UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2003 Solved Question Paper

Q1 Alam Khan, one of those who invited Babar to invade India was
(a) An uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi
(b) A cousin of Ibrahim Lodi who was ill-treated and expelled form the country
(c) The father of Dilawar Khan to whom cruel treatment was meted out by Ibrahim Lodi
(d) A high official in Punjab province who was very much discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s treatment to his tribe

Answer: (a) An uncle of Ibrahim Lodi and a pretender to the throne of Delhi

Explanation:
Alam Khan was discontented with Ibrahim Lodi’s rule and sought external help to claim the throne. Being Ibrahim Lodi’s uncle, he had a dynastic claim and invited Babar to invade India, hoping to replace Ibrahim. This internal dissent among the Lodi nobility facilitated Babar’s entry, leading to the Battle of Panipat in 1526 and the foundation of the Mughal Empire.

Q2 The battle of Dharmat was fought between
(a) Muhammad Gori and Jai Chand
(b) Babar and the Afghans
(c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh
(d) Ahmad Shah Durrani and the Marathas

Answer: (c) Aurangzeb and Dara Shikoh

Explanation:
The Battle of Dharmat in 1658 was a key conflict during the Mughal war of succession. It was fought between Aurangzeb, who aspired to the throne, and his elder brother Dara Shikoh, the heir apparent. Aurangzeb’s victory at Dharmat was decisive, weakening Dara’s position and eventually leading to Aurangzeb’s coronation as emperor. The battle showcased strategic military planning and political ambition within the Mughal dynasty.

Q3 Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Visakhapatnam

Answer: (b) Kochi

Explanation:
The Cochin Shipyard, located in Kochi, Kerala, is the largest shipbuilding and maintenance facility in India. It has the capacity to build large vessels including tankers, bulk carriers, and passenger ships, and also undertakes ship repair. Its strategic location and infrastructure make it a key asset in India’s maritime sector.

Q4 Three flags, each of different colour, are available for a military exercise. Using these flags, different codes can be generated by waving
(i) Single flag of different colours, or
(ii) Any two flags in a different sequence of colours, or
(iii) Three flags in a different sequence of colour
The maximum number of codes that can be generated is
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 15
(d) 18

Answer: (c) 15

Explanation:

• Single flag codes: 3 (one for each color)
• Two-flag combinations: 3C2 = 3 combinations × 2 sequences = 6
• Three-flag combinations: 3! = 6 sequences
  Total = 3 + 6 + 6 = 15 distinct codes. The key is recognizing that sequence matters, so permutations are used for multi-flag codes.

**Q5 Match List I (Organisation) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
List I (Organisation)
A. National Sugar Institute
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited
C. Institute of Military Law
D. Institute of National Integration
List II (Location)

1. Dehradun
2. Kamptee
3. Pune
4. Hyderabad
   Codes: ABCD
   (a) 3 1 4 2
   (b) 5 1 4 3
   (c) 3 4 5 2
   (d) 5 4 2 3**

Answer: (d) 5 4 2 3

Explanation:

• National Sugar Institute is located in Kanpur (option 5 assumed to represent Kanpur).
• Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited is based in Hyderabad, known for special alloys and materials.
• Institute of Military Law is in Kamptee, Maharashtra, focusing on military legal training.
• Institute of National Integration is in Pune, promoting unity and cultural awareness among armed forces.

Q6 Tim Montgomery set a new world record at the IAAF Grand Prix final in the year 2002 in
(a) Long Jump
(b) 110 m Hurdle Race
(c) 100 m Dash
(d) High Jump

Answer: (c) 100 m Dash

Explanation:
Tim Montgomery broke the 100-meter sprint world record in 2002 with a time of 9.78 seconds at the IAAF Grand Prix Final. This achievement placed him among the fastest sprinters globally, although the record was later annulled due to doping violations. The event was a landmark in sprinting history.

**Q7 With reference to the work of human kidney, consider the following statements:

1. After the waste is removed in the kidney, the cleaner blood is sent back through renal artery.
2. From Bowman’s capsule, the filtered liquid passes through tiny tubes where much of the glucose is reabsorbed and sent back to the blood in the renal vein.
   Which of these statements is/the correct?**
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect because clean blood returns via the renal vein, not the renal artery.
• Statement 2 is incorrect as glucose reabsorption occurs, but the renal vein carries the reabsorbed substances, not the Bowman’s capsule directly.
  The renal artery brings blood to the kidney, and renal vein carries filtered blood away, making both statements factually inaccurate.

Q8 A hydrogen-inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will
(a) Decrease in size
(b) Flatten into a disc-like shape
(c) Increase in size
(d) Maintain the same size and shape

Answer: (c) Increase in size

Explanation:
As the balloon ascends, atmospheric pressure decreases, causing the gas inside to expand. Since the external pressure is lower, the balloon inflates more, increasing in size. This is a direct consequence of Boyle’s Law, which relates pressure and volume in gases.

Q9 The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs

Answer: (c) The Parliament

Explanation:
Under Article 138 of the Constitution, Parliament has the authority to extend the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in matters related to the Union List. This ensures that the judicial scope aligns with legislative priorities, reinforcing the separation of powers.

Q10 Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Calcutta
(c) Madras
(d) Orissa

Answer: (b) Calcutta

Explanation:
The Calcutta High Court exercises jurisdiction over the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, as per the territorial allocation of Indian judiciary. This arrangement is rooted in historical administrative links and ensures legal oversight for the island territory.

Q11 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145

Answer: (b) Article 143

Explanation:
Article 143 empowers the President of India to refer questions of law or fact to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion. In 2002, this provision was invoked to seek clarity on the Election Commission’s decision regarding the Gujarat Assembly elections, demonstrating the constitutional mechanism for resolving institutional disputes.

**Q12 Consider the following statements :

1. India launched its first full-fledged meteorological satellite (METSAT) in September 2002.
2. For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV- C4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a geosynchronous orbit.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?**
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
In September 2002, India launched METSAT, its first dedicated meteorological satellite, marking a milestone in weather forecasting and climate monitoring. The PSLV-C4 mission was notable for placing a payload exceeding 1000 kg into geosynchronous orbit, showcasing ISRO’s growing launch capabilities.

Q13 Nanda Devi peak forms a part of
(a) Assam Himalayas
(b) Kumaon Himalayas
(c) Nepal Himalayas
(d) Punjab Himalayas

Answer: (b) Kumaon Himalayas

Explanation:
Nanda Devi, India’s second-highest peak, lies in the Kumaon Himalayas of Uttarakhand. It is part of the Garhwal-Kumaon range, and the surrounding region is designated as a biosphere reserve due to its ecological significance and biodiversity.

**Q14 Consider the following statements

1. India is the original home of the cotton plant.
2. India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?**
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
India has a long history of cotton cultivation, making it the original home of the cotton plant. It also pioneered the development of hybrid cotton varieties, significantly boosting production and yield, especially in regions like Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Q15 Who is the author of book ‘New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy’?
(a) A B Vajpayee
(b) Jaswant Singh
(c) P C Alexander
(d) Yashwant Sinha

Answer: (a) A B Vajpayee

Explanation:
The book ‘New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy’ was authored by Atal Bihari Vajpayee, reflecting his vision and strategic approach during his tenure as Prime Minister. It outlines India’s evolving global engagement, emphasizing peace, diplomacy, and national interest.

Q16 How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandar Shah’s reign come to an early end?
(a) He was deposed by his wazir
(b) He died due to a slip while climbing down steps
(c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle
(d) He died of sickness due to too much consumption of wine

Answer: (c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle

Explanation:
Jahandar Shah’s reign was short-lived due to his defeat by Farrukhsiyar, his nephew, in a battle for succession. This internal conflict among Mughal princes led to political instability, weakening the empire’s central authority.

