized in cotton processing, especially preparing slivers for spinning, which played a vital role in the handloom textile industry of Telangana.

29. Which of the following texts provides the earliest reference to veedhi natakas (street plays)?

1. Nrittaratnavali
2. Basava Purana
3. Panditaradhya Charitra
4. Ranganatha Ramayanam

Answer: 3. Panditaradhya Charitra

Explanation:

• Panditaradhya Charitra (13th century Telugu text) provides the earliest reference to veedhi natakas.
• It highlights public cultural and religious performances during medieval times.

30. Consider the following statements
A. Perini is one of the dance forms classified under marga nritta/nritya.
B. It was performed during religious rituals.
C. It was developed by lenkas and nayakas possessing martial skills.
D. Vira Saiva followers spread this dance form at Palampet, Hanumakonda and Warangal.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. A, B and C only
2. B and D only
3. A, B and D only
4. B, C and D only

Answer: 3. A, B and D only

Explanation:

• Perini dance is a classical form under marga nritta/nritya, traditionally performed during religious rituals.
• It spread in Palampet, Hanumakonda, and Warangal through Vira Saiva followers.
• Statement C is incorrect: Though martial elements exist, it was not specifically developed by lenkas and nayakas.

31. Which of the following statements is/are true?

A. The Deccani culture created by Qutub Shahis was an amalgamation of cultures of native Deccan, North Indian, Turkistan, Arabic and Persia.

B. The Qutub Shahi court consisted of foreign immigrants known as Habshis.

Choose the correct answer:

1. B only
2. A only
3. Neither A nor B
4. Both A and B

Answer
4. Both A and B

Explanation

• Statement A is correct: The Deccani culture under the Qutub Shahis was a blend of local and foreign influences such as Persian, Arabic, Turkic, and North Indian traditions.
• Statement B is correct: The Qutub Shahi court included Habshis, African-origin immigrants who played important roles in administration and the military.

32. Bhaskara Ramayanam was a composite work written by five authors. Identify them.

1. Mallikarjuna Bhatta, Kumara Rudradeva, Bhaskara, Hulakki Bhaskara and Ayyalarya
2. Mallikarjuna Bhatta, Maraya, Bhaskara, Hulakki Bhaskara and Ayyalarya
3. Hulakki Bhaskara, Buddharaju, Maraya, Manchana and Ketana
4. Bhaskara, Hulakki Bhaskara, Maraya, Ranganatha and Buddharaju

Answer

1. Mallikarjuna Bhatta, Kumara Rudradeva, Bhaskara, Hulakki Bhaskara and Ayyalarya

Explanation

• The Bhaskara Ramayanam is a composite literary work authored by:
  • Mallikarjuna Bhatta
  • Kumara Rudradeva
  • Bhaskara
  • Hulakki Bhaskara
  • Ayyalarya
• It represents an important contribution to Telugu literary tradition.

33. Which of the following policies of Telangana aims at making Hyderabad the most favoured destination for investment in animation, visual effects, gaming and comics sector?

1. Electronics Policy, 2016
2. Telangana’s Artificial Intelligence Framework, 2020
3. Innovation Policy, 2016
4. IMAGE Policy, 2016

Answer
4. IMAGE Policy, 2016

Explanation

• The IMAGE Policy (2016) stands for Innovation in Multimedia, Animation, Gaming and Entertainment.
• It was introduced to establish Hyderabad as a global hub for AVGC industries (Animation, VFX, Gaming, Comics).

34. Match the following stages of value chains with the actions proposed in the Grassroots Innovation Framework of Telangana 2020–2025

Stage

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

Actions
I. Helping the identified innovators to develop their prototype further for the proof of concept
II. Reaching out to the rural citizenry
III. Scale-up Fund to help grow grassroots innovations into micro and small scale industries
IV. Identifying and validating grassroots innovations

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II; B-IV; C-I; D-III
2. A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
3. A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
4. A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III

Answer
4. A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III

Explanation

• First stage (A): Identifying and validating grassroots innovations.
• Second stage (B): Reaching out to rural citizenry.
• Third stage (C): Helping innovators develop prototypes for proof of concept.
• Fourth stage (D): Scaling up innovations into small industries.

