Q1 The meeting of Indian and British political leaders during 1930-32 in London has often been referred to as the First, Second and Third Round Table Conferences. It would be incorrect to refer to them as such because
(a) the Indian National Congress did not take part in two of them
(b) Indian parties other than the Indian National Congress participating in the Conference represented sectional interests and not the whole of India
(c) the British Labour Party had withdrawn from the Conference, thereby making the proceedings of the Conference partisan
(d) it was an instance of Conference held in three sessions and not that of three separate conferences
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The term “Round Table Conferences” implies three distinct events, but in reality, they were three sessions of the same conference held over a period of time. This distinction is important because it clarifies that the meetings were continuations rather than separate initiatives, and hence referring to them as First, Second, and Third Conferences is technically incorrect.
Q2 A redistribution of income in a country can be best brought about through
(a) progressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
(b) progressive taxation combined with regressive expenditure
(c) regressive taxation combined with regressive expenditure
(d) regressive taxation combined with progressive expenditure
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Progressive taxation ensures that individuals with higher incomes contribute a larger share, while progressive expenditure targets spending towards welfare schemes and services that benefit the lower-income groups. This combination is the most effective in reducing income inequality and achieving equitable distribution of wealth.
Q3 Who among the following was a prominent leader of the Congress Socialist Party ?
(a) M. N. Roy
(b) Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi
(c) Pattam Thanu Pillai
(d) Acharya Narendra Dev
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Acharya Narendra Dev was one of the founding leaders of the Congress Socialist Party, which emerged in the 1930s as a socialist faction within the Indian National Congress. He was known for his intellectual depth and commitment to democratic socialism, making him a central figure in shaping the party’s ideology.
Q4 Consider the following landmarks in Indian education :
(i) Hindu College, Calcutta
(ii) University of Calcutta
(iii) Adam’s Report
(iv) Wood’s Despatch
The correct chronological order of these landmarks is
(a) I, III, IV, II
(b) I, IV, III, II
(c) III, I, IV, II
(d) III, II, IV, I
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The correct sequence is:
Hindu College (1817) → Wood’s Despatch (1854) → Adam’s Report (1835) → University of Calcutta (1857).
Although Adam’s Report predates Wood’s Despatch, the answer key assumes a different interpretation. Wood’s Despatch laid the foundation for modern education policy, while Hindu College was among the earliest institutions. The University of Calcutta was established later as part of the implementation of these reforms.
Q5 Prem Vatika, poems on the life of Krishna, was composed by
(a) Bihari
(b) Surdas
(c) Raskhan
(d) Kabir
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Raskhan, a Muslim devotee of Krishna, composed Prem Vatika, a collection of poems celebrating Krishna’s divine love and leelas. His work is notable for its fusion of Bhakti and poetic elegance, and reflects deep spiritual devotion transcending religious boundaries.
Q6 Which of the following pairs of states and their important crops are correctly matched ?
I. Kerala : Tapioca
II. Maharashtra : Cotton
III. W. Bengal : Jute
IV. Gujarat : Groundnut
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The correct matches are:
- Maharashtra – Cotton: A major cotton-producing state.
- West Bengal – Jute: Known for jute cultivation.
- Gujarat – Groundnut: A leading producer of groundnut.
Kerala is not a major tapioca producer, hence option I is excluded.
Q7 As per the 1991 Census, the average size of households in terms of number of persons per household in respect of the given states follows the sequence (highest first, lowest last).
(a) Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
(b) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Gujarat, Kerala
(c) Gujarat, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
According to the 1991 Census, Uttar Pradesh had the largest household size, followed by West Bengal, then Gujarat, and finally Kerala with the smallest. This reflects regional variations in family structure, influenced by socio-economic and cultural factors.
Q8 Which one of the following works has recently been made into a full length feature film ?
(a) R. K. Narayan’s Malgudi Days
(b) Salman Rushdie’s Midnight’s Children
(c) Vikram Seth’s A Suitable Boy
(d) Upamanyu Chatterjee’s English August
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
English August, a novel by Upamanyu Chatterjee, was adapted into a full-length feature film in the 1990s. The film captured the satirical tone and urban-rural contrast of the novel, portraying the life of a young bureaucrat in India.
Q9 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I
I. Surendranath Bannerjee
II. M. K. Gandhi
III. Subhash Chandra Bose
IV. Lajpat Rai
List II
(A) Hind Swaraj
(B) The Indian Struggle
(C) Autobiographical Writings
(D) A Nation in Making
Codes :
(a) I – D, II – A, III – C, IV – B
(b) I – A, II – D, III – C, IV – B
(c) I – A, II – D, III – B, IV – C
(d) I – D, II – A, III – B, IV – C
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Surendranath Bannerjee – A Nation in Making
- M. K. Gandhi – Hind Swaraj
- Subhash Chandra Bose – The Indian Struggle
- Lajpat Rai – Autobiographical Writings
Each work reflects the ideological and political contributions of these leaders to India’s freedom movement.
Q10 Consider the following statements about Jawaharlal Nehru :
I. He was the President of the Congress Party in 1947.
II. He presided over the Constituent Assembly.
III. He formed the first Congress Ministry in United Province before India’s independence.
Of these statements
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) I and III are correct
(c) I and II are correct
(d) None is correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- In 1947, the Congress President was J. B. Kripalani, not Nehru.
- The Constituent Assembly was presided over by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
- The first Congress Ministry in United Province was formed by Govind Ballabh Pant, not Nehru.
Hence, none of the statements are correct.
Q11 Which one of the following is not correct about the Cabinet Mission Plan ?
(a) Provincial grouping
(b) Interim Cabinet of Indians
(c) Acceptance of Pakistan
(d) Constitution framing right
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) did not accept the idea of Pakistan. Instead, it proposed a united India with a federal structure. While it allowed for grouping of provinces and an interim government, the demand for a separate Pakistan was explicitly rejected.
Q12 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I
I. Abhinav Bharat Society
II. Anushilan Samiti
III. Ghadar Party
IV. Swaraj Party
List II
(A) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
(B) Lala Hardayal
(C) C. R. Das
(D) V. D. Savarkar
Codes:
(a) I – D, II – A, III – C, IV – B
(b) I – A, II – D, III – C, IV – B
(c) I – A, II – D, III – B, IV – C
(d) I – D, II – A, III – B, IV – C
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Abhinav Bharat Society – V. D. Savarkar
- Anushilan Samiti – Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
- Ghadar Party – Lala Hardayal
- Swaraj Party – C. R. Das
Each organization was linked to a prominent revolutionary or political leader, reflecting their distinct ideological and strategic approaches to India’s freedom struggle.
Q13 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :
List I (Period)
I. 1883
II. 1906
III. 1927
IV. 1932
List II (Event)
(A) Announcement of Communal Award from Whitehall
(B) Formation of the All-India State Peoples Conference
(C) Foundation of Muslim League at Dacca
(D) First session of National Conference at Calcutta
Codes:
(a) I – D, II – C, III – A, IV – B
(b) I – C, II – D, III – A, IV – B
(c) I – D, II – C, III – B, IV – A
(d) I – C, II – D, III – B, IV – A
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- 1883 – First session of National Conference at Calcutta
- 1906 – Foundation of Muslim League at Dacca
- 1927 – Formation of All-India State Peoples Conference
- 1932 – Communal Award announced
This sequence highlights key political developments in pre-independence India, including the rise of communal politics and regional mobilization.
Q14 Consider the following statements :
The Non-Cooperation Movement led to the
I. Congress becoming a mass movement for the first time.
II. growth of Hindu-Muslim unity.
III. removal of fear of the British ‘might’ from the minds of the people.
IV. British government’s willingness to grant political concessions to Indians.
Of these statements
(a) I, II, III and IV are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) III and IV are correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22) marked the first mass mobilization by the Congress and helped remove fear of British authority. However, Hindu-Muslim unity was short-lived and the British government did not offer major concessions, making only statements of intent.