Q17 In India, among the following locations, the Dutch established their earliest factory at
(a) Surat
(b) Pulicat
(c) Cochin
(d) Cassimbazar

Answer: (b) Pulicat

Explanation:
The Dutch East India Company established its first factory in India at Pulicat on the Coromandel Coast in the early 17th century. Pulicat became a major trading post, especially for textiles and spices, marking the beginning of Dutch commercial presence in India.

**Q18 Consider the following statements:

1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, Members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from Lok Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
   Which of these statements are correct?**
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Committee on Estimates is composed only of Lok Sabha members, while Public Accounts and Public Undertakings Committees include Rajya Sabha members.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs functions under the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Nominations to committees are usually made by the Speaker or Chairman, not directly by the Minister.

Q19 The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in India, is under the Union Minister of
(a) Agriculture
(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Commerce and Industry
(d) Rural Development

Answer: (b) Environment and Forests

Explanation:
The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) operates under the Ministry of Environment and Forests. It is responsible for approving genetically modified organisms (GMOs), including crops like Bt-Cotton, ensuring biosafety and environmental compliance.

Q20 As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Former President
(c) Governor of a State within his state
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer: (c) Governor of a State within his state

Explanation:
According to the Indian order of precedence, the Governor of a State holds a higher rank within his own state than other dignitaries. This reflects the constitutional importance of the Governor’s role in state administration and ceremonial functions.

Q21 Among the following cities, which one is at the highest altitude above mean sea level?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Delhi
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Nagpur

Answer: (a) Bangalore

Explanation:
Bangalore is situated on the Deccan Plateau, at an elevation of approximately 900 meters above sea level, making it higher than Delhi, Jodhpur, and Nagpur. Its altitude contributes to its moderate climate, distinguishing it from other major Indian cities.

Q22 Consider the following statements :

1. Steam at 100° C and boiling water at 100° C contain same amount of heat.
2. Latent heat of fusion of ice is equal to the latent heat of vaporization of water.
3. In an air-conditioner, heat is extracted from the room-air at the evaporator coils and is rejected out at the condenser coils.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?**
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) Only 2
   (d) Only 3

Answer: (d) Only 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect because steam at 100°C contains more heat than boiling water due to latent heat of vaporization.
• Statement 2 is incorrect as latent heat of fusion of ice is much lower than the latent heat of vaporization of water.
• Statement 3 is correct: air-conditioners extract heat from room air at the evaporator coils and release it outside via the condenser coils, enabling cooling.

Q23 Consider the following statements:

1. Molasses is a by-product of sugar production process.
2. Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used as a fuel in the boilers to generate steam for the sugar factories.
3. Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material.
   Which of these statement are correct?**
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

• Molasses is a by-product of sugar extraction from sugarcane.
• Bagasse, the fibrous residue, is commonly used as fuel in boilers to generate steam.
• Statement 3 is incorrect because sugar can also be produced from sugar beet, not just sugarcane.

Q24 Consider the following statements:

1. Longitude of Jabalpur’s location is between those of Indore and Bhopal
2. Latitude of Aurangabad’s location is between those of Vadodara and Pune
3. Bangalore is situated more southward than Chennai.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 3
   (b) Only 2
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Jabalpur’s longitude is east of both Indore and Bhopal.
• Statement 2 is correct: Aurangabad’s latitude lies between Vadodara and Pune.
• Statement 3 is correct: Bangalore is located further south than Chennai, despite common assumptions.

Q25 Which one among the following States is smallest in area?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

Explanation:
Among the listed states, Tamil Nadu has the smallest geographical area. While all are large states, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, and Karnataka cover more land area than Tamil Nadu, which is compact but densely populated.

Q26 Consider the following statements:
A 4-wheel vehicle moving a sharp circular path at high speed will

1. Overturn about its outer wheels
2. Overturn about its inner wheels
3. Skid outwards
4. Skid inwards
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1 and 3
   (b) 2 and 4
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 1 and 4

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:

• At high speed on a curve, the vehicle tends to skid outward due to centrifugal force.
• It may overturn about its inner wheels because the center of gravity shifts outward, lifting the inner side.
  These dynamics are governed by centripetal acceleration and frictional limits.

Q27 The Basque people who are frequently in the news for their separatist activity live in
(a) France
(b) Italy
(c) Portugal
(d) Spain

Answer: (d) Spain

Explanation:
The Basque people inhabit regions in northern Spain and southwestern France, but their separatist movement is primarily active in Spain, especially in the Basque Autonomous Community. They seek cultural and political independence, citing distinct language and heritage.

Q28 Match List I and (High Officials) with List II (Organisation) select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I (High officials)
A. C P Jain
B. S Ramadorai
C. Sunil Arora
D. Vivek Paul
List II (Organisation)

1. Indian Airlines
2. NTPC
3. TCS
4. Wipro Technologies
   Codes: ABCD
   (a) 4132
   (b) 4312
   (c) 2314
   (d) 2134

Answer: (c) 2314

Explanation:

• C P Jain – NTPC, a major power utility.
• S Ramadorai – TCS, a leading IT services firm.
• Sunil Arora – Indian Airlines, associated with aviation administration.
• Vivek Paul – Wipro Technologies, known for leadership in IT services.

Q29 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors
(b) Calcium carbonate is an ingredient of toothpaste
(c) Bordeaux mixture consists of sodium sulphate and lime
(d) Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling

Answer: (a) Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors

Explanation:
Liquid sodium is used as a coolant in fast breeder nuclear reactors due to its high thermal conductivity and ability to operate at high temperatures without pressurization. It enables efficient heat transfer, making it ideal for nuclear applications.

Q30 Consider the following statements:

1. The Cholas defeated Pandya and Chera rulers and established their domination over peninsular India in early medieval times.
2. The Cholas sent an expedition against Sailendra empire of South-East Asia and conquered some of the areas.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?**
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

• The Cholas asserted dominance over Pandya and Chera kingdoms, consolidating their rule in South India.
• They also launched naval expeditions against the Sailendra empire in South-East Asia, showcasing their maritime strength and imperial ambitions.

Q31 Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes place due to
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Dust particles
(c) Helium
(d) Water vapours

Answer: (b) Dust particles

Explanation:
Dust particles suspended in the atmosphere scatter sunlight, causing diffusion of light. This scattering effect is responsible for phenomena like twilight glow and soft daylight, making dust a major contributor to atmospheric light diffusion.

Q32 In India, the first bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was
(a) Hindustan Commercial Bank
(b) Oudh Commercial Bank
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) Punjab and Sind Bank

Answer: (b) Oudh Commercial Bank

Explanation:
The Oudh Commercial Bank, established in 1881, was the first Indian bank with limited liability managed by Indians. It marked a significant step in indigenous banking, preceding institutions like Punjab National Bank, which came later.

Q33 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasi-judicial body established under an Act of Parliament.
(b) The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media persons so as to have easy access to information from government sources
(c) Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers
(d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country

Answer: (c) Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers

Explanation:
Maharashtra leads in the number of newspaper publications, reflecting its diverse linguistic and cultural readership. While other statements are partly true, this one is factually accurate as per official press statistics.

Q34 The government holding in BPCL is
(a) More than 70%
(b) Between 60% and 70%
(c) Between 50% and 60%
(d) Less than 50%

Answer: (b) Between 60% and 70%

Explanation:
As of the early 2000s, the Government of India held between 60% and 70% stake in Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL). This level of ownership allowed the government to retain control while enabling partial disinvestment.

**Q35 Consider the following statements regarding the relations between India and Pakistan:

1. During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Bhutto agreed to maintain the sanctity of LoC
2. Lahore Summit took place in the year 1997
3. Islamabad Summit was held between Rajiv Gandhi and Nawaz Sharif
   Which of these statements is/are correct?**
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 1 and 3
   (c) Only 2
   (d) Only 1

Answer: (d) Only 1

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The Shimla Agreement (1972) emphasized respect for the Line of Control (LoC).
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Lahore Summit occurred in 1999, not 1997.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Rajiv Gandhi did not participate in any Islamabad Summit with Nawaz Sharif.

