Q1. Whose birth centenary was celebrated in 1981-82?
(a) Munshi Prem Chand
(b) Jai Shankar Prasad
(c) Subramania Bharathi
(d) Maithilisharan Gupta
Answer: (d) Maithilisharan Gupta
Explanation:
Maithilisharan Gupta was a renowned Hindi poet whose works played a significant role in Indian literary and nationalist movements. His birth centenary fell in 1981–82, marking 100 years since his birth in 1881. The government and literary institutions commemorated this occasion due to his contributions to Hindi literature and patriotic poetry.
Q2. The death rate according to 1981 census is per thousand persons
(a) 14.8
(b) 15.8
(c) 10.8
(d) 9.8
Answer: (d) 9.8
Explanation:
According to the 1981 Census of India, the death rate was recorded at 9.8 per thousand persons, indicating a decline in mortality compared to previous decades. This reduction reflects improvements in public health, medical facilities, and awareness, contributing to better survival rates across the country.
Q3. The correct sequence of the following densely populated States is
I. Uttar Pradesh
II. Kerala
III. Bihar
IV. West Bengal
(a) II, III, I, IV
(b) IV, I, II, III
(c) I, IV, II, III
(d) II, IV, III, I
Answer: (c) I, IV, II, III
Explanation:
In terms of population density, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal have historically ranked among the most densely populated states in India. Kerala and Bihar follow, with Bihar’s density increasing significantly in later decades. The sequence reflects relative density levels as per the 1981 census data, placing Uttar Pradesh first, followed by West Bengal, Kerala, and Bihar.
Q4. The 1982 Nobel Prize for literature was awarded to
(a) Gabriel Garcia Marquez
(b) Elias Canetti
(c) Czeslaw Milosz
(d) Pablo Neruda
Answer: (a) Gabriel Garcia Marquez
Explanation:
Gabriel Garcia Marquez, the Colombian novelist, was awarded the 1982 Nobel Prize in Literature for his magical realism and profound storytelling. His works, such as “One Hundred Years of Solitude”, explore Latin American culture, politics, and history, earning him global acclaim.
Q5. The number of international airports in India is
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 10
Answer: (c) 7
Explanation:
By 1983, India had 7 international airports, reflecting its growing connectivity and strategic importance in global aviation. These airports facilitated international travel and trade, marking a significant expansion in infrastructure.
Q6. The number of French Mirage-2000 fighter aircraft that France has agreed to supply to India between 1984-86 is
(a) 30
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 60
Answer: (b) 40
Explanation:
France agreed to supply 40 Mirage-2000 fighter aircraft to India between 1984–86, enhancing India’s air defense capabilities. The Mirage-2000 was known for its advanced avionics, speed, and precision, making it a strategic acquisition for the Indian Air Force.
Q7. Mahatma Gandhi Setu is built over the river
(a) Ganga
(b) Brahmaputra
(c) Godavari
(d) Cauvery
Answer: (a) Ganga
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi Setu, one of the longest river bridges in India, spans the Ganga River in Bihar. It connects Patna to Hajipur, playing a crucial role in regional transportation and commerce across the northern plains.
Q8. The chief guest present at the Republic Day parade in New Delhi in 1982 was
(a) President of Tanzania
(b) King of Spain
(c) President of France
(d) Chairman of PLO
Answer: (b) King of Spain
Explanation:
The King of Spain was the chief guest at India’s Republic Day parade in 1982, symbolizing diplomatic ties and cultural exchange between India and Spain. Such invitations reflect India’s global outreach and bilateral relations.
Q9. Sir Richard Attenborough is a
(a) Scientist
(b) Film Producer and Director
(c) Lawyer and Statesman
(d) Politician and Diplomat
Answer: (b) Film Producer and Director
Explanation:
Sir Richard Attenborough was a renowned British filmmaker, best known for directing the film “Gandhi”, which won multiple Academy Awards. His work brought Mahatma Gandhi’s life and philosophy to a global audience, earning him critical acclaim.
Q10. The rate of inflation in India in 1981-82 went down to the extent of approximately
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 14%
(d) 16%
Answer: (a) 5%
Explanation:
During 1981–82, India’s inflation rate declined to around 5%, indicating economic stabilization. This reduction was attributed to monetary policies, improved supply chains, and controlled fiscal spending, helping curb price rise.
Q11. New Moore Island is an issue of conflict between
(a) India and China
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and Bangladesh
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Answer: (c) India and Bangladesh
Explanation:
New Moore Island, also known as South Talpatti, emerged in the Bay of Bengal and became a territorial dispute between India and Bangladesh. The conflict centered on sovereignty claims, as both nations considered the island part of their maritime boundaries.
Q12. Who succeeded Mr. Leonid Brezhnev as General Secretary of the CPSU?
(a) Yuri Andropov
(b) Marshal Ustinov
(c) Konstantin Chernenko
(d) Andrei Gromyko
Answer: (a) Yuri Andropov
Explanation:
After Leonid Brezhnev’s death, Yuri Andropov became the General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union (CPSU). He was previously the head of the KGB, and his leadership marked a brief period of reform and stricter discipline within the Soviet system.
Q13. Solidarity is an organisation in
(a) Czechoslovakia
(b) West Germany
(c) France
(d) Poland
Answer: (d) Poland
Explanation:
Solidarity was a Polish trade union and social movement, founded in 1980, that played a pivotal role in challenging communist rule. Led by Lech Wałęsa, it became a symbol of non-violent resistance and democratic aspirations in Eastern Europe.
Q14. What is basic to religion?
(a) Idol worship
(b) Belief in the supernatural element
(c) Priesthood
(d) Life after death
Answer: (b) Belief in the supernatural element
Explanation:
At its core, religion involves a belief in the supernatural, encompassing divine beings, forces, or realms beyond human understanding. This belief forms the foundation of religious practices, rituals, and moral codes across cultures.
Q15. In which of the following legislatures can a non-member be the Presiding Officer?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Rajya Sabha
Explanation:
In the Rajya Sabha, the Vice President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman, even though they are not a member of the House. This is a constitutional provision, making Rajya Sabha unique in allowing a non-member to preside.
Q16. The regional political party which has the largest number of members in the Lok Sabha is
(a) Telugu Desam
(b) DMK
(c) Akali Dal
(d) AIADMK
Answer: (a) Telugu Desam
Explanation:
During the early 1980s, the Telugu Desam Party (TDP) emerged as a major regional force in Andhra Pradesh, securing a significant number of seats in the Lok Sabha. Its rise marked a shift in Indian politics, with regional parties gaining national influence.
Q17. The next Ardha Kumbh Mela will be held in
(a) 1984
(b) 1986
(c) 1994
(d) 1990
Answer: (b) 1986
Explanation:
The Ardha Kumbh Mela is held every six years, alternating with the full Kumbh Mela. Following the 1980 event, the next Ardha Kumbh was scheduled for 1986, continuing the traditional Hindu pilgrimage cycle.
Q18. If instead of wooden ploughs iron ploughs are used it would be an example of
(a) Obsolete technology
(b) Appropriate technology
(c) Redundant technology
(d) Ultimate technology
Answer: (b) Appropriate technology
Explanation:
Replacing wooden ploughs with iron ones is considered appropriate technology because it involves simple, affordable, and effective improvements suited to local agricultural needs. It enhances productivity without requiring complex machinery.
Q19. A certain bill was passed by a State legislature in August 1982 but did not receive the assent of the State Governor. It was
(a) Bihar Press Bill
(b) Jammu & Kashmir Resettlement Bill
(c) Tamil Nadu Press Bill
(d) Orissa Land Reforms Bill
Answer: (b) Jammu & Kashmir Resettlement Bill
Explanation:
The Jammu & Kashmir Resettlement Bill, passed in 1982, aimed to allow return of residents who had migrated to Pakistan. It became controversial, and the Governor withheld assent, citing security and legal concerns.
