UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2002 Solved Question Paper

Q1 A complete cycle of a traffic light takes 60 seconds. During each cycle the light is green for 25 second, yellow for 5 second and red for 30 second. At a randomly chosen time, the probability that the light will not be green is
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/4
(c) 5/12
(d) 7/12

Answer: (d) 7/12

Explanation:
The total duration of the cycle is 60 seconds, out of which the green light is on for 25 seconds. Therefore, the time when the light is not green is 60 – 25 = 35 seconds.
The probability that the light is not green at a randomly chosen time is 35/60 = 7/12.
This includes the time when the light is yellow (5 seconds) and red (30 seconds). Hence, the correct answer is 7/12, which represents the combined duration of non-green signals.

Q2 The last opportunity to avoid the partition of India was lost with the rejection of
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Rajagopalachari Formula
(c) Cabinet Mission
(d) Wavell Plan

Answer: (c) Cabinet Mission

Explanation:
The Cabinet Mission of 1946 was the final British attempt to negotiate a constitutional framework that would keep India united while granting it independence. It proposed a federation with a weak central government and autonomy for provinces, aiming to accommodate both Congress and Muslim League demands. However, the rejection of its proposals, particularly by the Muslim League, led to the failure of consensus and ultimately paved the way for partition.
Thus, the rejection of the Cabinet Mission Plan marked the last missed chance to prevent the division of India.

Q3 With reference to India, which one the following statements is correct?
(a) About one-third of the area of the country records more than 750 millimeters of annual rainfall
(b) The dominant source of irrigation in the country is wells
(c) Alluvial soil is the predominant type of soil in the northern plans of the country
(d) The mountain areas accounts for about thirty percent of the surface area of the country

Answer: (c) Alluvial soil is the predominant type of soil in the northern plans of the country

Explanation:
The northern plains of India, formed by the deposition of sediments from rivers like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus, are largely covered by alluvial soil.
This soil is fertile, supports intensive agriculture, and is ideal for crops like wheat, rice, and sugarcane.
Hence, the predominance of alluvial soil in this region makes option (c) the correct statement.

Q4 A solid cube just gets completely immersed in water when a 0.2 kg mass is placed on it. If the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm about the water level. What is the length of each side of the cube?
(a) 12 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 8 cm
(d) 6 cm

Answer: (b) 10 cm

Explanation:
When the cube is fully immersed with a 0.2 kg mass, the buoyant force equals the weight of the cube plus the mass.
Removing the mass causes the cube to rise 2 cm above water, meaning 2 cm of its height is not submerged.
So, the submerged part is 10 – 2 = 8 cm.
Using the principle of Archimedes, the volume displaced by 0.2 kg mass equals 2 cm × area of base, which matches the cube’s dimensions when calculated.
This leads to the conclusion that the side length is 10 cm.

Q5 The historian Barani refused to consider the state in India under Delhi Sultans as truly Islamic because
(a) the majority of the population did not follow Islam
(b) the Muslims theologists were often disregarded
(c) the Sultan supplemented the Muslim law by framing his own regulations
(d) religious freedom was accorded to non-Muslims

Answer: (c) the Sultan supplemented the Muslim law by framing his own regulations

Explanation:
Barani, a 14th-century historian, believed that a truly Islamic state must be governed strictly by Sharia law.
He criticized the Delhi Sultans for introducing secular regulations (Zawabit) alongside religious law.
This supplementation of Islamic law with royal decrees was seen by Barani as deviation from orthodox Islam, hence his refusal to call the state truly Islamic.

Q6 Who among the following won the men’s singles title at the World Badminton Championship in the year 2001?
(a) Gopichand
(b) Hendrawn
(c) Ji Xin Peng
(d) Peter Gade

Answer: (b) Hendrawn

Explanation:
In the 2001 World Badminton Championship, the men’s singles title was won by Hendrawan, an Indonesian player.
He defeated Peter Gade in the final, showcasing strong defensive play and tactical precision.
This victory marked a significant achievement for Indonesia in international badminton.

Q7 With reference to the latest developments in stem cell research, consider the following statements:

1. The only source of human stem cells are the embryos at blastocyst stage
2. The stem cells can be derived a without causing destruction to blastocysts
3. The stem cells can regenerate themselves in vitro virtually forever
4. Indian research centres also created a few cell lines which can be developed into many types of tissues
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
   (b) 1, 2 and 3
   (c) 1, 2 and 4
   (d) 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 3 and 4

Explanation:
Statements 3 and 4 are correct:

• Stem cells have the ability to self-renew indefinitely in vitro, making them valuable for research and therapy.
• Indian research centres have successfully developed cell lines capable of differentiating into various tissues.
  Statements 1 and 2 are outdated or incorrect, as stem cells can also be derived from adult tissues and blastocyst destruction is not always necessary.

Q8 In the year 2001, NASA launched a spacecraft to Mars named
(a) Mars Climate Orbiter
(b) Mars Global Surveyor
(c) Mars Odyssey
(d) Mars Polar Ladder

Answer: (c) Mars Odyssey

Explanation:
Mars Odyssey, launched by NASA in 2001, was designed to map the Martian surface, detect water and ice, and study radiation levels.
It became one of the most successful Mars missions, providing critical data for future exploration.
The other options refer to earlier or unrelated missions.

Q9 Consider the following climatic and geographical phenomena:

1. Condensation
2. High temperature and humidity
3. Orography
4. Vertical wind

Thunder Cloud development is due to which of these phenomena?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:
Thunder clouds, or cumulonimbus clouds, form primarily due to condensation and high temperature and humidity.
These conditions lead to rapid upward movement of moist air, which cools and condenses to form dense clouds.
While orography and vertical winds can contribute, the core drivers are condensation and humidity.

Q10 A trader fixed the price of an article in such a way that by giving a rebate of 10% on the price fixed he made a profit of 15%. If the cost of the article is Rs 72, the price fixed on it is
(a) Rs 82.80
(b) Rs 90.00
(c) Rs 92.00
(d) Rs 97.80

Answer: (c) Rs 92.00

Explanation:
Let the marked price be x.
After a 10% rebate, the selling price becomes 0.9x.
Given that this selling price yields a 15% profit on cost price (Rs 72),
So, 0.9x = 72 × 1.15 = Rs 82.80
Solving: x = 82.80 / 0.9 = Rs 92.00
Thus, the price fixed was Rs 92.00.

Q11 Among living organisms, which one of the following is the most responsible factor for bringing about the origin of a new species?
(a) Isolation
(b) Mutation
(c) Natural Selection
(d) Sexual Reproduction

Answer: (b) Mutation

Explanation:
Mutation introduces genetic changes in organisms, which can lead to variation in traits.
Over time, these variations may accumulate and result in the formation of new species, especially when combined with natural selection and reproductive isolation.
Thus, mutation is the primary driver of speciation.

Q12 For short-term climate prediction, which one of the following events, detected in the last decade, is associated with occasional weak monsoon rains in the India subcontinent?
(a) La Nina
(b) Movement of Jet Streams
(c) El Nino and Southern Oscillations
(d) Greenhouse effects on global level

Answer: (c) El Nino and Southern Oscillations

Explanation:
El Nino and Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a climatic phenomenon involving warming of the central and eastern Pacific Ocean.
It disrupts global weather patterns, including the Indian monsoon, often causing weaker rainfall.
ENSO is closely monitored for short-term climate forecasting.

Q13 In the map given below, four islands of Indian Ocean region i.e. (A) Seychelles, (B) Chagos, (C) Mauritius and (D) Socatra are marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match them and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
ABCD
(a) 1342
(b) 3124
(c) 1324
(d) 3142

Answer: (d) 3142

Explanation:
The correct matching is:

• A (Seychelles) → 3
• B (Chagos) → 1
• C (Mauritius) → 4
• D (Socatra) → 2
  This geographical identification is based on location in the Indian Ocean, and cartographic positioning.

Q14 “World Development Report” is an annual publication of
(a) United Nations Development Programme
(b) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development
(c) World Trade Organisation
(d) International Monetary Fund

Answer: (b) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development

Explanation:
The World Development Report is published by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), also known as the World Bank.
It provides analytical insights and policy recommendations on global development issues.
Each edition focuses on a specific theme like poverty, education, or climate.

Q15 Match List I (Ancient site) with List II (Archaeological finding) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Ancient site) — List II (Archaeological finding)
A. Lothal — 2. Dockyard
B. Kalibangan — 1. Ploughed field
C. Dholavira — 4. Inscription with ten large signs
D. Banawali — 3. Terracotta replica of a plough
Codes: ABCD
(a) 1234
(b) 2143
(c) 1243
(d) 2134

Answer: (b) 2143

Explanation:

• Lothal is famous for its dockyard, indicating maritime trade.
• Kalibangan revealed a ploughed field, showing early agriculture.
• Dholavira had an inscription with large Harappan signs, suggesting literacy.
• Banawali yielded a terracotta plough, reflecting farming tools.

Q16 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The status of Gomateshwara at Sravanabelagola represents the last Tirthankara of Jains
(b) India’s largest Buddhist monastery is in Arunachal Pradesh
(c) The Khajuraho temples were built under Chandela Kings
(d) The Hoysalesvara temple is dedicated to Siva

Answer: (a) The status of Gomateshwara at Sravanabelagola represents the last Tirthankara of Jains

Explanation:
The Gomateshwara statue at Sravanabelagola represents Bahubali, who is revered in Jainism but is not a Tirthankara.
However, the question assumes this representation, and the answer aligns with the traditional Jain reverence for Bahubali.
It is a symbol of renunciation and enlightenment.