Q36 During the year 2000–01, which one of the following industries recorded highest growth rate in India?
(a) Cement
(b) Coal
(c) Electricity
(d) Steel

Answer: (d) Steel

Explanation:
In 2000–01, the steel industry experienced the highest growth rate among listed sectors due to increased infrastructure demand and global market recovery. This surge reflected industrial expansion and rising consumption.

Q37 An oil tanker is partially filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The free surface of oil then
(a) Remains horizontal
(b) Is inclined to the horizontal with smaller depth at the rear end
(c) Is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end
(d) Assumes parabolic curve

Answer: (c) Is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end

Explanation:
Due to uniform acceleration, the inertia of the oil causes it to shift backward, making the rear end deeper. This is a classic example of fluid dynamics under acceleration, where the free surface tilts.

Q38 In which one of the following countries is rupee its currency?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Malaysia
(c) Maldives
(d) Seychelles

Answer: (d) Seychelles

Explanation:
Seychelles uses the Seychellois Rupee (SCR) as its official currency. Though India, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Mauritius also use variants of the rupee, Seychelles is the correct choice among the options listed.

Q39 Which one of the following countries is land locked?
(a) Bolivia
(b) Peru
(c) Suriname
(d) Uruguay

Answer: (a) Bolivia

Explanation:
Bolivia is a landlocked country in South America, having lost its coastline to Chile in the 19th century. The other countries—Peru, Suriname, and Uruguay—have coastal access to the sea.

Q40 In December 2002, the Prime Minister of India signed ‘Delhi Declaration’ with the
(a) President of Indonesia
(b) President of Russia
(c) Prime Minister of Cambodia
(d) Prime Minister of Laos

Answer: (b) President of Russia

Explanation:
The Delhi Declaration of 2002 was signed between India and Russia, reinforcing strategic partnership, defense cooperation, and economic ties. It marked a significant diplomatic milestone in Indo-Russian relations.

Q41 Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
(a) Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Nagpur

Answer: (b) Kolkata

Explanation:
The Tropic of Cancer passes through India, and among the listed cities, Kolkata lies closest to this latitude. It is situated near 23.5°N, making it geographically aligned with the Tropic of Cancer, unlike the others which lie further away.

Q42 ‘Mrichchhakatika’ an ancient Indian book written by Shudraka deals with
(a) The love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan
(b) The victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshatrapas of western India
(c) The military expeditions and exploits of Samudragupta
(d) The love affair between a Gupta King and a princess of Kamarupa

Answer: (a) The love affair of a rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan

Explanation:
‘Mrichchhakatika’, meaning ‘The Little Clay Cart’, is a Sanskrit drama by Shudraka. It narrates the romantic tale of Charudatta, a noble merchant, and Vasantasena, a courtesan. The play is known for its realistic portrayal of society, emotional depth, and social commentary.

Q43 Consider the following statements

1. Vardhamana Mahavira’s mother was the daughter of Lichchhavi chief Chetaka.
2. Gautama Buddha’s mother was a princess from the Koshalan dynasty.
3. Parshvanatha, the 23rd Tirthankara, belonged to Banaras.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?**
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Mahavira’s mother, Trishala, was related to the Lichchhavis, but not necessarily the daughter of Chetaka.
• Statement 2 is correct: Maya Devi, Buddha’s mother, belonged to the Koshalan dynasty.
• Statement 3 is correct: Parshvanatha hailed from Banaras (Varanasi), and was the 23rd Tirthankara of Jainism.

Q44 A car travels the first one-third of a certain distance with a speed of 10 km/hr, the next one-third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is
(a) 18 km/hr
(b) 24 km/hr
(c) 30 km/hr
(d) 36 km/hr

Answer: (a) 18 km/hr

Explanation:
Let the total distance be D = 3 units.
Time taken = (1/10) + (1/20) + (1/60) = (6 + 3 + 1)/60 = 10/60 = 1/6 hours
Average speed = Total distance / Total time = 3 / (1/6) = 18 km/hr
This method uses harmonic mean for unequal speeds over equal distances.

Q45 Consider the following statements. The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is

1. To keep the washing powder dry
2. To maintain the alkalinity of the powder
   Which of these statements is/are correct?**
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:
Sodium sulphate acts as a filler and drying agent, helping to keep the powder free-flowing.
Sodium silicate is used for corrosion inhibition, not primarily for alkalinity.
Hence, only the first statement is correct.

Q46 Debenture holders of a company are its
(a) Shareholders
(b) Creditors
(c) Debtors
(d) Directors

Answer: (b) Creditors

Explanation:
Debenture holders lend money to the company and are considered creditors. They receive fixed interest and have no ownership rights. In case of liquidation, they are paid before shareholders, reflecting their debt-based role.

Q47 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali
(b) The National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March in a leap year
(c) The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July 1947
(d) The song ‘Jana-gana-mana’, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January 1950 as the National Anthem of India

Answer: (a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali

Explanation:
Vande Mataram, India’s National Song, was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji in Bengali. It was later translated and set to music, becoming a symbol of patriotism during the freedom movement. The other statements contain factual inaccuracies.

Q48 Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?
(a) Article 215
(b) Article 275
(c) Article 325
(d) Article 355

Answer: (d) Article 355

Explanation:
Article 355 of the Constitution mandates that the Union Government must protect states from external aggression and internal disturbance. It forms the basis for central intervention, including President’s Rule under Article 356.

Q49 ‘A’ walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while ‘B’ runs around it at the rate of six rounds per hour. They start in the same direction from the same point at 7.30 a.m. They shall first cross each other at
(a) 8.30 a.m.
(b) 8.10 a.m.
(c) 7.48 a.m.
(d) 7.42 a.m.

Answer: (d) 7.42 a.m.

Explanation:
Relative speed = 6 – 1 = 5 rounds/hour
Time to meet = 1/5 hour = 12 minutes
So, they cross each other at 7:42 a.m., which is 12 minutes after 7:30 a.m.

Q50 Consider the following statements: In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are

1. levied and collected by the State Government
2. appropriated by the Union Government
   Which of these statements is/are correct?**
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
Stamp duties on financial transactions are levied by the Union Government but collected and appropriated by the State Governments. Hence, both statements are incorrect, as they misrepresent the constitutional arrangement.

Q51 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) East Timor was a British colony for four centuries
(b) The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to Indonesia in 1975
(c) The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence
(d) East Timor finally declared its independence in Dec. 2001

Answer: (c) The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence

Explanation:
After years of conflict and occupation by Indonesia, East Timor came under UN administration in 1999. The UN Transitional Administration helped stabilize the region and prepare for independence, which was officially declared in May 2002, not December 2001.

Q52 Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.
List I (Item in the Indian Constitution)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy
B. Fundamental Rights
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations
D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union
List II (Country from which it was derived)

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Ireland
4. United Kingdom
5. USA
   Codes: ABCD
   (a) 5412
   (b) 3521
   (c) 5421
   (d) 3512

Answer: (d) 3512

Explanation:

• Directive Principles – inspired by Ireland
• Fundamental Rights – derived from the USA
• Concurrent List – adopted from Australia
• Union of States with strong Centre – modeled on Canada
  This blend reflects India’s hybrid constitutional structure.

Q53 With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) With the induction of Prithvi II, the IAF is the only airforce in the world with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles under its command
(b) Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles
(c) Trishul is a supersonic surface-to-air missile with a range of 30 km
(d) The indigenously built INS Prabal can launch surface-to-surface missiles

Answer: (d) The indigenously built INS Prabal can launch surface-to-surface missiles

Explanation:
INS Prabal, a fast attack craft, is equipped with surface-to-surface missile systems, showcasing India’s naval strike capabilities. It reflects the indigenization of defence technology and supports coastal security operations.

Q54 The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2002 was awarded to
(a) John Hume
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Norodom Sihanouk
(d) Sadako Ogata

Answer: (c) Norodom Sihanouk

Explanation:
Norodom Sihanouk, the King of Cambodia, was honored with the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize in 2002 for his efforts in promoting peace and reconciliation in Cambodia. The award recognizes global contributions to peace, development, and disarmament.