35. ‘Minimum Inspection and Maximum Facilitation’ is the objective of the following policy of the Government of Telangana:

1. Telangana State Pollution Control Policy
2. E-waste Management Policy, 2017
3. Telangana State Higher Education Policy
4. Industrial Policy Framework, 2014

Answer
4. Industrial Policy Framework, 2014

Explanation

• The Industrial Policy Framework, 2014 emphasizes ease of doing business in Telangana.
• Its guiding principle is ‘Minimum Inspection and Maximum Facilitation’, ensuring transparency and attracting large-scale investments.

 

36. Match the following relating to the universities in Telangana.

University

A. Agriculture University
B. Health University
C. Horticulture University

Named After
I. Konda Laxman
II. Kaloji Narayan Rao
III. Prof. Jayashankar

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-I; B-III; C-IV
2. A-IV; B-II; C-I
3. A-III; B-IV; C-II
4. A-III; B-II; C-I

Answer: 4. A-III; B-II; C-I

Explanation: The Agriculture University in Telangana is named after Prof. Jayashankar, a well-known agricultural economist and ideologue of Telangana statehood. The Health University is named after Kaloji Narayan Rao, a celebrated poet and freedom fighter. The Horticulture University is named after Konda Laxman, a veteran leader and strong advocate of Telangana identity.

37. Match the following Labour Codes formulated by the Government of India with the number of laws amalgamated in each:

List A – Labour Codes	List B – Number of Laws
A. The Code on Wages, 2019	I. 4
B. The Industrial Relations Code, 2020	II. 3
C. The Code on Social Security, 2020	III. 9
D. The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020	IV. 13

Options

1. A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-V

2. A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III

3. A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV

4. A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III

95. Consider the following statements:
    A. Tropospheric ozone is a greenhouse gas.
    B. The 1987 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded for research on the Ozone hole.
    C. The Ozone hole was first discovered over Antarctica.

(1) A and C only
(2) A and B only
(3) A, B and C
(4) B and C only

Answer: (3) A, B and C

Explanation: All three statements are correct. Tropospheric ozone is a greenhouse gas, the 1987 Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded for work on ozone depletion, and the ozone hole was first discovered over Antarctica.

96. Eutrophication is a process in which a water body:

(1) gets enriched with nutrients
(2) gets polluted with toxic metals
(3) becomes clean and potable
(4) becomes deficient in nutrients

Answer: (1) gets enriched with nutrients

Explanation: Eutrophication occurs when a water body is enriched with excess nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus, causing algal blooms, oxygen depletion, and damage to aquatic life.

97. Assertion (A): Stratospheric ozone depletion is a concern due to increased UV radiation reaching Earth’s surface.
    Reason (R): Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) release chlorine atoms in the stratosphere, which catalyse the breakdown of ozone molecules.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation: CFCs release chlorine atoms that destroy ozone molecules in the stratosphere, reducing the ozone layer and allowing more UV radiation to reach Earth. Hence, R correctly explains A.

98. Arrange the following Environmental Conventions and Protocols in chronological order:
    A. Kyoto Protocol
    B. Paris Agreement
    C. Montreal Protocol
    D. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants

(1) C, D, B, A
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) A, C, B, D
(4) C, A, D, B

Answer: (4) C, A, D, B

Explanation: Chronological order is Montreal Protocol (1987) → Kyoto Protocol (1997) → Stockholm Convention (2001) → Paris Agreement (2015).

99. Arrange the environmental movements in India in chronological order:
    A. Chipko Movement
    B. Silent Valley Movement
    C. Appiko Movement
    D. Narmada Bachao Movement

(1) Chipko, Silent Valley, Appiko, Narmada Bachao
(2) Silent Valley, Chipko, Appiko, Narmada Bachao
(3) Narmada Bachao, Silent Valley, Chipko, Appiko
(4) Appiko, Narmada Bachao, Chipko, Silent Valley

Answer: (1) Chipko, Silent Valley, Appiko, Narmada Bachao

Explanation: Chronological order is Chipko (1973) → Silent Valley (1978) → Appiko (1983) → Narmada Bachao (1985).

