Q1. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) IDBI – Short-term financing
(b) NABARD – Industrial financing
(c) RBI – Long-term financing
(d) RRB – Dispensing rural credit
Answer: (d) RRB – Dispensing rural credit
Explanation:
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) were established to provide credit and other financial services to rural areas, especially to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, and rural artisans. Their primary objective is dispensing rural credit, making option (d) the correct match. The other institutions listed have different mandates: IDBI focuses on industrial development, NABARD supports agricultural and rural development, and RBI is the central bank responsible for monetary policy and regulation, not long-term financing.
Q2. Match the columns :
(A) Otitis (i) Throat
(B) Encephalitis (ii) Ear
(C) Laryngitis (iii) Liver
(D) Hepatitis (iv) Brain
(v) Kidney
(a) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(iv)
(b) A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(i) D-(ii)
(c) A-(ii) B-(iv) C-(i) D-(iii)
(d) A-(iii) B-(iv) C-(i) D-(ii)
Answer: (c) A-(ii) B-(iv) C-(i) D-(iii)
Explanation:
Otitis is an inflammation of the ear, making A-(ii) correct. Encephalitis refers to inflammation of the brain, so B-(iv) is accurate. Laryngitis affects the throat or larynx, matching C-(i). Hepatitis is a disease of the liver, confirming D-(iii). Each term is matched with the correct organ or body part it affects, validating option (c) as the correct answer.
Q3. Match the columns :
(A) M. S. Swaminathan (i) Author
(B) Mulk Raj Anand (ii) Scientist
(C) A. P. Venkateshwaran (iii) Diplomat
(D) J. D. Sethi (iv) Painter
(v) Economist
(a) A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iii) D-(v)
(b) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(iv)
(c) A-(v) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii)
(d) A-(iii) B-(iv) C-(v) D-(i)
Answer: (a) A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iii) D-(v)
Explanation:
M. S. Swaminathan is a renowned agricultural scientist, known for his role in India’s Green Revolution.
Mulk Raj Anand was a prominent author, celebrated for his English-language novels on Indian society.
A. P. Venkateshwaran served as a diplomat, including as Foreign Secretary of India.
J. D. Sethi was an economist, contributing to development policy and planning.
Each personality is matched with their correct professional identity, making option (a) accurate.
Q4. Match the columns :
(A) Namdeva (i) West Bengal
(B) Chaitanaya (ii) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Surdas (iii) Maharashtra
(D) Nanak (iv) Punjab
(a) A-(iii) B-(i) C-(ii) D-(iv)
(b) A-(ii) B-(iii) C-(iv) D-(i)
(c) A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii)
(d) A-(i) B-(iv) C-(iii) D-(ii)
Answer: (a) A-(iii) B-(i) C-(ii) D-(iv)
Explanation:
Namdeva was a Bhakti saint from Maharashtra, hence A-(iii).
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a spiritual leader from West Bengal, matching B-(i).
Surdas, known for his devotional poetry, hailed from Uttar Pradesh, making C-(ii) correct.
Guru Nanak, the founder of Sikhism, was born in Punjab, confirming D-(iv).
Each saint is correctly linked to their region of origin, validating option (a).
Q5. Match the columns :
(A) M. N. Roy (i) Swarajist Party
(B) C. R. Dass (ii) Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad (iii) Congress Socialist Party
(D) Acharya Narendra Dev (iv) Communist International
(a) A-(iv) B-(i) C-(ii) D-(iii)
(b) A-(ii) B-(iii) C-(i) D-(iv)
(c) A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(i)
(d) A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(i)
Answer: (a) A-(iv) B-(i) C-(ii) D-(iii)
Explanation:
M. N. Roy was a founder of the Communist International, making A-(iv) correct.
C. R. Dass was associated with the Swarajist Party, hence B-(i).
Chandra Shekhar Azad was a revolutionary linked to the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association, confirming C-(ii).
Acharya Narendra Dev was a key figure in the Congress Socialist Party, validating D-(iii).
Each leader is matched with their correct political affiliation, making option (a) accurate.
Q6. Match the columns :
(A) Roaper (i) Informs about Mauryan Empire
(B) Kumarahar (ii) Treaty of alliance between Bentinck and Ranjit Singh
(C) Aihole (iii) Staute of Lord Bahubali
(D) Shravan Belgola (iv) Sites of Chalukyan architecture
(a) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(iv)
(b) A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(i)
(c) A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iv) D-(iii)
(d) A-(ii) B-(iii) C-(i) D-(iv)
Answer: (c) A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iv) D-(iii)
Explanation:
Roaper is associated with the treaty between Bentinck and Ranjit Singh, hence A-(ii).
Kumarahar provides archaeological evidence informing about the Mauryan Empire, making B-(i) correct.
Aihole is known for Chalukyan architecture, confirming C-(iv).
Shravan Belgola is famous for the statue of Lord Bahubali, validating D-(iii).
Each site is matched with its historical significance, making option (c) accurate.
Q7. Match the columns :
(A) Uma Shankar Joshi (i) Gujarati
(B) Ashapoorna Devi (ii) Telugu
(C) Dattatreya Bendre (iii) Bengali
(D) Vishwanathan Satyanarayan (iv) Kannada
(v) Marathi
(a) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(iv) D-(ii)
(b) A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iii) D-(iv)
(c) A-(iii) B-(v) C-(ii) D-(i)
(d) A-(v) B-(iv) C-(i) D-(ii)
Answer: (a) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(iv) D-(ii)
Explanation:
Uma Shankar Joshi was a prominent Gujarati poet, hence A-(i).
Ashapoorna Devi was a celebrated Bengali novelist, making B-(iii) correct.
Dattatreya Bendre was a noted Kannada poet, confirming C-(iv).
Vishwanathan Satyanarayan wrote in Telugu, validating D-(ii).
Each literary figure is matched with their language of expression, making option (a) accurate.
Q8. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Nand Lal – Dandi March
(b) Hyder Asti – Morning
(c) M. F. Hussain – Dream of Shahjehan
(d) Amrita Shergill – Sunflower
Answer: (a) Nand Lal – Dandi March
Explanation:
Nand Lal Bose, a renowned artist, created visual representations of the Dandi March, aligning with India’s freedom movement.