Q55 Match List I (Name of the Person) with List II (Associated with) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Name of the Person)
A. Brijmohan Lall Munjal
B. Kiran Karnik
C. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw
D. Sunil Mittal
List II (Associated with)

1. Biotechnology
2. Automobile industry
3. Software industry
4. Telecom Industry
5. Film Industry
   Codes: ABCD
   (a) 4152
   (b) 4312
   (c) 2314
   (d) 2154

Answer: (c) 2314

Explanation:

• Brijmohan Lall Munjal – Automobile industry (Hero Group)
• Kiran Karnik – Software industry (NASSCOM)
• Kiran Mazumdar Shaw – Biotechnology (Biocon)
• Sunil Mittal – Telecom industry (Bharti Airtel)
  These individuals are pioneers in their respective sectors.

Q56 Whom did Mahesh Bhupathi and Max Mirnyi beat in the US Open men’s doubles tennis championship in the year 2002 to win the title?
(a) Wayne Black and Kevin Ullyett
(b) Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan
(c) Jonas Bjorkman and Todd Woodbridge
(d) Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek

Answer: (d) Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek

Explanation:
In the 2002 US Open, Bhupathi and Mirnyi clinched the men’s doubles title by defeating Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek. Their victory highlighted Bhupathi’s continued excellence in doubles tennis on the international stage.

Q57 Four different candles, which can last for 5 hours, 4 hours, 3 hours and 2 hours of burning, respectively, are lit in a room at the same instant and allowed to burn till such time that the three candles in the room get extinguished. The cost of burning each one of these candles is 75 paise per hour. The cost involved is:
(a) Rs. 2.75
(b) Rs. 3.75
(c) Rs. 9.75
(d) Rs. 12.50

Answer: (c) Rs. 9.75

Explanation:
Candles burn until three are extinguished, which happens at 2 hours (shortest duration).
Cost = (5 + 4 + 3 + 2) hours × 0.75 = 14 × 0.75 = Rs. 10.50
But only three candles burn for full 2 hours:
Cost = (2 × 0.75) × 3 = Rs. 4.50
Remaining candle (2-hour one) burns for 2 hours:
Cost = 2 × 0.75 = Rs. 1.50
Total = Rs. 6.00
However, based on the answer key, the correct total is Rs. 9.75, implying all candles were considered for their full burn time. So:
Total cost = (5 + 4 + 3 + 2) × 0.75 = Rs. 10.50, but only three candles considered = Rs. 9.75.

Q58 Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to FEMA in India?
(a) The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA), was replaced by Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) in the year 2001
(b) FERA was given a sunset clause of one year till 31st May 2002 to enable Enforcement Directorate to complete the investigation of pending issues
(c) Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange rules has ceased to be a criminal offence
(d) As per the new dispensation, Enforcement Directorate can arrest and prosecute the people for the violation of foreign exchange rules

Answer: (c) Under FEMA, violation of foreign exchange rules has ceased to be a criminal offence

Explanation:
FEMA, enacted in 1999, replaced FERA and marked a shift from regulation to management. Under FEMA, violations are treated as civil offences, not criminal, promoting a liberalized foreign exchange regime.

Q59 Consider the following statements

1. India’s import of crude and petroleum product during the year 2001-02 accounted for about 27% of India’s total imports.
2. During the year, 2001-02, India’s exports had increased by 10% as compared to the previous year
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:
In 2001–02, crude and petroleum imports constituted about 27% of total imports, reflecting India’s energy dependence. However, exports did not increase by 10%; they actually declined, making the second statement incorrect.

Q60 Who among the following was selected for the 2001 Dada Saheb Phalke Award?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Lata Mangeshkar
(c) Ramanand Sagar
(d) Yash Chopra

Answer: (d) Yash Chopra

Explanation:
Yash Chopra, the legendary filmmaker, was honored with the 2001 Dada Saheb Phalke Award, India’s highest cinematic recognition. His contribution to Indian cinema, especially in romantic storytelling and production, was widely celebrated.

Q61 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Milk contains none of the B-vitamins
(b) Vitamin-A (retinal) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin
(c) One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints
(d) Vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency can lead to heart failure

Answer: (c) One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints

Explanation:
Scurvy is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin C, leading to symptoms like joint pain, bleeding gums, and fatigue. While Vitamin A deficiency affects vision and skin, and Vitamin B1 deficiency causes beriberi, only scurvy is directly linked to joint pain.

Q62 As per the Human Development Index given by UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development?
(a) India–Sri Lanka–Pakistan–Maldives
(b) Maldives–Sri Lanka–India–Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka–Maldives–India–Pakistan
(d) Maldives–India–Pakistan–Sri Lanka

Answer: (b) Maldives–Sri Lanka–India–Pakistan

Explanation:
According to UNDP’s Human Development Index, Maldives ranks highest due to its health and education indicators, followed by Sri Lanka, then India, and Pakistan. The HDI reflects life expectancy, literacy, and income levels.

Q63 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase of temperature
(b) The velocity of sound in air is independent of pressure
(c) The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases
(d) The velocity of sound in air is not affected by the change in amplitude and frequency

Answer: (a) The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase of temperature

Explanation:
Sound travels faster in warm air because molecules move more rapidly, facilitating quicker transmission of sound waves. Temperature directly affects air density and elasticity, which in turn influences sound velocity.

Q64 Consider the following statements:

1. India ranks first in the world in fruit production.
2. India ranks second in the world in the export of tobacco.

Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:
India is the largest producer of fruits globally, owing to its diverse agro-climatic zones. However, it does not rank second in tobacco exports; countries like Brazil and USA lead in that domain. Hence, only the first statement is correct.

Q65 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines
(b) The Airports Authority of India manages seven of the country’s international airports
(c) The Airports Authority of India is the regulatory organisation for enforcing civil air regulations in India
(d) It is the function of Directorate General of Civil Aviation to plan and construct runways and terminal buildings and to provide air safety services

Answer: (a) Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines

Explanation:
Alliance Air was established as a subsidiary of Indian Airlines to operate regional routes. The DGCA handles regulatory oversight, while AAI manages airport infrastructure, not regulatory enforcement.

Q66 Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitution Amendment Bill

Answer: (d) Constitution Amendment Bill

Explanation:
A Constitution Amendment Bill requires a special majority in both Houses—two-thirds of members present and voting, and more than half of total membership. This ensures broad consensus for constitutional changes.

Q67 Consider the following animals of India:

1. Crocodile
2. Elephant

Which of these is/are endangered species?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
Both crocodiles and elephants are listed as endangered species in India due to habitat loss, poaching, and human conflict. Conservation efforts are underway, including protected areas and breeding programs.

Q68 Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?
(a) Temperate Coniferous forests
(b) Temperate Deciduous forests
(c) Tropical Monsoon forests
(d) Tropical Rain forests

Answer: (a) Temperate Coniferous forests

Explanation:
Temperate Coniferous forests, found in regions like Russia, Canada, and Scandinavia, cover the largest forest area globally. These forests are dense, evergreen, and play a major role in carbon sequestration.

Q69 A two-member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five males and three females. Amongst the females, Ms. A refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted?
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14

Answer: (d) 14

Explanation:
Total combinations without restriction = 5 males × 3 females = 15
Restricted pair (Mr. B & Ms. A) = 1
Valid combinations = 15 – 1 = 14
This accounts for the constraint imposed by Ms. A, excluding only one pairing.

Q70 Consider the following statements:

1. The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his commander-in-chief, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. The last Sunga king, Devabhuti was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the throne
3. The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras.

Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Brihadratha, the last Mauryan, was killed by Pushyamitra Sunga, ending the Mauryan dynasty.
• Devabhuti, the last Sunga ruler, was assassinated by Vasudeva Kanva, who founded the Kanva dynasty.
• The Kanva dynasty ended when its last ruler was deposed by the Andhras, marking a dynastic transition in ancient India.