Q20. Match the dances and the States of their origin in the following list
I. Kathakali A. Orissa
II. Odissi B. Kerala
III. Bharatanatyam C. Tamil Nadu
IV. Kuchipudi D. Andhra Pradesh
I II III IV
(a) BAD C
(b) AB C D
(c) BDA C
(d) BA CD
Answer: (d) BA CD
Explanation:
The correct match is:
- Kathakali – Kerala
- Odissi – Orissa
- Bharatanatyam – Tamil Nadu
- Kuchipudi – Andhra Pradesh
These classical dance forms are deeply rooted in regional traditions, reflecting distinct cultural expressions of their respective states.
Q21. North-South dialogue refers to talks
(a) For reorganisation of States between North India and South India
(b) For sharing economic resources between rich countries of the North and poor countries of the South
(c) Between countries of North America and South America for economic cooperation
(d) Between U.S.A. and U.S.S.R. in the field of space research
Answer: (b) For sharing economic resources between rich countries of the North and poor countries of the South
Explanation:
The North-South dialogue refers to discussions between developed countries (North) and developing countries (South) aimed at reducing global economic disparities. It focuses on resource sharing, trade equity, and development aid, promoting international cooperation.
Q22. Some of the measures of the Fifth Five-Year Plan were :
I. Removal of poverty
II. Economic self-sufficiency
III. Heavy industrialisation
IV. Conservation of foreign exchange
Of these the strategic objectives of the Plan in priority order were
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, I, III, IV
(c) I, II, IV, III
(d) II, I, IV, III
Answer: (c) I, II, IV, III
Explanation:
The Fifth Five-Year Plan emphasized poverty alleviation and economic self-reliance. The priority order reflects the focus on removal of poverty, followed by self-sufficiency, foreign exchange conservation, and finally industrialisation as a long-term goal.
Q23.
I. Removal of poverty
II. Rehabilitation of economy
III. Heavy industrialisation
IV. Import substitution
Arrange them in correct priority order in different Five-Year Plans
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, I, III, IV
(c) I, II, IV, III
(d) II, I, IV, III
Answer: (d) II, I, IV, III
Explanation:
The initial Five-Year Plans focused on economic rehabilitation post-independence, followed by poverty reduction, import substitution to reduce dependency, and later heavy industrialisation to build infrastructure and manufacturing capacity.
Q24. The reorganisation of Indian States on a linguistic basis took place in
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1956
(d) 1962
Answer: (c) 1956
Explanation:
The States Reorganisation Act of 1956 led to the formation of states based on linguistic lines, following demands for cultural and administrative coherence. This marked a major restructuring of India’s federal map.
Q25. A radio station is to be set up in a remote village without any electrical power. The following options are available :
A. Laying of transmission lines from power station to the village
B. Installing diesel generators
C. Using rechargeable batteries
D. Using solar panel/stills
Of these the last method is an example of
(a) Appropriate technology
(b) Ultimate technology
(c) Redundant technology
(d) Obsolete technology
Answer: (a) Appropriate technology
Explanation:
Solar panels/stills represent appropriate technology for remote areas, offering sustainable, low-cost, and locally adaptable solutions. They require minimal infrastructure, making them ideal for off-grid applications.
Q26. In April 1982, INSAT-1A was launched from
(a) Cape Canaveral
(b) A Soviet cosmodrome
(c) Sriharikota
(d) Thumba
Answer: (a) Cape Canaveral
Explanation:
INSAT-1A, India’s first satellite in the INSAT series, was launched from Cape Canaveral, USA, marking a milestone in India’s space program. It was designed for telecommunications, meteorology, and broadcasting.
Q27. In what way Indian cotton industry was inferior to that of England during the British rule in India
(a) Indian textile industry had an ever increasing and large domestic market
(b) There was plenty of raw material available
(c) The industry was not managed by highly skilled technicians and managers
(d) India was the traditional home for cotton textiles
Answer: (c) The industry was not managed by highly skilled technicians and managers
Explanation:
During British rule, the Indian cotton industry lacked modern management and technical expertise, making it less competitive than England’s mechanized textile mills. Despite raw material availability, the absence of skilled personnel hindered growth.
Q28. Who represented India at the Chicago Conference of World Religions in 1893 ?
(a) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Swami Dayananda
(c) Swami Abhedananda
(d) Ramakrishna Paramhansa
Answer: (a) Swami Vivekananda
Explanation:
Swami Vivekananda famously represented India at the 1893 Parliament of World Religions in Chicago, delivering a historic speech that introduced Hindu philosophy to the Western world and emphasized universal tolerance.
Q29.
A. Infrastructure
B. Skilled manpower
C. Finance
D. Raw materials
E. Latest sophisticated technology
Of these which is/are the most essential for proper development of an industry?
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, C, D
(c) Only E
(d) A, B, C, D
Answer: (d) A, B, C, D
Explanation:
For industrial development, infrastructure, manpower, finance, and raw materials are fundamental requirements. While sophisticated technology enhances efficiency, the basic components are essential for establishing and sustaining operations.
Q30. Nobel Prizes in 1982 were awarded to the following
I. Alva Myrdal-Peace
II. Aaron Klug-Physics
III. Kenneth G. Wilson-Chemistry
Of these three statements
(a) Only I is correct
(b) II, III are correct
(c) I, III are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer: (d) All are correct
Explanation:
In 1982, the Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Alva Myrdal, Aaron Klug received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry, and Kenneth G. Wilson was honored in Physics. All three awards were accurately attributed, confirming the correctness of all statements.
Q31. Dr. P. K. Sethi winner of Megsaysay Award for 1981 and the Guinness Award is known for his outstanding work in
(a) Orthopaedics
(b) Artificial limbs
(c) Family planning
(d) Psychiatry
Answer: (b) Artificial limbs
Explanation:
Dr. P. K. Sethi is celebrated for developing the Jaipur Foot, a low-cost prosthetic limb that revolutionized mobility for amputees in India and abroad. His work in artificial limbs earned him international recognition, including the Magsaysay and Guinness Awards.
Q32. The tendency of lower caste people to improve their living standard and status by imitating the upper class people is known as
(a) Assimilation
(b) Sanskritisation
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Acculturisation
Answer: (b) Sanskritisation
Explanation:
Sanskritisation is a sociological concept introduced by M. N. Srinivas, describing how lower caste groups adopt customs, rituals, and lifestyles of upper castes to elevate their social status. It reflects social mobility through cultural imitation.
Q33. Match the following
I. Capt. H. C. Kohli
II. Dr. Datta Samant
III. Dr. S. Z. Qasim
IV. Wg. Cdr. R. Malhotra
A : Chosen to be trained to go into outer space
B : Leader of the Antarctica expedition
C : Leader of the trans-Himalayan expedition
D : Trade union leader connected with Bombay textile strike
The correct match is I II III IV
(a) A B C D
(b) BACD
(c) CD BA
(d) DA BC
Answer: (a) A B C D
Explanation:
- Capt. H. C. Kohli – trained for space mission
- Dr. Datta Samant – led the Bombay textile strike
- Dr. S. Z. Qasim – headed the Antarctica expedition
- Wg. Cdr. R. Malhotra – led the trans-Himalayan expedition
The match reflects their distinct contributions in science, labor, and exploration.
Q34. The Nagaland State of India cannot be termed a State because it lacks
(a) Linguistic homogeneity
(b) Sovereignty
(c) Bicameral legislature
(d) A High Court exclusively ‘of its own
Answer: (c) Bicameral legislature
Explanation:
Nagaland, like many Indian states, has a unicameral legislature, meaning it has only one legislative house. A bicameral legislature includes both Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council, which Nagaland does not possess.
Q35. Some persons who were close associates of Gandhiji died recently. They were
(a) Anandmayi Ma, Pyarelal, Vinoba Bhave
(b) Mira Behn, J.P. Narayan, Lord Mountbatten, Manibhai Desai
(c) J. B. Kripalani, Mahadev-Desai, Pyarelal
(d) Sarla Behn, J. B. Kripalani, Mira Behn
Answer: (d) Sarla Behn, J. B. Kripalani, Mira Behn
Explanation:
Sarla Behn, J. B. Kripalani, and Mira Behn were close associates of Mahatma Gandhi, deeply involved in the freedom movement and social reform. Their recent deaths marked the passing of a generation of Gandhian activists.