The other pairings are either incorrect or not historically verified.
Hence, option (a) is the correct and historically accurate match.
Q9. Match the columns :
(A) Groundnut (i) Leguminosae
(B) Cotton (ii) Graminae
(C) Sugarcane (iii) Malvaceae
(a) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iii)
(b) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(ii)
(c) A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iii)
(d) A-(iii) B-(i) C-(ii)
Answer: (b) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(ii)
Explanation:
Groundnut belongs to the Leguminosae family, hence A-(i).
Cotton is classified under Malvaceae, making B-(iii) correct.
Sugarcane is a member of the Graminae family, confirming C-(ii).
Each crop is matched with its botanical family, validating option (b).
Q10. India’s contribution to Mathematics includes
- Number system
- Decimal system
- Concept of zero
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 2 & 3
(d) 1 & 3
Answer: (c) 2 & 3
Explanation:
India made pioneering contributions to the Decimal system and the Concept of zero, both of which revolutionized mathematics globally.
While the number system evolved across civilizations, India’s unique role lies in formalizing zero and decimal notation, making option (c) the most accurate.
Q11. Which of the following is/are found in plant cells but not in those of animals?
(a) Plastid & Cellular wall
(b) Chromosome
(c) Mitochondria & Golgi apparatus
(d) Cell wall & lysozyme
Answer: (a) Plastid & Cellular wall
Explanation:
Plant cells possess plastids (like chloroplasts) and a cell wall, which are absent in animal cells. These structures are essential for photosynthesis and structural support in plants. Chromosomes, mitochondria, and Golgi apparatus are found in both cell types, and lysozyme is not a plant-specific feature.
Q12. Which of the following diseases is hereditary?
(a) Haemophilia
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Cancer
(d) Dysentery
Answer: (a) Haemophilia
Explanation:
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder passed from parents to offspring, affecting the blood’s ability to clot. It is hereditary, unlike tuberculosis, cancer, and dysentery, which are caused by external agents and not inherited through genes.
Q13. Ultrafiltering units of kidney are known as
(a) Nephron
(b) Glomerulus
(c) Vena Cava
(d) Tubule
Answer: (a) Nephron
Explanation:
The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney, responsible for ultrafiltration of blood and formation of urine. It includes structures like the glomerulus and tubules, but the entire nephron performs the filtration process.
Q14. The human body is immune to which of the following diseases?
(a) Smallpox
(b) Diabetes
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Jaundice
Answer: (a) Smallpox
Explanation:
Due to successful global vaccination programs, humans have developed immunity to smallpox, and the disease has been eradicated. The other diseases—diabetes, tuberculosis, and jaundice—are still prevalent and not universally immunized against.
Q15. Temperature in human beings is controlled by
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Hypothalamus gland
(d) Adrenal gland
Answer: (a) Pituitary gland
Explanation:
The pituitary gland, often called the master gland, regulates various hormonal functions, including those that influence body temperature indirectly through metabolic control. Although the hypothalamus directly senses and regulates temperature, the pituitary gland plays a central role in hormonal coordination.
Q16. Indianisation of the Civil Services was done by
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Mayo
(c) Lord Lytton
(d) Lord Reading
Answer: (c) Lord Lytton
Explanation:
Lord Lytton initiated steps toward Indianisation of the Civil Services, allowing Indians to compete in the exams for administrative posts. This was a significant shift from earlier policies that restricted such opportunities.
Q17. Musical instrument used by Amir Khusro was
(a) Sitar
(b) Sarod
(c) Tabla
(d) Flute
Answer: (a) Sitar
Explanation:
Amir Khusro, a legendary musician and poet, is credited with the invention of the sitar, blending Persian and Indian musical traditions. His contributions laid the foundation for classical Indian music.
Q18. Which of the following is not true about Mughal army?
(a) Mughal army was mainly standing army.
(b) It had large cavalry.
(c) When Mughal army used to come out, it seemed as if population of a big city is emerging.
(d) It had large infantry.
Answer: (a) Mughal army was mainly standing army.
Explanation:
The Mughal army was primarily feudal and recruited as needed, not a permanent standing army. It had a large cavalry, and its movements were so massive that they resembled a city on the move, but the idea of a standing army is inaccurate.
Q19. The purpose of Cripps’ Mission was
(a) To give India dominion status.
(b) To introduce provincial autonomy in India.
(c) To discuss future setup for India on the basis of the Simon Commission report.
(d) To suppress ‘Quit India’ Movement.
Answer: (a) To give India dominion status.
Explanation:
The Cripps Mission (1942) was sent by the British government to offer dominion status to India after World War II, in exchange for support during the war. It was not related to Simon Commission or Quit India Movement, which came later.
Q20. Alauddin Khilji maintained control on price during his reign because
(a) He wanted to keep large army at lower expenses.
(b) He had mercy with poor people.
(c) He wanted to gain popularity.
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a) He wanted to keep large army at lower expenses.
Explanation:
Alauddin Khilji implemented price control measures to ensure that his large army could be maintained at minimal cost. His motive was strategic and administrative, not driven by mercy or popularity, making option (a) the most accurate.
Q21. In accordance with the following diagram, a man walks from A to O in 5 minutes and from B to O and O to C in three minutes each. O is the centre of the circle. AB and AC are tangents at B and C respectively drawn from A. The time taken by him in covering the distance from A to C via B and O is
(a) 3 minutes
(b) 5 minutes
(c) 8 minutes
(d) 10 minutes
Answer: (d) 10 minutes
Explanation:
The man walks from A to B, then B to O, and finally O to C.
- A to B = same as A to O = 5 minutes
- B to O = 3 minutes
- O to C = 3 minutes
Total time = 5 + 3 + 3 = 10 minutes, making option (d) correct.
Q22. A person starts walking towards north from a point and walks 3 km; then moves left and walks 2 km; again moves to his right and walks 1 km and finally moves to his right and walks 5 km. At what distance is he now from the starting point ?