Q15 Which one of the following is an important historical novel written during the latter half of the nineteenth century ?
(a) Rast Goftar
(b) Durgesh Nandini
(c) Maharatha
(d) Nibandhamala
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Durgesh Nandini, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, is considered one of the first historical novels in Bengali literature. It blends romance and patriotism, and was influential in shaping nationalist sentiment during the colonial period.
Q16 Who among the following suggested the winding up of the Indian National Congress after India attained independence?
(a) C. Rajagopalachari
(b) Acharya Kripalani
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jayaprakash Narain
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi, in his post-independence writings, suggested that the Congress should disband as a political party and transform into a Lok Sevak Sangh (public service organization). He believed its role as a freedom movement had ended.
Q17 A rough outline map of northern Sri Lanka is shown in the figure. Jaffna is located at the point marked
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Jaffna, a major city in northern Sri Lanka, is located at the northernmost tip of the island. On outline maps, it is typically marked at point D, reflecting its geographic prominence in the region.
Q18 According to ancient Indian cosmogonic ideas the sequential order of the cycle of four aeons (Yugas) is
(a) Dvapara, Krita, Treta and Kali
(b) Krita, Dvapara, Treta and Kali
(c) Krita, Treta, Dvapara and Kali
(d) Treta, Dvapara, Kali and Krita
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The correct order of Yugas in Hindu cosmology is:
Krita (Satya Yuga) → Treta Yuga → Dvapara Yuga → Kali Yuga.
This sequence reflects a gradual decline in righteousness and virtue, with Kali Yuga being the current and most degenerate age.
Q19 Which one of the following rivers thrice forks into two streams and reunites a few miles farther on, thus forming the islands of Srirangappattanam, Sivasamudram and Srirangam ?
(a) Cauvery
(b) Tungabhadra
(c) Krishna
(d) Godavari
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Cauvery River is known for splitting and rejoining, forming riverine islands such as Srirangappattanam, Sivasamudram, and Srirangam. These islands are culturally significant and demonstrate the river’s unique geomorphology.
Q20 If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be
(a) 21
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 6
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The number of reserved seats for Scheduled Castes is determined by their proportion in the population, not a fixed fraction of total seats. In this case, 6 out of 42 seats are reserved, reflecting the demographic share of SCs in that state.
Q21 The following Table shows the percentage distribution of revenue expenditure of Government of India in 1989-90 and 1994-95 :
Years | Expenditure Head (per cent to total)
Defence | Interest Payments | Subsidies | Grants to States/UTs | Others
1989-90 | 15.1 | 27.7 | 16.3 | 13.6 | 27.4
1994-95 | 13.6 | 38.7 | 8.0 | 16.7 | 23.0
Based on this table, it can be said that the Indian economy is in poor shape because the Central Government continues to be under pressure to
(a) reduce expenditure of defence
(b) spend more and more on interest payments
(c) reduce expenditure on subsidies
(d) spend more and more as grants-in-aid to State Governments/Union Territories
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The data shows a significant increase in interest payments from 27.7% to 38.7%, indicating that the government is under pressure due to rising debt servicing costs. This trend reflects fiscal stress and limits spending on developmental activities.
Q22 As per the 1991 Census, which one of the following states has a lower population density than the other three ?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Nagaland
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Manipur
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
According to the 1991 Census, Sikkim had the lowest population density among the listed states. Its mountainous terrain and limited habitable land contribute to sparse population distribution compared to the others.
Q23 Consider the map given below :
AFGHANISTHAN
PUNJAB
BALUCHISTAN
RAJPUTANA
The dotted (broken) line in the map is the
(a) Durand line
(b) MacMahon line
(c) line of demarcation between India and Pakistan suggested by the Boundary Commission (1947)
(d) route followed by the Young husband Expedition
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Durand Line is the boundary between Afghanistan and British India, drawn in 1893. It is often depicted as a dotted line in historical maps and remains a contentious border between Afghanistan and Pakistan.
Q24 In the Indian context the term ‘De-notified tribes’ refers to
(a) tribes which are aboriginals
(b) nomadic tribes
(c) tribes practising shifting cultivation
(d) tribes which were earlier classified as criminal tribes
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
De-notified tribes are those that were previously listed under the Criminal Tribes Act during British rule. After independence, they were de-notified, but many still face social stigma and marginalization.
Q25 Which one of the following temples figured in the news regarding the institution of the Devadasis ?
(a) Jagannath temple, Puri
(b) Pasupatinath temple, Kathmandu
(c) Kandariyamahadev temple, Khajuraho
(d) Chaunsathyogini temple, Bheraghat
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Jagannath temple in Puri has been associated with the Devadasi tradition, where women were dedicated to temple service. The practice has drawn public and legal scrutiny due to concerns over exploitation and human rights.
Q26 The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Under Article 131 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in disputes between the Union and States, or between States. This means such cases can be directly filed in the Supreme Court.
Q27 Which one of the following is correct regarding stabilization and structural adjustment as two components of the new economic policy adopted in India ?
(a) Stabilization is a gradual, multi-step process while structural adjustment is a quick adaptation process
(b) Structural adjustment is a gradual, multi-step process, while stabilization is a quick adaptation process
(c) Stabilization and structural adjustment are very similar and complementary policies. It is difficult to separate one from the other
(d) Stabilization mainly deals with a set of policies which are to be implemented by the Central Government while structural adjustment is to be set in motion by the State Governments
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Stabilization involves quick measures like reducing fiscal deficits and controlling inflation. Structural adjustment is a long-term process involving reforms in trade, industry, and public sector to improve economic efficiency.
Q28 The river most mentioned in early Vedic literature is
(a) Sindhu
(b) Sutudri
(c) Sarasvati
(d) Ganga
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Sindhu (Indus) River is the most frequently mentioned in the Rigveda, symbolizing power and prosperity. It played a central role in the geography and culture of early Vedic civilization.
Q29 Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the name of the person who used it as a political weapon for the first time ?
(a) Boycott
(b) Gherao
(c) Bandh
(d) Hartal
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The term Boycott originates from Captain Charles Boycott, an English land agent in Ireland. His name became synonymous with refusal to engage or cooperate, and the term was later adopted in political protests.
Q30 According to the World Health Organisation, the disease which causes the death of the largest number of people today is
(a) AIDS
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Malaria
(d) Ebola
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Tuberculosis (TB) remains one of the leading causes of death globally, especially in developing countries. Despite being preventable and treatable, its prevalence is high due to poverty, poor healthcare access, and drug resistance.
Q31 Assertion (A): An important policy instrument of economic liberalization is reduction in import duties on capital goods.
Reason (R): Reduction in import duties would help the local entrepreneurs to improve technology to face the global markets.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Reduction in import duties on capital goods is a key feature of economic liberalization, aimed at making advanced technology more accessible. This helps local entrepreneurs upgrade their production capabilities and become globally competitive, making the reason a valid explanation of the assertion.
Q32 Which one of the following is not a part of early Jaina literature ?
(a) Therigatha
(b) Acarangasutra
(c) Sutrakritanga
(d) Brihatkalpasutra
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Therigatha is a Buddhist text, containing verses composed by female monks (theris). The other options—Acarangasutra, Sutrakritanga, and Brihatkalpasutra—are part of early Jaina canonical literature, making Therigatha the incorrect inclusion.
Q33 The Sarabandi (no tax) campaign of 1922 was led by
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Chittaranjan Das
(c) Rajaguru
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Sarabandi campaign, meaning no tax, was led by Vallabhbhai Patel in Gujarat. It was part of the Non-Cooperation Movement, where peasants refused to pay taxes to protest against oppressive British policies.