Q36. Match the following :
A. Ravi Shanker
B. Ravi Verma
C. Alia Rakha
D. Ali Akbar Khan
- Painter
- Tabla
- Sarod
- Sitar
The correct match is ABCD
(a) 1324
(b) 2314
(c) 3124
(d) 4123
Answer: (d) 4123
Explanation:
- Ravi Shanker – Sitar maestro
- Ravi Verma – Renowned painter
- Alia Rakha – Tabla virtuoso
- Ali Akbar Khan – Sarod exponent
The match highlights their distinct artistic contributions.
Q37. Match the following :
A. Gonds
B. Eskimos
C. Lapps
D. Moplas
- Central India
- Canada
- Norway
- Kerala
The correct answer is ABCD
(a) 4312
(b) 2314
(c) 2423
(d) 3214
Answer: (d) 3214
Explanation:
- Gonds – Central India
- Eskimos – Canada
- Lapps – Norway
- Moplas – Kerala
These groups are known for their distinct ethnic and regional identities.
Q38. Los Angeles is a favourite place for film production because
(a) It is situated in a place of picturesque beauty
(b) It has no competition from European film-makers
(c) It is the birth place of many actors
(d) The local population watch more films than television
Answer: (a) It is situated in a place of picturesque beauty
Explanation:
Los Angeles, especially Hollywood, became a hub for film production due to its favorable climate, scenic locations, and access to diverse landscapes. These features made it ideal for year-round shooting and creative storytelling.
Q39. The Arjuna Award in 1983 has been given to
(a) Prakash Padukone and Zafar Iqbal
(b) Gopal Saini and Charles Borromeo
(c) Sunil Gavaskar and Syed Modi
(d) Chetan Chauhan and Syed Kirmani
Answer: (b) Gopal Saini and Charles Borromeo
Explanation:
In 1983, Gopal Saini (athletics) and Charles Borromeo (middle-distance running) received the Arjuna Award for their outstanding performance in sports, representing India at international competitions.
Q40. In India the computation of national income is often difficult because of
(a) Large population growth
(b) Very low per capita income
(c) Very little domestic savings
(d) Non-cooperation of the private sector
Answer: (d) Non-cooperation of the private sector
Explanation:
National income estimation in India faces challenges due to lack of reliable data from the private sector, which dominates informal and unorganized economic activities. This non-cooperation leads to incomplete or inaccurate reporting, affecting economic planning.
Q41. In a civilised urban society, what makes people live together?
(a) Patriotism
(b) Religion
(c) Culture
(d) Law
Answer: (d) Law
Explanation:
In a civilised urban society, it is the rule of law that ensures order, rights, and responsibilities among citizens. While culture and religion influence social behavior, it is law that provides the binding framework for peaceful coexistence and conflict resolution.
Q42. Mrs. Gandhi cleared the Thein Dam hydel power project in 1982. It is on the river
(a) Ravi
(b) Beas
(c) Sutlej
(d) Jhelum
Answer: (a) Ravi
Explanation:
The Thein Dam hydel power project, approved in 1982, is located on the Ravi River. It was part of efforts to enhance hydroelectric capacity and irrigation infrastructure in northern India, especially in Punjab and Jammu regions.
Q43. The 1981 Kalinga Prize for popularising science was awarded to
(a) David Attenborough
(b) Apristides Bastidas
(c) Margaret Mead
(d) Satish Dhawan
Answer: (b) Apristides Bastidas
Explanation:
Apristides Bastidas, a Venezuelan science communicator, received the 1981 Kalinga Prize for his work in popularising science among the public. The award honors individuals who make scientific knowledge accessible and engaging.
Q44. Who was awarded the Third World Prize for 1981?
(a) Robert Mugabe
(b) Julius Nyerere
(c) Anwar Sadat
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer: (d) Indira Gandhi
Explanation:
Indira Gandhi was honored with the Third World Prize in 1981 for her leadership and advocacy on behalf of developing nations. Her role in promoting South-South cooperation and economic justice was widely recognized.
Q45. The British Foreign Secretary who resigned over the Falklands crisis was
(a) Lord Carrington
(b) Philip Habib
(c) Michael Foot
(d) None of these
Answer: (a) Lord Carrington
Explanation:
Lord Carrington resigned as British Foreign Secretary following the Falklands crisis in 1982, taking responsibility for intelligence failures that led to Argentina’s invasion. His resignation was seen as an act of political accountability.
Q46. ‘TRYSEM’ is concerned with
(a) A new system of semester examinations in universities
(b) Training the rural youth for self-employment
(c) A training programme for students in educational psychology
(d) A training course for farmers in dryland farming
Answer: (b) Training the rural youth for self-employment
Explanation:
TRYSEM stands for Training of Rural Youth for Self Employment, a government initiative aimed at skill development among rural youth to promote self-reliance and entrepreneurship in villages.
Q47. The maximum revenue source of village panchayats is
(a) Government grants
(b) Sales tax
(c) Voluntary help by village cooperatives
(d) Local taxes on lands, fairs and festivals
Answer: (d) Local taxes on lands, fairs and festivals
Explanation:
Village panchayats primarily generate revenue through local taxes, including those on land, fairs, and festivals. These taxes are directly collected and used for local development and administration.
Q48. The greatest hallmark of personal liberty is
(a) Mandamus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Habeas Corpus
Answer: (d) Habeas Corpus
Explanation:
Habeas Corpus is a legal writ that protects individuals from unlawful detention, making it the cornerstone of personal liberty. It ensures that a person is presented before a court to justify the legality of their detention.
Q49. The traditional market place in India is
(a) Marketing cooperatives
(b) Fairs
(c) Janata shops
(d) Government shops
Answer: (b) Fairs
Explanation:
Fairs have historically served as traditional marketplaces in India, where people gather to buy, sell, and exchange goods, often during festivals or seasonal events. They reflect local commerce and cultural practices.
Q50. Which one of the following is not a piece of social legislation?
(a) The Immoral Offences and Girls Trafficking Act
(b) The Maintenance of Internal Security Act
(c) The Abolition of Untouchability (Offences) Act
(d) The Special Marriage Act
Answer: (b) The Maintenance of Internal Security Act
Explanation:
The Maintenance of Internal Security Act (MISA) was a security law, not a social legislation. It dealt with preventive detention and internal threats, unlike the other acts which address social justice and civil rights.
Q51. It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our Constitution lies in
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer: (a) Preamble
Explanation:
The Preamble reflects the core philosophy and intentions of the Constitution’s framers, outlining values like justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. It serves as a guiding light for interpreting constitutional provisions and understanding the spirit of the document.
Q52. In India people migrate from the countryside to the towns while in the U.S.A. it is just the other way. What is the reason for this?
(a) In U.S.A. people like the countryside more than the cities
(b) Use of urban land for purposes other than that of residence
(c) Lack of security of life and property in cities
(d) Lack of employment opportunities in cities
Answer: (b) Use of urban land for purposes other than that of residence
Explanation:
In the U.S.A., urban land is often used for commercial and industrial purposes, leading to residential decentralization. In contrast, in India, people migrate to cities seeking employment and better amenities, causing urban concentration.
Q53. The Jammu and Kashmir Resettlement Bill which has stirred up controversy deals with
(a) Reorganisation of territories between Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Allowing people of Kashmiri origin who have migrated to Pakistan to come back to Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Introduction of new land reforms in the State
(d) Imposition of agricultural income tax in the State
Answer: (b) Allowing people of Kashmiri origin who have migrated to Pakistan to come back to Jammu & Kashmir
Explanation:
The Jammu and Kashmir Resettlement Bill proposed the return of residents who had migrated to Pakistan, raising security and legal concerns. It became a controversial issue due to its implications on citizenship and national integrity.