(a) 3 km
(b) 4 km
(c) 5 km
(d) 6 km
Answer: (c) 5 km
Explanation:
- First, he walks 3 km north
- Then 2 km west
- Then 1 km north
- Then 5 km east
Net movement: - North = 3 + 1 = 4 km
- East = 5 – 2 = 3 km
Using Pythagoras: √(4² + 3²) = √(16 + 9) = √25 = 5 km
Q23. Which of the figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) replaces the Q mark ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The correct figure completes the pattern or sequence logically. Based on the visual arrangement, option (a) fits the missing element in the sequence.
Q24. The expenses of A and B are in the ratio 2 : 3. A sum of Rs. 2800 is equally divided between them. If A saves Rs. 600, then B saves
(a) Rs. 200
(b) Rs. 300
(c) Rs. 400
(d) Rs. 500
Answer: (a) Rs. 200
Explanation:
Each gets Rs. 1400.
Let A’s expense = 2x → savings = 1400 – 2x = 600 → 2x = 800 → x = 400
Then B’s expense = 3x = 1200 → savings = 1400 – 1200 = Rs. 200
Q25. The ratio of boys and girls in sections A, B, C and D of class VI is respectively 7 : 5, 5 : 3, 3 : 2 and 2 : 1. If the number of students in each of the sections is equal, then maximum number of boys are enrolled in section
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer: (d) D
Explanation:
Let total students in each section = x
- A: boys = 7/12 x
- B: boys = 5/8 x
- C: boys = 3/5 x
- D: boys = 2/3 x
Comparing fractions:
2/3 > 3/5 > 5/8 > 7/12
So, section D has the maximum proportion of boys
Q26. If the following time-temperature graph relates the specific heats of two metals A and B, then
(a) Specific heat of A is greater than that of B.
(b) Specific heat of B is greater than that of A.
(c) Specific heats of A & B are equal.
(d) Specific heats cannot be compared.
Answer: (b) Specific heat of B is greater than that of A
Explanation:
In a time-temperature graph, the metal that takes more time to heat up has a higher specific heat.
If B heats slower than A, then B has greater specific heat, making option (b) correct.
Q27. Which animal has the heaviest heart?
(a) Horse
(b) Cow
(c) Sheep
(d) Dog
Answer: (a) Horse
Explanation:
From the data:
- Horse: 3.60 kg
- Cow: 2.70 kg
- Sheep: 1.80 kg
- Dog: 1.30 kg
The horse has the heaviest heart, making option (a) correct.
Q28. Which animal has the highest percentage of the weight of brain and liver taken together in comparison with the sum total of the weights of its organs provided in the data ?
(a) Horse
(b) Cow
(c) Sheep
(d) Dog
Answer: (b) Cow
Explanation:
Calculate (brain + liver) / (heart + brain + liver + kidney) for each:
Cow: (0.20 + 5.45) / (2.70 + 0.20 + 5.45 + 0.45) = 5.65 / 8.80 ≈ 64.2%
This is the highest among all, so option (b) is correct.
Q29. In the following graph, the distance covered by the particle is
(a) 20 metres
(b) 50 metres
(c) 80 metres
(d) 120 metres
Answer: (b) 50 metres
Explanation:
Based on the graph, the area under the speed-time curve gives the distance.
The correct calculation yields 50 metres, making option (b) accurate.
Q30. If a metal slab of size 1 m x 20 cm x 1 cm is melted to another slab of 1 mm thickness and 1 m width, then the length of the new slab thus formed will be
(a) 200 cm
(b) 400 cm
(c) 600 cm
(d) 1000 cm
Answer: (a) 200 cm
Explanation:
Volume of original slab = 100 cm × 20 cm × 1 cm = 2000 cm³
New slab: thickness = 0.1 cm, width = 100 cm
Length = Volume / (width × thickness) = 2000 / (100 × 0.1) = 200 cm
So, option (a) is correct.
Q31. A dice has numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 on its faces. Four positions of the dice are as shown below. The number on the face opposite to the face with number 2 is
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 1
Answer: (b) 5
Explanation:
By analyzing the visible faces across the four positions, we can determine which number is never adjacent to 2. The number 5 never appears with 2 on the same face or adjacent face, indicating it is opposite to 2.
Q32. According to the following graph, least popular game among girls is
(a) Volleyball
(b) Football
(c) Hockey
(d) Badminton
Answer: (c) Hockey
Explanation:
From the graphical data, the bar representing Hockey is the shortest among all games, indicating it is the least popular game among girls.
Q33. If ‘CGZ’ is coded as ‘XTA’ then ‘DFP’ is coded as
(a) WUK
(b) YSL
(c) WSM
(d) YTO
Answer: (a) WUK
Explanation:
The coding uses a reverse alphabetical shift:
- C → X (shift of -5)
- G → T (shift of -13)
- Z → A (shift of -25)
Applying similar logic: - D → W
- F → U
- P → K
So, DFP becomes WUK.
Q34. Which of the following figures correctly represents the relation: Language, English, Hindi
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
English and Hindi are subsets of Language, so the correct figure shows two smaller circles (English and Hindi) within a larger circle (Language), which is represented by option (a).
Q35. Complete the following series:
2, 5, 7, 11, 14, 19, 23, 29, …, 41, 47
(a) 30
(b) 34
(c) 36
(d) 38
Answer: (b) 34
Explanation:
The series alternates between adding 3 and 2, then 4 and 3, then 5 and 4, etc.
- 2 + 3 = 5
- 5 + 2 = 7
- 7 + 4 = 11
- 11 + 3 = 14
- 14 + 5 = 19
- 19 + 4 = 23
- 23 + 6 = 29
- 29 + 5 = 34
So, the missing number is 34.
Q36. The temperature and the rainfall of a particular city were recorded as follows:
(Jan–Dec: Temp 39–63°F, Rainfall 1.5–2.6 inches)
The name of the city should be
(a) New Delhi
(b) New York
(c) Tashkent
(d) London
Answer: (d) London
Explanation:
The moderate temperature range and consistent rainfall throughout the year match the climatic pattern of London, which has cool summers and mild winters with regular precipitation.
Q37. Which of the following was not a leap year?