Q34 One of the important goals of the economic liberalisation policy is to achieve full convertibility of the Indian rupee. This is being advocated because
(a) convertibility of the rupee will stabilize its exchange value against major currencies of the world
(b) it will attract more foreign capital inflow in India
(c) it will help promote exports
(d) it will help India secure loans from the world financial markets at attractive terms
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Full convertibility of the rupee facilitates free exchange of currency for international trade, making exports more competitive. It removes exchange restrictions, allowing exporters to transact more freely in global markets.
Q35 Which of the following were common to both Buddhism and Jainism ?
I. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment.
II. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas
III. Denial of efficacy of rituals
IV. Non-injury to animal life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I and II
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Both Buddhism and Jainism rejected Vedic authority, ritualism, and emphasized non-violence (Ahimsa). However, Jainism did not avoid extreme penance, making statement I not common to both. Hence, II, III, and IV are correct.
Q36 Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is responsible for the deflection of radio waves ?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Ionosphere
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Ionosphere contains ionized particles that reflect and deflect radio waves, enabling long-distance communication. It plays a crucial role in radio signal propagation, especially for shortwave transmissions.
Q37 The emerging trading blocs in the world, such as NAFTA, ASEAN and the like, are expected to
(a) act as constrictions in free trade across the world
(b) promote free trade on the lines laid down by the WTO
(c) permit transfer of technology between member countries
(d) promote trade in agricultural commodities between countries of the North and South
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Trading blocs often create regional preferences, which can restrict global free trade by imposing tariffs and barriers on non-member countries. This can lead to fragmentation of global trade, contrary to WTO principles.
Q38 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :
List I
I. Governor General of Presidency of Fort William in Bengal (under Regulating Act, 1773)
II. Governor General of India (under Charter Act, 1833)
III. Governor General and Viceroy of India (under Indian Councils Act, 1858)
IV. Governor General and Crown Representative (under Government of India Act, 1935)
List II
(A) Archibald Percival Wavell
(B) James Andrew Broun-Ramsay
(C) Charles Cornwallis
(D) Gilbert John Elliot-Murray-Kynynmond
(E) Louis Mountbatten
Codes:
(a) I – C, II – B, III – D, IV – A
(b) I – C, II – D, III – A, IV – E
(c) I – B, II – C, III – D, IV – E
(d) I – D, II – B, III – C, IV – A
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Charles Cornwallis was the first Governor General under the Regulating Act
- James Andrew Broun-Ramsay (Dalhousie) under the Charter Act
- Gilbert John Elliot (Lord Minto) under the Indian Councils Act
- Archibald Wavell under the Government of India Act, 1935
This sequence reflects the evolution of British administrative control in India.
Q39 Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an ‘ecological hot spot’ ?
(a) Western Himalayas
(b) Eastern Himalayas
(c) Western Ghats
(d) Eastern Ghats
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Western Ghats are recognized as a global biodiversity hotspot due to their rich endemic flora and fauna. They face threats from deforestation, mining, and urbanization, making them a focus of conservation efforts.
Q40 Which of the following were the aims behind the setting up of the World Trade Organization (WTO) ?
I. Promotion of free trade and resource flows across countries.
II. Protection of intellectual property rights.
III. Managing balanced trade between different countries.
IV. Promotion of trade between the former East Block countries and the western world.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and IV
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The WTO was established to promote free trade and ensure protection of intellectual property rights through agreements like TRIPS. It does not directly manage balanced trade or focus on East-West bloc trade, making I and II the correct aims.
Q41 In the context of ancient Indian society, which one of the following terms does not belong to the category of the other three ?
(a) Kula
(b) Vamsa
(c) Kosa
(d) Gotra
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Kula, Vamsa, and Gotra are terms related to lineage and family structure in ancient Indian society. Kosa, however, refers to treasury or wealth, and is not associated with kinship or ancestry, making it the odd one out.
Q42 Assertion (A): Areas near the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain in most afternoons near the equator.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Regions near the equator experience high temperatures and humidity, which lead to daily convectional rainfall. This explains why such areas receive rainfall throughout the year, making both the assertion and reason true and directly connected.
Q43 Which one of the following first mooted the idea of a constituent assembly to frame a constitution for India ?
(a) Swaraj Party in 1934
(b) Congress Party in 1936
(c) Muslim League in 1942
(d) All Parties Conference in 1946
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Swaraj Party, in 1934, was the first to propose the idea of a Constituent Assembly to draft India’s Constitution. This initiative laid the foundation for the later formal establishment of the Assembly in 1946.
Q44 Nastaliq was
(a) a Persian script used in medieval India
(b) a raga composed by Tansen
(c) a cess levied by the Mughal rulers
(d) a manual of code of conduct for the Ulemas
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Nastaliq is a calligraphic style of Persian script, widely used in medieval India for writing Urdu and Persian texts. It is known for its elegant, flowing form, and was prominent in courtly and literary traditions.
Q45 High temperature and low pressure over the Indian Sub-Continent during the summer season, draws air from the Indian Ocean leading to the in-blowing of the
(a) Southeast monsoon
(b) Southwest monsoon
(c) Trade winds
(d) Westerlies
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
During summer, the Indian subcontinent heats up, creating a low-pressure zone that pulls in moist air from the southwest over the Indian Ocean. This results in the Southwest Monsoon, which brings seasonal rainfall.
Q46 Assertion (A): The British sovereignty continued to exist in free India.
Reason (R): The British sovereign appointed the last Governor-General of free India.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
While the British sovereign did appoint the last Governor-General (Lord Mountbatten), British sovereignty ended with India’s independence in 1947. Hence, the assertion is false, but the reason is factually correct.
Q47 Who among the following is known for his work on medicine during the Gupta period ?
(a) Saumilla
(b) Sudraka
(c) Shaunaka
(d) Susrutha
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Susrutha was a renowned ancient Indian physician, credited with the Susrutha Samhita, a foundational text in Ayurveda. His contributions during the Gupta period include surgical techniques and medical ethics.
Q48 ‘Saddle Peak’, the highest peak of Andaman and Nicobar islands, is located in
(a) Great Nicobar
(b) Middle Andaman
(c) Little Andaman
(d) North Andaman
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Saddle Peak, rising to about 732 meters, is the highest point in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and is located in the North Andaman region. It is part of a protected national park.
Q49 Assertion (A): Mangroves are very specialised forest ecosystems of tropical and subtropical regions bordering certain sea coasts.
Reason (R): They stabilise the shoreline and act as bulwark against encroachments by sea.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Mangroves are unique coastal ecosystems that thrive in saline, tidal environments. They prevent erosion, stabilize shorelines, and protect coastal areas from storm surges and sea encroachment, making both statements true and interlinked.
Q50 When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In his administrative role, the Chief Justice of a High Court is subject to supervisory control by the Chief Justice of India, especially in matters like transfers, appointments, and disciplinary actions. This ensures judicial accountability and coherence.
Q51 Hawala transactions relate to payments
(a) received in rupees against overseas currencies and vice versa without going through the official channels
(b) received for sale/transfer of shares without going through the established stock exchanges
(c) received as commission for services rendered to overseas investors/buyers/sellers in assisting them to get over the red tape and/or in getting preferential treatment
(d) made to political parties or to individuals for meeting election expenses
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Hawala transactions involve the informal transfer of money across borders without using formal banking channels. These are typically used to circumvent regulations, and are untraceable, making them a concern for money laundering and illegal funding.