100. According to Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which of the following are criteria for air pollutants?
     A. Particulate matter
     B. CO (Carbon monoxide)
     C. N₂O (Nitrous oxide)
     D. Ground-level ozone

(1) B, C and D only
(2) A, B and D only
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) A, C and D only

Answer: (2) A, B and D only

Explanation: EPA lists six criteria pollutants: particulate matter (PM), CO, ground-level ozone, NO₂, SO₂, and Pb. N₂O is a greenhouse gas, not a criteria pollutant.

Here are MCQs 101 to 110 from your uploaded TSPSC Group II Exam paper, with answers and detailed solutions. All formatting follows your instructions: no special symbols, bold question statements, answers, and key terms.

101. Consider the following statements with regard to Black Carbon
A. The main sources of Black Carbon are open biomass burning, residential burning for cooking and heating, and fossil fuel combustion in vehicles
B. Burning in agricultural areas during dry seasons in developing countries results in release of considerable amount of Black Carbon each year

Options:
(1) B only
(2) A only
(3) Neither A nor B
(4) Both A and B

Answer: (4) Both A and B
Statement: Black Carbon is released from biomass burning and fossil fuel combustion

Explanation:

• Black Carbon is a major short-lived climate pollutant
• It is emitted from incomplete combustion of biomass and fossil fuels
• Agricultural burning during dry seasons contributes significantly to Black Carbon emissions

102. In ecology, HIPPO stands for
(1) Herbivores, Industries, Pollution, Population, Over-Harvesting
(2) Habitat Destruction, Invasive Species, Pollution, Population and Over-Harvesting
(3) Habitat Destruction, Indicator Species, Pollution, Pathogens and Over-grazing
(4) Humans, Industries, Pathogens, Parasites, Organic Wastes

Answer: (2) Habitat Destruction, Invasive Species, Pollution, Population and Over-Harvesting
Statement: HIPPO is an acronym for major threats to biodiversity

Explanation:

• HIPPO represents five key causes of biodiversity loss
• These are Habitat Destruction, Invasive Species, Pollution, Population growth, and Over-Harvesting

103. If P is exactly in the middle of S and T; Q is equidistant from P and R; P is equidistant from Q and S, then given the statement P – Q * R % S + T, the direction of Q from T is
(1) North-East
(2) North-West
(3) South-East
(4) South-West

Answer: (2) North-West
Statement: Q is located North-West of T

Explanation:

• Based on the directional symbols:
  • A * B means A is South of B
  • A + B means A is North of B
  • A % B means A is East of B
  • A – B means A is West of B
• Using spatial reasoning, Q lies to the North-West of T

104. Given directional distances: (A, B, 5, East), (B, C, 4, South), (D, E, 8, North), (E, F, 3, West), (F, G, 4, North), (G, H, 8, West), (C, D, 3, East). Then, (B, H, L, O) =
(1) (B, H, 8√3, North)
(2) (B, H, 8√2, South-East)
(3) (B, H, 8√3, South)
(4) (B, H, 8√2, North-West)

Answer: (4) (B, H, 8√2, North-West)
Statement: H is located North-West of B at a distance of 8√2 units

Explanation:

• By plotting the points and calculating displacement using Pythagoras theorem, the resultant vector from B to H is in the North-West direction
• The magnitude is 8√2 units

105. A introduces E to his daughter B as the wife of the father of his wife. D is grandson of C. Then how is A related to D if one of these five is the spouse of A?
(1) Grandfather
(2) Brother-in-law
(3) Brother
(4) Grandson

Answer: (1) Grandfather
Statement: A is the grandfather of D

Explanation:

• The wife of the father of A’s wife is A’s mother-in-law
• So E is A’s mother-in-law, and B is A’s daughter
• D is the grandson of C, and C is A’s spouse
• Hence, A is the grandfather of D

