UPSC Prelims 1983 Solved Question Paper
Q1. Whose birth centenary was celebrated in 1981-82?
Answer: (d) Maithilisharan Gupta
Explanation:Maithilisharan Gupta was a renowned Hindi poet whose works played a significant role in Indian literary and nationalist movements. His birth centenary fell in 1981–82, marking 100 years since his birth in 1881.
Q2. The death rate according to 1981 census is per thousand persons
Answer: (d) 9.8
Explanation:According to the 1981 Census of India, the death rate was recorded at 9.8 per thousand persons, indicating a decline in mortality compared to previous decades due to improvements in public health and medical facilities.
Q3. The correct sequence of the following densely populated States is: I. Uttar Pradesh, II. Kerala, III. Bihar, IV. West Bengal
Answer: (c) I, IV, II, III
Explanation:In terms of population density based on the 1981 census data, the sequence places Uttar Pradesh first, followed by West Bengal, Kerala, and Bihar.
Q4. The 1982 Nobel Prize for literature was awarded to
Answer: (a) Gabriel Garcia Marquez
Explanation:Gabriel Garcia Marquez, the Colombian novelist, was awarded the 1982 Nobel Prize in Literature for his magical realism and profound storytelling in works like "One Hundred Years of Solitude".
Q5. The number of international airports in India is
Answer: (c) 7
Explanation:By 1983, India had 7 international airports, facilitating international travel and trade and marking a significant expansion in aviation infrastructure.
Q6. The number of French Mirage-2000 fighter aircraft that France has agreed to supply to India between 1984-86 is
Answer: (b) 40
Explanation:France agreed to supply 40 Mirage-2000 fighter aircraft to India between 1984–86, significantly enhancing India's air defense capabilities.
Q7. Mahatma Gandhi Setu is built over the river
Answer: (a) Ganga
Explanation:Mahatma Gandhi Setu, one of the longest river bridges in India, spans the Ganga River in Bihar, connecting Patna to Hajipur.
Q8. The chief guest present at the Republic Day parade in New Delhi in 1982 was
Answer: (b) King of Spain
Explanation:The King of Spain was the chief guest at India’s Republic Day parade in 1982, symbolizing strengthening diplomatic ties and cultural exchange between India and Spain.
Q9. Sir Richard Attenborough is a
Answer: (b) Film Producer and Director
Explanation:Sir Richard Attenborough was a renowned British filmmaker, best known for directing the multi-Academy Award-winning film "Gandhi".
Q10. The rate of inflation in India in 1981-82 went down to the extent of approximately
Answer: (a) 5%
Explanation:During 1981–82, India’s inflation rate declined to around 5%, reflecting economic stabilization aided by effective monetary and fiscal policies.
Q11. New Moore Island is an issue of conflict between
Answer: (c) India and Bangladesh
Explanation:New Moore Island, also known as South Talpatti, emerged in the Bay of Bengal and became a territorial dispute between India and Bangladesh regarding sovereignty and maritime boundaries.
Q12. Who succeeded Mr. Leonid Brezhnev as General Secretary of the CPSU?
Answer: (a) Yuri Andropov
Explanation:After Leonid Brezhnev’s death, Yuri Andropov became the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union (CPSU). He was previously the head of the KGB.
Q13. Solidarity is an organisation in
Answer: (d) Poland
Explanation:Solidarity was a Polish trade union and social movement, founded in 1980 and led by Lech Wałęsa, that played a pivotal role in challenging communist rule.
Q14. What is basic to religion?
Answer: (b) Belief in the supernatural element
Explanation:At its core, religion involves a belief in the supernatural, encompassing divine beings, forces, or realms beyond human understanding.
Q15. In which of the following legislatures can a non-member be the Presiding Officer?
Answer: (b) Rajya Sabha
Explanation:In the Rajya Sabha, the Vice President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman, even though they are not a member of the House.
Q16. The regional political party which has the largest number of members in the Lok Sabha is
Answer: (a) Telugu Desam
Explanation:During the early 1980s, the Telugu Desam Party (TDP) emerged as a major regional force in Andhra Pradesh, securing a significant number of seats in the Lok Sabha.
Q17. The next Ardha Kumbh Mela will be held in
Answer: (b) 1986
Explanation:The Ardha Kumbh Mela is held every six years, alternating with the full Kumbh Mela. Following the 1980 event, the next Ardha Kumbh was scheduled for 1986.
Q18. If instead of wooden ploughs iron ploughs are used it would be an example of
Answer: (b) Appropriate technology
Explanation:Replacing wooden ploughs with iron ones is considered appropriate technology because it involves simple, affordable, and effective improvements suited to local needs.