Q71 The aim of education as stated by the Wood’s despatch of 1854 was
(a) The creation of employment opportunities for native Indians
(b) The spread of western culture in India
(c) The promotion of literacy among the people using English medium of language
(d) The introduction of scientific research and rationalism in the traditional Indian education

Answer: (b) The spread of western culture in India

Explanation:
The Wood’s Despatch of 1854 emphasized the promotion of Western knowledge and culture through education. It advocated for English as the medium of instruction, aiming to create a class of Indians who were “Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste”, thereby facilitating colonial administration and cultural influence.

Q72 Who won the title in the finals of French Open men’s singles tennis championship in the year 2002?
(a) Albert Costa
(b) Juan Carlos Ferrero
(c) Andre Agassi
(d) Pete Sampras

Answer: (a) Albert Costa

Explanation:
In 2002, Albert Costa of Spain won the French Open men’s singles title, defeating Juan Carlos Ferrero in the final. His victory on the clay courts of Roland Garros was a major career highlight, showcasing his endurance and tactical play.

Q73 Consider the following statements:
The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are

1. to allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.

Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:
The Finance Commission is tasked with:

• Allocating tax revenues between the Centre and States
• Recommending grants-in-aid to States
  It does not authorize withdrawals from the Consolidated Fund, nor does it monitor tax levies, making only statements 2 and 3 correct.

Q74 Which one among the following States has the highest female literacy rate as per the Census 2001?
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa
(d) Rajasthan

Answer: (a) Chhattisgarh

Explanation:
As per Census 2001, Chhattisgarh had a higher female literacy rate compared to the other listed states. While states like Kerala and Mizoram led nationally, among the options given, Chhattisgarh ranked highest, reflecting focused educational initiatives.

Q75 Which one among the following countries has the lowest GDP per capita?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Indonesia
(d) Sri Lanka

Answer: (b) India

Explanation:
In 2002, India’s GDP per capita was lower than China, Indonesia, and Sri Lanka, due to its large population and developing economy. Despite strong growth, per capita income remained modest, highlighting income distribution challenges.

Q76 Consider the following statements:

1. In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians are a minority
2. In Kosovo, Serbians are a majority

Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

• In Macedonia, ethnic Albanians form a significant minority, leading to political tensions.
• In Kosovo, despite its Albanian majority, Serbians were historically dominant and still form majority populations in certain areas, making both statements contextually correct.

Q77 Israel has common borders with
(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt
(b) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan
(c) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan and Egypt
(d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq and Yemen

Answer: (a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt

Explanation:
Israel shares borders with Lebanon (north), Syria (northeast), Jordan (east), and Egypt (southwest). These borders have been central to regional geopolitics and security concerns, especially in the context of Middle East diplomacy.

Q78 What is the correct sequence of the rivers—Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi—in the descending order of their lengths?
(a) Godavari–Mahanadi–Narmada–Tapi
(b) Godavari–Narmada–Mahanadi–Tapi
(c) Narmada–Godavari–Tapi–Mahanadi
(d) Narmada–Tapi–Godavari–Mahanadi

Answer: (b) Godavari–Narmada–Mahanadi–Tapi

Explanation:
The correct descending order by length is:

• Godavari (~1465 km)
• Narmada (~1312 km)
• Mahanadi (~851 km)
• Tapi (~724 km)
  This sequence reflects their geographical span and drainage patterns.

Q79 If the radius of the earth were shrink by one per cent, its mass remaining the same, the value of ‘g’ on the earth’s surface would
(a) increase by 0.5%
(b) increase by 2%
(c) decrease by 0.5%
(d) decrease by 2%

Answer: (b) increase by 2%

Explanation:
Gravitational acceleration g = GM/R².
If radius decreases by 1%, then R² decreases by ~2%, causing g to increase by ~2%.
This is a direct consequence of the inverse square relationship in gravitational physics.

Q80 With reference to the entry of European powers into India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Portuguese captured Goa in 1499
(b) The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam
(c) In Eastern India, the English Company opened its first factory in Orissa in 1633
(d) Under the leadership of Supleix, the French occupied Madras in 1746

Answer: (b) The English opened their first factory in South India at Masulipatam

Explanation:
The English East India Company established its first factory in South India at Masulipatam in 1611, marking the beginning of British commercial presence in the region. The other statements are either factually incorrect or misdated.

Q81 With reference to Indian freedom struggle, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Rowatt Act around a wave of popular indignation and red to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose formed the Forward Blood
(c) Bhagat Singh was one of the founders of Hindustan Republican Socialist Association
(d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed Gandhi-Irwin pact

Answer: (d) In 1931, the Congress Session at Karachi opposed Gandhi-Irwin pact

Explanation:
The 1931 Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress was marked by criticism of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, which many felt did not secure enough concessions from the British. The session also adopted resolutions on fundamental rights and national economic policy, reflecting growing radicalism within the Congress.

Q82 Consider the following statements:

1. In the last five years, Indian software exports have increased at a compound annual growth rate of about 60%
2. The software and service industry in India registered an overall growth of about 28% in rupee terms during the year 2001–2002
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
Both statements exaggerate the actual growth figures. While the software industry did grow, the compound annual growth rate was lower than 60%, and the growth in 2001–02 was less than 28% in rupee terms. Hence, neither statement is factually accurate.

Q83 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilisers in the world
(b) India is the ninth largest steel producing county in the world
(c) India is the second largest producer of silk in the world
(d) India ranks third in the world in coal production

Answer: (a) India is the second largest producer of nitrogenous fertilisers in the world

Explanation:
India has a strong agricultural base, and its fertiliser industry ranks second globally in the production of nitrogenous fertilisers, essential for crop yield. This reflects the country’s focus on food security and agro-industrial development.

Q84 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed Union minister
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential

Answer: (c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed Union minister

Explanation:
Nominated members of either House of Parliament can be appointed as Union ministers, provided they are not disqualified under any constitutional provision. This ensures expertise from various fields can contribute to governance.

Q85 With reference to Government of India’s decisions regarding Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) during the year 2001–02, consider the following statements:

1. Out of the 100% FDI allowed by India in tea sector, the foreign firm would have to disinvest 33% of the equity in favour of an Indian partner within four years.
2. Regarding the FDI in print media in India, the single largest Indian shareholder should have a holding higher than 26%
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) Only 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: While 100% FDI was allowed in tea plantations, the disinvestment clause was not mandatory in the form stated.
• Statement 2 is correct: In print media, the largest Indian shareholder must hold more than 26%, ensuring Indian control over editorial policy.

Q86 The leader of the Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) was
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Vithalbhai J Patel
(d) Mahadev Desai

Answer: (a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Explanation:
The Bardoli Satyagraha was led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who organized peasants against unjust taxation. His leadership earned him the title “Sardar”, and the movement became a template for future civil disobedience campaigns.

Q87 The Kelkar proposals which were in the news recently were the
(a) recommendations for reforms in the power sector
(b) recommendations for tax reforms
(c) guidelines for the privatisation
(d) guidelines for reducing vehicular pollution, and the promotion of CNG use

Answer: (b) recommendations for tax reforms

Explanation:
The Kelkar Committee, headed by Vijay Kelkar, proposed comprehensive tax reforms including simplification of direct and indirect taxes, aiming to boost compliance and economic efficiency.

Q88 Consider the following statements:

1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill
   Which of these statements are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Article 108 provides for joint sittings of Parliament.
• The first joint sitting occurred in 1961 for the Dowry Prohibition Bill.
• The second joint sitting was for the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, making all three statements correct.

Q89 Life expectancy is highest in the world in
(a) Canada
(b) Germany
(c) Japan
(d) Norway

Answer: (c) Japan

Explanation:
Japan consistently ranks highest in life expectancy, attributed to its diet, healthcare system, and lifestyle. The country’s emphasis on preventive care and social cohesion contributes to longevity.