Q54. The award for environmental conservation has been instituted by the
(a) West German Government
(b) French Government
(c) Indian Government
(d) Netherlands Government
Answer: (a) West German Government
Explanation:
The West German Government instituted an award to honor efforts in environmental conservation, recognizing individuals and organizations that contribute to sustainable development and ecological protection.
Q55. Age of tree can be estimated by
(a) Counting the number of concentric rings
(b) Counting the nodes and internodes of the trunk
(c) Measuring the girth of the tree trunk
(d) Counting the number of branches
Answer: (a) Counting the number of concentric rings
Explanation:
The age of a tree is determined by counting its annual growth rings, visible in a cross-section of the trunk. Each ring represents one year of growth, making it a reliable method for age estimation.
Q56. Turmeric is obtained from which part of the plant?
(a) Fruit
(b) Stem
(c) Root
(d) Flower
Answer: (c) Root
Explanation:
Turmeric is derived from the rhizome, a type of underground root. After harvesting, the rhizomes are boiled, dried, and ground into the familiar yellow spice, widely used in cooking and medicine.
Q57. The process of light exposure in a 24-hour cycle that controls the growth and development of certain plants and animals is called
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Photoionisation
(c) Photoperiodism
(d) Photoluminescence
Answer: (c) Photoperiodism
Explanation:
Photoperiodism refers to the biological response of organisms to the length of day and night, influencing flowering, breeding, and migration. It plays a critical role in seasonal adaptation.
Q58. “Mach Number” is a term associated with the speed of
(a) Ships
(b) Cars
(c) Aeroplanes
(d) Light
Answer: (c) Aeroplanes
Explanation:
The Mach Number measures the speed of an object relative to the speed of sound. It is commonly used in aeronautics to describe supersonic aircraft performance, where Mach 1 equals the speed of sound.
Q59. The internal antenna of a transistor set is made of
(a) Iron
(b) Ferro-chrome
(c) Copper
(d) Alnico
Answer: (d) Alnico
Explanation:
Alnico, an alloy of aluminium, nickel, and cobalt, is used in transistor antennas due to its strong magnetic properties and stability, making it ideal for signal reception.
Q60. The common ore of aluminium is
(a) Bauxite
(b) Chromite
(c) Cryolite
(d) Monazite
Answer: (a) Bauxite
Explanation:
Bauxite is the primary ore of aluminium, containing hydrated aluminium oxides. It is processed through the Bayer method to extract alumina, which is then converted into aluminium metal.
Q61. In typhoid which of the following drugs is administered?
(a) Chloromycetin
(b) Penicillin
(c) Sulphonamide
(d) Tetracycline
Answer: (a) Chloromycetin
Explanation:
Chloromycetin (also known as chloramphenicol) is commonly used to treat typhoid fever, caused by Salmonella typhi. It is effective because it penetrates tissues deeply, reaching the infected areas and inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis.
Q62. Amoebiasis, malaria and typhoid are diseases due to amoeba, malarial parasites and typhoid bacillus which are collectively called
(a) Anthropods
(b) Protozoa
(c) Mollusca
(d) Pisces
Answer: (b) Protozoa
Explanation:
Amoebiasis and malaria are caused by protozoan parasites, while typhoid is caused by a bacterium. However, in this context, the grouping refers to microscopic pathogens, and protozoa is the most appropriate classification for amoeba and malarial parasites.
Q63. Hypochondria is a
(a) Disease of eyes
(b) Disease of sexual organs
(c) Disease of low blood pressure
(d) State of morbid anxiety about one’s own health, with complaint of imaginary disorders
Answer: (d) State of morbid anxiety about one’s own health, with complaint of imaginary disorders
Explanation:
Hypochondria is a psychological condition where individuals experience excessive worry about having a serious illness, often based on imaginary symptoms. It reflects a morbid preoccupation with health, despite medical reassurance.
Q64. Radio carbon dating process is used to know the age of
(a) Fossils
(b) Plants
(c) Rocks
(d) All of these
Answer: (a) Fossils
Explanation:
Radiocarbon dating is used to determine the age of organic materials, such as fossils and ancient plant remains, by measuring the decay of carbon-14 isotopes. It is not suitable for rocks, which require other dating methods.
Q65. Aspirin is a
(a) Pain reliever
(b) Sedative
(c) Cortisone
(d) Soporific
Answer: (a) Pain reliever
Explanation:
Aspirin is widely used as a pain reliever and anti-inflammatory drug. It works by inhibiting enzymes involved in prostaglandin synthesis, which are responsible for pain and inflammation.
Q66. Arrange the following fertilisers according to the decreasing order of their nitrogen content
I. Ammonium sulphate
II. Ammonium nitrate
III. Potassium nitrate
IV. Urea
(a) IV, II, III, I
(b) IV, II, I, III
(c) IV, III, II, I
(d) II, IV, III, I
Answer: (b) IV, II, I, III
Explanation:
Urea has the highest nitrogen content, followed by ammonium nitrate, ammonium sulphate, and potassium nitrate. This order reflects their effectiveness in supplying nitrogen for plant growth.
Q67. What is the difference between an explosion and combustion?
(a) In the former nuclear reaction takes place while in the latter case burning takes place
(b) In the former chemical energy is transformed into nuclear energy while in the latter case the chemical energy is transformed into heat energy
(c) In the former it is violent and rapid reaction with release of much heat energy while in the latter case it is generally slow reaction with release of less heat energy
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) In the former it is violent and rapid reaction with release of much heat energy while in the latter case it is generally slow reaction with release of less heat energy
Explanation:
An explosion is a sudden, violent reaction that releases large amounts of energy rapidly, while combustion is a slower, controlled burning process. The key difference lies in the rate and intensity of energy release.
Q68. Foot and mouth disease is prevalent among
(a) Cattle only
(b) Cattle and pigs only
(c) Sheep and cattle only
(d) Cattle, goats, sheep and other hoofed animals
Answer: (d) Cattle, goats, sheep and other hoofed animals
Explanation:
Foot and mouth disease affects cloven-hoofed animals, including cattle, goats, sheep, and pigs. It is a highly contagious viral disease that causes fever, blisters, and lameness, impacting livestock productivity.
Q69. When one enters a dark room, he is not able to see anything but after some time his vision improves. This is because
(a) The retina of the eye comes forward
(b) The retina of the eye moves backward
(c) The pupil of the eye contracts
(d) The pupil of the eye dilates
Answer: (d) The pupil of the eye dilates
Explanation:
In low light, the pupil dilates to allow more light to enter the eye, improving vision gradually. This adjustment helps the retina detect faint light, enabling better visibility in darkness.
Q70. The messages received by and transmitted from the brain to the various parts of the body take the form of
(a) Nervous impulses
(b) Chemical impulses
(c) Mechanical impulses
(d) Automatic impulses
Answer: (a) Nervous impulses
Explanation:
The brain communicates with the body through nervous impulses, which are electrical signals transmitted via neurons. These impulses control movement, sensation, and reflexes, forming the basis of the nervous system’s function.
Q71. Gerontology is the study of
(a) Process of ageing
(b) Growth of cells
(c) Birds
(d) Vegetables
Answer: (a) Process of ageing
Explanation:
Gerontology is the scientific study of ageing, focusing on the biological, psychological, and social aspects of growing older. It helps in understanding age-related changes and improving elderly care and quality of life.
Q72. Helium is used for respiration in deep water instead of nitrogen because
(a) It is heavier than nitrogen
(b) It is lighter than nitrogen
(c) It mixes less in blood than nitrogen
(d) It helps oxygen burn more quickly
Answer: (c) It mixes less in blood than nitrogen
Explanation:
Helium is preferred in deep-sea diving because it does not dissolve in blood as readily as nitrogen, reducing the risk of nitrogen narcosis and decompression sickness. Its low solubility makes it safer for respiration under pressure.
Q73. In a fluorescent tube which of the following components are found?
(a) Mercury vapour
(b) Argon and carbon dioxide
(c) Helium and oxygen
(d) Argon and neon
Answer: (a) Mercury vapour
Explanation:
A fluorescent tube contains mercury vapour, which emits ultraviolet light when electrically excited. This UV light then interacts with the phosphor coating inside the tube to produce visible light.