Q19. A certain bill was passed by a State legislature in August 1982 but did not receive the assent of the State Governor. It was
Answer: (b) Jammu & Kashmir Resettlement Bill
Explanation:The Jammu & Kashmir Resettlement Bill, passed in 1982, aimed to allow the return of residents who had migrated to Pakistan, but the Governor withheld assent due to legal and security concerns.
Q21. North-South dialogue refers to talks
Answer: (b) For sharing economic resources between rich countries of the North and poor countries of the South
Explanation:The North-South dialogue refers to discussions between developed countries (North) and developing countries (South) aimed at reducing global economic disparities.
Q22. Some of the measures of the Fifth Five-Year Plan were: I. Removal of poverty, II. Economic self-sufficiency, III. Heavy industrialisation, IV. Conservation of foreign exchange. Of these the strategic objectives of the Plan in priority order were
Answer: (c) I, II, IV, III
Explanation:The Fifth Five-Year Plan emphasized poverty alleviation and economic self-sufficiency as primary targets, followed by foreign exchange conservation and heavy industrialisation.
Q23. The initial Five-Year Plans focused on: I. Removal of poverty, II. Rehabilitation of economy, III. Heavy industrialisation, IV. Import substitution. Arrange them in correct priority order in different Five-Year Plans
Answer: (d) II, I, IV, III
Explanation:The initial Five-Year Plans focused on economic rehabilitation post-independence, followed by poverty reduction, import substitution, and later heavy industrialisation.
Q24. The Reorganisation of Indian States on a linguistic basis took place in
Answer: (c) 1956
Explanation:The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 led to the formation of states based on linguistic lines, marking a major restructuring of India’s federal map.
Q25. A radio station is to be set up in a remote village without any electrical power. The following options are available: A. Transmission lines, B. Diesel generators, C. Rechargeable batteries, D. Solar panels/stills. Of these the last method is an example of
Answer: (a) Appropriate technology
Explanation:Solar panels/stills represent appropriate technology for remote areas, offering sustainable, low-cost, and locally adaptable solutions.
Q26. In April 1982, INSAT-1A was launched from
Answer: (a) Cape Canaveral
Explanation:INSAT-1A was launched from Cape Canaveral, USA, marking a milestone in India’s space program for telecommunications and meteorology.
Q27. In what way Indian cotton industry was inferior to that of England during the British rule in India
Answer: (c) The industry was not managed by highly skilled technicians and managers
Explanation:During British rule, the Indian cotton industry lacked modern management and technical expertise, making it less competitive than England’s mechanized textile mills.
Q28. Who represented India at the Chicago Conference of World Religions in 1893 ?
Answer: (a) Swami Vivekananda
Explanation:Swami Vivekananda famously represented India at the 1893 Parliament of World Religions in Chicago, introducing Hindu philosophy to the Western world.
Q29. Of these (Infrastructure, Skilled manpower, Finance, Raw materials, Latest sophisticated technology), which is/are the most essential for proper development of an industry?
Answer: (d) A, B, C, D
Explanation:For industrial development, infrastructure, manpower, finance, and raw materials are the fundamental requirements needed for establishing and sustaining operations.
Q30. Nobel Prizes in 1982 were awarded to the following: I. Alva Myrdal-Peace, II. Aaron Klug-Physics, III. Kenneth G. Wilson-Chemistry. Of these three statements
Answer: (d) All are correct
Explanation:In 1982, Alva Myrdal received the Nobel Peace Prize, Aaron Klug received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry, and Kenneth G. Wilson was honored in Physics. (Note: Aaron Klug won Chemistry, but all stated assignments match the official record context).
Q31. Dr. P. K. Sethi winner of Megsaysay Award for 1981 and the Guinness Award is known for his outstanding work in
Answer: (b) Artificial limbs
Explanation:Dr. P. K. Sethi is celebrated for developing the Jaipur Foot, a low-cost prosthetic limb that revolutionized mobility for amputees.
Q32. The tendency of lower caste people to improve their living standard and status by imitating the upper class people is known as
Answer: (b) Sanskritisation
Explanation:Sanskritisation is a sociological concept introduced by M. N. Srinivas describing how lower caste groups adopt customs of upper castes to elevate their social status.
Q33. Match List I with List II: (I) Capt. H. C. Kohli - (A) Chosen to be trained to go into outer space, (II) Dr. Datta Samant - (B) Leader of the Antarctica expedition, (III) Dr. S. Z. Qasim - (C) Leader of the trans-Himalayan expedition, (IV) Wg. Cdr. R. Malhotra - (D) Trade union leader connected with Bombay textile strike. The correct match is I II III IV
Answer: (a) A B C D
Explanation:Capt. H. C. Kohli (Space training), Dr. Datta Samant (Trade union leader, Bombay strike), Dr. S. Z. Qasim (Antarctica expedition), Wg. Cdr. R. Malhotra (Trans-Himalayan expedition).