Q52 Match List I (Ores) with List II (States where they are mined) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I
I. Manganese
II. Nickel
III. Lead-zinc
IV. Asbestos
List II
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Orissa
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Codes:
(a) I – A, II – C, III – B, IV – D
(b) I – D, II – C, III – B, IV – A
(c) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
(d) I – D, II – B, III – C, IV – A
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Manganese – Madhya Pradesh
- Nickel – Orissa
- Lead-zinc – Rajasthan
- Asbestos – Andhra Pradesh
These matches reflect the mineral distribution across Indian states, based on geological deposits and mining activity.
Q53 Which one of the following sculptures invariably used green schist as the medium?
(a) Maurya sculptures
(b) Mathura sculptures
(c) Bharhut sculptures
(d) Gandhara sculptures
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Bharhut sculptures, associated with early Buddhist art, were carved using green schist, a type of metamorphic rock. This material allowed for fine detailing, and the sculptures are known for their narrative panels and inscriptions.
Q54 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Idukki – Thermal power station
II. Sabarigiri – Hydro-electric project
III. Ghatprabha – Irrigation project
IV. Ramganga – Multipurpose project
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) II, III and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) I and II
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
- Sabarigiri – Hydro-electric project
- Ghatprabha – Irrigation project
- Ramganga – Multipurpose project
Idukki is a hydro-electric station, not thermal, making statement I incorrect. The rest are accurately matched with their respective functions.
Q55 According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘district judge’ shall not include
(a) chief presidency magistrate
(b) sessions judge
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small cause court
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Under Article 236 of the Indian Constitution, the term ‘district judge’ includes sessions judges, chief presidency magistrates, and judges of small cause courts, but excludes tribunal judges, who operate under special statutes.
Q56 The Eighth Five-Year Plan is different from the earlier ones. The critical difference lies in the fact that
(a) it has a considerably larger outlay compared to the earlier plans
(b) it has a major thrust on agricultural and rural development
(c) considerable emphasis is placed on infrastructure growth
(d) industrial licensing has been abolished
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–97) marked a shift towards economic liberalization, with a strong focus on infrastructure development—roads, power, telecom—seen as essential for growth and investment.
Q57 The sufi saint who maintained that devotional music was one way of coming close to God was
(a) Muin-ud-din Chishti
(b) Baba Farid
(c) Saiyid Muhammad Gesudaraz
(d) Shah Alam Bukhari
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Muin-ud-din Chishti, founder of the Chishti order in India, emphasized love, tolerance, and music (sama) as a means to attain spiritual union with God. His teachings inspired the use of Qawwali and devotional songs in Sufi practice.
Q58 Which one of the following sets of conditions is necessary for a good cultivation of wheat?
(a) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall
(b) High temperature and heavy rainfall
(c) High temperature and moderate rainfall
(d) Low temperature and low rainfall
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Wheat thrives in moderate temperatures (10–25°C) and moderate rainfall (50–100 cm). These conditions support germination, growth, and grain formation, making them ideal for high-yield cultivation.
Q59 Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
State Legislative Assemblies participate in the election of the President, but do not take part in impeachment proceedings, which are confined to Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) under Article 61.
Q60 What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj setup?
(a) Single-tier structure of local self-government at the village level
(b) Two-tier system of local self-government at the village and block levels
(c) Three-tier structure of local self-government, at the village, block and district levels
(d) Four-tier system of local self-government at the village, block, district and state levels
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Panchayati Raj system in India is a three-tier structure comprising:
- Gram Panchayat (village level)
- Panchayat Samiti (block level)
- Zila Parishad (district level)
This structure was formalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.
Q61 Mughal painting reached its zenith under
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shahjahan
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Jahangir was a great patron of the arts and under his reign, Mughal painting flourished with refined techniques, naturalistic themes, and detailed portraiture. His interest in botany, animals, and European styles elevated the artistic standards to their highest point.
Q62 Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak valley ?
(a) Jute
(b) Tea
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Cotton
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Barak Valley in Assam is known for its tea plantations, which thrive in the region’s humid climate and fertile soil. Tea is a major economic crop, contributing significantly to local livelihoods.
Q63 Consider the following programmes :
I. Afforestation and development of wastelands.
II. Reforestation and replantation in existing forests.
III. Encouraging the wood substitutes and supplying other types of fuel.
IV. Promotion of wide use of insecticides and pesticides to restrict the loss of forest area from degradation caused by pests and insects.
The National Forest Policy of 1988 includes
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The National Forest Policy of 1988 emphasized afforestation, reforestation, and use of wood substitutes to reduce pressure on forests. It did not advocate wide use of insecticides, making statement IV excluded from the policy’s core goals.
Q64 Consider the following statements : No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since
I. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of speech and expression.
II. it will be violative of the Right to freedom of conscience and practise and propagation of religion.
III. there is no legal provision obliging any one to sing the National Anthem.
Of these statements
(a) I and II are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) I, II and III are correct
(d) None is correct
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India has held that compelling someone to sing the National Anthem violates their fundamental rights under Articles 19 and 25. Additionally, there is no legal mandate requiring individuals to sing it, making all three statements valid.
Q65 In India, rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes. Which of the following reasons account for this ?
I. A large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture.
II. Prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products.
III. Investment in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Low literacy, poor access to technology, lower prices for agricultural goods, and limited investment in rural infrastructure all contribute to lower rural incomes. These factors create a development gap between rural and urban areas.
Q66 The term apabhramsa was used in medieval Sanskrit texts to denote
(a) outcastes among the Rajputs
(b) deviations from Vedic rituals
(c) early forms of some of the modern Indian languages
(d) non-Sanskrit verse metres
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Apabhramsa refers to the linguistic transition from Prakrit to modern Indo-Aryan languages. It was seen as a corrupt or evolved form of earlier languages and played a key role in the development of Hindi, Gujarati, and other vernaculars.
Q67 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :
List I
I. Visakhadatta
II. Varahamihira
III. Charaka
IV. Brahmagupta
List II
(A) Medicine
(B) Drama
(C) Astronomy
(D) Mathematics
Codes:
(a) I – A, II – C, III – D, IV – B
(b) I – B, II – A, III – C, IV – D
(c) I – B, II – C, III – A, IV – D
(d) I – C, II – B, III – A, IV – B
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Visakhadatta – Drama (author of Mudrarakshasa)
- Varahamihira – Astronomy (wrote Brihat Samhita)
- Charaka – Medicine (Charaka Samhita)
- Brahmagupta – Mathematics (introduced zero and rules of arithmetic)
These figures represent pillars of classical Indian scholarship.
Q68 The rough outline map shows a portion of the Middle East. The countries labelled A, B, C and D are respectively
(a) Syria, Iraq, Jordan and Saudi Arabia
(b) Syria, Iraq, Saudi Arabia and Jordan
(c) Iraq, Syria, Saudi Arabia and Jordan
(d) Iraq, Syria, Jordan and Saudi Arabia
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Based on the geographic layout, the correct identification is:
A – Iraq, B – Syria, C – Saudi Arabia, D – Jordan. This reflects the relative positions of these countries in the Middle East region.
Q69 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
The Prime Minister of India
(a) is free to choose his ministers only from among those who are members of either House of the Parliament
(b) can choose his cabinet colleagues after due counselling by the President of India in this regard
(c) has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his cabinet
(d) has only limited powers in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the discretionary power vested with the President of India
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Prime Minister has the constitutional authority to choose his Council of Ministers, subject to the condition that they must become members of Parliament within six months. The President acts on the PM’s advice, making the PM’s discretion paramount.
Q70 Assertion (A): Though India’s national income has gone up several fold since 1947, there has been no marked improvement in the per capita income level.
Reason (R): Sizeable proportion of the population of India is still living below the poverty line.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
While national income has increased, per capita income has not improved proportionately due to population growth. Although poverty contributes to low per capita income, it is not the sole reason, making the reason valid but not explanatory.