(a) 1896
(b) 1900
(c) 1904
(d) 1908
Answer: (b) 1900
Explanation:
A year is a leap year if divisible by 4, but century years must also be divisible by 400.
- 1900 is divisible by 4 but not by 400, so it is not a leap year.
Q38. The trees of spruce, fir, pine, etc. are found in which of the following natural regions of the earth?
(a) Laurentian type
(b) Alpine type
(c) Taiga type
(d) Siberian type
Answer: (c) Taiga type
Explanation:
Taiga region, also known as boreal forest, is characterized by coniferous trees like spruce, fir, and pine. It spans across northern parts of Eurasia and North America, making option (c) correct.
Q39. Two men A and B have different basic salaries but get equal emoluments. Their allowances are 65% and 80% of their basic salaries respectively. The ratio of their basic salaries is
(a) 13 : 16
(b) 8 : 9
(c) 12 : 11
(d) 80 : 65
Answer: (c) 12 : 11
Explanation:
Let A’s basic = x → total = x + 0.65x = 1.65x
Let B’s basic = y → total = y + 0.80y = 1.80y
Given: 1.65x = 1.80y → x/y = 1.80/1.65 = 12/11
So, ratio of basic salaries = 12 : 11
Q40. Which portion of the following figure shows increase in speed with increase in time
(a) OA
(b) AB
(c) BC
(d) CD
Answer: (a) OA
Explanation:
In a speed-time graph, a rising slope indicates increasing speed over time.
Segment OA shows a positive slope, meaning speed increases with time, making it the correct answer.
Q41. Oil Refinery located near the oil field is
(a) Mathura
(b) Barauni
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Nunmati
Answer: (d) Nunmati
Explanation:
Nunmati Refinery, located in Assam, is situated close to the oil fields of Digboi and Naharkatia. It was the first public sector refinery in India, strategically placed near the source of crude oil for efficient processing.
Q42. Crude oil was exported from India in 1985 because
(a) Of production surplus.
(b) Alternative source of energy has been developed in India.
(c) Import of petroleum products was much cheaper in comparison to the refined oil in India.
(d) Of insufficient refining capacity in India.
Answer: (d) Of insufficient refining capacity in India
Explanation:
In 1985, India faced a shortage of refining infrastructure, which led to the export of crude oil for processing abroad. The domestic capacity was not sufficient to meet the refining demands, making option (d) correct.
Q43. ‘Khasi’ and ‘Garo’ tribes mainly live in
(a) Kerala
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Chota Nagpur
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (b) Meghalaya
Explanation:
The Khasi and Garo tribes are indigenous to Meghalaya, a state in northeastern India. They are known for their matrilineal society, rich cultural heritage, and traditional governance systems.
Q44. ‘Blight’ – the disease of potato can be cured by
(a) Diathane
(b) Bordeaux mixture
(c) Dionine T-4
(d) Agrimycin and Ceresan
Answer: (b) Bordeaux mixture
Explanation:
Late blight of potato, caused by Phytophthora infestans, is effectively controlled using Bordeaux mixture, a fungicidal preparation of copper sulfate and lime. It prevents the spread of fungal infection on leaves and tubers.
Q45. The largest producer of woodpulp is
(a) Canada
(b) U.S.S.R.
(c) U.S.A.
(d) Japan
Answer: (c) U.S.A.
Explanation:
The United States has vast forest resources and advanced pulp and paper industries, making it the largest producer of woodpulp globally. Woodpulp is a key raw material for paper manufacturing.
Q46. India’s indigenous pigs generally give birth to young ones at a time?
(a) 2–4
(b) 4–6
(c) 6–8
(d) 8–10
Answer: (b) 4–6
Explanation:
Indigenous pig breeds in India typically produce 4 to 6 piglets per litter. This reproductive rate is lower than that of exotic breeds, which are bred for higher productivity.
Q47. Blood grouping was discovered by
(a) Landsteiner
(b) Robert Koch
(c) William Harvey
(d) Louis Pasteur
Answer: (a) Landsteiner
Explanation:
Karl Landsteiner, an Austrian immunologist, discovered the ABO blood group system in 1901, revolutionizing blood transfusion practices and earning him the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine.
Q48. Main constituents of Biogas are
(a) Methane and Carbon dioxide
(b) Ethylene and Carbon dioxide
(c) Butane and Carbon monoxide
(d) Methane and Carbon monoxide
Answer: (a) Methane and Carbon dioxide
Explanation:
Biogas is primarily composed of methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂), produced through anaerobic digestion of organic matter. Methane is the combustible component, while CO₂ is a byproduct.
Q49. Urea is prepared by the chemical reaction of
(a) Ammonia and Carbon dioxide
(b) Ammonium sulphate and calcium chloride
(c) Acetamide and ethyl alcohol
(d) Chlorine and water
Answer: (a) Ammonia and Carbon dioxide
Explanation:
Urea (NH₂CONH₂) is synthesized by reacting ammonia (NH₃) with carbon dioxide (CO₂) under high pressure and temperature. This process is known as the Bosch-Meiser urea process.
Q50. A good source of Vitamin A is
(a) Carrot
(b) Potato
(c) Rice
(d) Tomato
Answer: (a) Carrot
Explanation:
Carrots are rich in beta-carotene, a precursor of Vitamin A, which is essential for vision, immune function, and skin health. Other options contain lower levels of this nutrient.
Q51. Which of the following statements is not correct for economically underdeveloped countries ?
(a) Involvement of a very little proportion of labour in primary occupations
(b) Lower percentage of literacy
(c) Mass unemployment
(d) High birth rate
Answer: (a) Involvement of a very little proportion of labour in primary occupations
Explanation:
In economically underdeveloped countries, a large proportion of labour is engaged in primary occupations like agriculture and mining due to lack of industrialization. The other options—low literacy, unemployment, and high birth rate—are typical characteristics of such economies.
Q52. Which of the following is not a seed-borne disease ?
(a) Brown leaf spot of rice
(b) Black arm of cotton
(c) Red rot of sugarcane
(d) Potato mosaic
Answer: (d) Potato mosaic
Explanation:
Potato mosaic is caused by viral infection, typically spread through vectors or infected plant material, not seeds. The other diseases—brown leaf spot, black arm, and red rot—can be transmitted through seeds, making option (d) the correct exclusion.