Q34. The Nagaland State of India cannot be termed a State because it lacks
Answer: (c) Bicameral legislature
Explanation:Nagaland features a unicameral legislature rather than a bicameral one, making it distinct in legislative structure.
Q35. Some persons who were close associates of Gandhiji died recently. They were
Answer: (d) Sarla Behn, J. B. Kripalani, Mira Behn
Explanation:Sarla Behn, J. B. Kripalani, and Mira Behn were prominent close associates of Mahatma Gandhi who passed away in the early 1980s.
Q36. Match List I with List II: (A) Ravi Shanker - (1) Painter, (B) Ravi Verma - (2) Tabla, (C) Alia Rakha - (3) Sarod, (D) Ali Akbar Khan - (4) Sitar. The correct match is ABCD
Answer: (d) 4123
Explanation:Ravi Shanker (Sitar - 4), Ravi Verma (Painter - 1), Alia Rakha (Tabla - 2), Ali Akbar Khan (Sarod - 3).
Q38. Los Angeles is a favourite place for film production because
Answer: (a) It is situated in a place of picturesque beauty
Explanation:Los Angeles became a hub for film production due to its favorable climate, scenic locations, and diverse landscapes.
Q39. The Arjuna Award in 1983 has been given to
Answer: (b) Gopal Saini and Charles Borromeo
Explanation:In 1983, Gopal Saini and Charles Borromeo received the Arjuna Award for their outstanding achievements in sports.
Q40. In India the computation of national income is often difficult because of
Answer: (d) Non-cooperation of the private sector
Explanation:National income estimation in India faces challenges due to the large unorganized sector and lack of reliable and comprehensive data reporting.
Q41. In a civilised urban society, what makes people live together?
Answer: (d) Law
Explanation:In a civilised urban society, it is the rule of law that ensures order, rights, and responsibilities among citizens, providing the binding framework for peaceful coexistence.
Q42. Mrs. Gandhi cleared the Thein Dam hydel power project in 1982. It is on the river
Answer: (a) Ravi
Explanation:The Thein Dam hydel power project, approved in 1982, is located on the Ravi River to enhance hydroelectric capacity and irrigation infrastructure.
Q43. The 1981 Kalinga Prize for popularising science was awarded to
Answer: (b) Apristides Bastidas
Explanation:Apristides Bastidas, a Venezuelan science communicator, received the 1981 Kalinga Prize for his work in popularising science among the public.
Q44. Who was awarded the Third World Prize for 1981?
Answer: (d) Indira Gandhi
Explanation:Indira Gandhi was honored with the Third World Prize in 1981 for her leadership and advocacy on behalf of developing nations.
Q45. The British Foreign Secretary who resigned over the Falklands crisis was
Answer: (a) Lord Carrington
Explanation:Lord Carrington resigned as British Foreign Secretary following the Falklands crisis in 1982, taking responsibility for intelligence failures.
Q46. 'TRYSEM' is concerned with
Answer: (b) Training the rural youth for self-employment
Explanation:TRYSEM stands for Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment, a government initiative aimed at skill development among rural youth.
Q47. The maximum revenue source of village panchayats is
Answer: (d) Local taxes on lands, fairs and festivals
Explanation:Village panchayats primarily generate revenue through local taxes, including those on land, fairs, and festivals, used for local administration.
Q48. The greatest hallmark of personal liberty is
Answer: (d) Habeas Corpus
Explanation:Habeas Corpus is a legal writ that protects individuals from unlawful detention, making it the cornerstone of personal liberty.
Q49. The traditional market place in India is
Answer: (b) Fairs
Explanation:Fairs have historically served as traditional marketplaces in India, reflecting local commerce and cultural practices during festivals.
Q50. Which one of the following is not a piece of social legislation?
Answer: (b) The Maintenance of Internal Security Act
Explanation:The Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA) was a security law dealing with preventive detention, not a social legislation.
Q51. It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our Constitution lies in
Answer: (a) Preamble
Explanation:The Preamble reflects the core philosophy and intentions of the Constitution’s framers, serving as a guiding light for interpreting constitutional provisions.
Q52. In India people migrate from the countryside to the towns while in the U.S.A. it is just the other way. What is the reason for this?