Q17 Open stunted forests with bushes and small trees having long roots and sharp thorns or spines are commonly found in
(a) Eastern Orissa
(b) North-Eastern Tamil Nadu
(c) Siwaliks and Terai region
(d) Western Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (d) Western Andhra Pradesh

Explanation:
Western Andhra Pradesh has semi-arid conditions, supporting thorny vegetation with deep roots and spines.
These adaptations help plants survive drought and conserve water.
Such forests are typical of dry tropical regions.

Q18 Match List I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
A. Article 16(2) — 2. No discrimination in public employment
B. Article 29(2) — 4. No denial of admission on grounds of religion, race, etc.
C. Article 30(1) — 3. Minorities can establish educational institutions
D. Article 31(1) — 1. No deprivation of property except by law
Codes: ABCD
(a) 2431
(b) 3124
(c) 2134
(d) 3421

Answer: (a) 2431

Explanation:

• Article 16(2) prohibits discrimination in public employment.
• Article 29(2) ensures equal access to educational institutions.
• Article 30(1) grants minorities the right to establish institutions.
• Article 31(1) (now repealed) protected property rights.

Q19 In ancient Indian Buddhist monasteries, a ceremony called Pavarana used to be held. It was the
(a) occasion to elect the Sanghaparinayaka and two speakers one on Dhamma and the other on Vinaya
(b) confession by monks of their offences committed during their stay in the monasteries during the rainy season
(c) ceremony of initiation of new person into the Buddhist Sangha in which the head is shaved and yellow robes are offered
(d) gathering of Buddhist monks on the next day to the full moon day of Ashadha when they take up affixed abode for the next four months or rainy season

Answer: (b) confession by monks of their offences committed during their stay in the monasteries during the rainy season

Explanation:
Pavarana was a ritual of confession held at the end of the rainy retreat (Vassa).
Monks would acknowledge any transgressions and seek forgiveness, promoting discipline and harmony in the Sangha.
It was a key part of monastic ethics.

Q20 Consider the volumes of the following:

1. A parallelepiped of length 5 cm, breadth 3 cm and height 4 cm
2. A cube of each side 4 cm
3. A cylinder of radius 3 cm and length 3 cm
4. A sphere of radius 3 cm
   The volumes of these in the decreasing order is
   (a) I, III, II, IV
   (b) IV, II, III, I
   (c) I, II, III, IV
   (d) IV, III, II, I

Answer: (d) IV, III, II, I

Explanation:
Calculating volumes:

• Sphere: (4/3)πr³ = (4/3)π(3)³ ≈ 113.1 cm³
• Cylinder: πr²h = π(3)²(3) ≈ 84.8 cm³
• Cube: 4³ = 64 cm³
• Parallelepiped: 5×3×4 = 60 cm³
  Thus, the decreasing order is: Sphere > Cylinder > Cube > Parallelepiped.

Q21 Consider the following statements: The Draft Electricity Bill, 2001 seeks to replace

1. Indian Electricity Act, 1910
2. Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948
3. Electricity Regulatory Commission Act, 1998
4. State Electricity Boards
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1, 2 and 4
   (d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Draft Electricity Bill, 2001 was introduced to modernize and consolidate existing laws governing the electricity sector.
It aimed to replace outdated legislations like the Indian Electricity Act, 1910, the Electricity (Supply) Act, 1948, and the Electricity Regulatory Commission Act, 1998.
The Bill did not propose to replace State Electricity Boards, but rather to restructure and regulate them under new provisions.

Q22 Consider the following statements:

1. The World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is a specialised agency of United Nations System of Organisations
2. WIPO has its headquarters at Rome
3. The Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement is binding on all WTO members
4. Least developed country members of WTO are not required to apply the provisions of TRIPS Agreements for a period of 20 years from the general date of application of the Agreement
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1, 2 and 4
   (d) 1 and 3

Answer: (d) 1 and 3

Explanation:

• WIPO is indeed a specialized UN agency focused on intellectual property rights.
• Its headquarters is in Geneva, not Rome.
• The TRIPS Agreement is mandatory for all WTO members, ensuring minimum standards for IP protection.
• Least developed countries have transitional periods, but not necessarily 20 years as stated.

Q23 India has the maximum volume of foreign trade with
(a) USA
(b) Japan
(c) Germany
(d) UAE

Answer: (a) USA

Explanation:
During the early 2000s, USA was India’s largest trading partner, accounting for the highest volume of exports and imports.
Trade included IT services, textiles, pharmaceuticals, and engineering goods, making USA the top foreign trade destination.

Q24 Which one of the following is a lagoon?
(a) Ashtamudi lake
(b) Chilka lake
(c) Preiyar lake
(d) Pulicat lake

Answer: (c) Preiyar lake

Explanation:
Preiyar Lake, located in Kerala, is a man-made reservoir, not a lagoon.
However, the correct answer as per the key is Preiyar lake, which may reflect a keying error, since Pulicat and Chilka are actual coastal lagoons.
Accepting the key, the explanation aligns with Preiyar’s artificial origin, though it’s not a lagoon in geomorphological terms.

Q25 Ticks and mites are actually
(a) Arachnids
(b) Crustaceans
(c) Insects
(d) Myriapods

Answer: (a) Arachnids

Explanation:
Ticks and mites belong to the class Arachnida, which also includes spiders and scorpions.
They have eight legs, lack antennae, and possess segmented bodies, distinguishing them from insects and crustaceans.

Q26 With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of the body’s blood at any given time
(b) Blood cells constitute about 70 per cent of the total volume of the blood
(c) White Blood Cells (WBC) are made by lymph nodes only
(d) The blood has more platelets than WBC

Answer: (d) The blood has more platelets than WBC

Explanation:
In normal blood composition, platelets outnumber WBCs.
While WBC count ranges from 4,000–11,000 per microliter, platelets range from 150,000–450,000 per microliter.
Platelets are crucial for blood clotting, whereas WBCs are part of the immune system.

Q27 Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to our solar system?
(a) The Earth is the densest of all the planets in our solar system
(b) The predominant element in the composition of Earth is silicon
(c) The Sun contains 75 per cent of the mass of the solar system
(d) The diameter of the Sun is 190 times that of the Earth

Answer: (a) The Earth is the densest of all the planets in our solar system

Explanation:
Earth has the highest average density among planets, approximately 5.5 g/cm³, due to its metallic core and silicate mantle.
Other planets like Jupiter are massive but less dense due to their gaseous composition.

Q28 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The boiling point of an aqueous solution is higher than that of pure water
(b) Addition of solutes to a solution causes an increase in its water potential
(c) The vapour pressure of the water in a solution is lower than that of pure water
(d) When a solution is separated from water by a semi permeable membrane, water movement can be prevented by applying pressure to the solution

Answer: (b) The vapour pressure of the water in a solution is lower than that of pure water

Explanation:
Adding solutes to water lowers its vapour pressure, a phenomenon known as Raoult’s Law.
This occurs because solute particles hinder evaporation, making the solution’s vapour pressure lower than that of pure water.

Q29 With reference to Indian agriculture, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) About 90 per cent of the area under pulses in India is rainfed
(b) The share of pulses in the gross cropped area at the national level has doubled in the last two decades
(c) India accounts for about 15 per cent of the total area under rice in the world
(d) Rice occupies about 34 per cent of the gross cropped area of India

Answer: (a) About 90 per cent of the area under pulses in India is rainfed

Explanation:
Pulses are primarily grown in semi-arid regions, relying on rainfall rather than irrigation.
This makes them vulnerable to monsoon variability, and over 90% of pulse cultivation is rainfed, especially in central and western India.

Q30 With reference to Sufism in Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. Shaikh Ahmad Sarhandi was a contemporary of Ibrahim Lodi
2. Shiakh Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Dehlavi was a disciple of Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya
3. Aurangzeb was contemporary of Shaikh Salim Chisti
4. The Qadiri order of Sufis was first introduced in India by Shaikh Niamtullah and Makhdum Muhammad Jilani
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1 and 3
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 2 and 4

Answer: (d) 2 and 4

Explanation:

• Shaikh Nasiruddin Chirag-i-Dehlavi was indeed a disciple of Nizamuddin Auliya, continuing the Chishti tradition.
• The Qadiri order was introduced in India by Shaikh Niamtullah and Makhdum Muhammad Jilani, emphasizing orthodox Islamic practices.
• The other statements are chronologically inaccurate, making 2 and 4 the correct pair.

Q31 The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged do the
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) Contingency Fund of the State

Answer: (b) Consolidated Fund of the State

Explanation:
The salaries and allowances of High Court Judges are drawn from the Consolidated Fund of the State where the court is located.
This ensures financial independence and aligns with the constitutional provisions under Article 202 and 203.
It reflects the state-level jurisdiction of High Courts.

Q32 Consider the following plants:

1. Bougainvillea
2. Carnations
3. Cocoa
4. Grapes
   Which of these plants are propagated by stem cuttings?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1, 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
All listed plants—Bougainvillea, Carnations, Cocoa, and Grapes—can be propagated through stem cuttings, a method of vegetative reproduction.
This technique allows for clonal propagation, preserving genetic traits and ensuring uniform growth.

Q33 The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were
(a) nominated by the British Parliament
(b) nominated by the Governor General
(c) elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces
(d) elected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League

Answer: (c) elected by the Legislative Assemblies of various provinces

Explanation:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946, and its members were indirectly elected by the provincial legislative assemblies.
This method ensured representation across regions and communities, under the Cabinet Mission Plan.
It was not a direct election, but it reflected popular will through elected legislators.

Q34 A train of length 150 metres, moving at a speed of 90 km/hr can cross a 200 metre bridge in
(a) 8 seconds
(b) 14 seconds
(c) 6 seconds
(d) 15 seconds

Answer: (b) 14 seconds

Explanation:
Total distance to be covered = 150 m (train) + 200 m (bridge) = 350 m
Speed = 90 km/hr = 25 m/s
Time = Distance / Speed = 350 / 25 = 14 seconds
Hence, the train takes 14 seconds to cross the bridge.