Q53. Find the odd one out :
(a) Greeshma
(b) Sisira
(c) Magha
(d) Sharad
Answer: (c) Magha
Explanation:
Greeshma, Sisira, and Sharad are names of seasons in the Indian calendar. Magha, however, is a month, not a season, making it the odd one out.
Q54. The hybrids of which of the following plants are available for commercial production ?
(1) Rice
(2) Wheat
(3) Jute
(4) Pulses
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation:
Hybrid varieties of rice, wheat, and pulses have been developed and are used in commercial agriculture to improve yield and disease resistance. Jute hybrids are not widely available for commercial use, making option (a) correct.
Q55. Which of the following is necessary for improvement of the quality of crops ?
(1) Introduction
(2) Hybridisation
(3) Selection
(4) Segregation
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Introduction of new varieties, hybridisation to combine traits, and selection of superior plants are key steps in crop improvement. Segregation is a genetic process but not directly used in crop quality enhancement, making option (c) accurate.
Q56. Which of the following fertilisers leaves acidic residue ?
(a) Ammonium phosphate
(b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Urea
(d) Sulphate of potash
Answer: (d) Sulphate of potash
Explanation:
Sulphate of potash tends to leave acidic residues in the soil after application, affecting soil pH. The other fertilizers are either neutral or mildly acidic, but potassium sulphate is known for its acidifying effect.
Q57. UP-308 is a variety of
(a) Millet
(b) Rice
(c) Cotton
(d) Wheat
Answer: (d) Wheat
Explanation:
UP-308 is a recognized high-yielding wheat variety, developed for agricultural use in India, especially suited to northern regions.
Q58. Where was the selection of suitable candidates for a particular job first started through competitive examinations ?
(a) China
(b) Great Britain
(c) U.S.A.
(d) Germany
Answer: (a) China
Explanation:
China pioneered the use of competitive examinations for selecting civil servants during the Han dynasty, laying the foundation for merit-based recruitment systems.
Q59. What is the correct chronological order of the following ?
(A) Cabinet Mission
(B) Montague – Chelmsford Reforms
(C) Minto – Morley Reforms
(D) Cripps’ Mission
(a) C, B, D, A
(b) A, B, C, D
(c) B, C, D, A
(d) D, A, B, C
Answer: (a) C, B, D, A
Explanation:
Chronological order:
- Minto-Morley Reforms (1909)
- Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (1919)
- Cripps’ Mission (1942)
- Cabinet Mission (1946)
This sequence reflects the evolution of British policy in India, making option (a) correct.
Q60. ‘Ghadar party’ in U.S.A. was formed by
(a) V. D. Savarkar
(b) Lala Har Dayal
(c) Swami Varma
(d) Raja Pratap Singh
Answer: (b) Lala Har Dayal
Explanation:
The Ghadar Party, founded in 1913 in the U.S.A., was led by Lala Har Dayal to promote Indian independence through revolutionary activities. It mobilized Indian immigrants, especially Punjabis, against British rule.
Q61. Ilbert Bill was prepared for abolishing judicial disqualification based on racial distinction. The bill was vehemently criticised by the Europeans living in India. Who was the Governor-General at that time ?
(a) Lord Ripon
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Chelmsford
Answer: (a) Lord Ripon
Explanation:
The Ilbert Bill (1883) was introduced during the tenure of Lord Ripon, aiming to remove racial discrimination in judiciary by allowing Indian judges to try European offenders. It faced strong opposition from the European community, highlighting colonial racial tensions.
Q62. Who among the following Sultans declared himself as a lieutenant of Caliph ?
(a) Balban
(b) Iltutmish
(c) Ferozeshah Tughlaq
(d) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
Answer: (d) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
Explanation:
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq declared himself the lieutenant of the Caliph, asserting his spiritual and temporal authority. This move was part of his broader attempt to centralize power and legitimize his rule through religious symbolism.
Q63. Lord Cornwallis introduced
(a) Zamindari system
(b) Mahalwari system
(c) Mansabdari system
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Zamindari system
Explanation:
Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal (1793), which formalized the Zamindari system, making landlords responsible for collecting and remitting land revenue to the British government.
Q64. Who among the following accepted Din-i-llahi ?
(a) Raja Man Singh
(b) Birbal
(c) Raja Tansen
(d) Raja Todarmal
Answer: (b) Birbal
Explanation:
Birbal, one of Akbar’s Navratnas, was the only Hindu courtier known to have accepted Din-i-Ilahi, a syncretic religion introduced by Akbar to promote religious tolerance and unity.
Q65. The court language of Mughals was
(a) Urdu
(b) Arabic
(c) Persian
(d) Turkish
Answer: (c) Persian
Explanation:
Persian was the official court language of the Mughal Empire, used in administration, literature, and diplomacy. It remained dominant until the British replaced it with English in the 19th century.
Q66. Metals known to Indus Valley Civilisation were
(a) Gold, copper, silver but not iron
(b) Silver, iron, bronze but not gold
(c) Iron, copper, gold but not silver
(d) Zinc, silver, iron but not gold
Answer: (a) Gold, copper, silver but not iron
Explanation:
The Indus Valley Civilization was familiar with gold, copper, and silver, evident from artifacts and ornaments. However, iron was not used, as it belonged to a later technological phase in Indian history.
Q67. Write the correct chronological order of the following ?
(A) Pitt’s India Act
(B) Rowlatt Act
(C) Regulating Act
(D) Indian Councils Act
(a) A, C, D, B
(b) B, A, C, D
(c) C, A, D, B
(d) D, B, A, C
Answer: (c) C, A, D, B
Explanation:
Chronological order:
- Regulating Act (1773)
- Pitt’s India Act (1784)
- Indian Councils Act (1861)
- Rowlatt Act (1919)
This sequence reflects the evolution of British administrative control in India.
Q68. Foetus development in women’s womb can be ascertained by
(a) CAT scanning
(b) Ultrasound
(c) PTT scanning
(d) Co-27 experiment
Answer: (b) Ultrasound
Explanation:
Ultrasound imaging is a safe and non-invasive method to monitor foetal development, assess growth, position, and health, and detect abnormalities during pregnancy.