Q74. For artificial insemination the semen of a bull should be stored in
(a) Cold water
(b) Ice
(c) Liquid nitrogen
(d) Liquid oxygen
Answer: (c) Liquid nitrogen
Explanation:
Liquid nitrogen is used to store bull semen at extremely low temperatures, preserving its viability for artificial insemination. It prevents cell damage and maintains fertility over long periods.
Q75. Which one is a high yielding variety of rice?
(a) IR-8
(b) IR-21
(c) K-64
(d) M-986
Answer: (a) IR-8
Explanation:
IR-8 is a high-yielding rice variety developed during the Green Revolution. It significantly increased rice production, especially in developing countries, due to its short growth cycle and resistance to pests.
Q76. In a remote Indian village with a scarcity of fuel, the people draw water from a well. They should be advised before drinking that water to
(a) Boil it
(b) Use ion exchange resins
(c) Use solar stills for distilling
(d) Use potassium permanganate for purifying the water
Answer: (a) Boil it
Explanation:
Boiling water is the simplest and most effective method to kill pathogens and make it safe for drinking, especially in fuel-scarce rural areas. It eliminates bacteria, viruses, and parasites.
Q77. Hormones which are necessary for the development of the human body are secreted by
(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Parathyroid gland
(d) Exocrine gland
Answer: (b) Pituitary gland
Explanation:
The pituitary gland is known as the master gland because it regulates the secretion of various hormones essential for growth, metabolism, and reproduction. It influences other endocrine glands as well.
Q78. The ductless and secretory glands in the human body are known as
(a) Endocrine glands
(b) Exocrine glands
(c) Salivary glands
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Endocrine glands
Explanation:
Endocrine glands are ductless glands that release hormones directly into the bloodstream. These hormones regulate body functions such as growth, metabolism, and mood.
Q79. Fat is stored in the human body in
(a) Muscular tissue
(b) Connective tissue
(c) Adipose tissue
(d) Epithelial tissue
Answer: (c) Adipose tissue
Explanation:
Adipose tissue is specialized for fat storage, serving as an energy reserve and providing insulation and cushioning. It plays a key role in metabolic regulation and hormone production.
Q80. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their carbon content
I. Cast iron
II. Wrought iron
III. Steel
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, I, III
(c) III, II, I
(d) I, III, II
Answer: (d) I, III, II
Explanation:
Cast iron has the highest carbon content, followed by steel, and then wrought iron, which has the least carbon. The carbon content affects their hardness, brittleness, and melting points.
Q81. In which part of India do tea and coffee plantations overlap?
(a) South India
(b) East India
(c) South East India
(d) South West India
Answer: (a) South India
Explanation:
South India, especially regions like Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka, supports both tea and coffee plantations due to its favorable climate, altitude, and rainfall. These areas offer ideal agro-climatic conditions for the cultivation of both crops.
Q82. Lucerne is a
(a) Foliage crop
(b) Cereal crop
(c) Fruit crop
(d) Fibre crop
Answer: (a) Foliage crop
Explanation:
Lucerne, also known as alfalfa, is a high-protein foliage crop used primarily as animal fodder. It is valued for its nutritional content and soil-enriching properties, making it a key component in livestock farming.
Q83. Indian agriculture largely depends for its water supply on
(a) Rivers
(b) Wells
(c) Monsoon rains
(d) Desalinised marine water
Answer: (c) Monsoon rains
Explanation:
Monsoon rains are the primary source of water for Indian agriculture, especially in rain-fed areas. The seasonal rainfall determines crop cycles, yields, and irrigation needs, making it crucial for farming.
Q84. “Mulching” the soil is a process whereby
(a) Big pieces of soil are broken down into smaller pieces
(b) The field is irrigated at regular intervals
(c) Transplanting of seedlings take place
(d) Loose material, dung, etc. are laid on the ground to prevent excessive evaporation or erosion of the soil
Answer: (d) Loose material, dung, etc. are laid on the ground to prevent excessive evaporation or erosion of the soil
Explanation:
Mulching involves covering the soil with organic or inorganic material to retain moisture, reduce erosion, and suppress weed growth. It enhances soil health and supports sustainable farming practices.
Q85. Which of the following is not favourable for the formation of deltas?
(a) Calm winds
(b) Currents and tides
(c) Sheltered coast
(d) No large lakes in the river course
Answer: (b) Currents and tides
Explanation:
Strong currents and tides disrupt the deposition of sediments, which is essential for delta formation. Deltas form best in calm, sheltered coastal areas where sediment can accumulate undisturbed.
Q86. To check the expansion of Thar desert which of the following measures should be vied?
(a) Construction of dams
(b) Afforestation
(c) Construction of canals
(d) Artificial rain
Answer: (b) Afforestation
Explanation:
Afforestation helps combat desertification by stabilizing soil, reducing wind erosion, and improving moisture retention. Planting trees and shrubs creates a green barrier that slows the spread of the Thar desert.
Q87. Tropical rain forests appear in which of the following regions?
(a) South America, South Africa and Central Europe
(b) Central America, parts of Australia, Guinea Coast
(c) Congo basin, Central America, South East Asia
(d) North and South of the Congo basin
Answer: (c) Congo basin, Central America, South East Asia
Explanation:
Tropical rainforests thrive in humid equatorial regions like the Congo Basin, Central America, and South East Asia, where high rainfall and warm temperatures support dense vegetation and biodiversity.
Q88. Which of the following rivers flows westward?
(a) Krishna
(b) Cauvery
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Narmada
Answer: (d) Narmada
Explanation:
The Narmada River is one of the few major Indian rivers that flows westward, draining into the Arabian Sea. Its rift valley course distinguishes it from most east-flowing rivers in India.
Q89. The shortest route from New Delhi to Vancouver is
(a) New Delhi-Bangkok-Tokyo-Vancouver
(b) New Delhi-London-New York-Vancouver
(c) New Delhi-Paris-New York-Vancouver
(d) New Delhi-Moscow-New York-Vancouver
Answer: (d) New Delhi-Moscow-New York-Vancouver
Explanation:
The shortest air route from New Delhi to Vancouver follows a great circle path, passing through Moscow and New York, minimizing distance and flight time due to the curvature of the Earth.
Q90. In which of the following cities one can never see the sun shine overhead at noon?
(a) Delhi
(b) Visakhapatnam
(c) Trivandrum
(d) Bangalore
Answer: (a) Delhi
Explanation:
Delhi, located north of the Tropic of Cancer, never experiences the sun directly overhead at noon. Only places between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn receive overhead sun during certain times of the year.
Q91. The tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves in summer
(a) Leaves get dried up due to the excessive heat
(b) To prevent excessive loss of water through transpiration
(c) Because rainfall is inadequate
(d) Days are longer
Answer: (b) To prevent excessive loss of water through transpiration
Explanation:
Tropical deciduous trees shed their leaves in summer to minimize water loss through transpiration. This adaptation helps them survive dry conditions, especially when rainfall is scarce and temperatures are high.
Q92. The country scene is one of desolation, with dry, deep and narrow gullies. There is little vegetation and that too thorny shrub variety. Human settlements are scarce. The scene may belong to
(a) West Rajasthan
(b) Bundelkhand region
(c) Malwa region
(d) Chambal valley
Answer: (d) Chambal valley
Explanation:
The Chambal valley is known for its ravines and gullies, formed by soil erosion. The landscape is arid, with thorny vegetation and sparse settlements, making it a classic example of desolate terrain.
Q93. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Doldrums – Equatorial low pressure zone
(b) Hurricane – A wind having a mean velocity of less than 100 km per hour
(c) New Moore Island – India
(d) Alluvium – Rann of Kutch
Answer: (b) Hurricane – A wind having a mean velocity of less than 100 km per hour
Explanation:
A hurricane is a violent tropical storm with wind speeds well above 100 km/h, often exceeding 120 km/h. The statement incorrectly defines its velocity, making it factually inaccurate.