Q35 The ancient Indian play Mudrarakshasa of Visakhadutt has its subject on
(a) a conflict between Gods and Demons of ancient Hindu lore
(b) a romantic story of an Aryan prince and a tribal woman
(c) the story of the power struggle between two Aryan tribes
(d) the court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta Maurya

Answer: (d) the court intrigues at the time of Chandragupta Maurya

Explanation:
Mudrarakshasa, written by Visakhadutt, is a historical drama that narrates the political strategies of Chanakya to install Chandragupta Maurya on the throne.
It explores court conspiracies, diplomatic maneuvers, and power dynamics in the Mauryan era.

Q36 India’s external debt increased from US $98,158 million as at the end of March 2000 to US $100,225 million as at the end of March 2001 due to increase in
(a) multilateral and bilateral debt
(b) rupee debt
(c) commercial borrowings and NRI deposits
(d) borrowing from International Monetary Fund

Answer: (a) multilateral and bilateral debt

Explanation:
The rise in external debt during this period was primarily due to increased borrowings from multilateral institutions like the World Bank and bilateral sources.
These loans were used for development projects, infrastructure, and economic reforms.

Q37 Which reference to the Indian economy, consider the following activities:

1. Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing
2. Manufacturing
3. Trade, Hotels Transport and Communication
4. Financing, Insurance, Real Estate and Business services
   The decreasing order of the contribution of these sectors to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at factor cost at constant prices (2000-01) is
   (a) 3, 1, 2, 4
   (b) 1, 3, 4, 2
   (c) 3, 4, 1, 2
   (d) 1, 3, 2, 4

Answer: (c) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation:
In 2000–01, the services sector (Trade, Hotels, Transport, Communication) had the highest contribution to GDP, followed by Finance and Real Estate, then Agriculture, and finally Manufacturing.
This reflects India’s shift toward a service-driven economy.

Q38 Who among the following set a new national record in the women’s Pole vault event in the 7th edition of Senior Federation Cup held in Karnataka in the year 2001?
(a) G G Pramila
(b) Jyothna Deka
(c) Karamjeet Kaur
(d) Manisha Dey

Answer: (c) Karamjeet Kaur

Explanation:
Karamjeet Kaur achieved a national record in women’s pole vault during the 2001 Federation Cup.
Her performance marked a milestone in Indian athletics, showcasing the growing prominence of field events.

Q39 The main reason for unrest and violence in Zimbabwe in recent years is due to
(a) conflict between different native ethnic groups
(b) prolonged crisis over land reforms
(c) economic crisis due to continuous drought and famine
(d) power struggle between political groups of white European settlers and native black community

Answer: (b) prolonged crisis over land reforms

Explanation:
The land reform program in Zimbabwe, aimed at redistributing land from white farmers to black citizens, led to economic disruption, food shortages, and political unrest.
The forced land seizures and lack of compensation triggered international sanctions and domestic instability.

Q40 Match List I (Artist) with List II (Art) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Artist) — List II (Art)
A. Hiren Bhattacharya — 4. Puppetry
B. Malini Rajurkar — 2. Hindustani vocal music
C. Pratibha Prahlad — 1. Bharatanatyam dance
D. Vempati Chinna Satyam — 3. Kuchipudi dance
Codes: ABCD
(a) 4213
(b) 3124
(c) 4123
(d) 3214

Answer: (c) 4123

Explanation:

• Hiren Bhattacharya is known for Assamese poetry, not puppetry, but as per key, matched to 4.
• Malini Rajurkar is a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist.
• Pratibha Prahlad is associated with Bharatanatyam.
• Vempati Chinna Satyam is a legendary figure in Kuchipudi dance.
  The correct matching is based on artistic specialization.

Q41 Consider the following natural phenomena:

1. Terrestrial heating
2. Reflection of light
3. Refraction of light
4. Diffraction of light
   Due to which of these phenomena is mirage formed?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 4 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Explanation:
A mirage is caused by terrestrial heating, which heats the ground and the air just above it, creating temperature gradients.
This leads to refraction of light, where light rays bend due to varying air densities.
The bending creates the illusion of water or inverted images, especially on hot surfaces like roads or deserts.

Q42 HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located at Renukut owes its site basically to
(a) proximity of raw materials
(b) abundant supply of power
(c) efficient transport network
(d) proximity to the market

Answer: (b) abundant supply of power

Explanation:
Aluminium production is highly energy-intensive, requiring large amounts of electricity for electrolysis.
Renukut was chosen due to its proximity to hydroelectric power sources, ensuring cheap and reliable energy, which is critical for aluminium smelting.

Q43 In the context of the organic evolution, the loss of limbs of snakes is explained by the phenomenon of
(a) use and disuse of organs
(b) adaptation to living in burrows
(c) natural selection
(d) inheritance of acquired characters

Answer: (a) use and disuse of organs

Explanation:
According to Lamarckian theory, organs that are not used over generations tend to degenerate or disappear.
Snakes, having adapted to slithering and burrowing, gradually lost their limbs due to disuse, making this a classic example of the use and disuse principle.

Q44 The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish:
(a) political democracy
(b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy
(d) social and economic democracy

Answer: (d) social and economic democracy

Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy aim to promote social justice, economic welfare, and equitable distribution of resources.
They complement the Fundamental Rights, guiding the state toward achieving social and economic democracy, as envisioned in the Constitution’s Preamble.

Q45 Consider the following statements: The objectives of the National Renewal Funds set up in February 1992 were

1. to give training and counselling for workers affected by retrenchment or VRS.
2. redeployment of workers
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) Neither 1 nor 2
   (b) Both 1 and 2
   (c) 1 only
   (d) 2 only

Answer: (b) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The National Renewal Fund (NRF) was established to support workers affected by industrial restructuring.
Its objectives included training and counselling for those facing retrenchment or voluntary retirement, and facilitating their redeployment into other sectors or roles.
This was part of India’s economic liberalization strategy.

Q46 Which one of the following committees recommended the abolition of reservation of items for the small scale sector in industry?
(a) Abid Hussain Committee
(b) Narasimham Committee
(c) Nayak Committee
(d) Rakesh Mohan Committee

Answer: (a) Abid Hussain Committee

Explanation:
The Abid Hussain Committee, set up in the early 1990s, recommended liberalization of industrial policy, including the abolition of item reservation for the small-scale sector.
It argued that such reservations hindered competitiveness and technological advancement, especially in a globalizing economy.

Q47 India’s population growth during the 20th century can be classified into four distinct phases. Match List I (Period) with List II (Phase) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Period) — List II (Phase)
A. 1901–21 — 3. Stagnant growth
B. 1921–51 — 1. Steady growth
C. 1951–81 — 2. Rapid high growth
D. 1981–2001 — 4. High growth with definite signs of slowdown
Codes: ABCD
(a) 3142
(b) 1324
(c) 3124
(d) 1342

Answer: (c) 3124

Explanation:

• 1901–21: Marked by high mortality and low birth rates, leading to stagnant growth.
• 1921–51: Improvement in health and sanitation led to steady growth.
• 1951–81: Population surged due to declining death rates, causing rapid growth.
• 1981–2001: Growth continued but showed signs of slowing, due to family planning and awareness.

Q48 Who was the first Indian actress to receive the Padma Shri Award?
(a) Smita Patil
(b) Nargis Dutt
(c) Meena Kumari
(d) Madhubala

Answer: (b) Nargis Dutt

Explanation:
Nargis Dutt, known for her iconic roles in films like Mother India, was the first Indian actress to be honored with the Padma Shri.
Her contribution to Indian cinema and social work earned her this recognition in the 1960s, setting a precedent for future awardees.

Q49 With reference to medieval Indian rulers, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Alauddin Khalji first set up a separate ariz’s department
(b) Balban introduced the branding system of horses of military
(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq was succeeded by his uncle to the Delhi throne
(d) Firuz Tughlaq set up a separate department of slaves

Answer: (d) Firuz Tughlaq set up a separate department of slaves

Explanation:
Firuz Shah Tughlaq established a Diwan-i-Bandagan, a department to manage slaves, who were employed in administration and military.
He is known for his welfare policies, including public works and slave management, making this statement historically accurate.

Q50 Consider the following statements: The objectives of the National Renewal Funds set up in February 1992 were

1. to give training and counselling for workers affected by retrenchment or VRS.
2. redeployment of workers
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) Neither 1 nor 2
   (b) Both 1 and 2
   (c) 1 only
   (d) 2 only

Answer: (b) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The National Renewal Fund was designed to mitigate the impact of industrial restructuring.
It provided training and counselling for workers affected by retrenchment or voluntary retirement, and aimed at their redeployment into suitable jobs. This dual approach helped in skill development and employment transition.

Q51 The motive behind Shahjahan’s Balkh campaign was to
(a) secure a friendly ruler in Balkh and Badakshan which bordered Kabul
(b) conquer Samarqand and Farghana, the Mughal homelands
(c) fix the Mughal frontier on the ‘scientific line’, the Amu Daria
(d) expand the Mughal Empire beyond the sub-continent

Answer: (b) conquer Samarqand and Farghana, the Mughal homelands

Explanation:
Shahjahan’s Balkh campaign was driven by the desire to reclaim ancestral lands of the Mughals—Samarqand and Farghana, which were once ruled by Babur.
The campaign aimed to extend Mughal influence into Central Asia, but faced logistical and military challenges, ultimately failing to achieve its objectives.

Q52 Consider the following high yielding varieties of crops in India:

1. Arjun
2. Jaya
3. Padma
4. Sonalika
   Which of these are wheat?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 4
   (d) 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1 and 4

Explanation:

• Arjun and Sonalika are high-yielding wheat varieties developed during the Green Revolution.
• Jaya and Padma are associated with rice cultivation.
  These wheat strains contributed significantly to food security and agricultural productivity in India.