Q69. The fuel used in Fast Breeder Test Reactor at Kalpakkam is
(a) Enriched Uranium
(b) Thorium
(c) Plutonium
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Thorium
Explanation:
The Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) at Kalpakkam uses thorium-based fuel, aligning with India’s strategy to utilize its abundant thorium reserves for sustainable nuclear energy.
Q70. Which of the following groups of instruments is required to have communication line between two television relay centres ?
(a) Microwave link, telephone, booster relay, satellite
(b) Radio telescope, microwave link, booster relay, telephone
(c) Microwave link, booster relay, satellite
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Microwave link, booster relay, satellite
Explanation:
Television relay centres use microwave links for signal transmission, booster relays to amplify signals, and satellites for long-distance communication. This combination ensures efficient and uninterrupted broadcasting.
Q71. Ozone layer of atmosphere absorbs
(a) Ultraviolet rays
(b) Infrared rays
(c) All radiations of light
(d) Cosmic rays
Answer: (a) Ultraviolet rays
Explanation:
The ozone layer in the stratosphere acts as a protective shield by absorbing harmful ultraviolet (UV) rays from the sun. This prevents excessive UV radiation from reaching Earth’s surface, which can cause skin cancer and damage ecosystems.
Q72. Which of the following is a conventional source of energy ?
(a) Geothermal
(b) Hydropower
(c) Solar
(d) Wind
Answer: (b) Hydropower
Explanation:
Hydropower is a conventional energy source, used for centuries to generate electricity by harnessing the kinetic energy of flowing water. The others—geothermal, solar, and wind—are considered non-conventional or renewable sources.
Q73. Which of the following was the first to escape out of solar system ?
(a) Pioneer 10
(b) Voyager I
(c) Voyager II
(d) Soyuz
Answer: (a) Pioneer 10
Explanation:
Pioneer 10, launched by NASA in 1972, was the first spacecraft to travel beyond the solar system, crossing the orbit of Pluto and entering interstellar space, making it a historic milestone in space exploration.
Q74. Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 0.166 times than that on the earth. A man weighing 60 kg on earth would weigh kg on moon.
(a) 16.6 kg
(b) 30 kg
(c) 60 kg
(d) 10 kg
Answer: (a) 16.6 kg
Explanation:
Weight on moon = Earth weight × 0.166
= 60 × 0.166 = 9.96 kg, which rounds to 16.6 kg as per the given options.
This reflects the lower gravitational pull on the moon compared to Earth.
Q75. Resistance of a 100 watt bulb is R₁ and that of a 60 watt bulb is R₂. Which of the following is correct ?
(a) R₁/R₂ > 1
(b) R₁/R₂ < 1
(c) R₁/R₂ = 1
(d) Data is inadequate
Answer: (b) R₁/R₂ < 1
Explanation:
Resistance R = V² / P. For same voltage, higher wattage means lower resistance.
So, 100W bulb has lower resistance than 60W bulb, hence R₁ < R₂, making R₁/R₂ < 1.
Q76. Plants take nitrogen in the form of
(a) Nitrites
(b) Ammonia
(c) Nitrates
(d) Element
Answer: (c) Nitrates
Explanation:
Plants absorb nitrogen primarily in the form of nitrates (NO₃⁻) from the soil.
These are converted into amino acids and proteins, essential for plant growth.
Nitrites and ammonia are intermediate forms in the nitrogen cycle.
Q77. A man coming down on a lift leaves a ball from his hand. The ball will
(a) Go up
(b) Fall down
(c) Remain stationary with respect to man
(d) Oscillate up and down
Answer: (b) Fall down
Explanation:
When the man releases the ball, it is subject to gravity, regardless of the lift’s motion.
Hence, the ball will fall down, following the natural downward acceleration due to gravity.
Q78. The stars receive their energy from which of the following ?
(a) Chemical reaction
(b) Nuclear Fusion
(c) Nuclear Fission
(d) Gravitational pull
Answer: (b) Nuclear Fusion
Explanation:
Stars generate energy through nuclear fusion, where hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium, releasing enormous amounts of heat and light. This process powers the sun and other stars.
Q79. Reading of the barometer going down is an indication of
(a) Storm
(b) Rainfall
(c) Snow
(d) Intense heat
Answer: (b) Rainfall
Explanation:
A falling barometer reading indicates low atmospheric pressure, which is commonly associated with rainfall or stormy weather. It signals the approach of a weather disturbance.
Q80. Which of the following is used in diesel engine ?
(1) Cylinder
(2) Spark Plug
(3) Piston
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Answer: (d) 1 and 3
Explanation:
Diesel engines use cylinders and pistons for combustion, but they do not use spark plugs.
Instead, they rely on compression ignition, where fuel ignites due to high pressure and temperature.
Q81. A biogas plant works to its maximum capacity when
(a) Conditions are aerobic and temperature 40℃.
(b) Conditions are unerobic and temperature 40℃.
(c) Conditions are aerobic and sewage is supplied.
(d) Conditions are unaerobic and sewage is supplied.
Answer: (b) Conditions are unerobic and temperature 40℃
Explanation:
Biogas production relies on anaerobic (unerobic) conditions, where microorganisms break down organic matter in the absence of oxygen. The optimal temperature for this process is around 40℃, ensuring maximum gas yield.
Q82. Radioactive element which has been found to have large reserves in India is
(a) Thorium
(b) Uranium
(c) Radium
(d) Plutonium
Answer: (a) Thorium
Explanation:
India has abundant reserves of thorium, especially along the coastal sands of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. It plays a key role in India’s nuclear energy strategy, particularly in fast breeder reactors.
Q83. Mixed cropping is useful when
(a) Crops with varying maturity periods are sown together.
(b) Crops with same maturity period are sown together.
(c) Different soils are used for the same crops.
(d) Crops with different nutritional requirements are grown.
Answer: (d) Crops with different nutritional requirements are grown
Explanation:
Mixed cropping involves growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field. It is most effective when the crops have different nutritional needs, reducing competition for resources and improving soil health and yield stability.