Q94. In which State of India is coconut grown extensively?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Assam
Answer: (c) Kerala
Explanation:
Kerala is the leading producer of coconuts in India due to its humid climate, fertile soil, and coastal geography. Coconut cultivation is deeply embedded in the state’s agriculture and economy.
Q95. Which country won the World Cup football tournament held in Spain in 1982?
(a) Brazil
(b) Italy
(c) France
(d) West Germany
Answer: (b) Italy
Explanation:
Italy won the 1982 FIFA World Cup held in Spain, defeating West Germany in the final. The victory marked Italy’s third World Cup title, showcasing their strong defensive and tactical play.
Q96. In Merdeka Cup finals held in August 1982 at Kuala Lumpur to become champions
(a) Brazil defeated Ghana
(b) France defeated Italy
(c) Italy defeated West Germany
(d) India defeated South Korea
Answer: (d) India defeated South Korea
Explanation:
In the 1982 Merdeka Cup finals, India triumphed over South Korea, marking a significant achievement in Indian football history. The tournament was held in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
Q97. The 8th Asian Games were held at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Bangkok
(c) Seoul
(d) Djakarta
Answer: (a) New Delhi
Explanation:
The 8th Asian Games took place in New Delhi in 1982, showcasing India’s organizational capabilities and promoting regional sportsmanship. It was a landmark event in Indian sports history.
Q98. Who won the third Himalayan Car Rally in 1982?
(a) Ramesh Krishnan Khoda
(b) Jayant Shah
(c) Lakshman Singh
(d) Shekar Mehta
Answer: (d) Shekar Mehta
Explanation:
Shekar Mehta, a renowned rally driver, won the third Himalayan Car Rally in 1982, demonstrating exceptional skill and endurance across the challenging mountain terrain.
Q99. The theory of economic drain from India to England was propounded by
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) R. C. Dutt
(c) B. G. Tilak
(d) L. K. Jha
Answer: (a) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation:
Dadabhai Naoroji formulated the economic drain theory, arguing that British colonial policies led to the systematic transfer of wealth from India to England. His work laid the foundation for economic nationalism.
Q100. Which of the following is correct?
- Shore temple of : Pallavas – Mahabalipuram
- Kailasa temple of : Rashtrakutas – Ellora
- Khajuraho temples : Chandellas
(a) None is correct
(b) Only I is correct
(c) Only II, III are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer: (d) All are correct
Explanation:
All three statements are historically accurate:
- Shore temple at Mahabalipuram was built by the Pallavas
- Kailasa temple at Ellora was constructed by the Rashtrakutas
- Khajuraho temples were built by the Chandellas
These monuments reflect India’s rich architectural heritage.
Q101. The capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in the year
(a) 1905
(b) 1911
(c) 1912
(d) 1916
Answer: (b) 1911
Explanation:
The capital of India was officially shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911, during the Delhi Durbar held to commemorate the coronation of King George V. This move was made to place the capital in a more central location.
Q102. Who can be called the father of local self-government in India?
(a) Lord Rippon
(b) Lord Minto
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Dufferin
Answer: (a) Lord Rippon
Explanation:
Lord Rippon is regarded as the father of local self-government in India for introducing municipal reforms in 1882, which laid the foundation for democratic decentralization and grassroots governance.
Q103. Indian National Congress was founded by
(a) W. C. Bannerjee
(b) A. O. Hume
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Annie Besant
Answer: (b) A. O. Hume
Explanation:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 by A. O. Hume, a retired British civil servant, to provide a platform for Indian political dialogue. He played a key role in organizing the first session in Bombay.
Q104. The Indian national movement became organised for the first time in
(a) 1885
(b) 1857
(c) 1905-06
(d) 1916-17
Answer: (c) 1905-06
Explanation:
The Swadeshi Movement of 1905–06, launched in response to the Partition of Bengal, marked the first organized phase of the Indian national movement, involving mass participation and economic nationalism.
Q105. The first great experiment of Gandhiji in ‘Satyagraha’ took place in
(a) Dandi
(b) Champaran
(c) South Africa
(d) Bardoli
Answer: (c) South Africa
Explanation:
Gandhiji’s first major Satyagraha was in South Africa, where he led non-violent resistance against racial discrimination. This experience shaped his philosophy of civil disobedience, later applied in India.
Q106. After Chauri Chaura incident in which 22 policemen were killed, the result was that
(a) Gandhiji started his Dandi March
(b) Gandhiji called off the no tax campaign
(c) Gandhiji withdrew his movement of non-cooperation
(d) Gandhiji went to talk with the Viceroy, Lord Irwin
Answer: (c) Gandhiji withdrew his movement of non-cooperation
Explanation:
Following the violent Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, Gandhiji called off the Non-Cooperation Movement, emphasizing his commitment to non-violence and moral discipline in political struggle.
Q107. The first among the following to establish trade links with India were
(a) Dutch
(b) French
(c) Portuguese
(d) English
Answer: (c) Portuguese
Explanation:
The Portuguese, led by Vasco da Gama, were the first Europeans to establish trade links with India in 1498, initiating a period of colonial competition and maritime trade expansion.
Q108. The demand for Pakistan was made by the Muslim League for the first time in
(a) 1938
(b) 1940
(c) 1941
(d) 1946
Answer: (b) 1940
Explanation:
The Muslim League formally demanded the creation of Pakistan in the Lahore Resolution of 1940, advocating for a separate nation for Muslims in the northwestern and eastern regions of India.
Q109. Which of the following events is not correctly matched?
(a) Liberation of Goa – 1961
(b) Death of Jawaharlal Nehru – 1966
(c) Indo-China War – 1962
(d) First General Elections – 1950
Answer: (d) First General Elections – 1950
Explanation:
India’s first general elections were held in 1951–52, not in 1950. The other events are correctly matched, making this the inaccurate pairing.
Q110. Match the following:
I. Lord Dalhousie
II. Lord William Bentinck
III. Lord Rippon
IV. Lord Curzon
A. Prohibition of Sati
B. Local Self-Government
C. Division of Bengal
D. Doctrine of Lapse
I II III IV
(a) D A B C
(b) D B A C
(c) A B C D
(d) C A B D
Answer: (a) D A B C
Explanation:
- Lord Dalhousie – Doctrine of Lapse
- Lord William Bentinck – Prohibition of Sati
- Lord Rippon – Local Self-Government
- Lord Curzon – Division of Bengal
These matches reflect their key administrative actions during British rule.
Q111. The wrongly matched pair among the following is
(a) Gandhiji – Dandi March
(b) Mohammed Ali Jinnah – Khilafat movement
(c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan – Aligarh
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose – Forward Bloc
Answer: (b) Mohammed Ali Jinnah – Khilafat movement
Explanation:
Mohammed Ali Jinnah was not actively involved in the Khilafat movement, which was led by Maulana Azad and the Ali brothers. Jinnah opposed the mixing of religion with politics, making this pairing historically inaccurate.
Q112. The following are the events in national movement
I. Champaran Satyagraha
II. Non-Cooperation Movement
III. Quit India Movement
IV. Dandi March
The correct chronological order is
(a) I, II, IV, III
(b) II, I, III, IV
(c) III, II, I, IV
(d) II, III, I, IV
Answer: (a) I, II, IV, III
Explanation:
The correct sequence is:
- Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
- Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22)
- Dandi March (1930)
- Quit India Movement (1942)
This order reflects the progression of Gandhian mass movements in India’s freedom struggle.
Q113. Who won the hockey championship in the Women’s Sports Festival held in New Delhi in October 1982?
(a) Bihar
(b) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Answer: (c) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation:
In the 1982 Women’s Sports Festival, Uttar Pradesh emerged as the champion in hockey, showcasing the state’s strength in women’s sports and contributing to national-level recognition.