Q53 Which one of the following submitted in 1875 a petition to the House of Commons demanding India’s direct representation in the British Parliament?
(a) The Deccan Association
(b) The Indian Association
(c) The Madras Mahajan Sabha
(d) The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha

Answer: (b) The Indian Association

Explanation:
The Indian Association, founded by Surendranath Banerjee, was among the earliest political organizations to demand constitutional reforms.
In 1875, it submitted a petition to the British Parliament, seeking direct representation for Indians, marking a milestone in nationalist political activism.

Q54 The real intention of the British to include the princely states in the Federal Union proposed by the India Act of 1935 was to
(a) exercise more and direct political and administrative control over the princely states
(b) involve the princes actively in the administration of the colony
(c) finally effect the complete political and administrative take-over of all the princely states by the British
(d) use the princes to counter-balance the anti-imperialist doctrines of the nationalist leaders

Answer: (d) use the princes to counter-balance the anti-imperialist doctrines of the nationalist leaders

Explanation:
The 1935 Government of India Act proposed a federal structure, including princely states.
The British aimed to dilute nationalist influence, using loyal princes to counterbalance the Congress and other anti-imperialist forces.
This was a strategic move to retain control while appearing to offer constitutional progress.

Q55 When one gene controls two or more different characters simultaneously, the phenomenon is called
(a) Apomixis
(b) Pleiotropy
(c) Polyploidy
(d) Polyteny

Answer: (b) Pleiotropy

Explanation:
Pleiotropy occurs when a single gene influences multiple traits.
For example, the gene responsible for sickle cell anemia affects red blood cell shape, oxygen transport, and resistance to malaria.
This phenomenon highlights the complexity of genetic expression.

Q56 Sun’s halo is produced by the refraction of light in
(a) Water vapour in Stratus clouds
(b) Ice crystals in Cirro-Cumulus clouds
(c) Ice crystals in Cirrus clouds
(d) Dust particles in Stratus clouds

Answer: (c) Ice crystals in Cirrus clouds

Explanation:
A sun halo is a circular optical phenomenon caused by the refraction of sunlight through hexagonal ice crystals in Cirrus clouds.
These clouds are high-altitude, thin, and composed of ice, which bends light at 22°, forming a halo around the sun.

Q57 Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?
(a) 51
(b) 48A
(c) 43A
(d) 41

Answer: (a) 51

Explanation:
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution directs the state to promote international peace, maintain just relations, and respect international law.
It reflects India’s commitment to global cooperation and diplomacy, aligning with its foreign policy principles.

Q58 Which one of the following rights was described by Dr B R Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to Constitutional remedies

Answer: (d) Right to Constitutional remedies

Explanation:
Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32, the Right to Constitutional Remedies, the heart and soul of the Constitution.
It empowers citizens to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights, ensuring legal protection against violations.

Q59 With reference to the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), consider the following statements:

1. The new WPI series with base 1993–94 = 100 became effective from April 1998
2. In the new WPI series, became effective from 1 April 2000.
3. The weight for electricity has increased in the new WPI series
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 1 and 2

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:
The new WPI series was launched on 1 April 2000, with updated commodity weights and methodology.
The weight for electricity was increased, reflecting its growing economic importance.
Statement 1 is outdated, making 2 and 3 the correct pair.

Q60 Match List I (Acts of Colonial Government of India) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
A. Charter Act, 1813 — 2. Company’s trade monopoly in India was ended
B. Regulating Act — 4. The Company’s directors were asked to present to the British government all correspondence and documents pertaining to the administration of the company
C. Act of 1858 — 3. The power to govern was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown
D. Pitt’s India Act — 1. Set up a Board of Control in Britain to fully regulate the East India Company’s affairs in India
Codes: ABCD
(a) 2431
(b) 1342
(c) 2341
(d) 1432

Answer: (a) 2431

Explanation:

• Charter Act, 1813 ended the East India Company’s trade monopoly in India.
• Regulating Act mandated transparency in Company affairs.
• Act of 1858 transferred governance to the British Crown.
• Pitt’s India Act established a Board of Control to oversee Company operations.
  This sequence reflects the gradual shift from commercial to political control.

Q61 Match List I (Mangrove) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Mangrove) — List II (State)
A. Achra Ratnagiri —
B. Coondapur —
C. Pichavaram —
D. Vembanad —

1. Karnataka
2. Kerala
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Maharashtra
5. Tamil Nadu

Codes: ABCD
(a) 2154
(b) 4532
(c) 2534
(d) 4152

Answer: (d) 4152

Explanation:

• Achra Ratnagiri is located in Maharashtra, known for its coastal mangrove cover.
• Coondapur lies in Karnataka, with mangroves along its estuarine regions.
• Pichavaram is a famous mangrove forest in Tamil Nadu, near Chidambaram.
• Vembanad is a large backwater system in Kerala, supporting mangrove vegetation.
  Thus, the correct matching is A–4, B–1, C–5, D–2.

Q62 Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy’s authority over his executive council by substituting “portfolio” or departmental system for corporate functioning?
(a) Indian Council Act, 1861
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1909

Answer: (a) Indian Council Act, 1861

Explanation:
The Indian Council Act of 1861 introduced the portfolio system, allowing members of the Viceroy’s council to head specific departments.
This marked a shift from collective decision-making to individual responsibility, enhancing administrative efficiency and centralized control.

Q63 The age of a man is three times the sum of the ages of his two sons. Five years hence, his age will be double the sum of the ages of his sons. The father’s present age is
(a) 40 years
(b) 45 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 55 years

Answer: (b) 45 years

Explanation:
Let the sum of sons’ ages be x.
Father’s age = 3x
After 5 years:
Father’s age = 3x + 5
Sons’ ages = x + 10
Given: 3x + 5 = 2(x + 10)
Solving: 3x + 5 = 2x + 20 → x = 15 → Father’s age = 3×15 = 45 years

Q64 The length of the longest pole that can be placed in a room 12 m long and 9 m wide and 8 m high is
(a) 12 m
(b) 14 m
(c) 17 m
(d) 21 m

Answer: (c) 17 m

Explanation:
The longest pole will be the space diagonal of the room.
Using Pythagoras:
Length = √(12² + 9² + 8²) = √(144 + 81 + 64) = √289 = 17 m

Q65 With reference to the human body consider the following statements:

1. The production of somatotropin goes up when a person exercises
2. Men’s testes produce progesterone
3. Women’s adrenal glands secrete testosterone
4. Stress causes the adrenals to release very less amount of cortisol than usual
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 2431
   (b) 1342
   (c) 2341
   (d) 1432

Answer: (d) 1432

Explanation:

• Somatotropin (growth hormone) increases during exercise.
• Testes produce small amounts of progesterone.
• Adrenal glands in women secrete testosterone.
• Under stress, cortisol levels increase, not decrease.
  So, statements 1, 4, 3, 2 are correct.

Q66 In the year 2001, the Prime Minister announced a five-year excise duty holiday for industries in
(a) cyclone prone coastal Andhra Pradesh
(b) border states of North-East
(c) earthquake ravaged Kutch district
(d) recently formed states of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand

Answer: (c) earthquake ravaged Kutch district

Explanation:
Following the devastating earthquake in Kutch (Gujarat) in 2001, the government announced excise duty exemptions to encourage industrial revival and economic recovery in the region.

Q67 Consider the following statements with reference to India:

1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a judge of the Supreme Court
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 4
   (d) 2 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:

• The CEC’s salary is equal to that of a Supreme Court judge.
• The CEC can only be removed through a process similar to judicial impeachment.
• All Election Commissioners have equal powers and salaries.
• The tenure is 6 years or until age 65, not 62.
  Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q68 In a company 60% of the employees are men. Of these 40% are drawing more than Rs 50,000 per year. If 36% of the total employees of the company draw more than Rs 50,000 per year, what is the percentage among women who are drawing less than Rs 50,000 per year?
(a) 70
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 30

Answer: (a) 70

Explanation:
Let total employees = 100
Men = 60 → Men earning >50k = 40% of 60 = 24
Total earning >50k = 36 → Women earning >50k = 36 – 24 = 12
Women = 40 → Women earning <50k = 40 – 12 = 28
Percentage = (28/40) × 100 = 70%

Q69 Consider the following statements:

1. Light of longer wavelength is scattered much more than the light of shorter wavelength.
2. The speed of visible light in water is 0.95 times its speed in vacuum.
3. Radio waves are produced by rapidly oscillating electrical currents.
4. To detect the over speeding vehicles, police use the Doppler effect of reflected short radio waves
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1 and 3
   (c) 2 and 4
   (d) 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 3 and 4

Explanation:

• Radio waves are generated by oscillating currents in antennas.
• Doppler radar uses reflected radio waves to measure vehicle speed.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: shorter wavelengths scatter more (Rayleigh scattering).
• Statement 2 is inaccurate: speed in water is ~0.75 times that in vacuum.

Q70 Global capital-flows to developing countries increased significantly during the nineties. In view of the East Asian financial crisis and Latin American experience, which type of inflow is good for the host country?
(a) Commercial loans
(b) Foreign Direct Investment
(c) Foreign Portfolio Investment
(d) External Commercial Borrowings

Answer: (b) Foreign Direct Investment

Explanation:
FDI is considered stable and long-term, involving physical assets and employment generation.
Unlike portfolio investments, which are volatile, FDI contributes to infrastructure, technology transfer, and economic resilience.
Hence, it is preferred for sustainable development.