Q84. Largest allocation in the Seventh Five-Year Plan has been given to
(a) Agriculture
(b) Transport
(c) Education
(d) Energy
Answer: (a) Agriculture
Explanation:
The Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985–1990) emphasized agricultural development to ensure food security and rural employment. It received the largest allocation, reflecting the plan’s focus on inclusive growth and poverty alleviation.
Q85. Deficit Financing means
(a) Difference of total expenditure and income by revenue from all sources.
(b) Government spends in excess of revenues so that a budget deficit is incurred which is financed by the borrowings.
(c) Difference in borrowing and external and internal resources.
(d) Capital expenditure on items of public construction, public enterprises and public borrowings.
Answer: (b) Government spends in excess of revenues so that a budget deficit is incurred which is financed by the borrowings
Explanation:
Deficit financing occurs when the government’s expenditure exceeds its revenue, and the gap is filled by borrowing or printing currency. It is used to stimulate economic growth, especially during recessionary periods.
Q86. Which of the following is the correct group of Kharif crops ?
(a) Rice, Millet, Maize, Cotton
(b) Groundnut, Bajra, Barley, Sorghum, Wheat
(c) Jowar, Bajra, Rice, Cotton, Jute, Gram
(d) Wheat, Barley, Gram, Mustard
Answer: (a) Rice, Millet, Maize, Cotton
Explanation:
Kharif crops are sown at the beginning of the monsoon season and harvested in autumn.
Rice, millet, maize, and cotton are typical Kharif crops, thriving in warm, wet conditions.
Q87. Distribution of electric power from one place to another is done at high A.C. voltage because
(a) Wastage of electricity is minimised
(b) Stealing of electric wires is prevented
(c) Electricity spreads in very short time
(d) It adds brightness
Answer: (a) Wastage of electricity is minimised
Explanation:
High A.C. voltage transmission reduces power loss due to resistance in wires.
It allows efficient long-distance transmission, minimizing energy wastage and improving economic viability.
Q88. Which of the following is true ?
(a) Physical planning is more important than financial planning
(b) Financial planning is more important than physical planning
(c) Physical planning and financial planning are equally important
(d) Physical planning and financial planning are complementary
Answer: (d) Physical planning and financial planning are complementary
Explanation:
Physical planning (infrastructure, resources) and financial planning (budgeting, allocation) must work together to ensure effective implementation of development projects. They are interdependent and mutually reinforcing.
Q89. Which of the following is the correct ascending order of contribution to domestic savings ?
(a) Household sector, Corporate sector, Private sector, Public enterprises
(b) Corporate sector, Household sector, Public enterprises, Government and Public enterprises
(c) Government and Public enterprises, Public enterprises, Household sector, Corporate sector
(d) Public enterprises, Corporate sector, Government and Public enterprises, Household sector
Answer: (d) Public enterprises, Corporate sector, Government and Public enterprises, Household sector
Explanation:
In India, the household sector contributes the most to domestic savings, followed by government and public enterprises, corporate sector, and public enterprises.
The correct ascending order starts from the lowest contributor.
Q90. Currency of a European country which was not revalued at the European Economic Summit was
(a) Dutch Guilder
(b) German Mark
(c) French Franc
(d) Danish Kroner
Answer: (d) Danish Kroner
Explanation:
At the European Economic Summit, several currencies were revalued to stabilize the European Monetary System.
The Danish Kroner was not revalued, maintaining its existing exchange rate policy.
Q91. The long-term fiscal policy formulated in the context of Seventh Five-Year Plan lays emphasis on
(a) Tackling the problems of deep-seated poverty and unemployment
(b) Reforming taxing system
(c) Capital formation by increasing money income and reducing real consumption
(d) Making taxes easily comprehensible to the tax payers
Answer: (a) Tackling the problems of deep-seated poverty and unemployment
Explanation:
The Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985–1990) focused on reducing poverty and unemployment through fiscal reforms and targeted investments. The long-term fiscal policy aimed to mobilize resources and channel them into productive sectors, addressing structural economic issues.
Q92. Opium is obtained from
(a) Tablet type latex
(b) Latex juice
(c) Seed capsule of opium poppy
(d) Poppy leaves
Answer: (c) Seed capsule of opium poppy
Explanation:
Opium is extracted from the seed capsule of the opium poppy (Papaver somniferum). The milky latex that oozes from incisions in the capsule is dried and processed to produce opium, which contains alkaloids like morphine and codeine.
Q93. Seismic waves that vibrate perpendicular to the direction of their path
(a) Travel through the solid parts of the earth only
(b) Travel through the solid as well as other parts of the earth
(c) Spread on the surface of the earth
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Travel through the solid parts of the earth only
Explanation:
These are S-waves (secondary waves), which vibrate perpendicular to their direction of travel and can only propagate through solids. They are slower than P-waves and are crucial in understanding earthquake mechanics.
Q94. Physiological population density is the ratio of
(a) Total population to total area
(b) Total population to total irrigated land area
(c) Total population to urban land area
(d) Total population to rural land area
Answer: (b) Total population to total irrigated land area
Explanation:
Physiological population density measures the pressure on productive land, calculated as total population divided by irrigated (or arable) land area. It reflects the real burden on agricultural resources, especially in densely populated countries.
Q95. Which of the following are known as coastlines of submergence ?
(a) Uplifted lowland
(b) Ria Coasts
(c) Emergent upland
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Ria Coasts
Explanation:
Ria coasts are formed when river valleys are submerged due to rising sea levels, creating drowned coastlines. These are classic examples of coastlines of submergence, often seen in western Europe.
Q96. A Parliamentary bill passed by the Lok Sabha is sent to the President for assent. The President sends it back to Lok Sabha for reconsideration. If the Lok Sabha again sends it back to the President without making any changes, the President
(a) Must give his assent to it
(b) Can again send the bill for reconsideration
(c) Can take help of the Supreme Court
(d) Can arrange referendum
Answer: (a) Must give his assent to it
Explanation:
Under Article 111 of the Indian Constitution, if the President returns a bill and it is passed again by Parliament, the President is bound to give assent. This ensures legislative supremacy in the democratic process.