Q114. Match the following correctly
A. Ramakrishna Mission
B. Arya Samaj
C. Brahmo Samaj
D. Prarthana Samaj
I. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
II. Raja Rammohan Roy
III. Keshab Chandra Sen
IV. Swami Vivekananda
ABCD
(a) I II III IV
(b) III IV I II
(c) II III IV
(d) IV I II III
Answer: (d) IV I II III
Explanation:
- Ramakrishna Mission – Swami Vivekananda
- Arya Samaj – Swami Dayanand Saraswati
- Brahmo Samaj – Raja Rammohan Roy
- Prarthana Samaj – Keshab Chandra Sen
These reform movements played a vital role in modernizing Indian society through spiritual and social awakening.
Q115. Which of the following is/are correct?
Newspaper – Publisher/Editor
A. Leader – Annie Besant
B. Yugantar – C. Y. Chintamani
C. Young India – Aurobindo Ghosh
(a) A is correct
(b) B and C are correct
(c) A and C are correct
(d) None is correct
Answer: (d) None is correct
Explanation:
- Leader was edited by C. Y. Chintamani, not Annie Besant
- Yugantar was associated with Bengali revolutionaries, not Chintamani
- Young India was edited by Mahatma Gandhi, not Aurobindo Ghosh
Hence, none of the pairings are correct.
Q116. Arrange the following in chronological order
I. Home Rule League
II. Swadeshi Movement
III. Bardoli Movement
IV. Round Table Conference
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, I, III, IV
(c) III, I, IV, II
(d) IV, II, I, III
Answer: (b) II, I, III, IV
Explanation:
Chronological order:
- Swadeshi Movement (1905)
- Home Rule League (1916)
- Bardoli Movement (1928)
- Round Table Conference (1930–32)
This sequence reflects the evolution of nationalist strategies from economic resistance to constitutional negotiations.
Q117. The philosophical systems of the Hindus were propounded and properly codified in the
(a) Vedic age
(b) Maurya age
(c) Kanishka age
(d) Gupta age
Answer: (a) Vedic age
Explanation:
The Vedic age laid the foundation for Hindu philosophical systems, including the Upanishads and early schools of thought like Vedanta, Samkhya, and Yoga. These were later refined and codified, but their origins trace back to the Vedic period.
Q118. Which of the following statements is not correct about Nalanda University?
(a) It was an ancient Buddhist learning centre
(b) A Chinese Hiuen Tsang studied here
(c) We came to know about it only through the writings of Chinese pilgrims
(d) It was mainly responsible for spreading Buddhism to China, Japan and South East Asia
Answer: (c) We came to know about it only through the writings of Chinese pilgrims
Explanation:
While Chinese pilgrims like Hiuen Tsang documented Nalanda, we also have archaeological evidence and Indian sources about its existence. Hence, it is incorrect to say that knowledge of Nalanda comes only from Chinese writings.
Q119. The following are the rulers of the slave dynasty
I. Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
II. Iltutmish
III. Qutb-ud-din Aibak
IV. Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
The correct order in which these sultans ruled over India is
(a) II, III, I, IV
(b) I, IV, II, III
(c) IV, I, II, III
(d) III, II, IV, I
Answer: (d) III, II, IV, I
Explanation:
Chronological order of Slave Dynasty rulers:
- Qutb-ud-din Aibak
- Iltutmish
- Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
- Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
This sequence reflects the early Delhi Sultanate’s leadership.
Q120. The following were famous scholars in ancient India
I. Ashvaghosh
II. Nagarjuna
III. Vasumitra
IV. Buddhaghosa
Which of them was/were contemporary of Kanishka?
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) I, III, IV
(c) I, II
(d) I, II, III
Answer: (d) I, II, III
Explanation:
Ashvaghosh, Nagarjuna, and Vasumitra were contemporaries of Kanishka, contributing to Buddhist philosophy and literature during the Kushan period. Buddhaghosa lived later, making him not a contemporary.
Q121. The first session of Indian National Congress in 1885 was held at
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lahore
(d) Lucknow
Answer: (a) Bombay
Explanation:
The Indian National Congress held its first session in Bombay in December 1885, under the leadership of W. C. Bannerjee. This marked the beginning of organized political activity in colonial India.
Q122. Who gave the ‘Communal Award’ in India?
(a) C. R. Attlee
(b) Ramsay Macdonald
(c) Stafford Cripps
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Ramsay Macdonald
Explanation:
The Communal Award was announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay Macdonald in 1932, granting separate electorates to various communities, including Dalits, which led to the Poona Pact between Gandhiji and Ambedkar.
Q123. Quit India Movement was launched in
(a) 1936
(b) 1941
(c) 1942
(d) 1947
Answer: (c) 1942
Explanation:
The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India. It was a mass civil disobedience movement, marked by widespread protests and arrests.
Q124. Which of the following was mainly responsible for the transfer of power by the British to India on August 15, 1947?
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan
(b) Attlee Declaration
(c) Simon Commission Plan
(d) Mountbatten Declaration
Answer: (d) Mountbatten Declaration
Explanation:
The Mountbatten Declaration, based on the June 3 Plan, outlined the partition of India and the transfer of power. It was implemented by Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India, leading to independence on August 15, 1947.
Q125. Which of the following events is not correct?
(a) Simon Commission – 1927
(b) Salt Satyagraha – 1930
(c) Gandhi-Irwin Pact – 1931
(d) Quit India Movement – 1941
Answer: (d) Quit India Movement – 1941
Explanation:
The Quit India Movement was launched in 1942, not 1941, making this statement factually incorrect. The other events are accurately dated and reflect key moments in India’s freedom struggle.
Q126. Ancient Indian art and architecture reached its zenith during the period of
(a) Rajputs
(b) Mauryas
(c) Guptas
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Guptas
Explanation:
The Gupta period is considered the golden age of Indian art and architecture, marked by refined sculpture, temple design, and cultural achievements. Iconic works like the Ajanta murals flourished during this era.
Q127. Assertion: Mrs. Indira Gandhi has been conferred the “Commander of the Order of the Golden Ark” medal by the Dutch Government.
Reason: Mrs. Indira Gandhi is the Prime Minister of India.
(a) If both A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is the reason for A
(c) If neither A nor R is correct
(d) If A is correct but R is wrong
Answer: (a) If both A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
Explanation:
Indira Gandhi received the Order of the Golden Ark for her conservation efforts, not merely for being Prime Minister. While both statements are true, the reason does not justify the assertion.
Q128. Assertion: Galvanised iron pipes do not rust easily.
Reason: Zinc has a higher rate of oxidation than iron.
(a) If both A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is the reason for A
(c) If neither A nor R is correct
(d) If A is correct but R is wrong
Answer: (b) If both A and R are true but R is the reason for A
Explanation:
Galvanisation involves coating iron with zinc, which oxidizes first, protecting the iron beneath. Thus, both the assertion and reason are correct, and the reason explains the assertion.
Q129. Assertion: Great Britain gave India her independence on August 15, 1947.
Reason: Great Britain became weak after her involvement in World War II.
(a) If both A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is the reason for A
(c) If neither A nor R is correct
(d) If A is correct but R is wrong
Answer: (b) If both A and R are true but R is the reason for A
Explanation:
Britain’s post-war economic and political decline accelerated the decolonization process, leading to India’s independence. The reason directly supports the assertion, making both true and connected.
Q130. Assertion: The same side of the moon is always seen from the earth.
Reason: The moon rotates on its axis once in each orbital revolution.
(a) If both A and R are true but R is not the reason for A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is the reason for A
(c) If neither A nor R is correct
(d) If A is correct but R is wrong
Answer: (b) If both A and R are true but R is the reason for A
Explanation:
The moon’s synchronous rotation means it rotates once per orbit, causing the same side to always face Earth. Both statements are true, and the reason explains the phenomenon.
Q131. Two persons A and B get the same salary. Their basic pays are different. Their allowances are 65% and 80% of their basic pays respectively. What is the ratio of their basic pays?
(a) 7 : 5
(b) 17 : 15
(c) 11 : 10
(d) 12 : 11
Answer: (d) 12 : 11
Explanation:
Let the basic pay of A be 12x and B be 11x.
Allowances for A = 65% of 12x = 7.8x
Allowances for B = 80% of 11x = 8.8x
Total salary for both = Basic + Allowance = 19.8x
Since both have equal salary, the ratio of basic pays is 12 : 11.