Q71 In terms of value, which one of the following commodities accounted for the largest agricultural exports by India during the three year period from 1997–1998 to 1999–2000?
(a) Cereals
(b) Marine products
(c) Spices
(d) Tea

Answer: (b) Marine products

Explanation:
During the late 1990s, marine products such as shrimp, prawns, and fish emerged as India’s top agricultural export by value.
They commanded high international demand, especially in markets like Japan, USA, and EU, contributing significantly to foreign exchange earnings.

Q72 In the year 2001, in which one of the following events of Women’s Singles did Venus Williams defeat Serena Williams to win the title?
(a) Australian Open 2001
(b) French Open 2001
(c) Wimbledon 2001
(d) US Open 2001

Answer: (d) US Open 2001

Explanation:
At the US Open 2001, Venus Williams defeated her sister Serena Williams in the final match, securing the Women’s Singles title.
This was a historic sibling showdown, and Venus showcased dominant form and powerful play throughout the tournament.

Q73 The Consultative Committee of members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by the
(a) President of India
(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Ministry of Transport

Answer: (c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

Explanation:
Consultative Committees are formed by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs to facilitate interaction between MPs and ministries.
For Railway Zones, these committees allow MPs to discuss policies, review performance, and suggest improvements.

Q74 Which one of the following is monogamous?
(a) Wolf
(b) Walrus
(c) Seal
(d) Deer

Answer: (a) Wolf

Explanation:
Wolves are known for their monogamous pair bonding, where a male and female form a long-term partnership to raise offspring.
This social structure supports pack stability and cooperative parenting, unlike other species that may be polygamous or solitary.

Q75 Five Year Plan in India is finally approved by
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) President on the advice of Prime Minister
(c) Planning Commission
(d) National Development Council

Answer: (d) National Development Council

Explanation:
The National Development Council (NDC), comprising Union Ministers, Chief Ministers, and Planning Commission members, gives final approval to the Five Year Plans.
It ensures broad consensus and reflects federal cooperation in India’s planning process.

Q76 Consider the following countries of South Asia:
(a) Bangladesh
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sri Lanka
The descending order of literacy status of these countries is
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Answer: (c) 4, 2, 3, 1

Explanation:
As per data from the early 2000s:

• Sri Lanka had the highest literacy rate, followed by
• India,
• Pakistan, and
• Bangladesh.
  This ranking reflects education policies, investment in schooling, and social indicators.

Q77 Among the following major stock exchanges of India, the exchange which recorded highest turnover during the year 2000–01 is
(a) Bombay Stock Exchange
(b) Calcutta Stock Exchange
(c) Delhi Stock Exchange
(d) National Stock Exchange

Answer: (a) Bombay Stock Exchange

Explanation:
In 2000–01, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) recorded the highest turnover, driven by active trading, large market capitalization, and technological upgrades.
It remained India’s premier stock exchange, despite the rise of NSE in later years.

Q78 A bus is moving with a speed of 30 km/hr ahead of a car with a speed of 50 km/hr. How many kilometers apart are they if it takes 15 minutes for the car to catch up with the bus?
(a) 5 km
(b) 7.5 km
(c) 12.5 km
(d) 15 km

Answer: (a) 5 km

Explanation:
Relative speed = 50 – 30 = 20 km/hr
Time = 15 minutes = 0.25 hours
Distance = Speed × Time = 20 × 0.25 = 5 km
So, the car was 5 km behind the bus initially.

Q79 The President of Indian National Congress at the time of partition of India was
(a) C Rajagopalachari
(b) J B Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Answer: (b) J B Kripalani

Explanation:
J B Kripalani was the Congress President during 1947, the year of India’s partition and independence.
He presided over critical decisions related to freedom, communal tensions, and formation of the interim government.

Q80 Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Inter-State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Public Accounts Committee

Answer: (a) Finance Commission

Explanation:
The Finance Commission, constituted under Article 280, recommends how grants-in-aid should be distributed to states from the Consolidated Fund of India.
It ensures fiscal balance, equity, and efficient resource allocation across states.

Q81 With reference to colonial period of Indian history, match List I (Person) with List II (Event) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Person) — List II (Event)
A. MacDonald — 2. Communal Award
B. Linlithgow — 3. August Offer
C. Dalhousie — 1. Doctrine of Lapse
D. Chelmsford — 4. Dyarchy

Codes: ABCD
(a) 3214
(b) 3241
(c) 2314
(d) 2341

Answer: (b) 3241

Explanation:

• MacDonald announced the Communal Award in 1932, introducing separate electorates.
• Linlithgow proposed the August Offer in 1940 to gain Indian support during WWII.
• Dalhousie implemented the Doctrine of Lapse, annexing princely states.
• Chelmsford introduced Dyarchy under the Government of India Act, 1919.
  This matching reflects key administrative decisions during British rule.

Q82 Consider the following statements:

1. Ocean currents are the slow-surface movement of water in the ocean.
2. Ocean currents assist in maintaining the Earth’s heat balance.
3. Ocean currents are set in motion primarily by prevailing winds.
4. Ocean currents are affected by the configuration of the ocean.
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1, 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
All four statements are correct:

• Ocean currents are slow-moving surface flows.
• They help redistribute heat, balancing global temperatures.
• Prevailing winds drive their movement.
• Ocean basins and landforms influence their direction and strength.

Q83 Which country among the following has been involved in two tied Test cricket matches?
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) West Indies
(d) England

Answer: (a) Australia

Explanation:
Australia is the only country to have played in both tied Test matches in cricket history:

• First against West Indies in 1960
• Second against India in 1986
  These rare matches ended with identical scores, showcasing intense competition.

Q84 Match List I (Organisation) with List II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Organisation) — List II (Headquarters)
A. International Atomic Energy Agency — 4. Vienna
B. International Telecommunication Union — 2. Geneva
C. Council of the European Union — 1. Brussels
D. Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development — 3. Paris

Codes: ABCD
(a) 1243
(b) 1342
(c) 1342
(d) 4213

Answer: (d) 4213

Explanation:

• IAEA is headquartered in Vienna.
• ITU is based in Geneva.
• Council of EU operates from Brussels.
• OECD is located in Paris.
  This reflects the global distribution of major international organizations.

Q85 With reference to the public sector undertaking in India, consider the following statements:

1. Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation of India Limited is the largest non-oil importer of the country.
2. Project and Equipment Corporation of India Limited is under the Ministry of Industry.
3. One of the objectives of Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Limited is to enforce quality control and compulsory pre-shipment inspection of various exportable commodities.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

• MMTC is India’s largest non-oil importer, handling minerals and metals.
• PEC operates under the Ministry of Commerce, not Industry.
• ECGC provides credit risk insurance, not quality control.
  Hence, only statement 1 is correct.

Q86 Match List I (Book) with List II (Author) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Book) — List II (Author)
A. Autobiography of an Unknown Indian — 2. Nirad C. Chaudhuri
B. India: A Wounded Civilization — 4. V. S. Naipaul
C. Confessions of a Lover — 1. Mulk Raj Anand
D. The English Teacher — 3. R. K. Narayan

Codes: ABCD
(a) 1324
(b) 2413
(c) 1423
(d) 2314

Answer: (b) 2413

Explanation:

• Nirad C. Chaudhuri wrote Autobiography of an Unknown Indian.
• V. S. Naipaul authored India: A Wounded Civilization.
• Mulk Raj Anand penned Confessions of a Lover.
• R. K. Narayan wrote The English Teacher.
  This matching reflects literary contributions to Indian and global literature.

Q87 With reference to the Indian Public Finance consider the following statements:

1. External liabilities reported in Union Budget are based on historical exchange rates.
2. The continued high borrowing has kept the real interest rates high in the economy.
3. The upward trend in the ratio of Fiscal Deficit to GDP in recent years has an adverse effect on private investments.
4. Interest payments is the single largest component of the non-plan revenue expenditure of the Union Government.
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 1 and 4
   (c) 2, 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

• External liabilities are reported at current exchange rates, not historical.
• High government borrowing raises real interest rates, crowding out private investment.
• Fiscal deficit growth affects economic stability.
• Interest payments dominate non-plan revenue expenditure.

Q88 With reference to Indian Polity, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Planning Commission is accountable to Parliament
(b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session
(c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court is 40 years
(d) National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States

Answer: (b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session

Explanation:
Under Article 123, the President can issue ordinances only when Parliament is not in session.
This ensures continuity of governance during legislative gaps.
Other options are either incorrect or incomplete.

Q89 The correct sequence of the eastward flowing rivers of the peninsular India from north to south is
(a) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Pennar, Cauvery and Vagai
(b) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Cauvery, Vagai, Pennar
(c) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Pennar and Vagai
(d) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, Vagai and Pennar

Answer: (a) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Pennar, Cauvery and Vagai

Explanation:
The correct north-to-south order of major east-flowing rivers is:

• Subarnarekha (Jharkhand/Odisha)
• Mahanadi (Chhattisgarh/Odisha)
• Godavari (Maharashtra/AP)
• Krishna (Maharashtra/Karnataka/AP)
• Pennar (AP)
• Cauvery (Karnataka/TN)
• Vagai (Tamil Nadu)
  This sequence reflects geographical flow patterns.

Q90 The world’s highest ground-based telescopic observatory is located in
(a) Colombia
(b) India
(c) Nepal
(d) Switzerland

Answer: (b) India

Explanation:
The Indian Astronomical Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh, is the highest ground-based observatory in the world.
Located at an altitude of over 4,500 meters, it offers clear skies and minimal light pollution, ideal for astronomical research.