106. Letters of English alphabet from A to Z are successively represented by the numbers 26 to 1. If the word ‘CAT’ is coded as 57, then codes of the words ‘SUSPECT’ and ‘OBVIOUS’ are respectively
(1) 86, 82
(2) 90, 86
(3) 89, 93
(4) 86, 86

Answer: (1) 86, 82
Statement: SUSPECT = 86, OBVIOUS = 82 using reverse alphabet coding

Explanation:

• Assign reverse values: A=26, B=25, …, Z=1
• Calculate sum of values for each word
• ‘SUSPECT’ = S(8)+U(6)+S(8)+P(11)+E(22)+C(24)+T(7) = 86
• ‘OBVIOUS’ = O(12)+B(25)+V(5)+I(18)+O(12)+U(6)+S(8) = 82

107. Replace the misfit number in the following series: 1, 6, 13, 22, 37, 54, 73
(1) 15
(2) 7
(3) 39
(4) 24

Answer: (3) 39
Statement: 39 is the misfit in the series

Explanation:

• Pattern: Add consecutive odd numbers
• 1 + 5 = 6; 6 + 7 = 13; 13 + 9 = 22; 22 + 11 = 33 (should be 33, not 37)
• So 37 is incorrect, correct value is 33, and next should be 33 + 13 = 46
• Hence, 39 is the misfit

108. In a code language FORMAT = 123456; MATINY = 456789; PRAJAY = #35$59; BRAIN = %3578. Each vowel in AFFIRMATION is replaced by the next letter and consonants remain fixed. What is the code of the new word?
(1) %22$34%6#$8
(2) $11#43$6$#8
(3) $11%34$8#$6
(4) %11$34%6$#8

Answer: (4) %11$34%6$#8
Statement: Code of modified AFFIRMATION is %11$34%6$#8

Explanation:

• Vowels A, I, O are replaced by B, J, P respectively
• New word: BFFJRMBTJPN
• Use given code mappings to generate final code

109. If ‘bee pee see’ means ‘cook good food’; ‘ree mee see’ means ‘food is tasty’; ‘mee nee bee’ means ‘tea is good’, then which words mean ‘cook tasty tea’?
(1) pee nee mee
(2) bee ree mee
(3) see ree bee
(4) pee ree nee

Answer: (4) pee ree nee
Statement: ‘cook tasty tea’ is coded as pee ree nee

Explanation:

• ‘bee’ = cook or good
• ‘see’ = food
• ‘ree’ = tasty
• ‘mee’ = is
• ‘nee’ = tea
• ‘pee’ = cook
• So ‘pee’ = cook, ‘ree’ = tasty, ‘nee’ = tea

110. Five boys: Kishore is second tallest but younger than Rajiv. Prakash is taller than Manish but younger. Rajiv and Manish are same age but Rajiv is tallest. Nishant is taller than Prakash and elder to Rajiv. If arranged in increasing order of height, in which position does the eldest boy stand?
(1) 2nd position
(2) 1st position
(3) 4th position
(4) 3rd position

Answer: (3) 4th position
Statement: Nishant, the eldest, stands in 4th position by height

Explanation:

• Height order: Manish < Prakash < Kishore < Nishant < Rajiv
• Age order: Nishant > Rajiv = Manish > Prakash > Kishore
• Nishant is eldest, and stands 4th in height order

Here are MCQs 111 to 120 from your uploaded TSPSC Group II Exam paper, with answers and detailed solutions. All formatting follows your instructions: no special symbols, bold question statements, answers, and key terms.

111. Consider the following statements
(i) N is the granddaughter of Y and W is the sister-in-law of G
(ii) U is the father of E and U has no daughters
(iii) D has no sisters and B is the daughter of the brother of D
(iv) F is the son of H and H is the spouse of I
(v) N is the daughter of E and D is the only brother of E
(vi) H is the mother of G and E is the spouse of G

How is the father of G related to W?
(1) Son
(2) Grandfather
(3) Brother-in-law
(4) Father-in-law

Answer: (4) Father-in-law
Statement: The father of G is the father-in-law of W

Explanation:

• E is the spouse of G
• U is the father of E
• W is the sister-in-law of G, meaning W is married to G’s sibling
• Hence, U (father of G’s spouse) is W’s father-in-law

112. If the second letter ‘E’ and the fourth letter ‘E’ from the left in the word NECESSARY were interchanged, also if sixth and eighth letters and the third and seventh letters were interchanged, then in the newly formed word which of the following would be the third letter to the right of the letter which is second to the left of R?