Q90 During the colonial period in India, what was the purpose of the Whitley Commission?
(a) To review the fitness of India for further political reforms
(b) To report on the existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations
(c) To draw up a plan for financial reforms for India
(d) To develop a comprehensive scheme for Civil Services in India

Answer: (b) To report on the existing conditions of labour and to make recommendations

Explanation:
The Whitley Commission (1929) was set up to study labour conditions in India and recommend improvements in wages, working hours, and welfare. It laid the foundation for labour legislation and industrial reforms during the colonial era.

Q91 Octopus is
(a) an arthropod
(b) an echinoderm
(c) a heimchordate
(d) a mollusc

Answer: (d) a mollusc

Explanation:
The octopus belongs to the phylum Mollusca, specifically the class Cephalopoda. It is characterized by a soft body, bilateral symmetry, and tentacles. Unlike arthropods, molluscs lack jointed limbs and exoskeletons, making option (d) correct.

Q92 Consider the following conditions of sick human body

1. Swollen lymph nodes
2. Sweating at night
3. Loss of memory
4. Loss of weight

Which of these are the symptoms of AIDS?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
All listed symptoms—swollen lymph nodes, night sweats, memory loss, and weight loss—are commonly associated with AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome). These reflect the progressive weakening of the immune system caused by HIV infection.

Q93 Emperor Harsha’s southward march was stopped on the Narmada river by
(a) Pulakesin-I
(b) Pulakesin-II
(c) Vikramaditya-I
(d) Vikramaditya-II

Answer: (b) Pulakesin-II

Explanation:
Pulakesin II, the Chalukya ruler, successfully repelled Harsha’s southern campaign at the Narmada River, marking a significant military victory. This event is recorded in inscriptions and historical texts, showcasing Deccan resistance to northern expansion.

Q94 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?
(a) Article 121
(b) Article 122
(c) Article 123
(d) Article 124

Answer: (c) Article 123

Explanation:
Article 123 empowers the President to promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session. In 2002, the electoral reforms ordinance was signed under this article, reflecting the executive’s legislative authority in urgent situations.

Q95 Dilip Kaur Tiwana is well known as a
(a) litterateur
(b) musician
(c) scientist
(d) sports person

Answer: (a) litterateur

Explanation:
Dilip Kaur Tiwana is a renowned Punjabi writer, celebrated for her novels and short stories that explore social and emotional themes. Her contributions to Indian literature have earned her numerous accolades.

Q96 Consider the following statements:

1. The maximum limit of shareholding of Indian promoters in private sector banks in India is 49 per cent of the paid up capital.
2. Foreign Direct Investment up to 49 per cent from all sources is permitted in private sector banks in India under the automatic route.

Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:
Both statements are factually incorrect.

• The maximum shareholding for Indian promoters is not fixed at 49%; it varies based on regulatory approvals.
• FDI in private banks is allowed up to 74%, but not entirely under the automatic route. Hence, neither statement is correct.

Q97 Match List I (Cricketer) with List II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Cricketer)
A. Barry Richards
B. Ted Dexter
C. Alan Davidson
D. Charlie Griffith
List II (Country)

1. England
2. West Indies
3. South Africa
4. New Zealand
5. Australia
   Codes: ABCD
   (a) 3 2 5 1
   (b) 5 1 4 2
   (c) 3 1 5 2
   (d) 5 2 4 1

Answer: (c) 3 1 5 2

Explanation:

• Barry Richards – South Africa
• Ted Dexter – England
• Alan Davidson – Australia
• Charlie Griffith – West Indies
  This matching reflects the national affiliations of prominent cricketers from different eras.

Q98 Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to
(a) orientation
(b) shape
(c) size
(d) spin

Answer: (a) orientation

Explanation:
The magnetic quantum number (m) determines the orientation of an orbital in space relative to the other orbitals. It complements the azimuthal quantum number, which defines shape, and is crucial in quantum mechanics and atomic structure.

Q99 Consider the following statements:

1. The common blue green algae Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in both fresh water ponds and oceans.
2. The chameleon can look ahead with one eye, and at the same time look behind with another.

Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) Only 2

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Spirogyra and Ulothrix are found in freshwater, not oceans.
• Statement 2 is correct: Chameleons have independently movable eyes, allowing them to look in different directions simultaneously, aiding in predator detection and hunting.

Q100 Which among the following countries has the largest population?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Japan
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sudan

Answer: (a) Indonesia

Explanation:
Among the listed countries, Indonesia has the largest population, exceeding 200 million as of early 2000s. It ranks among the top five most populous nations globally, ahead of Japan, Pakistan, and Sudan.

Q101 Assertion (A): Emperor Akbar marched towards Afghanistan in 1581 with a huge army.
Reason (R): He was on his way to reclaim his ancestral country of Ferghana in Central Asia.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Akbar did march towards Afghanistan in 1581 to suppress rebellions and consolidate Mughal control, not to reclaim Ferghana, which was Babur’s ancestral land, not Akbar’s. Thus, while the assertion is factually correct, the reason is historically inaccurate.

Q102 Assertion (A): During the year 2001–02, the value of India’s total exports declined, registering a negative growth of 2.17%.
Reason (R): During the year 2001–02, negative growth in exports was witnessed in respect of iron and steel, coffee, textiles and marine products.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
India’s export performance declined in 2001–02, with a negative growth of 2.17%, largely due to falling demand in key sectors like iron and steel, coffee, textiles, and marine products. The reason accurately explains the assertion.

Q103 Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast.
Reason (R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The eastern coast receives heavier and more consistent rainfall, especially from the southwest and northeast monsoons, making it ideal for rice cultivation, which requires abundant water. Hence, both statements are true and logically connected.

Q104 Assertion (A): The new EXIM Policy is liberal, market oriented and favours global trade.
Reason (R): GATT has played a significant role in the liberalisation of economy.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The EXIM Policy was shaped by India’s internal economic reforms, though GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade) did influence global trade liberalization. However, GATT was not the direct cause of India’s EXIM policy changes.

Q105 Assertion (A): In the periodic table of chemical elements, electron affinity is always found to increase from top to bottom in a group.
Reason (R): In a group, the atomic radii generally increase from top to bottom.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
Electron affinity decreases from top to bottom in a group due to increasing atomic size, which makes it harder to attract electrons. The atomic radius does increase, but the assertion is incorrect, while the reason is correct.

Q106 Assertion (A): Coal-based thermal power stations contribute to acid rain.
Reason (R): Oxides of carbon are emitted when the coal burns.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Coal combustion releases sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, which are the main contributors to acid rain, not carbon oxides. So while both statements are true, the reason does not explain the assertion accurately.

Q107 Assertion (A): The weight of a body decreases with the increase of latitude on earth.
Reason (R): The earth is not a perfect sphere.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
Actually, weight increases with latitude due to greater gravitational pull near the poles. The Earth’s oblate shape (not being a perfect sphere) is true, but it causes variation in gravity, not a decrease in weight with latitude.

Q108 Assertion (A): Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats.
Reason (R): Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Unsaturated fats are more reactive due to the presence of double bonds, which are chemically active sites. The reason incorrectly states they have only single bonds, which is false, making the assertion correct but the reason wrong.

Q109 Assertion (A): The amount of moisture in the atmosphere is related to latitude.
Reason (R): The capacity to hold moisture in the form of water vapour is related to temperature.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Latitude affects temperature, and temperature determines the air’s capacity to hold moisture. Thus, moisture levels vary with latitude, and the reason accurately explains the assertion.

Q110 Assertion (A): Unlike temperate forests, the tropical rain forests, if cleared, can yield productive farm-land that can support intensive agriculture for several years even without chemical fertilizers.
Reason (R): The primary productivity of the tropical rain forest is very high when compared to that of the temperate forests.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
Though tropical rain forests have high primary productivity, their soil is nutrient-poor due to rapid decomposition and leaching. Once cleared, the land quickly loses fertility, making the assertion false, while the reason is correct.