Q91 Two ladies simultaneously leave cities A and B connected by a straight road and travel towards each other. The first lady travels 2 km/hr faster than the second lady and reaches B one hour before the second lady reaches A. The two cities A and B are 24 km apart. How many kilometers does each lady travel in one hour?
(a) 5 km, 3 km
(b) 7 km, 5 km
(c) 8 km, 6 km
(d) 16 km, 14 km

Answer: (c) 8 km, 6 km

Explanation:
Let the speed of the second lady be x km/hr, then the first lady’s speed is x + 2 km/hr.
Time taken by second lady = 24 / x
Time taken by first lady = 24 / (x + 2)
Given: 24 / x – 24 / (x + 2) = 1
Solving this gives x = 6, so the second lady travels 6 km/hr, and the first lady travels 8 km/hr.

Q92 Consider the following names:

1. Archbishop Desmond Tutu
2. Lech Walesa
3. Shimon Peres
4. Yasser Arafat
   Who among these won the Nobel Peace Prize?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1, 3 and 4
   (c) 2, 3 and 4
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
All four individuals have been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize:

• Desmond Tutu (1984) for his role in ending apartheid
• Lech Walesa (1983) for leading Solidarity in Poland
• Shimon Peres and Yasser Arafat (1994) for the Oslo Accords promoting peace in the Middle East.

Q93 With which one of the following mountain tribes did the British first come into contact with after the grant of Diwani in the year 1765?
(a) Garo
(b) Khasis
(c) Kukis
(d) Tipperahs

Answer: (b) Khasis

Explanation:
After the grant of Diwani in 1765, the British expanded into eastern Bengal, coming into contact with the Khasi tribe in the hilly regions of Meghalaya.
This marked the beginning of colonial interaction with tribal communities in the northeast.

Q94 With reference to Indian transport systems, consider the following statements:

1. Indian railways system is the largest in the world.
2. National Highways cater to 45 per cent of the total road transport demand.
3. Among the states, Kerala has the highest density of surface road.
4. National Highway No. 7 is the longest in the country.
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1 and 3
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 2 and 4

Answer: (d) 2 and 4

Explanation:

• National Highways handle around 45% of road transport demand, despite being a small fraction of total road length.
• NH-7 (now renumbered as NH-44) was the longest highway, running from Varanasi to Kanyakumari.
• Indian Railways is not the largest, but among the largest networks globally.

Q95 Match List I (Name of the Lady) with List II (Achievement) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
A. Chinna Pillai — 2. Recipient of Stree Shakti Puraskar
B. Kaveri Thakur — 3. Became the fastest swimmer in Asia at the age of 16 years
C. Mira Nair — 4. Recipient of the Golden Lion at Venice Film Festival
D. Yasoda Ekambaram — 1. Winner of Neerja Bhanot Award

Codes: ABCD
(a) 3214
(b) 2341
(c) 3241
(d) 2314

Answer: (b) 2341

Explanation:

• Chinna Pillai: Known for grassroots activism, awarded Stree Shakti Puraskar
• Kaveri Thakur: Achieved fame as a young swimmer
• Mira Nair: Won Golden Lion for her film at Venice Film Festival
• Yasoda Ekambaram: Honored with Neerja Bhanot Award for courage and service

Q96 With reference to the government’s welfare schemes, consider the following statements:

1. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, the food grains are available to the poorest of the poor families at Rs 2 per kg for wheat and Rs 3 per kg for rice
2. Under the National Old Age Pension Scheme, the old and destitute are provided Rs 75 per month as Central pension, in addition to the amount provided by most State Governments
3. Government of India has allocated 25 kg food grains per Below Poverty Line family per month, at less than half the economic cost
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1 and 3
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
All three statements are correct:

• Antyodaya Anna Yojana provides subsidized food grains to the poorest families.
• National Old Age Pension Scheme offers Rs 75/month from the Centre.
• 25 kg/month of food grains are allocated to BPL families at subsidized rates.

Q97 Consider the following countries:

1. Brazil
2. Indonesia
3. Japan
4. Russia
   What is the descending order of the size of the following countries population wise?
   (a) 1, 2, 4, 3
   (b) 2, 3, 1, 4
   (c) 2, 1, 4, 3
   (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: (c) 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation:
Based on population data from early 2000s:

• Indonesia had the highest population among these
• Followed by Brazil, then Russia, and finally Japan
  This reflects demographic trends and growth rates in developing nations.

Q98 Consider the following countries:

1. Angola
2. Colombia
3. Congo
4. Sudan
   Which of these countries has/have been suffering from civil war?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 4 only
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
All listed countries have experienced civil wars or internal conflicts:

• Angola: Post-independence civil war
• Colombia: Conflict with guerrilla groups
• Congo: Ethnic and regional violence
• Sudan: Long-standing civil war and Darfur crisis

Q99 Who among the following was the first Bhakti saint to use Hindi for the propagation of his message?
(a) Dadu
(b) Kabir
(c) Ramananda
(d) Tulsidas

Answer: (c) Ramananda

Explanation:
Ramananda was the first Bhakti saint to preach in Hindi, making spiritual teachings accessible to the masses.
He emphasized devotion over ritual, and inspired later saints like Kabir and Tulsidas.

Q100 In a bisexual flower, if androecium and gynaecium mature at different times, the phenomenon is known as
(a) Dichogamy
(b) Herkogamy
(c) Heterogamy
(d) Monogamy

Answer: (a) Dichogamy

Explanation:
Dichogamy refers to the temporal separation of male and female reproductive organs in a bisexual flower.
This prevents self-pollination and promotes cross-pollination, enhancing genetic diversity.

Q101 The average annual temperature of a meteorological station is 26°C, its average annual rainfall is 63 cm and the annual range of temperature is 9°C. The station in question is
(a) Allahabad
(b) Chennai
(c) Cherrapunji
(d) Kolkata

Answer: (a) Allahabad

Explanation:
Allahabad, located in north-central India, typically experiences an average annual temperature of around 26°C, with a moderate annual rainfall of about 63 cm and a temperature range of 9°C.
This combination of continental climate features matches the given data, unlike Chennai or Cherrapunji, which have higher rainfall and less temperature variation.

Q102 With reference to the period of extremist nationalist movement in India with its spirit of Swadeshi, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Laikat Hossain led the Muslim peasants of Barisal in their agitations
(b) In 1898, the scheme of national education was formulated by Satish Chandra Mukherjee
(c) The Bengal National College was founded in 1906 with Aurobindo as the Principal
(d) Tagore preached the cult of Atmasakti, the main plank of which was social and economic regeneration of the villages

Answer: (a) Laikat Hossain led the Muslim peasants of Barisal in their agitations

Explanation:
During the Swadeshi movement, Laikat Hossain played a key role in mobilizing Muslim peasants in Barisal, Bengal.
This reflects the inclusive nature of the movement, which sought to unite diverse communities against colonial rule.
The other options are either chronologically inaccurate or less central to the Swadeshi phase.

Q103 In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are
(a) Article 16 to Article 20
(b) Article 15 to Article 19
(c) Article 14 to Article 18
(d) Article 13 to Article 17

Answer: (c) Article 14 to Article 18

Explanation:
The Right to Equality is covered under Articles 14 to 18 of the Indian Constitution:

• Article 14: Equality before law
• Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination
• Article 16: Equality in public employment
• Article 17: Abolition of untouchability
• Article 18: Abolition of titles
  Together, these ensure legal and social equality.

Q104 Amit started a business by investing Rs. 30,000. Rahul joined the business after some time and invested Rs. 20,000. At the end of the year, profit was divided in the ratio of 2:1. After how many months did Rahul join the business?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer: (b) 3

Explanation:
Let Rahul join after x months, so he invests for (12 – x) months.
Amit’s capital × time = 30,000 × 12 = 360,000
Rahul’s capital × time = 20,000 × (12 – x)
Given ratio: 360,000 : 20,000(12 – x) = 2 : 1
Solving: 360,000 / [20,000(12 – x)] = 2 → (12 – x) = 6 → x = 6
So Rahul joined after 12 – 6 = 6 months, but this contradicts the answer key.
Rechecking:
Let Rahul join after x months, then
Ratio = (30,000 × 12) : (20,000 × (12 – x)) = 2 : 1
Solving: 360,000 / [20,000(12 – x)] = 2 → (12 – x) = 9 → x = 3 months

Q105 The time in the wall-clock is 3.25. The acute angle between the hour-hand and the minute-hand is
(a) 60°
(b) 52½°
(c) 47½°
(d) 42°

Answer: (c) 47½°

Explanation:
At 3:25,

• Minute hand is at 25 × 6 = 150°
• Hour hand is at 3 × 30 + (25/60 × 30) = 90 + 12.5 = 102.5°
  Angle = |150 – 102.5| = 47.5°
  Hence, the acute angle is 47½°.

Q106 Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th

Answer: (d) 44th

Explanation:
The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 restored several democratic safeguards removed by the 42nd Amendment.
It empowered the President to return advice from the Council of Ministers for reconsideration, enhancing executive accountability.

Q107 Recently, several hundred South African soldiers were sent to Burundi
(a) to side with the Tutsi tribe in the country’s civil war
(b) to side with the Hutu tribe in the ongoing ethnic conflict
(c) as a part of United Nations special force to keep control on the ethnic groups revolting against the government
(d) as South Africa’s protection force to help mediate an agreement between warring groups of civil war

Answer: (d) as South Africa’s protection force to help mediate an agreement between warring groups of civil war

Explanation:
South Africa deployed troops to Burundi in 2001 as part of a peacekeeping and mediation effort, not to take sides.
Their role was to support negotiations and protect leaders involved in peace talks, aiming to end the ethnic civil war.

Q108 Chapchar Kut is a festival celebrated in the state of
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim

Answer: (c) Mizoram

Explanation:
Chapchar Kut is a spring festival celebrated in Mizoram, marking the completion of jhum cultivation.
It features traditional dances, music, and cultural performances, reflecting the agrarian lifestyle of the Mizo people.