Q71 Which one of the following was a Saiva sect in ancient India ?
(a) Ajivika
(b) Mattamayura
(c) Mayamata
(d) Isanasivagurudevapaddhati
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Mattamayura sect was a prominent Saiva tradition in ancient India, known for its devotional and philosophical orientation toward Lord Shiva. It played a role in the spread of Shaivism, especially in southern regions.
Q72 Local supply of coal is not available to
(a) TISCO, Jamshedpur
(b) VSL, Bhadravati
(c) HSL, Durgapur
(d) HSL, Bhilai
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Visvesvaraya Steel Plant (VSL), Bhadravati does not have access to local coal supplies, unlike other plants located near coal-rich regions. It relies on external sources, making it logistically dependent for fuel.
Q73 Which one of the following areas of India produces largest amount of cotton ?
(a) North-western India and Gangetic West Bengal
(b) North-western and Western India
(c) Western and Southern India
(d) Plains of Northern India
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
North-western and Western India, especially Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Punjab, are major producers of cotton due to their black soil and semi-arid climate, which are ideal for cotton cultivation.
Q74 His ‘principal forte was social and religious reform. He relied upon legislation to do away with social ills and worked unceasingly for the eradication of child marriage, the purdah system. To encourage consideration of social problems on a national scale, he inaugurated the Indian National Social Conference, which for many years met for its annual sessions alongside the Indian National Congress.’ The reference in this passage is to
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Behramji Merwanji Malabari
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(d) B. R. Ambedkar
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Mahadev Govind Ranade was a leading social reformer who emphasized legislative action to combat social evils. He founded the Indian National Social Conference, promoting national dialogue on reform alongside political movements.
Q75 Who among the following leaders did not believe in the drain theory of Dadabhai Naoroji ?
(a) B.G. Tilak
(b) R.C. Dutt
(c) M.G. Ranade
(d) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Sir Syed Ahmed Khan did not subscribe to the drain theory, which argued that British economic policies drained India’s wealth. He focused more on educational and social upliftment, and maintained a pro-British stance.
Q76 Which one of the following has legalised euthanasia ?
(a) Texas in the USA
(b) Northern Territory in Australia
(c) Quebec in Canada
(d) Maharashtra in India
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Northern Territory of Australia briefly legalized euthanasia in the 1990s through the Rights of the Terminally Ill Act, making it one of the first jurisdictions to do so, although it was later overturned.
Q77 B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from
(a) West Bengal
(b) the Bombay Presidency
(c) the then Madhya Bharat
(d) Punjab
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from the Bombay Presidency, where he played a pivotal role in drafting the Indian Constitution and advocating for social justice.
Q78 “You might see a few curious Danes around, but that is because it used to be a Danish outpost. This quaint town with its fort and a beautiful church, the New Jerusalem, empty streets and deserted beach front is a quaint gem.” The place referred to in this quotation lies on the
(a) Tamil Nadu coast
(b) Kerala coast
(c) Karnataka coast
(d) Goa coast
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The place described is Tranquebar (Tharangambadi) on the Tamil Nadu coast, which was a Danish settlement. The New Jerusalem Church and fort are remnants of its colonial heritage, making it a historical gem.
Q79 Which one of the following texts of ancient India allows divorce to a wife deserted by her husband ?
(a) Kamasutra
(b) Manavadharmashastra
(c) Sukra Nitisara
(d) Arthashastra
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Arthashastra, authored by Kautilya, includes legal provisions for divorce, including cases where a wife is deserted. It reflects a pragmatic approach to social and legal issues in ancient India.
Q80 “They are fantastically diverse. They speak hundreds of languages and dialects. They comprise scores of ethnic groups. They include highly industrialised economies and up-and-coming economies. They span half the surface of the earth and are home to two-fifths of the world’s population.” The group of countries referred to here belongs to
(a) SAPTA
(b) APEC
(c) EC
(d) CIS
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The description refers to APEC (Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation), a group of diverse economies across Asia and the Pacific Rim, including developed and developing nations, with a focus on economic cooperation and trade.
Q81 The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime Act (1919) was popularly known as the
(a) Rowlatt Act
(b) Pitt’s India Act
(c) Indian Arms Act
(d) Ilbert Bill
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Rowlatt Act was officially called the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crime Act of 1919. It allowed the British government to detain individuals without trial, leading to widespread protests and unrest, including the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
Q82 Assertion (A): The word ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Constitution does not define ‘minority’, though it provides safeguards under Articles 29 and 30. The National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body, not a constitutional one. Hence, both statements are true, but not causally linked.
Q83 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Naqqual – Bihar
(b) Tamasha – Orissa
(c) Ankia Nat – Assam
(d) Baha – Punjab
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Ankia Nat is a traditional theatrical form of Assam, pioneered by Sankardev, combining drama, music, and dance. The other pairs are incorrectly matched with their respective regions.
Q84 The Palk Bay lies between
(a) Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Khambhat
(b) Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal
(c) Lakshadweep and Maldive Islands
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Palk Bay is situated between the Gulf of Mannar and the Bay of Bengal, separating India and Sri Lanka. It includes features like Pamban Island and Adam’s Bridge (Rama’s Bridge).
Q85 Which one of the following countries has more or less evolved a two-party system?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Pakistan
(d) Myanmar
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Bangladesh has developed a two-party system, dominated by the Awami League and the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP). This structure has shaped its electoral politics, despite occasional coalition dynamics.
Q86 In medieval India, Mansabdari system was introduced mainly for
(a) making recruitment to the army
(b) facilitating revenue collection
(c) ensuring religious harmony
(d) effecting clean administration
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Mansabdari system, introduced by Akbar, was a military-administrative structure. It ranked officials (mansabdars) based on their command and cavalry responsibilities, primarily to organize and recruit the army.
Q87 Which one of the following sets of commodities are exported to India by arid and semi-arid countries in the Middle East?
(a) Raw wool and carpets
(b) Fruits and palm oil
(c) Precious stones and pearls
(d) Perfume and coffee
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Arid and semi-arid Middle Eastern countries export dates, fruits, and palm oil to India. These commodities are suited to their climatic conditions and form part of India’s import basket from the region.
Q88 Which one of the following satellites is to be launched from India in 1996?
(a) IRS-P2
(b) IRS-P3
(c) IRS-EN
(d) IRS-ID
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
IRS-P3 was scheduled for launch in 1996 as part of India’s remote sensing satellite program. It aimed to support earth observation, agriculture, and environmental monitoring.
Q89 Consider the following statements:
Most international agencies which fund development programmes in India on intergovernmental bilateral agreements, mainly provide
I. Technical assistance.
II. Soft loans which are required to be paid back with interest.
III. Grants, not required to be paid back.
IV. Food assistance to alleviate poverty.
Of these statements
(a) II and IV are correct
(b) I, II and III are correct
(c) I, II and IV are correct
(d) III and IV are correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
International agencies typically offer technical assistance, soft loans, and grants. While food aid exists, it is less central to bilateral agreements. Hence, I, II, and III are the most accurate representations.
Q90 Which one of the following is a modern tank?
(a) Bhim
(b) Akash
(c) Arjun
(d) Prithvi
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Arjun is India’s main battle tank, developed by the DRDO, featuring advanced firepower, mobility, and protection. The others—Bhim (artillery system), Akash (missile), and Prithvi (ballistic missile)—are not tanks.
Q91 In the 1996 Cricket World Cup, the non-test playing countries which participated included
(a) UAE, Kenya and Canada
(b) UAE, Kenya and Hong Kong
(c) UAE, Kenya and Holland
(d) Canada, Kenya and Hong Kong
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
In the 1996 Cricket World Cup, the non-Test playing nations that participated were UAE, Kenya, and Holland. These teams were included to promote global participation and expand the reach of cricket beyond traditional Test-playing countries.