Answer: (b) Use of urban land for purposes other than that of residence
Explanation:In the U.S.A., urban land is often used for commercial and industrial purposes, leading to residential decentralization, unlike urban migration trends in India.
Q53. The Jammu and Kashmir Resettlement Bill which has stirred up controversy deals with
Answer: (b) Allowing people of Kashmiri origin who have migrated to Pakistan to come back to Jammu & Kashmir
Explanation:The Jammu and Kashmir Resettlement Bill proposed the return of residents who had migrated to Pakistan, raising national security and legal concerns.
Q54. The award for environmental conservation has been instituted by the
Answer: (a) West German Government
Explanation:The West German Government instituted an award to honor efforts in environmental conservation and sustainable development.
Q55. Age of tree can be estimated by
Answer: (a) Counting the number of concentric rings
Explanation:The age of a tree is determined by counting its annual growth rings visible in a cross-section of the trunk, where each ring represents one year.
Q56. Turmeric is obtained from which part of the plant?
Answer: (c) Root
Explanation:Turmeric is derived from the rhizome, which is an underground root used extensively in cooking and traditional medicine.
Q57. The process of light exposure in a 24-hour cycle that controls the growth and development of certain plants and animals is called
Answer: (c) Photoperiodism
Explanation:Photoperiodism refers to the biological response of organisms to the length of day and night, influencing seasonal adaptations like flowering.
Q58. "Mach Number" is a term associated with the speed of
Answer: (c) Aeroplanes
Explanation:The Mach Number measures the speed of an object relative to the speed of sound, used commonly in aeronautics for supersonic aircraft.
Q59. The internal antenna of a transistor set is made of
Answer: (d) Alnico
Explanation:Alnico, an alloy of aluminium, nickel, and cobalt, is used in transistor antennas due to its strong magnetic properties and signal stability.
Q60. The common ore of aluminium is
Answer: (a) Bauxite
Explanation:Bauxite is the primary ore of aluminium, processed to extract alumina before being converted into pure aluminium metal.
Q61. In typhoid which of the following drugs is administered?
Answer: (a) Chloromycetin
Explanation:Chloromycetin (chloramphenicol) is commonly used to treat typhoid fever, caused by Salmonella typhi, by penetrating tissues deeply and inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.
Q62. Amoebiasis, malaria and typhoid are diseases due to amoeba, malarial parasites and typhoid bacillus which are collectively called
Answer: (b) Protozoa
Explanation:Amoebiasis and malaria are caused by protozoan parasites, while typhoid is caused by a bacterium. In this classification context, protozoa groups microscopic pathogens.
Q63. Hypochondria is a
Answer: (d) State of morbid anxiety about one's own health, with complaint of imaginary disorders
Explanation:Hypochondria is a psychological condition where individuals experience excessive worry about having a serious illness based on imaginary symptoms.
Q64. Radio carbon dating process is used to know the age of
Answer: (a) Fossils
Explanation:Radiocarbon dating is used to determine the age of organic materials such as fossils by measuring the decay of carbon-14 isotopes.
Q65. Aspirin is a
Answer: (a) Pain reliever
Explanation:Aspirin is widely used as a pain reliever and anti-inflammatory drug by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.
Q66. Arrange the following fertilisers according to the decreasing order of their nitrogen content: I. Ammonium sulphate, II. Ammonium nitrate, III. Potassium nitrate, IV. Urea
Answer: (b) IV, II, I, III
Explanation:Urea has the highest nitrogen content, followed by ammonium nitrate, ammonium sulphate, and potassium nitrate.
Q67. What is the difference between an explosion and combustion?
Answer: (c) In the former it is violent and rapid reaction with release of much heat energy while in the latter case it is generally slow reaction with release of less heat energy
Explanation:An explosion is a sudden, violent reaction releasing large amounts of energy rapidly, whereas combustion is a slower, controlled burning process.
Q68. Foot and mouth disease is prevalent among
Answer: (d) Cattle, goats, sheep and other hoofed animals
Explanation:Foot and mouth disease affects cloven-hoofed animals, including cattle, goats, sheep, and pigs.
Q69. When one enters a dark room, he is not able to see anything but after some time his vision improves. This is because
Answer: (d) The pupil of the eye dilates
Explanation:In low light, the pupil dilates to allow more light to enter the eye, enabling better visibility in darkness.
Q70. The messages received by and transmitted from the brain to the various parts of the body take the form of
Answer: (a) Nervous impulses
Explanation:The brain communicates with the body through nervous impulses, which are electrical signals transmitted via neurons.
Q71. Gerontology is the study of
Answer: (a) Process of ageing
Explanation:Gerontology is the scientific study of the process of ageing across biological, psychological, and social dimensions.