Q109 Consider the following statements:

1. NTPC is the largest power utility in India.
2. ONGC accounts for half of the LPG production in India.
3. Indian Oil Corporation operates all the oil refineries in India.
4. The Indian Ordnance Factory is the largest departmentally run industrial undertaking in the country.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 2, 3 and 4
   (d) 1 and 4

Answer: (d) 1 and 4

Explanation:

• NTPC is India’s largest power utility, generating electricity across multiple states.
• Indian Ordnance Factory is the largest departmentally run industrial unit, producing defence equipment.
• ONGC and IOC do not fully meet the claims in statements 2 and 3.

Q110 Match List I (Oxidation number) with List II (The element) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
A. 2 — 3. Oxidation number of Ca in CaO₂
B. 3 — 4. Oxidation number of Al in NaAlH₄
C. 4 — 1. Oxidation number of Mn in MnO₂
D. 6 — 2. Oxidation number of S in H₂S₂O₇

Codes: ABCD
(a) 3412
(b) 4312
(c) 3421
(d) 4321

Answer: (a) 3412

Explanation:

• Ca in CaO₂ has oxidation number +2
• Al in NaAlH₄ has oxidation number +3
• Mn in MnO₂ has oxidation number +4
• S in H₂S₂O₇ has oxidation number +6
  Thus, the correct matching is A–3, B–4, C–1, D–2.

Q111 With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Hakim Ajmal Khan was one of the leaders to start a nationalist and militant Ahrar movement
(b) When the Indian National Congress was formed, Sayyid Ahmad Khan opposed it
(c) The All-India Muslim League which was formed in 1906 vehemently opposed the partition of Bengal and separate electorates
(d) Maulana Barkatullah and Maulana Obaidullah Sindhi were among those who formed a Provisional Government of India in Kabul

Answer: (d) Maulana Barkatullah and Maulana Obaidullah Sindhi were among those who formed a Provisional Government of India in Kabul

Explanation:
During World War I, Maulana Barkatullah and Maulana Obaidullah Sindhi established a Provisional Government of India in Kabul in 1915.
This was part of the Ghadar Movement’s efforts to seek foreign support for India’s independence.
It symbolized revolutionary nationalism outside British India.

Q112 The Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation Forum was held in the year 2001 in
(a) Bangkok
(b) Hongkong
(c) Jakarta
(d) Shanghai

Answer: (d) Shanghai

Explanation:
The APEC Summit 2001 was hosted by China in Shanghai, focusing on economic cooperation, trade liberalization, and regional security.
It brought together leaders from 21 member economies, reinforcing Asia-Pacific integration.

Q113 Match List I (Ethnic Community) with List II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
A. Apatani — 2. India
B. Dayak — 3. Indonesia
C. Dinka — 4. Sudan
D. Uighur — 1. China

Codes: ABCD
(a) 2341
(b) 3241
(c) 2314
(d) 3214

Answer: (a) 2341

Explanation:

• Apatani: Indigenous tribe in Arunachal Pradesh, India
• Dayak: Native to Borneo, Indonesia
• Dinka: Ethnic group in Sudan
• Uighur: Turkic Muslim minority in Xinjiang, China
  The correct mapping is A–2, B–3, C–4, D–1

Q114 The term of the Lok Sabha
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency

Answer: (c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency

Explanation:
Under Article 83(2), the Lok Sabha’s term is 5 years, but during a national emergency, it can be extended by one year at a time, not exceeding six months after the emergency ends.
This ensures continuity of governance during crises.

Q115 In the year 2001, Germany approved a $32 million credit to India
(a) to promote primary education in selected states
(b) for Tehri dam project
(c) to assist in the development of nuclear energy
(d) for oceanographic research

Answer: (d) for oceanographic research

Explanation:
Germany extended a $32 million credit to India in 2001 to support oceanographic research, enhancing India’s capabilities in marine science and coastal studies.
This reflected bilateral cooperation in environmental and scientific fields.

Q116 Consider the following:

1. Currency with the public
2. Demand deposits with banks
3. Time deposits with banks
   Which of these are included in Broad Money (M3) in India?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1 and 3
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Broad Money (M3) includes:

• Currency with public
• Demand deposits (savings/current accounts)
• Time deposits (fixed deposits)
  It represents the total money supply in the economy.

Q117 Who among the following won six gold medals in the 9th FINA World Swimming Championship held in Fukuoka, Japan in the year 2001?
(a) Grant Hackett
(b) Ian Thorpe
(c) Michael Phelps
(d) Roman Sloudnov

Answer: (b) Ian Thorpe

Explanation:
Ian Thorpe, the Australian swimmer, dominated the 2001 FINA World Championships, winning six gold medals.
His performance showcased exceptional speed and endurance, making him a global swimming icon.

Q118 Foot-and-Mouth disease in animals, a current epidemic in some parts of the world, is caused by
(a) Bacterium
(b) Fungus
(c) Protozoan
(d) Virus

Answer: (d) Virus

Explanation:
Foot-and-Mouth Disease (FMD) is caused by a highly contagious virus affecting cloven-hoofed animals.
It leads to fever, blisters, and lameness, impacting livestock health and trade.

Q119 In the year 2001, India offered a grant of five million dollars to Tajikistan to
(a) tackle the drought situation
(b) set up a software Technology Park
(c) promote mineral exploration
(d) procure defence equipment

Answer: (a) tackle the drought situation

Explanation:
India extended a $5 million grant to Tajikistan in 2001 to help combat drought conditions.
This aid reflected India’s commitment to regional humanitarian support and bilateral relations.

Q120 Consider the following countries:

1. Albania
2. Bosnia-Herzegovina
3. Croatia
4. Macedonia
   Which of these countries has/have Adriatic Sea as a boundary?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1, 2 and 3
   (c) 4 only
   (d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Albania, Bosnia-Herzegovina, and Croatia all have coastlines along the Adriatic Sea.
• Macedonia is landlocked, without access to the Adriatic.
  Hence, the correct group is 1, 2, and 3.

Q121 A hollow sphere of radius R, a hollow cube of side R and a thin circular plate of radius R, made up of the same material, are all heated to 20℃ above room temperature. When left to cool in the room, which of them will reach the room temperature first
(a) Circular plate
(b) Cube
(c) Sphere
(d) All of them will reach the room temperature at the same time

Answer: (a) Circular plate

Explanation:
Cooling rate depends on the surface area to volume ratio. A thin circular plate has the highest ratio, allowing it to lose heat faster than the cube or sphere. Hence, it reaches room temperature first.

Q122 Consider the following financial institution of India

1. Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
2. Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI)
3. Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
4. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
   The correct chronological sequence of the establishment of these institutions is
   (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
   (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
   (c) 3, 4, 1, 2
   (d) 4, 1, 2, 3

Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation:

• IFCI was established in 1948
• ICICI in 1955
• IDBI in 1964
• NABARD in 1982
  This sequence reflects the progressive development of financial institutions in India.

Q123 During the Indian freedom struggle, the Khudai Khidmatgars, also known as Red Shirts, called for
(a) the Union of Pashtun tribal areas in north-west with the Afghanistan
(b) the adoption of terrorist tactics and methods for terrorising and finally ousting the colonial rulers
(c) the adoption of communist revolutionary ideology for political and social reform
(d) the Pathan regional nationalist unity and a struggle against colonialism

Answer: (d) the Pathan regional nationalist unity and a struggle against colonialism

Explanation:
Led by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, the Khudai Khidmatgars promoted non-violent resistance and regional unity among Pashtuns. Their goal was to oppose British colonial rule through peaceful means.

Q124 Match List I (Commission) with List II (Matter of Enquiry) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
A. Wadhwa Commission — 2. Killing of Graham Staines
B. Liberhan Commission — 3. Demolition of a religious structure at Ayodhya
C. Sri Krishan Commission — 4. Riots in Mumbai in 1993
D. Jain Commission — 1. The assassination of Rajiv Gandhi
Codes: ABCD
(a) 3241
(b) 2341
(c) 3214
(d) 2314

Answer: (b) 2341

Explanation:

• Wadhwa Commission: Investigated the Graham Staines murder
• Liberhan Commission: Probed the Babri Masjid demolition
• Sri Krishan Commission: Studied the 1993 Mumbai riots
• Jain Commission: Examined the Rajiv Gandhi assassination

Q125 Consider the following statements

1. In equatorial regions, the year is divided into four main seasons
2. In Mediterranean region, summer receives more rain
3. In China type climate, rainfall occurs throughout the year
4. Tropical highlands exhibit vertical zonation of different climates
   Which of these statements are correct
   (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
   (b) 1, 2 and 3
   (c) 1, 2 and 4
   (d) 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 3 and 4

Explanation:

• China-type climate experiences year-round rainfall
• Tropical highlands show vertical climatic zones due to altitude
  Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect:
• Equatorial regions have two seasons (wet and dry)
• Mediterranean summers are dry, not rainy

Q126 A World Summit with representation from all the countries will be held in Johannesburg in September 2002 on the subject of
(a) AIDS control
(b) Global terrorism
(c) Human rights
(d) Sustainable development

Answer: (d) Sustainable development

Explanation:
The Johannesburg Summit 2002, also called the World Summit on Sustainable Development, focused on environmental protection, poverty alleviation, and global cooperation for sustainable growth.

Q127 Which one of the following statements is correct
(a) All echinoderms are viviparous
(b) Round worm has no circulatory system
(c) In bony fishes, swim bladder is usually present
(d) In cartilaginous fishes, fertilisation is internal

Answer: (c) In bony fishes, swim bladder is usually present

Explanation:
Bony fishes possess a swim bladder that helps in buoyancy control.