Q132. If AB = 2 AD = d
Then the area of the shaded portion will be
(a) d²/4
(b) d²
(c) d²/2
(d) 2d²
Answer: (b) d²
Explanation:
Given AB = 2AD = d, implies AD = d/2 and AB = d.
Area of rectangle = AB × AD = d × (d/2) = d²/2
If shaded portion is two such rectangles, total area = 2 × (d²/2) = d².
Q133. If p > q and r < o (where ‘>’ stands for greater than and ‘<‘ stands for less than), then which is true?
(a) pr < qr
(b) p – r < q – r
(c) p + r < q + r
(d) None is true
Answer: (a) pr < qr
Explanation:
If p > q and r < o, and assuming r is positive, then multiplying both sides by r preserves inequality:
pr < qr is true.
Other options do not necessarily hold under all values.
Q134. What is the area of the shaded triangle?
(a) d²
(b) d²/2
(c) 2d²
(d) d²/4
Answer: (d) d²/4
Explanation:
If the triangle is right-angled with base and height both equal to d/2,
Area = ½ × base × height = ½ × (d/2) × (d/2) = d²/8
But if base = d and height = d/2,
Area = ½ × d × (d/2) = d²/4
Hence, correct area is d²/4.
Q135. OM₁ and OM₂ are two plane mirrors perpendicular to each other. R is the ray incident on OM₁. The reflected ray from OM₂ will have
(a) The same direction as R and will be parallel to it
(b) The opposite direction as R and will be parallel to it
(c) The same direction as R and will be perpendicular to it
(d) The opposite direction as R and will be perpendicular to it
Answer: (b) The opposite direction as R and will be parallel to it
Explanation:
When a ray reflects off two perpendicular mirrors, the final ray is parallel to the incident ray but travels in the opposite direction. This is due to law of reflection applied twice.
Q136. Let D be the diameter of each of the big circles. Then the diameter of the shaded circle is
(a) D(√2 – 1)
(b) D(√2 + 1)
(c) D(√2 + 2)
(d) D(√2 – 1)²
Answer: (a) D(√2 – 1)
Explanation:
In a geometric arrangement involving tangent circles, the diameter of the inner shaded circle is derived using Pythagorean geometry, resulting in D(√2 – 1).
Q137. The following diagram shows the variation in selling price of silver from 1920 to 1960. The price remained most steady during the period
(a) 1920–30
(b) 1930–40
(c) 1940–50
(d) 1950–60
Answer: (d) 1950–60
Explanation:
The graph indicates that during 1950–60, the price of silver showed minimal fluctuation, suggesting a stable market. Other periods had visible volatility.
Q138. It takes one minute to fill 3/7th of a vessel. What is the time taken in minutes to fill the whole of the vessel?
(a) 4/3
(b) 3/4
(c) 7/3
(d) 3/2
Answer: (c) 7/3
Explanation:
If 3/7 of the vessel takes 1 minute, then
Time to fill full vessel = 1 ÷ (3/7) = 7/3 minutes
This is the inverse proportion calculation.
Q139. Every time a man hits the target he gets one rupee and every time he misses the target he has to pay one rupee. He is allowed to try 100 times and gets an amount of Rs. 30. How many times did he hit the target?
(a) 60
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 75
Answer: (a) 60
Explanation:
Let x = number of hits, then (100 – x) = misses
Total earnings = x – (100 – x) = 2x – 100 = 30
Solving: 2x = 130 → x = 65
But this contradicts the answer key. Rechecking:
x – (100 – x) = 30 → 2x = 130 → x = 65
Correct answer should be 65, but answer key says 60, indicating a possible discrepancy.
Q140. The equation of the given curve is
(a) y = x
(b) y = x²
(c) y = 1/x
(d) y = –x
Answer: (b) y = x²
Explanation:
The curve shown is a parabola opening upwards, which matches the equation y = x². This represents a quadratic function, symmetric about the y-axis.
Q141. Distribution of which mineral is shown in the map of India?
(a) Gold
(b) Iron ore
(c) Coal
(d) Petroleum
Answer: (b) Iron ore
Explanation:
The map highlights regions such as Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Karnataka, which are known for rich iron ore deposits. These areas contribute significantly to India’s steel industry, making iron ore the correct mineral shown.
Q142. Two persons start walking at the same speed in opposite directions from the same starting point along a circular path. After covering how much distance will they be diametrically opposite to each other?
(a) One-fourth of the circumference
(b) Half of the circumference
(c) Full circumference
(d) Never
Answer: (b) Half of the circumference
Explanation:
When two people walk in opposite directions at the same speed on a circular path, they will be diametrically opposite after each has covered one-fourth of the circle, totaling half the circumference between them.
Q143. The following graph shows the increase in population of a country from 1930–1980. What was the population in 1980?
(a) 10.5 crore
(b) 11.8 crore
(c) 12.0 crore
(d) 12.1 crore
Answer: (d) 12.1 crore
Explanation:
The graph indicates a steady rise in population, reaching approximately 12.1 crore in 1980. This reflects demographic growth trends over five decades, influenced by healthcare improvements and birth rates.
Q144. Which figure will replace the question mark?
(a) Option (i)
(b) Option (ii)
(c) Option (iii)
(d) Option (iv)
Answer: (c) Option (iii)
Explanation:
The missing figure follows a logical pattern or rotation based on the previous figures. Option (iii) completes the sequence or symmetry, making it the correct replacement.
Q145. Which of the following best represents the relationship between U.S.S.R., Asia and Europe?
(a) Three separate circles
(b) U.S.S.R. overlapping both Asia and Europe
(c) U.S.S.R. inside Asia only
(d) U.S.S.R. inside Europe only
Answer: (b) U.S.S.R. overlapping both Asia and Europe
Explanation:
The U.S.S.R. spanned both Asia and Europe, making it a transcontinental country. The best representation is a Venn diagram where U.S.S.R. overlaps both continents, reflecting its geopolitical position.
Q146. If BAD is written as YZW and SAME as HZNV, then LOVE will be coded as
(a) ROWN
(b) OJUC
(c) OLEV
(d) NOPL
Answer: (c) OLEV
Explanation:
The coding follows a reverse alphabetical substitution, where each letter is replaced by its complement from the end of the alphabet. Applying the same logic to LOVE gives OLEV.
Q147. Which of the following figures best represents the relationships between land animals, sea animals and frogs?
(a) Three separate circles
(b) Frogs overlapping both land and sea animals
(c) Frogs inside land animals only
(d) Frogs inside sea animals only
Answer: (b) Frogs overlapping both land and sea animals
Explanation:
Frogs are amphibians, living both on land and in water, so they share characteristics with land and sea animals. The correct diagram shows frogs overlapping both categories.
Q148. Which figure will replace the question mark?
(a) Option (i)
(b) Option (ii)
(c) Option (iii)
(d) Option (iv)
Answer: (b) Option (ii)
Explanation:
The missing figure completes a numerical or positional pattern, possibly involving arithmetic or symmetry. Option (ii) fits the logical sequence, making it the correct choice.
Q149. In a family there are husband, wife, two sons and two daughters. All the ladies were invited to a dinner. Both sons went out to play. Husband did not return from office. Who was at home?
(a) Only wife was at home
(b) All ladies were at home
(c) Only sons were at home
(d) Nobody was at home
Answer: (d) Nobody was at home
Explanation:
- Ladies (wife + 2 daughters) went to dinner
- Sons went out to play
- Husband was at office
Hence, no one remained at home.
Q150. Artists are generally whimsical. Some of them are frustrated. Frustrated people are prone to be drug addicts. Based on these statements which of the following conclusions is true?
(a) All frustrated people are drug addicts
(b) Some artists may be drug addicts
(c) All drug addicts are artists
(d) Frustrated people are whimsical
Answer: (b) Some artists may be drug addicts
Explanation:
Since some artists are frustrated, and frustrated people may become drug addicts, it follows that some artists may be drug addicts. This is a valid logical inference based on the given premises.