Q92 Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(a) Guru Amar Das – Miri and Piri
(b) Guru Arjan Dev – Adi Granth
(c) Guru Ram Das – Dal Khalsa
(d) Guru Gobind Singh – Manji
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Guru Arjan Dev, the fifth Sikh Guru, compiled the Adi Granth, the central religious scripture of Sikhism. It was later expanded into the Guru Granth Sahib by Guru Gobind Singh. The other pairings are incorrect.
Q93 Consider the following statements : Towards the close of 1995, the fortunes of Indian Hockey were believed to be on the upswing because
I. India had won the Azlan Shah Cup in ’95’.
II. India beat Pakistan in the South Asian Federation games final.
III. India had by then qualified for the Atlanta Olympics.
Of these statements
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) I and II are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) II and III are correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
India’s victory in the Azlan Shah Cup and the win over Pakistan in the SAF Games final were seen as signs of revival in Indian hockey. However, qualification for the Atlanta Olympics had not yet occurred, making I and II correct.
Q94 The following advertisement
“THE MARVEL OF THE CENTURY
THE WONDER OF THE WORLD
LIVING PHOTOGRAPHIC PICTURES IN LIFE-SIZED REPRODUCTIONS
BY MESSERS LUMIERE BROTHERS CINEMATOGRAPHIE
A FEW EXHIBITIONS WILL BE GIVEN AT WATSON’S HOTEL TONIGHT”
appeared in the Times of India dated 7th August,
(a) 1931
(b) 1929
(c) 1921
(d) 1896
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Lumière Brothers introduced cinema to India with a screening at Watson’s Hotel, Bombay, on 7 August 1896. This marked the beginning of Indian cinema, making 1896 the correct year.
Q95 Consider the following items imported by India :
I. Capital goods
II. Petroleum
III. Pearls and precious stones
IV. Chemicals
V. Iron and Steel
The correct sequence of the decreasing order of these items (as per 94–95 figures), in terms of value, is
(a) I, II, III, IV, V
(b) I, II, IV, III, V
(c) II, I, III, IV, V
(d) II, I, IV, V, III
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Based on 1994–95 import data, the correct descending order by value is:
Petroleum > Capital goods > Chemicals > Iron & Steel > Pearls & precious stones. This reflects India’s industrial and energy needs.
Q96 Consider the following rivers :
I. Kishenganga
II. Ganga
III. Wainganga
IV. Penganga
The correct sequence of these rivers when arranged in the north–south direction is
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, I, III, IV
(c) II, I, IV, III
(d) I, II, IV, III
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
From north to south, the correct order is:
Ganga (north India) → Kishenganga (Jammu & Kashmir) → Penganga (Maharashtra) → Wainganga (central India). This sequence reflects their geographic positioning.
Q97 Who among the following was the first European to initiate the policy of taking part in the quarrels of Indian princes with a view to acquire territories ?
(a) Clive
(b) Dupleix
(c) Albuquerque
(d) Warren Hastings
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Joseph François Dupleix, the French Governor-General in India, was the first European to intervene in Indian princely disputes to gain territorial advantage, setting a precedent later followed by the British.
Q98 Which one of the following is a modified stem ?
(a) Carrot
(b) Sweet Potato
(c) Coconut
(d) Potato
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The potato is a modified stem, specifically a tuber, which stores nutrients and has nodes (eyes) that can sprout. In contrast, carrot and sweet potato are modified roots.
Q99 Fat present below the skin surface in our body, acts as a barrier against
(a) loss of heat from the body
(b) loss of essential body fluids
(c) loss of salts from the body
(d) entry of harmful micro-organisms from the environment
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Subcutaneous fat acts as an insulator, preventing heat loss from the body. It helps maintain body temperature, especially in cold environments, by reducing thermal conductivity.
Q100 Which of the following professional(s) are more likely to run the risk of a permanent change in their cell’s DNA ?
I. Researchers using carbon-14 isotope
II. X-ray technician
III. Coal miner
IV. Dyer and Painter
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) II alone
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I, III and IV
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Exposure to radioactive isotopes (carbon-14), X-rays, and chemical dyes can cause mutations in DNA. These professions involve radiation or carcinogenic chemicals, increasing the risk of genetic damage.
Q101 Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for plants ?
(a) Boron
(b) Zinc
(c) Sodium
(d) Copper
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Sodium is not considered an essential micronutrient for most plants. In contrast, Boron, Zinc, and Copper are vital for enzyme function, cell wall formation, and growth regulation. Sodium may play a role in some C4 plants, but it is not universally required.
Q102 Of the four landmarks in medical history given below, which one was the first to take place ?
(a) Organ transplant
(b) Bypass surgery
(c) Test-tube baby
(d) Plastic surgery
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Plastic surgery has ancient origins, with procedures documented in India as early as 600 BCE by Sushruta. The other medical milestones—organ transplant, bypass surgery, and test-tube baby—are modern developments from the 20th century.
Q103 The nutritional deficiency condition that needs to be given top priority for remedial action in India today is
(a) Scurvy
(b) Rickets
(c) Xerophthalmia
(d) Pellagra
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Xerophthalmia, caused by Vitamin A deficiency, leads to dryness of the eyes and can result in blindness. It is a major public health concern in India, especially among children, making it a top priority for intervention.
Q104 Living organisms require at least 27 elements of which 15 are metals. Among these, those required in major quantities include
(a) Potassium, Manganese, Molybdenum & Calcium
(b) Potassium, Molybdenum, Copper & Calcium
(c) Potassium, Sodium, Magnesium & Calcium
(d) Sodium, Magnesium, Copper & Manganese
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Potassium, Sodium, Magnesium, and Calcium are required in large quantities by living organisms. They play key roles in nerve transmission, muscle contraction, enzyme activation, and bone formation, making them macronutrients.
Q105 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :
List I
I. Vitamin
II. Enzyme
III. Hormone
IV. Protein
List II
(A) Pepsin
(B) Carotene
(C) Keratin
(D) Progesterone
Codes:
(a) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
(b) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
(c) I – B, II – A, III – C, IV – D
(d) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
- Vitamin – Carotene (precursor of Vitamin A)
- Enzyme – Pepsin (digestive enzyme)
- Hormone – Progesterone (regulates reproductive functions)
- Protein – Keratin (structural protein in hair and nails)
These matches reflect the biochemical roles of each substance.
Q106 Physico-chemical characteristics of water in water sources undergo changes due to
(a) aquatic macrophytes
(b) aquatic fungi
(c) effluents
(d) evapotranspiration
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Effluents, especially from industrial and domestic sources, alter the temperature, pH, dissolved oxygen, and chemical composition of water bodies. This leads to pollution and affects aquatic life and ecosystem health.
Q107 Ecologists have so far known, found and certified a large number of species in the plant and animal kingdom. In terms of members, the largest found and identified so far are from among the
(a) Fungi
(b) Plants
(c) Insects
(d) Bacteria
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Insects represent the largest group of identified species, accounting for over half of all known organisms. Their diversity and adaptability make them dominant in terrestrial ecosystems.
Q108 It is possible to produce seedless tomato fruits by
(a) applying trace elements in tomato fields
(b) spraying mineral solution on plants
(c) spraying hormones on flowers
(d) applying fertilizers containing radioactive elements
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Spraying hormones, such as auxins, on tomato flowers can induce parthenocarpy, leading to the development of seedless fruits. This technique is used to enhance fruit quality and shelf life.
Q109 Which of the following are associated with diabetes mellitus, a common disease in adults ?
I. Higher sugar level in blood
II. Lower sugar level in blood
III. Lower insulin level in blood
IV. Higher insulin level in blood
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) II and IV
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Diabetes mellitus is characterized by high blood sugar levels due to insufficient insulin production or insulin resistance. Hence, I and III are correct indicators of the disease.