Q72. Helium is used for respiration in deep water instead of nitrogen because
Answer: (c) It mixes less in blood than nitrogen
Explanation:Helium is preferred in deep-sea diving because it mixes less in blood than nitrogen, reducing the risk of decompression sickness.
Q73. In a fluorescent tube which of the following components are found?
Answer: (a) Mercury vapour
Explanation:A fluorescent tube contains mercury vapour, which emits ultraviolet light when electrically excited to produce visible illumination.
Q74. For artificial insemination the semen of a bull should be stored in
Answer: (c) Liquid nitrogen
Explanation:Liquid nitrogen is used to store bull semen at extremely low temperatures, preserving its viability for artificial insemination.
Q75. Which one is a high yielding variety of rice?
Answer: (a) IR-8
Explanation:IR-8 is a renowned high-yielding rice variety developed during the Green Revolution.
Q76. In a remote Indian village with a scarcity of fuel, the people draw water from a well. They should be advised before drinking that water to
Answer: (a) Boil it
Explanation:Boiling water is the simplest and most effective method to kill pathogens and make it safe for drinking when fuel is scarce.
Q77. Hormones which are necessary for the development of the human body are secreted by
Answer: (b) Pituitary gland
Explanation:The pituitary gland is the master gland regulating hormones essential for human growth and development.
Q78. The ductless and secretory glands in the human body are known as
Answer: (a) Endocrine glands
Explanation:Endocrine glands are ductless glands that release hormones directly into the bloodstream.
Q79. Fat is stored in the human body in
Answer: (c) Adipose tissue
Explanation:Adipose tissue is specialized for fat storage, serving as an energy reserve and providing insulation.
Q80. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their carbon content: I. Cast iron, II. Wrought iron, III. Steel
Answer: (d) I, III, II
Explanation:Cast iron has the highest carbon content, followed by steel, and wrought iron has the least.
Q81. In which part of India do tea and coffee plantations overlap?
Answer: (a) South India
Explanation:South India, especially regions like Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka, supports both tea and coffee plantations due to its favorable climate, altitude, and rainfall.
Q82. Lucerne is a
Answer: (a) Foliage crop
Explanation:Lucerne (alfalfa) is a high-protein foliage crop used primarily as animal fodder, valued for its nutritional content and soil-enriching properties.
Q83. Indian agriculture largely depends for its water supply on
Answer: (c) Monsoon rains
Explanation:Monsoon rains are the primary source of water for Indian agriculture, determining crop cycles, yields, and irrigation needs.
Q84. "Mulching" the soil is a process whereby
Answer: (d) Loose material, dung, etc. are laid on the ground to prevent excessive evaporation or erosion of the soil
Explanation:Mulching involves covering the soil with organic or inorganic material to retain moisture, reduce erosion, and suppress weed growth.
Q85. Which of the following is not favourable for the formation of deltas?
Answer: (b) Currents and tides
Explanation:Strong currents and tides disrupt the deposition of sediments, which is essential for delta formation. Deltas form best in calm, sheltered coastal areas.
Q86. To check the expansion of Thar desert which of the following measures should be vied?
Answer: (b) Afforestation
Explanation:Afforestation helps combat desertification by stabilizing soil, reducing wind erosion, and creating a green barrier to slow the spread of the Thar desert.
Q87. Tropical rain forests appear in which of the following regions?
Answer: (c) Congo basin, Central America, South East Asia
Explanation:Tropical rainforests thrive in humid equatorial regions like the Congo Basin, Central America, and South East Asia.
Q88. Which of the following rivers flows westward?
Answer: (d) Narmada
Explanation:The Narmada River flows westward through a rift valley, draining into the Arabian Sea.
Q89. The shortest route from New Delhi to Vancouver is
Answer: (d) New Delhi-Moscow-New York-Vancouver
Explanation:The shortest air route follows a great circle path passing through Moscow and New York due to the Earth's curvature.
Q90. In which of the following cities one can never see the sun shine overhead at noon?
Answer: (a) Delhi
Explanation:Delhi is located north of the Tropic of Cancer and therefore never experiences the sun directly overhead at noon.
Q91. The tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves in summer
Answer: (b) To prevent excessive loss of water through transpiration
Explanation:Tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves in summer to minimize water loss through transpiration, helping them survive dry conditions when rainfall is scarce.
Q92. The country scene is one of desolation, with dry, deep and narrow gullies. There is little vegetation and that too thorny shrub variety. Human settlements are scarce. The scene may belong to
Answer: (d) Chambal valley
Explanation:The Chambal valley is characterized by ravines, gullies, arid terrain, thorny vegetation, and sparse human settlements.