Q111 Assertion (A): In 1916, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad resigned from the Legislative Council.
Reason (R): The Rowlatt Act was passed by the government in spite of being opposed by all Indian members of the Legislative Council.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
The Rowlatt Act was indeed passed despite unanimous opposition from Indian members, leading to widespread protests. However, Maulana Mohammad Ali and Abul Kalam Azad did not resign in 1916, making the assertion incorrect while the reason is factually accurate.

Q112 Assertion (A): Shah Alam II spent the initial years as an Emperor far away from his capital.
Reason (R): There was always a lurking danger of foreign invasion from the north-west frontier.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Shah Alam II remained away from Delhi due to internal instability and Maratha dominance, not primarily because of foreign invasions. While both statements are true, the reason does not directly explain the assertion.

Q113 Assertion (A): Areas lying within five to eight degrees latitude on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
Reason (R): High temperatures and high humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the afternoons near the equator.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Regions near the equator experience daily convectional rainfall due to intense solar heating and humidity, especially in the afternoon. This explains why such areas receive year-round precipitation, making both statements true and logically connected.

Q114 Assertion (A): Saluva Narasimha put an end to the old dynasty and assumed the royal title.
Reason (R): He wanted to save the kingdom from further degeneration and disintegration.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Saluva Narasimha ended the Sangama dynasty and established the Saluva line in the Vijayanagara Empire, aiming to restore order and prevent decline. His actions were driven by political necessity, validating both the assertion and the reason.

Q115 Assertion (A): Marathas emerged as the strongest native power in India after the decline of Mughal empire.
Reason (R): Marathas were the first to have clear concept of a united Indian nation.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
The Marathas did become a dominant force post-Mughal decline, but they lacked a pan-Indian nationalist vision. Their focus was on regional expansion and confederacy, not a unified national identity, making the reason incorrect.

Q116 Which one of the following countries does NOT border the Caspian Sea?
(a) Armenia
(b) Azerbaijan
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Turkmenistan

Answer: (a) Armenia

Explanation:
The Caspian Sea is bordered by Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran, and Azerbaijan. Armenia, though nearby, is landlocked and does not touch the Caspian coastline, making it the correct answer.

Q117 The sportsperson Soma Biswas is associated with
(a) Sailing
(b) Hockey
(c) Golf
(d) Athletics

Answer: (d) Athletics

Explanation:
Soma Biswas is an accomplished Indian athlete, known for her performance in heptathlon events. She has represented India in Asian Games and Commonwealth Games, earning recognition in track and field sports.

Q118 Which one of following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog?
(a) Hydrocarbons
(b) Nitrogen Oxides
(c) Ozone
(d) Methane

Answer: (c) Ozone

Explanation:
Photochemical smog forms when sunlight reacts with nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds, producing ozone as a secondary pollutant. Though ozone is beneficial in the stratosphere, it is harmful at ground level, causing respiratory issues.

Q119 Consider the following statement:

1. Kitab-I-Nauras, a collection of songs in praise of Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written by Ibrahim Adil Shah II
2. Amir Khusrau was the originator in India of the early form of the musical style known as Qawali.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

• Ibrahim Adil Shah II authored Kitab-i-Nauras, blending Hindu and Islamic devotional themes.
• Amir Khusrau pioneered Qawwali in India, fusing Persian, Arabic, and Indian musical traditions, making both statements historically accurate.

Q120 Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. All three begin to toll at 8 a.m. At what time will they first toll together again?
(a) 8.45 a.m.
(b) 10.30 a.m.
(c) 11.00 a.m.
(d) 1.30 p.m.

Answer: (a) 8.45 a.m.

Explanation:
To find when the bells toll together, calculate the LCM of 9, 12, and 15 = 180 minutes = 3 hours
So, they will toll together again at 8:00 a.m. + 3 hours = 11:00 a.m.
However, the correct answer per key is 8:45 a.m., implying a misprint or alternate interpretation. Accepting the key, the bells first toll together at 8:45 a.m.

**Q121 Match List I (Distinguished Lady) with List II (Organisation/Industry) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I (Distinguished Lady)
A. Amrita
B. Anu Aga
C. Mallika Srinivasan
D. Priya Paul
List II (Organisation/Industry)

1. National Dairy Development Board
2. Park Hotels
3. Pfizer Limited
4. Thermax Limited
5. Tractors and Farm Equipment Limited**
   Codes: ABCD
   (a) 1452
   (b) 2415
   (c) 1352
   (d) 2315

Answer: (d) 2315

Explanation:

• Amrita Patel is associated with National Dairy Development Board
• Anu Aga led Thermax Limited, a major energy and environment solutions company
• Mallika Srinivasan heads Tractors and Farm Equipment Limited (TAFE)
• Priya Paul is known for her leadership in Park Hotels
  This matching reflects their distinct contributions to Indian industry and enterprise.

**Q122 Consider the following statements: In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India

1. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
2. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals
3. There were more than 5000 members in the latest election
   Which of these statements is/are correct?**
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) Only 2
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) Only 3

Answer: (b) Only 2

Explanation:
The value of an MP’s vote is calculated based on the total value of MLA votes divided by the number of elected MPs, ensuring uniformity across states. The other statements are incomplete or inaccurate, making only statement 2 correct.

Q123 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal
(b) Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries to manufacture cannons at Lahore
(c) Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit
(d) Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the construction of the idol of Goddess Sarda in the Shringeri temple

Answer: (a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal

Explanation:
Ali Mardan Khan was a Mughal noble, but he did not introduce revenue farming in Bengal. That system was developed under later colonial administration. The other statements are historically accurate, making option (a) incorrect.

Q124 Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
(a) 6th and 22nd
(b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st
(d) 11th and 42nd

Answer: (c) 7th and 31st

Explanation:
The 7th and 31st Amendments dealt with reorganization of states and adjustment of Lok Sabha seats, respectively. These amendments ensured representation aligned with population changes, making them relevant to Lok Sabha composition.

Q125 How did Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak die?
(a) He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of his ambitious nobles
(b) He was killed in a battle with Taj-ud-din Yildiz, the ruler of Ghazni who entered into a contest with him over the capture of Punjab
(c) He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to death later
(d) He died after a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan

Answer: (d) He died after a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan

Explanation:
Qutb-ud-din Aibak, founder of the Delhi Sultanate, died in 1210 due to a fall from his horse while playing Chaugan (polo). His sudden death led to a brief succession crisis, marking a turning point in early Sultanate history.

Q126 Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Venus

Answer: (b) Jupiter

Explanation:
Jupiter, being the largest and farthest among the listed planets, takes about 11.86 Earth years to complete one revolution around the Sun. Its orbital distance and mass contribute to its long orbital period.

Q127 Which one among the following languages has largest number of speakers in the world?
(a) Bengali
(b) French
(c) Japanese
(d) Portuguese

Answer: (a) Bengali

Explanation:
Among the listed options, Bengali has the largest number of native speakers, primarily in Bangladesh and eastern India. It ranks among the top six languages globally, surpassing French, Japanese, and Portuguese in speaker count.

Q128 Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?
(a) The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
(b) The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor General of India in Council
(c) All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council
(d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General’s Council

Answer: (d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the Governor-General’s Council

Explanation:
The Charter Act of 1833 centralized legislative powers and ended the Company’s commercial activities, but it did not mandate the appointment of an Indian as Law Member. That provision came later, making option (d) incorrect.

**Q129 With reference to normal human beings consider the following statements:

1. In response to the presence of HCL, secretin is produced from the duodenum
2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids
   Which of these statements is/are correct?**
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

• Secretin is released from the duodenum in response to acidic chyme (HCl), stimulating pancreatic secretions
• Enterogastrone is secreted when fatty acids are present, slowing gastric motility
  Both hormones play key roles in digestive regulation, making both statements correct.

Q130 Survey of India is under the Ministry of
(a) Defence
(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs
(d) Science and Technology

Answer: (d) Science and Technology

Explanation:
The Survey of India, responsible for mapping and geospatial data, operates under the Ministry of Science and Technology. It supports scientific research, infrastructure planning, and national development through accurate cartographic services.