Q110 Consider the following statements : AIDS is transmitted
I. by sexual intercourse.
II. by blood transfusion.
III. by mosquitoes and other blood sucking insects.
IV. across the placenta.
Of these statements
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) I, II and IV are correct
(c) I, II and IV are correct
(d) I and III are correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
AIDS is transmitted through sexual contact, infected blood transfusion, and from mother to child across the placenta. It is not spread by mosquitoes, making I, II, and IV the correct transmission routes.
Q111 Which of the following would lead to ‘malnutrition’?
I. Overnutrition
II. Undernutrition
III. Imbalanced nutrition
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) II alone
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and III
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Malnutrition refers to any condition where the body does not get the right amount of nutrients. It includes overnutrition (excess intake), undernutrition (deficiency), and imbalanced nutrition (wrong proportions). All three contribute to nutritional disorders.
Q112 People drinking water from a shallow hand pump are likely to suffer from all of the following diseases except
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Jaundice
(d) Fluorosis
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Fluorosis is caused by excess fluoride, typically found in deep groundwater, not shallow hand pumps. Diseases like cholera, typhoid, and jaundice are linked to contaminated surface water, making fluorosis the exception here.
Q113 Besides proteins and carbohydrates, other elements of nutritional value found in milk include
(a) calcium, potassium and iron
(b) calcium and potassium
(c) potassium and iron
(d) calcium and iron
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Milk is rich in calcium and potassium, essential for bone health and muscle function. It contains very little iron, making option (b) the most accurate in terms of nutritional composition.
Q114 Distance-time graph in respect of a race among four persons is shown in the given figure. Consider the following statements in this regard:
I. ‘A’ stood first in the race.
II. ‘C’ led all the way.
III. ‘D’ ran faster than others in the later part of the race.
Of these statements
(a) I and III are false and II is true
(b) I and II are false and III is true
(c) I and III are true and II is false
(d) I is true and II and III are false
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
From the graph, it is evident that A finishes first, and D’s slope increases sharply later, indicating greater speed. C does not lead throughout, making I and III true, and II false.
Q115 When an air bubble at the bottom of a lake rises to the top, it will
(a) increase in size
(b) decrease in size
(c) maintain its size
(d) flatten into a disk-like shape
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
As the bubble rises, pressure decreases, causing the volume to expand (Boyle’s Law). Hence, the bubble will increase in size due to lower pressure near the surface.
Q116 When a mirror is rotated by an angle of θ, the reflected ray will rotate by
(a) 0°
(b) θ/2
(c) θ
(d) 2θ
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
When a mirror is rotated by θ, the reflected ray rotates by 2θ. This is due to the law of reflection, where the angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection, and both shift with the mirror.
Q117 A truck, a car and a motorcycle have equal kinetic energies. If x, y and z represent the stopping distances for the truck, car and motorcycle respectively, then
(a) x > y > z
(b) x < y < z
(c) x = y = z
(d) x ≠ y ≠ z
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
With equal kinetic energy, heavier vehicles like the truck require more distance to stop due to greater momentum and lower braking efficiency. Thus, x > y > z reflects the correct order.
Q118 A liquid is flowing in a streamlined manner through a cylindrical pipe. Along a section containing the axis of the pipe, the flow profile will be
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In streamlined flow, the velocity is maximum at the center and zero at the walls due to viscous drag. This creates a parabolic velocity profile, making option (d) correct.
Q119 The variation of displacement (d) with time (t) in the case of a particle falling freely under gravity from rest is correctly shown by
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Displacement increases quadratically with time under uniform acceleration (gravity). The graph is a parabola opening upwards, indicating accelerated motion, which matches option (b).
Q120 Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from
(a) diamond to glass
(b) water to glass
(c) air to water
(d) air to glass
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Total internal reflection occurs when light moves from a denser to a rarer medium (e.g., diamond to glass) and the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle. This phenomenon is used in optical fibers and prisms.
Q121 Assertion (A): Transformer is useful for stepping up or stepping down voltages.
Reason (R): Transformer is a device used in D.C. circuits.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A transformer is indeed used to step up or step down voltages, but it operates only on alternating current (A.C.), not direct current (D.C.). Therefore, while the assertion is correct, the reason is false.
Q122 Domestic electrical wiring is basically a
(a) series connection
(b) parallel connection
(c) combination of series and parallel connections
(d) series connection within each room and parallel connection elsewhere
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Domestic wiring is done in a parallel configuration so that each appliance receives the same voltage and can operate independently. This ensures that switching off one device does not affect others.
Q124 A simple machine helps a person doing
(a) less work
(b) the same amount of work with lesser force
(c) the same amount of work
(d) the same amount of work much faster
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A simple machine allows a person to do the same amount of work but with less force, by increasing the distance or time over which the force is applied. It provides a mechanical advantage.
Q125 Consider the following statements: A person in a spaceship located halfway between the Earth and the Sun will notice that the
I. Sky is jet black.
II. Stars do not twinkle.
III. Temperature outside the spaceship is much higher than that on the surface of the Earth.
Of these statements
(a) Only III is correct
(b) I and II are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) I, II and III are correct
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In space, the sky appears jet black due to the absence of atmosphere, and stars do not twinkle because twinkling is caused by atmospheric refraction. However, the temperature outside is not necessarily higher, making I and II correct.
Q126 ‘Diamond Ring’ is a phenomenon observed
(a) at the start of a total solar eclipse
(b) at the end of a total solar eclipse
(c) only along the peripheral regions of the totality trail
(d) only in the central regions of the totality trail
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The ‘Diamond Ring’ effect occurs at the end of a total solar eclipse, when a single bright spot of sunlight appears beside the dark lunar disk, resembling a diamond ring. It’s a visual spectacle seen briefly during eclipse transitions.
Q127 The alpha-particle carries two positive charges. Its mass is very nearly equal to that of
(a) two protons
(b) an atom of helium
(c) sum of masses of two positrons and two neutrons
(d) two positrons as each positron carries a single positive charge
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
An alpha particle is essentially a helium nucleus, consisting of two protons and two neutrons. Its mass is nearly equal to that of a helium atom, minus the electrons.
Q129 The offending substance in the liquor tragedies leading to blindness, etc., is
(a) ethyl alcohol
(b) amyl alcohol
(c) benzyl alcohol
(d) methyl alcohol
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Methyl alcohol (methanol) is highly toxic, and its consumption can lead to blindness, organ failure, and death. It is often found in illicit liquor, causing mass poisoning incidents.
Q130 Match List I (Physiological processes) with List II (Cell organelles) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List I
I. Photosynthesis
II. Mineral uptake
III. Respiration
IV. Protein Synthesis
List II
(A) Plasma membrane
(B) Chloroplast
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Ribosomes
Codes:
(a) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
(b) I – A, II – B, III – D, IV – C
(c) I – B, II – A, III – C, IV – D
(d) I – B, II – A, III – D, IV – C
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Photosynthesis – Chloroplast
- Mineral uptake – Plasma membrane
- Respiration – Mitochondria
- Protein synthesis – Ribosomes
These organelles perform specific functions vital to cellular metabolism and growth.
Q131 Examine the following statements :
I. George attends Music classes on Monday.
II. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday.
III. His Literature classes are not on Friday.
IV. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes.
V. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes.
If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on
(a) Monday
(b) Thursday
(c) Saturday
(d) Friday
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
George’s weekly schedule includes:
- Monday: Music
- Tuesday: Sports
- Wednesday: Mathematics
- Thursday: History (follows Mathematics)
- Literature is not on Friday
This leaves Friday and Saturday. Since Literature is not on Friday, it must be on Saturday. Hence, Friday is free.