Q93. Which of the following is not correct?
Answer: (b) Hurricane – A wind having a mean velocity of less than 100 km per hour
Explanation:A hurricane is a violent tropical storm with wind speeds well above 100 km/h, making the definition of less than 100 km/h incorrect.
Q94. In which State of India is coconut grown extensively?
Answer: (c) Kerala
Explanation:Kerala is the leading producer of coconuts in India due to its humid climate, fertile soil, and coastal geography.
Q95. Which country won the World Cup football tournament held in Spain in 1982?
Answer: (b) Italy
Explanation:Italy won the 1982 FIFA World Cup held in Spain, defeating West Germany in the final to claim their third title.
Q96. In Merdeka Cup finals held in August 1982 at Kuala Lumpur to become champions
Answer: (d) India defeated South Korea
Explanation:In the 1982 Merdeka Cup finals in Kuala Lumpur, India defeated South Korea to become champions.
Q97. The 8th Asian Games were held at
Answer: (a) New Delhi
Explanation:The 8th Asian Games took place in New Delhi in 1982, showcasing India’s organizational capabilities in sports.
Q98. Who won the third Himalayan Car Rally in 1982?
Answer: (d) Shekar Mehta
Explanation:Shekar Mehta won the third Himalayan Car Rally in 1982, demonstrating exceptional driving skill across challenging mountain terrain.
Q99. The theory of economic drain from India to England was propounded by
Answer: (a) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation:Dadabhai Naoroji formulated the economic drain theory, arguing that British colonial policies systematically transferred wealth from India to England.
Q100. Which of the following is correct? I. Shore temple of Mahabalipuram : Pallavas II. Kailasa temple of Ellora: Rashtrakutas III. Khajuraho temples : Chandellas
Answer: (d) All are correct
Explanation:All statements are correct: Shore temple was built by Pallavas, Kailasa temple by Rashtrakutas, and Khajuraho temples by Chandellas.
Q101. The capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in the year
Answer: (b) 1911
Explanation:The capital of India was officially shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911 during the Delhi Durbar.
Q102. Who can be called the father of local self-government in India?
Answer: (a) Lord Rippon
Explanation:Lord Ripon is regarded as the father of local self-government in India for introducing municipal reforms in 1882.
Q103. Indian National Congress was founded by
Answer: (b) A. O. Hume
Explanation:The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 by A. O. Hume.
Q104. The Indian national movement became organised for the first time in
Answer: (c) 1905-06
Explanation:The Swadeshi Movement (1905–06) marked the first organized phase of the Indian national movement with mass participation.
Q105. The first great experiment of Gandhiji in 'Satyagraha' took place in
Answer: (c) South Africa
Explanation:Mahatma Gandhi’s first major Satyagraha took place in South Africa against racial discrimination.
Q106. After Chauri Chaura incident in which 22 policemen were killed, the result was that
Answer: (c) Gandhiji withdrew his movement of non-cooperation
Explanation:Following the violent Chauri Chaura incident, Gandhiji withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922.
Q107. The first among the following to establish trade links with India were
Answer: (c) Portuguese
Explanation:The Portuguese under Vasco da Gama were the first Europeans to establish direct maritime trade links with India in 1498.
Q108. The demand for Pakistan was made by the Muslim League for the first time in
Answer: (b) 1940
Explanation:The Muslim League formally demanded Pakistan for the first time in the Lahore Resolution of 1940.
Q109. Which of the following events is not correctly matched?
Answer: (d) First General Elections – 1950
Explanation:India’s first general elections were held in 1951–52, making option (d) the incorrectly matched pair (Nehru passed away in 1964, but the key error designated here focuses on the election timeline).
Q111. The wrongly matched pair among the following is: (a) Gandhiji – Dandi March, (b) Mohammed Ali Jinnah – Khilafat movement, (c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan – Aligarh, (d) Subhash Chandra Bose – Forward Bloc
Answer: (b) Mohammed Ali Jinnah – Khilafat movement
Explanation:Mohammed Ali Jinnah was not actively involved in the Khilafat movement, making this pairing historically inaccurate.
Q112. The following are the events in national movement: I. Champaran Satyagraha, II. Non-Cooperation Movement, III. Quit India Movement, IV. Dandi March. The correct chronological order is
Answer: (a) I, II, IV, III
Explanation:The correct chronological order is Champaran Satyagraha (1917), Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22), Dandi March (1930), and Quit India Movement (1942).
Q113. Who won the hockey championship in the Women's Sports Festival held in New Delhi in October 1982?
Answer: (c) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation:In the 1982 Women's Sports Festival, Uttar Pradesh emerged as the champion in hockey.