Answer: (1) C
Statement: The third letter to the right of the second left of R is C

Explanation:

• Original word: N E C E S S A R Y
• After swaps: N C C S E S E R Y
• Second to the left of R is E (position 6)
• Third to the right of E (position 6) is C (position 9)

113. Five men A, B, C, D and E are sitting opposite five women P, Q, R, S, T. The woman opposite to C is to the immediate right of T. P is second to the left of S. D is opposite to P. B is not opposite to S or T. Q is opposite to the man to the immediate left of D. E is at the left end of the men’s row.

The persons opposite to C and Q are respectively:
(1) T, B
(2) R, B
(3) S, D
(4) A, P

Answer: (1) T, B
Statement: C is opposite T; Q is opposite B

Explanation:

• Based on seating logic and constraints, the correct mapping places C opposite T and Q opposite B

114. Statements:
No bus is a car
All cars are scooters
Some scooters are cycles

Conclusions:
I. Some cycles are definitely cars
II. No car is a cycle

Answer: (3) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Statement: Both conclusions are invalid

Explanation:

• No direct relation between cycles and cars is established
• Hence, neither definite inclusion nor exclusion can be concluded

115. Statement I: From the last one year, the sales of newly constructed flats has decreased substantially
Statement II: Customers are not paying house loan EMIs to banks regularly for the last few months

Answer: (2) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect
Statement: Irregular EMI payments caused decline in flat sales

Explanation:

• Financial instability among buyers leads to reduced demand
• Hence, Statement II causes Statement I

116. Statement: Should admissions to professional courses be allowed not through ranks in admission tests but by marks obtained in qualifying exams?
Arguments:
I. Yes, it benefits students who cannot afford admission test fees
II. Yes, students with good qualifying marks may not clear admission tests
III. No, qualifying exams vary in standards, so a common test is needed

Answer: (1) I, II and III are strong arguments
Statement: All three arguments support or oppose the proposal logically

Explanation:

• I and II support fairness and accessibility
• III highlights inconsistency in evaluation standards

117. Statement: Appointment will be made regular after one year if performance appraisal is positive
Assumptions:
I. Job will not be permanent before one year
II. Suitability is not known at time of appointment
III. Temporary jobs do not require appraisal

Answer: (3) Only I and II are implicit
Statement: Conditions imply temporary status and unknown suitability

Explanation:

• I and II are directly implied
• III is not necessarily true or implied

118. Statement: Manufacturers face tough competition in international markets
Courses of Action:
I. Government should offer incentives to reduce production costs
II. Government should devise innovative policies including tax cuts

Answer: (4) Both I and II to follow
Statement: Both actions support competitiveness

Explanation: Incentives and tax cuts help manufacturers lower costs and improve quality

119. Statement: P, Q, R are wives of L, M, N respectively. Three people X, Y, Z make two statements each, one true and one false
Conclusions:
I. R is the wife of L
II. Q is not the wife of N
III. Q is the wife of M
IV. P is not the wife of L

Answer: (4) All I, II, III and IV follow
Statement: Logical deduction confirms all four conclusions

Explanation: By validating each statement and contradiction, all conclusions are logically derived

120. Based on bar and pie charts showing number of boys and percentage of students in six schools A to F out of 6000 students
Match List I with List II
A. Difference between boys and girls in School C
B. Number of boys in School B less than total students in School E
C. Difference between girls in School D and boys in School F
D. Difference between girls in School F and girls in School A

Answer: (3) A-V; B-I; C-III; D-IV
Statement: Correct numerical differences matched

Explanation:

• Use chart data to compute differences
• Match each item with correct value from List II