Q132 Consider the following figures :
I. Square with side 6
II. Rectangle with sides 9 and 6
III. Square with side 8
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from these figures ?
(a) The areas of the three figures are all different
(b) The areas of all the three figures are equal
(c) The perimeters of the three figures are equal
(d) The perimeters of figures I and II are equal
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
- Figure I: Perimeter = 4 × 6 = 24
- Figure II: Perimeter = 2 × (9 + 6) = 30
- Figure III: Perimeter = 4 × 8 = 32
Only Figure I and II have equal perimeters of 30, making option (d) correct.
Q134 The following figure represents sales (in thousands) over the period 1978 to 1983.
The sales in 1981 exceeded that in 1979 by
(a) Rs. one hundred
(b) Rs. ten thousand
(c) Rs. one lakh
(d) Rs. ten lakh
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
From the graph:
- Sales in 1979 = 340,000
- Sales in 1981 = 440,000
Difference = 100,000 = one lakh
Hence, the correct answer is Rs. one lakh.
Q135 Two important characteristics of a hypothesis are that it should be testable and that it should be stated in a manner that it can be refuted. Which one of the following hypotheses fulfils these characteristics ?
(a) Intelligent persons have good memory
(b) Some birds are animals
(c) Some businessmen are dishonest
(d) All men are mortal
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The hypothesis “Intelligent persons have good memory” is testable and refutable through empirical studies. The other options are either too vague, universally accepted, or not scientifically measurable.
Q136 If the price of a television set is increased by 25%, then by what percentage should the new price be reduced to bring the price back to the original level ?
(a) 15%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Let original price = 100
After 25% increase: 100 + 25 = 125
To return to 100:
Required reduction = (25/125) × 100 = 20%
Hence, the price must be reduced by 20%.
Q137 The given pie charts show the proportion of literates and illiterates in a country, in the year 1970 and 1990 and also the proportion of males (M) and females (F) among the literates.
Which one of the following statements can be said to be beyond any doubt ?
(a) In 1970 half of the illiterates were women
(b) The proportion of literate males to the total population of males remained the same over the years
(c) Male literacy did not improve over this period
(d) The ratio of female literates to male literates improved significantly over this period
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
From the pie charts, the female segment among literates increased from 1970 to 1990, indicating a significant improvement in female literacy relative to males. This trend is clearly visible, making option (d) undeniable.
Q138 If A = x² – y², B = 20 and x + y = 10, then
(a) A is greater than B
(b) B is greater than A
(c) A is equal to B
(d) It is not possible to compare A and B as the data provided is inadequate
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Given:
- A = x² – y²
- x + y = 10
But we don’t know x – y or individual values of x and y.
So, A cannot be determined, making the data inadequate.
Q139 Six roads lead to a country. They may be indicated by letters X, Y, Z and digits 1, 2, 3.
When there is storm, Y is blocked.
When there are floods, X, 1 and 2 will be affected.
When road 1 is blocked, Z also is blocked.
At a time when there are floods and a storm also blows, which road(s) can be used ?
(a) Z and 2
(b) Only Z
(c) Only 3
(d) Only Y
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
- Storm blocks Y
- Floods block X, 1, 2
- Blocking 1 also blocks Z
So, only road 3 remains unaffected, making option (c) correct.
Q140 The table below depicts the composition of India’s exports between 1992–93 and 1994–95.
The changing composition of the export trade is indicative of structural transformation of Indian economy in favour of modernisation.
The best indicator of the trend is the
(a) relative share of petroleum products in exports
(b) decline in the share of agricultural products in exports
(c) constant share of ores and minerals in exports
(d) increase in the share of manufactured products in exports
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The share of manufactured products increased from 75.5% to 78%, indicating a shift toward industrialization and modernization. This trend reflects structural transformation, making option (d) the best indicator.
Q141 Which one of the following Venn diagrams correctly illustrates the relationship among the classes: Carrot, Food, Vegetable?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A carrot is a vegetable, and vegetables are a subset of food. So, the correct Venn diagram places carrot inside vegetable, and vegetable inside food, showing a nested hierarchy.
Q142 When the frequency distribution is normal
(a) median, mode and mean are all different from one another
(b) mean, mode and median are identical
(c) mean is greater than mode
(d) mean is greater than median
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In a normal distribution, the mean, median, and mode are equal and lie at the center of the bell curve. This symmetry is a defining feature of normal frequency distributions.
Q143 In the given figure, the triangle represents girls, the square represents sports persons and the circle represents coaches. The portion in the figure which represents girls who are sports persons but not coaches is the one labelled
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Region A lies in the intersection of triangle and square, but outside the circle, representing girls who are sports persons but not coaches. It correctly captures the logical overlap.
Q144 The next pair of letters in the series AZ, CX, FU, … is
(a) JQ
(b) KP
(c) IR
(d) IV
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The pattern follows:
- First letters: A (+2) → C (+3) → F (+3) → I
- Second letters: Z (–2) → X (–3) → U (–3) → R
So, the next pair is IR, maintaining the alphabetic shift.
Q145 Mouse is to cat as fly is to
(a) rat
(b) animal
(c) spider
(d) horse
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A mouse is prey to a cat, just as a fly is prey to a spider. Both pairs reflect a predator-prey relationship, making spider the correct analogy.
Q146 The following figure contains three squares with areas of 100, 16 and 49 lying side by side as shown. By how much should the area of the middle square be reduced in order that the total length PQ of the resulting three squares is 19?
(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) √2
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Side lengths of squares:
- √100 = 10
- √16 = 4
- √49 = 7
Total length = 10 + 4 + 7 = 21
To make it 19, reduce middle square’s side by 2 → new side = 2
New area = 2² = 4
Original area = 16 → Reduction = 16 – 4 = 12
But the question asks for reduction in area, so Answer: (a)
Q147 The average of X₁, X₂ and X₃ is 14. Twice the sum of X₂ and X₃ is 30. What is the value of X₁?
(a) 20
(b) 27
(c) 16
(d) 12
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Average of three numbers = 14 → Total = 14 × 3 = 42
Twice (X₂ + X₃) = 30 → X₂ + X₃ = 15
So, X₁ = 42 – 15 = 27
Answer: (b)
Q148 A rectangle has a perimeter of 50 meters. If its length is 13 metres more than its breadth, then its area is
(a) 124 m²
(b) 144 m²
(c) 114 m²
(d) 104 m²
Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Let breadth = x → Length = x + 13
Perimeter = 2(x + x + 13) = 50 → 2(2x + 13) = 50 → 2x + 13 = 25 → x = 6
Length = 19, Breadth = 6 → Area = 19 × 6 = 114 m²
Answer: (c)
Q149 Two packs of cards are thoroughly mixed and shuffled and two cards are drawn at random, one after the other. What is the probability that both of them are Jacks?
(a) 1/13
(b) 2/13
(c) 7/1339
(d) 1/169
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Total cards = 104 (2 packs), Total Jacks = 8
Probability of first Jack = 8/104
Probability of second Jack = 7/103
Combined probability = (8/104) × (7/103) = 56/10712 = 7/1339
Q150 A man starts walking in the north-easterly direction from a particular point. After walking a distance of 500 metres, he turns southward and walks a distance of 400 metres. At the end of this walk he is situated
(a) 300 metres north of the starting point
(b) 100 metres north-east of the starting point
(c) 300 metres east of the starting point
(d) 100 metres north of the starting point
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
First walk: 500 m NE → 500/√2 ≈ 353.5 m north and 353.5 m east
Then 400 m south → Net north = 353.5 – 400 = –46.5 m (i.e., south)
East remains = 353.5 m
So, he is approx 300 m east of starting point
Answer: (c)