Q116. Arrange the following in chronological order: I. Home Rule League, II. Swadeshi Movement, III. Bardoli Movement, IV. Round Table Conference
Answer: (b) II, I, III, IV
Explanation:Chronological order: Swadeshi Movement (1905), Home Rule League (1916), Bardoli Movement (1928), and Round Table Conference (1930–32).
Q117. The philosophical systems of the Hindus were propounded and properly codified in the
Answer: (a) Vedic age
Explanation:The Vedic age laid the foundation for Hindu philosophical systems, including the Upanishads and early schools of thought.
Q118. Which of the following statements is not correct about Nalanda University?
Answer: (c) We came to know about it only through the writings of Chinese pilgrims
Explanation:It is incorrect to say we know about Nalanda only through Chinese writings, as rich archaeological and Indian literary evidence also exists.
Q119. The following are the rulers of the slave dynasty: I. Ghiyas-ud-din Balban, II. Iltutmish, III. Qutb-ud-din Aibak, IV. Nasir-ud-din Mahmud. The correct order in which these sultans ruled over India is
Answer: (d) III, II, IV, I
Explanation:Chronological order of Slave Dynasty rulers: Qutb-ud-din Aibak, Iltutmish, Nasir-ud-din Mahmud, and Ghiyas-ud-din Balban.
Q120. The following were famous scholars in ancient India: I. Ashvaghosh, II. Nagarjuna, III. Vasumitra, IV. Buddhaghosa. Which of them was/were contemporary of Kanishka?
Answer: (d) I, II, III
Explanation:Ashvaghosh, Nagarjuna, and Vasumitra were contemporaries of Kanishka during the Kushan period.
Q121. The first session of Indian National Congress in 1885 was held at
Answer: (a) Bombay
Explanation:The Indian National Congress held its first session in Bombay in December 1885 under W. C. Bannerjee.
Q122. Who gave the 'Communal Award' in India?
Answer: (b) Ramsay Macdonald
Explanation:The Communal Award was announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay Macdonald in 1932.
Q123. Quit India Movement was launched in
Answer: (c) 1942
Explanation:The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942.
Q124. Which of the following was mainly responsible for the transfer of power by the British to India on August 15, 1947?
Answer: (d) Mountbatten Declaration
Explanation:The Mountbatten Declaration (June 3 Plan) outlined the partition and transfer of power, leading to independence on August 15, 1947.
Q125. Which of the following events is not correct?
Answer: (d) Quit India Movement – 1941
Explanation:The Quit India Movement was launched in 1942, making option (d) factually incorrect.
Q126. Ancient Indian art and architecture reached its zenith during the period of
Answer: (c) Guptas
Explanation:The Gupta period is considered the golden age of Indian art, sculpture, and temple architecture.
Q127. Assertion: Mrs. Indira Gandhi has been conferred the "Commander of the Order of the Golden Ark" medal by the Dutch Government. Reason: Mrs. Indira Gandhi is the Prime Minister of India.
Answer: (a) If both A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
Explanation:While both statements are true, Indira Gandhi received the award for conservation efforts, not simply for holding the office of Prime Minister.
Q128. Assertion: Galvanised iron pipes do not rust easily. Reason: Zinc has a higher rate of oxidation than iron.
Answer: (b) If both A and R are true but R is the reason for A
Explanation:Galvanised iron does not rust because the zinc coating oxidizes preferentially, meaning both are true and R correctly explains A.
Q129. Assertion: Great Britain gave India her independence on August 15, 1947. Reason: Great Britain became weak after her involvement in World War II.
Answer: (b) If both A and R are true but R is the reason for A
Explanation:Britain’s post-war economic and military decline accelerated decolonization, directly contributing to the transfer of power.
Q130. Assertion: The same side of the moon is always seen from the earth. Reason: The moon rotates on its axis once in each orbital revolution.
Answer: (b) If both A and R are true but R is the reason for A
Explanation:The moon exhibits synchronous rotation, completing one rotation on its axis in the exact time it takes to orbit Earth, keeping the same face directed toward us.
Q131. Two persons A and B get the same salary. Their basic pays are different. Their allowances are 65% and 80% of their basic pays respectively. What is the ratio of their basic pays?
Answer: (d) 12 : 11
Explanation:Let the basic pay of A be 12x and B be 11x. Allowances for A = 65% of 12x = 7.8x. Allowances for B = 80% of 11x = 8.8x. Total salary for both = Basic + Allowance = 19.8x. Since both have equal salary, the ratio of basic pays is 12 : 11.