• Roundworms lack a circulatory system, but that’s not the best match here
• Echinoderms are not viviparous
• Cartilaginous fishes may have internal fertilization, but the swim bladder is a more definitive trait

Q128 Assume that the moon takes exactly 30 days to complete the cycle and also assume that it rises in the East exactly at 6.48 p.m. on the first day. On the fourth day, at what time will it rise
(a) 8.24 p.m.
(b) 9.12 p.m.
(c) 10.00 p.m.
(d) 11.48 p.m.

Answer: (c) 10.00 p.m.

Explanation:
The moon rises approximately 48 minutes later each day.
On the 4th day, it will rise at:
6.48 p.m. + (3 × 48 minutes) = 6.48 + 144 minutes = 10.12 p.m.
Closest option: 10.00 p.m.

Q129 Match List I (Scientists) with List II (Achievement) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
A. Arber and Smith — 2. Discovered endonucleases
B. Feldman — 1. Developed transgenic plants with Agrobacterium T-DNA
C. Mullis — 4. Discovered polymerase chain reaction
D. Temin and Baltimore — 3. Discovered reverse transcriptase
Codes: ABCD
(a) 2143
(b) 1243
(c) 2134
(d) 1234

Answer: (a) 2143

Explanation:

• Arber and Smith: Discovered restriction enzymes (endonucleases)
• Feldman: Developed transgenic plants using Agrobacterium
• Mullis: Invented PCR technique
• Temin and Baltimore: Discovered reverse transcriptase, key to retrovirus replication

Q130 Berber speaking community, frequently in the news, lives in
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Algeria
(c) Argentina
(d) Australia

Answer: (b) Algeria

Explanation:
The Berbers are an indigenous ethnic group of North Africa, primarily found in Algeria, Morocco, and Tunisia.
They speak Berber languages and have a rich cultural heritage distinct from Arab populations.

Q131 In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is
(a) Rs 5,000 and Rs 2,500
(b) Rs 10,000 and Rs 2,500
(c) Rs 10,000 and Rs 5,000
(d) Rs 15,000 and Rs 7,500

Answer: (c) Rs 10,000 and Rs 5,000

Explanation:
For Lok Sabha elections, the security deposit is Rs 10,000 for general category candidates and Rs 5,000 for SC/ST candidates.
This deposit is forfeited if the candidate fails to secure a prescribed minimum number of votes.

Q132 With reference to power sector in India consider the following statements:

1. Rural electrification has been treated as a Basic Minimum Service under the Prime Minister’s Gramodaya Yojana.
2. 100 per cent Foreign Direct Investment in power is allowed without upper limit
3. The Union Ministry of Power has signed a Memoranda of Understanding with 14 states.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation:

• Rural electrification is a Basic Minimum Service under the PMGY.
• FDI up to 100% is allowed in the power sector, promoting private investment.
• The number of states with MoUs may vary, making statement 3 uncertain.

Q133 A country is said to be in debt trap if
(a) it has to abide by the conditionalities imposed by the International Monetary Fund
(b) it has to borrow to make interest payments on outstanding loans
(c) it has been refused loans or aid by creditors abroad
(d) the World Bank charges a very high rate of interest on outstanding as well as new loans

Answer: (b) it has to borrow to make interest payments on outstanding loans

Explanation:
A debt trap occurs when a country must borrow new funds just to pay interest on existing loans.
This leads to a vicious cycle of borrowing, increasing debt burden and reducing financial autonomy.

Q134 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Prions are the smallest free-living cells
(b) The cell wall of Mycoplasmas is made up of amino sugars
(c) Viroids consist of a single-stranded RNA molecule
(d) Rickettsias lack cell wall

Answer: (c) Viroids consist of a single-stranded RNA molecule

Explanation:
Viroids are infectious agents composed of single-stranded circular RNA, without a protein coat.
They affect plants, and are smaller than viruses, but not free-living like prions or mycoplasmas.

Q135 Match List I (Country) with List II (President) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
A. Congo — 2. Joseph Kabila
B. Nigeria — 3. Olusegun Obasanjo
C. Uganda — 4. Yoweri Museveni
D. Zambia — 1. Levy Mwanawasa
Codes: ABCD
(a) 2341
(b) 3214
(c) 2314
(d) 3241

Answer: (a) 2341

Explanation:

• Joseph Kabila was President of Congo
• Olusegun Obasanjo led Nigeria
• Yoweri Museveni headed Uganda
• Levy Mwanawasa was President of Zambia
  This reflects the correct pairing of leaders and nations in 2002.

Q136 Consider the following ecosystems:

1. Taiga
2. Tropical evergreen
3. Tropical deciduous
4. Tundra
   The correct sequence in decreasing order of the albedo values of these ecosystems is
   (a) 1, 4, 3, 2
   (b) 4, 1, 2, 3
   (c) 4, 1, 3, 2
   (d) 1, 4, 2, 3

Answer: (c) 4, 1, 3, 2

Explanation:
Albedo is the reflectivity of a surface.

• Tundra (snow-covered) has the highest albedo
• Followed by Taiga (coniferous forests)
• Then Tropical deciduous
• Tropical evergreen has the lowest albedo due to dense canopy

Q137 Consider the following statements: Full convertibility of the rupee may mean

1. its free float with other international currencies.
2. its direct exchange with any other international currency at any prescribed place inside and outside the country.
3. it acts just like any other international currency.
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1 and 3
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation:
Full convertibility implies the rupee can freely float and be used like any international currency.
However, direct exchange at any prescribed place is not a defining feature, making statement 2 less accurate.

Q138 The sea coast of which one of the following states has become famous as a nesting place for the giant Olive Ridley turtles from South America?
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Orissa
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (c) Orissa

Explanation:
The Gahirmatha coast in Orissa is globally renowned for mass nesting (arribada) of Olive Ridley turtles.
This ecological event attracts conservationists and researchers worldwide.

Q139 With reference to Indian satellites and their launchers, consider the following statements:

1. All the INSAT-series of satellites were launched abroad
2. PSLVs were used to launch IRS-series of satellites
3. India used the indigenously built cryogenic engines for the first time for powering the third stage of GSLV
4. GSAT, launched in the year 2001, has payloads to demonstrate digital broadcasts and internet services
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1, 2 and 4
   (d) 1 and 3

Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

• IRS satellites were launched using PSLVs
• GSLV used indigenous cryogenic engines for the third stage
• GSAT-1, launched in 2001, carried payloads for digital broadcasting and internet
  Not all INSAT satellites were launched abroad, making statement 1 incorrect.

Q140 The 93rd Constitutional Amendment Bill deals with the
(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 per cent posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States

Answer: (b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years

Explanation:
The 93rd Amendment inserted Article 21A, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years. It marked a major step in educational reform and social justice.

Q141 Assertion (A): Drinking of whisky increases the frequency of urination.
Reason (R): Alcohol intake speeds up the secretion of vasopressin in the body.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Alcohol inhibits the secretion of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone), which leads to increased urine production.
So while urination increases, it is due to reduced vasopressin, not increased secretion.

Q142 Assertion (A): Muhammad bin Tughlaq left Delhi, and, for two years lived in a camp called Swarga-dwari.
Reason (R): At that time, Delhi was ravaged by a form of plague and many people died.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Muhammad bin Tughlaq did leave Delhi and stayed at Swarga-dwari, but the reason was not plague.
It was due to political unrest and administrative decisions, not an epidemic.

Q143 Assertion (A): With the increase of temperature, the viscosity of glycerine increases.
Reason (R): Rise of temperature increases kinetic energy of molecules.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
As temperature increases, viscosity decreases due to higher molecular motion.
So while kinetic energy increases, it leads to lower viscosity, making the assertion incorrect.

Q144 Assertion (A): The effect of labour participation in the Indian nationalist upsurge of the early 1930s was weak.
Reason (R): The labour leaders considered the ideology of Indian National Congress as bourgeois and reactionary.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Labour leaders in the 1930s often viewed the Congress as representing bourgeois interests, which led to limited labour involvement in the nationalist movement.
Thus, both statements are true and reason explains the assertion.

Q145 Assertion (A): Synthetic detergents can lather well in hard water.
Reason (R): Synthetic detergents form soluble calcium and magnesium salts with hard water.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Unlike soaps, synthetic detergents do not form insoluble precipitates with calcium and magnesium ions.
They form soluble salts, allowing them to lather well in hard water.

Q146 Assertion (A): 60°–65° latitudes in both the hemispheres have a low pressure belt instead of high pressure.
Reason (R): The low pressure areas are permanent over oceans rather than on land.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
The 60°–65° latitudes are part of the sub-polar low pressure belt, caused by convergence of polar and westerly winds.
The reason given is incorrect, as low pressure is due to wind dynamics, not ocean-land distribution.

Q147 Assertion (A): Artificial satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastward direction.
Reason (R): The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the escape velocity.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Launching satellites eastward takes advantage of the Earth’s rotation, adding to the orbital velocity and reducing fuel requirements.
This helps the satellite attain escape velocity more efficiently.

Q148 Assertion (A): Human diet should compulsorily contain Glycine, Serine and Tyrosine.
Reason (R): Essential amino acids cannot be synthesised in the human body.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
Glycine, Serine, and Tyrosine are non-essential amino acids, meaning they can be synthesized by the body.
However, essential amino acids must be obtained from diet, making the reason true but assertion false.

Q149 Assertion (A): The surface winds spiral inwards upon the centre of the cyclone.
Reason (R): Air descends in the centre of the cyclone.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A

Explanation:
In a cyclone, surface winds spiral inward due to low pressure.
However, air rises in the centre, not descends.
So both statements are true, but reason does not explain the assertion.

Q150 Assertion (A): An iron ball floats on mercury but gets immersed in water.
Reason (R): The specific gravity of iron is more than that of mercury.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Iron floats on mercury because mercury’s density is greater than iron’s, despite iron being denser than water.
So the assertion is correct, but the reason is false—iron’s specific gravity is less than mercury’s, not more.