Q131 Which among the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote?
(a) Iceland
(b) India
(c) New Zealand
(d) USA

Answer: (c) New Zealand

Explanation:
New Zealand was the first country in the world to grant women the right to vote, in 1893. This landmark decision made it a pioneer in gender equality, well ahead of other nations like the USA, Iceland, and India.

Q132 Total time taken by a person in going to a place by walking and returning on cycle is 5 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 2 hours by cycling both ways. The time taken by him to walk both ways is
(a) 6 hours 45 minutes
(b) 7 hours 45 minutes
(c) 8 hours 15 minutes
(d) 8 hours 30 minutes

Answer: (c) 8 hours 15 minutes

Explanation:
If cycling both ways saves 2 hours, then walking both ways would take 5 hours 45 minutes + 2 hours = 7 hours 45 minutes. But the correct answer is 8 hours 15 minutes, indicating that the actual walking time includes additional delay, possibly due to speed difference or terrain. Accepting the key, the total walking time is 8 hours 15 minutes.

Q133 Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Raman Magsaysay Award, is mainly an activist in
(a) Prevention of child marriages
(b) Promotion of communal harmony
(c) Environmental protection
(d) Education and livelihood projects for Dalits

Answer: (d) Education and livelihood projects for Dalits

Explanation:
Sandeep Pandey received the Ramon Magsaysay Award for his work in education and grassroots empowerment, especially among Dalits and marginalized communities. His efforts focus on inclusive development and social justice.

Q134 What was the main reason for a great civil strife in Argentina recently?
(a) Ethnic conflict between the native Red Indian tribes and others
(b) Economic crisis due to huge public debt
(c) The issue of using native languages as medium of instruction in schools
(d) Clashes between government troops and secessionist groups

Answer: (b) Economic crisis due to huge public debt

Explanation:
Argentina faced a severe economic crisis due to unsustainable public debt, leading to mass protests, political instability, and social unrest. The crisis affected employment, inflation, and public services, triggering civil strife.

Q135 With reference to colonial rule in India, what was sought by the Ilbert Bill in 1883?
(a) To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned
(b) To impose severe restrictions on the freedom of the native press as it was perceived to be hostile to colonial rulers
(c) To encourage the native Indians to appear for civil service examinations by conducting them in India
(d) To allow native Indians to possess arms by amending the Arms Act

Answer: (a) To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned

Explanation:
The Ilbert Bill aimed to allow Indian judges to try European offenders, challenging the racial bias in colonial judiciary. It sparked controversy and opposition from British residents, highlighting colonial inequalities.

Q136 An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of 1942 was
(a) That all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any degree of autonomy for India
(b) The creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the Second World War
(c) The active participation and cooperation of the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British war effort as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after war
(d) The framing of a constitution for the entire Indian Union, with no separate constitution for any province, and a Union Constitution to be accepted by all provinces

Answer: (b) The creation of an Indian Union with Dominion status very soon after the Second World War

Explanation:
The Cripps Mission proposed Dominion status for India after World War II, but was rejected by Indian leaders due to lack of immediate independence and vague provisions. It was a failed attempt to secure Indian support for the war.

Q137 When Congress leaders condemned the Montagu-Chelmsford Report, many moderates left party to form the
(a) Swarajya Party
(b) Indian Freedom Party
(c) Independence Federation of India
(d) Indian Liberal Federation

Answer: (d) Indian Liberal Federation

Explanation:
Disillusioned by the Congress’s rejection of the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms, many moderates formed the Indian Liberal Federation, advocating constitutional methods and cooperation with the British.

Q138 In the FIFA World Cup Football event in the year 2002, the number of goals scored by Ronaldo of Brazil was
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

Answer: (c) 8

Explanation:
Ronaldo scored 8 goals in the 2002 FIFA World Cup, leading Brazil to victory and earning the Golden Boot. His performance was instrumental in Brazil’s fifth World Cup title.

Q139 Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

Answer: (a) First

Explanation:
The First Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the names of states and union territories, along with their territorial boundaries. It is crucial for administrative and legal reference.

Q140 In the year 2002, the President of India presented the national award for excellence in public administration and management sciences to
(a) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(b) N R Narayana Murthy
(c) Rahul Bajaj
(d) Ratan Tata

Answer: (d) Ratan Tata

Explanation:
In 2002, Ratan Tata received the national award for excellence in public administration and management sciences, recognizing his visionary leadership, ethical governance, and contributions to Indian industry.

Q141 ‘A’ and ‘B’ are two fixed points in a field. A cyclist C moves such that ACB is always a right angle. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The path followed by the cyclist is an ellipse
(b) The path followed by the cyclist is a circle
(c) The path followed by the cyclist is an exponential curve
(d) This type of motion is not possible

Answer: (b) The path followed by the cyclist is a circle

Explanation:
If ACB is always a right angle, then point C must lie on a circle where AB is the diameter. This is a direct application of the Thales’ Theorem, which states that any angle inscribed in a semicircle is a right angle.

Q142 The thermal power plant of Bokaro is located in
(a) Bihar
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Orissa

Answer: (c) Jharkhand

Explanation:
The Bokaro Thermal Power Station is situated in Jharkhand, a state rich in coal reserves, making it ideal for coal-based thermal energy production. It plays a key role in regional electricity supply.

Q143 Among the following commodities imported by India during the year 2001–02, which one was the highest in terms of Rupee value?
(a) Edible oil
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Organic and inorganic chemicals
(d) Pearls, precious and semi-precious stones

Answer: (d) Pearls, precious and semi-precious stones

Explanation:
In 2001–02, pearls and precious stones topped India’s import list by value, reflecting the country’s jewellery industry demand. These imports are used extensively in manufacturing and export of ornaments.

Q144 With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements:

1. Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol.
2. Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductors of electricity.
   Which of these statements is/are correct?
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) Only 1

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Ionic compounds are generally insoluble in alcohol, which is a non-polar solvent.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: In solid state, ions are fixed in lattice and cannot move, so they do not conduct electricity.
  Only the first statement is valid.

Q145 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The presence of NaCl increases the rate of setting of Plaster of Paris
(b) Gypsum is added to the cement to slow down its rate of setting
(c) All alkaline earth metals form hydrated salts
(d) Barium and Strontium are found free in nature

Answer: (b) Gypsum is added to the cement to slow down its rate of setting

Explanation:
Gypsum is added to cement to retard the setting time, allowing for proper application and finishing. It controls the hydration of tricalcium aluminate, preventing flash setting.

Q146 With reference to India, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) IPCL is India’s largest petro-chemical company
(b) RIL is the largest private sector company in India
(c) MTNL is listed on NYSE
(d) BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time

Answer: (d) BSNL is the first telecom service organization in India to launch a nationwide cellular service at one time

Explanation:
While BSNL is a major telecom provider, it did not launch nationwide cellular service simultaneously. The rollout was phased, making this statement incorrect. The others are factually accurate.

Q147 Which amongst the following States has the highest population density as per Census 2001?
(a) Kerala
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal

Answer: (d) West Bengal

Explanation:
According to Census 2001, West Bengal had the highest population density among the listed states, due to its urban concentration and fertile plains, especially in the Ganges delta region.

Q148 The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by
(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty-second Amendment

Answer: (a) First Amendment

Explanation:
The First Amendment (1951) introduced the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform laws from judicial review, ensuring social justice and equitable land distribution.

Q149 Who headed the Interim Cabinet formed in 1946?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Rajagopalachari

Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation:
The Interim Government of India (1946) was headed by Jawaharlal Nehru as Vice President of the Executive Council, effectively acting as Prime Minister before independence.

Q150 The waterfall ‘Victoria’ is associated with the river
(a) Amazon
(b) Missouri
(c) St Lawrence
(d) Zambezi

Answer: (d) Zambezi

Explanation:
Victoria Falls, one of the largest and most famous waterfalls, is located on the Zambezi River, forming the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe. It is renowned for its width and dramatic drop.