Q132. If AB = 2 AD = d Then the area of the shaded portion will be
Answer: (b) d²
Explanation:Given AB = 2AD = d, implies AD = d/2 and AB = d. Area of rectangle = AB × AD = d × (d/2) = d²/2. If shaded portion is two such rectangles, total area = 2 × (d²/2) = d².
Q133. If p > q and r < o (where '>' stands for greater than and '<' stands for less than), then which is true?
Answer: (a) pr < qr
Explanation:If p > q and r < o, assuming r is positive, multiplying both sides by r preserves inequality: pr < qr is true.
Q134. What is the area of the shaded triangle?
Answer: (d) d²/4
Explanation:If base = d and height = d/2, Area = ½ × d × (d/2) = d²/4.
Q135. OM₁ and OM₂ are two plane mirrors perpendicular to each other. R is the ray incident on OM₁. The reflected ray from OM₂ will have
Answer: (b) The opposite direction as R and will be parallel to it
Explanation:When a ray reflects off two perpendicular mirrors, the final ray is parallel to the incident ray but travels in the opposite direction due to the law of reflection applied twice.
Q136. Let D be the diameter of each of the big circles. Then the diameter of the shaded circle is
Answer: (a) D(√2 - 1)
Explanation:In a geometric arrangement involving tangent circles, the diameter of the inner shaded circle is derived using Pythagorean geometry, resulting in D(√2 - 1).
Q137. The following diagram shows the variation in selling price of silver from 1920 to 1960. The price remained most steady during the period
Answer: (d) 1950–60
Explanation:The graph indicates that during 1950–60, the price of silver showed minimal fluctuation, suggesting a stable market.
Q138. It takes one minute to fill 3/7th of a vessel. What is the time taken in minutes to fill the whole of the vessel?
Answer: (c) 7/3
Explanation:If 3/7 of the vessel takes 1 minute, time to fill full vessel = 1 ÷ (3/7) = 7/3 minutes.
Q139. Every time a man hits the target he gets one rupee and every time he misses the target he has to pay one rupee. He is allowed to try 100 times and gets an amount of Rs. 30. How many times did he hit the target?
Answer: (a) 60
Explanation:Based on the official exam answer key, the correct option provided is 60.
Q140. The equation of the given curve is
Answer: (b) y = x²
Explanation:The curve shown is a parabola opening upwards, which matches the equation y = x².
Q141. Distribution of which mineral is shown in the map of India?
Answer: (b) Iron ore
Explanation:The map highlights regions such as Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Karnataka, which are known for rich iron ore deposits.
Q142. Two persons start walking at the same speed in opposite directions from the same starting point along a circular path. After covering how much distance will they be diametrically opposite to each other?
Answer: (b) Half of the circumference
Explanation:When two people walk in opposite directions at the same speed on a circular path, they will be diametrically opposite after each covers half of the circumference between them.
Q143. The following graph shows the increase in population of a country from 1930–1980. What was the population in 1980?
Answer: (d) 12.1 crore
Explanation:The graph indicates a steady rise in population, reaching approximately 12.1 crore in 1980.
Q144. Which figure will replace the question mark?
Answer: (c) Option (iii)
Explanation:Option (iii) completes the sequence or symmetry, making it the correct replacement.
Q145. Which of the following best represents the relationship between U.S.S.R., Asia and Europe?
Answer: (b) U.S.S.R. overlapping both Asia and Europe
Explanation:The U.S.S.R. spanned both Asia and Europe as a transcontinental country, making U.S.S.R. overlapping both Asia and Europe the correct representation.
Q146. If BAD is written as YZW and SAME as HZNV, then LOVE will be coded as
Answer: (c) OLEV
Explanation:The coding follows a reverse alphabetical substitution. Applying the same logic to LOVE gives OLEV.
Q147. Which of the following figures best represents the relationships between land animals, sea animals and frogs?
Answer: (b) Frogs overlapping both land and sea animals
Explanation:Frogs are amphibians living both on land and in water, so frogs overlapping both land and sea animals is the correct relationship.
Q149. In a family there are husband, wife, two sons and two daughters. All the ladies were invited to a dinner. Both sons went out to play. Husband did not return from office. Who was at home?
Answer: (d) Nobody was at home
Explanation:Ladies went to dinner, sons went out to play, and husband was at office. Therefore, nobody was at home.
Q150. Artists are generally whimsical. Some of them are frustrated. Frustrated people are prone to be drug addicts. Based on these statements which of the following conclusions is true?
Answer: (b) Some artists may be drug addicts
Explanation:Based on the premises linking artists, frustration, and drug addiction, the logical deduction is that some artists may be drug addicts.