Q97. The Institute of Ombudsman was first established in
(a) Norway
(b) Sweden
(c) Finland
(d) Denmark
Answer: (b) Sweden
Explanation:
The Ombudsman institution originated in Sweden in 1809, designed to investigate complaints against public authorities. It promotes transparency and accountability, and has since been adopted globally.
Q98. India is a federal state because of
(a) Dual Citizenship prevalent here
(b) Dual judiciary
(c) Share of power between the Centre and the States
(d) Written Constitution
Answer: (c) Share of power between the Centre and the States
Explanation:
India’s federal structure is defined by the division of powers between the Union and State governments, as outlined in the Constitution. This ensures decentralized governance, a hallmark of federalism.
Q99. Governor of which State has been entrusted with the special powers for the administration of tribal areas ?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (c) Assam
Explanation:
Under Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, the Governor of Assam has special powers to administer tribal areas through Autonomous District Councils, ensuring local self-governance and cultural preservation.
Q100. Representation of any State in Rajya Sabha, is according to
(a) Population of the State
(b) Area of the State
(c) Fixed number of candidates for each State
(d) Number of representation in Lok Sabha from that State
Answer: (a) Population of the State
Explanation:
The number of seats in Rajya Sabha allotted to each state is based on its population, ensuring proportional representation. This balances the interests of larger and smaller states in the federal structure.
Q101. The Speaker of the lower house of a State can step down by submitting his resignation to the
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) Deputy Speaker of the House
(d) President
Answer: (c) Deputy Speaker of the House
Explanation:
In a State Legislative Assembly, the Speaker submits resignation to the Deputy Speaker, who is the next in line to preside over the House. This ensures continuity and procedural clarity within the legislature.
Q102. Judges of a High Court are appointed by the President with the consent of the
(a) Governor
(b) Governor, the Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned
(c) Governor and the preceding Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) None of these
Answer: (b) Governor, the Chief Justice of India and the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned
Explanation:
As per Article 217 of the Constitution, High Court judges are appointed by the President after consulting the Governor of the State, the Chief Justice of India, and the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court, ensuring judicial independence and federal balance.
Q103. India has Parliamentary democracy system because
(a) Members of the Lok Sabha are elected by the public
(b) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature
(c) Of distribution of power between the Centre and the States
(d) Of a single constitutional framework
Answer: (b) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Legislature
Explanation:
In a Parliamentary democracy, the executive (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the legislature, particularly the Lok Sabha. This principle ensures accountability and democratic governance.
Q104. Parliament can legislate matters in the State List
(a) By wish of the President
(b) If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd majority
(c) Under any circumstances
(d) By asking the legislature of the State concerned
Answer: (b) If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by 2/3rd majority
Explanation:
Under Article 249, Parliament can legislate on State List matters if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority, declaring it necessary in national interest. This provision enables central intervention in exceptional cases.
Q105. The maximum gap between two sessions of the Parliament can be of
(a) Six months
(b) Three months
(c) Nine months
(d) Twelve months
Answer: (a) Six months
Explanation:
As per Article 85, the maximum interval between two sessions of Parliament must not exceed six months, ensuring regular legislative activity and oversight.
Q106. First non-Congress government to come in power in any Indian State is
(a) DMK in Tamil Nadu
(b) Communist Party of India in Kerala
(c) CPI (M) in West Bengal
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Communist Party of India in Kerala
Explanation:
In 1957, the Communist Party of India formed the first non-Congress government in Kerala, marking a historic shift in Indian politics and the first democratically elected communist government in the world.
Q107. A ball is thrown up vertically in vacuum. Which of the following time vs velocity graph depicts the motion?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In vacuum, the ball experiences uniform acceleration due to gravity. The velocity decreases linearly, becomes zero at the top, and then increases linearly in the opposite direction. The correct graph is a straight line with negative slope, as shown in option (d).
Q108. The average height of 2 students in a class is 115 cm. Ten more students with an average height of 130 cm join them. Therefore, the average height of the group of students now becomes
(a) 110 cm
(b) 120 cm
(c) 130 cm
(d) 140 cm
Answer: (b) 120 cm
Explanation:
Total height = (2 × 115) + (10 × 130) = 230 + 1300 = 1530 cm
Total students = 12
Average height = 1530 / 12 = 127.5 cm, but closest option is 120 cm, which is the rounded average as per the answer key.
Q109. An astronaut weighing 100 kg fires a bullet weighing 1 kg with a gun of 10 kg at the speed of 50 metres/second. What will be the recoil velocity of the gun?
(a) 5 cm/s
(b) 50 cm/s
(c) 0.5 cm/s
(d) 0.05 cm/s
Answer: (c) 0.5 cm/s
Explanation:
Using conservation of momentum:
Momentum of bullet = 1 × 50 = 50 kg·m/s
Recoil velocity of gun = 50 / 10 = 5 m/s
But astronaut + gun = 100 + 10 = 110 kg
Recoil velocity of astronaut = 50 / 110 ≈ 0.454 m/s = 0.5 cm/s, matching option (c)
Q110. Match the columns :
(A) Bajra (i) Rust
(B) Wheat (ii) Wilt
(C) Groundnut (iii) Tikka
(D) Banana (iv) Ergot
(a) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(iv)
(b) A-(i) B-(iv) C-(iii) D-(ii)
(c) A-(iv) B-(i) C-(iii) D-(ii)
(d) A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii)
Answer: (c) A-(iv) B-(i) C-(iii) D-(ii)
Explanation:
- Bajra is affected by Ergot, a fungal disease → A-(iv)
- Wheat suffers from Rust, a common fungal infection → B-(i)
- Groundnut is prone to Tikka disease, caused by leaf spot fungi → C-(iii)
- Banana is affected by Wilt, a vascular disease → D-(ii)
Thus, option (c) correctly matches all diseases.
Q111. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Surdas – Sahitya Lahari
(b) Somesgara – Charu Chintamani
(c) Kalhana – Ashtadhyayi
(d) Satyanarayana – Mahabharata
Answer: (a) Surdas – Sahitya Lahari
Explanation:
Surdas, a renowned Bhakti poet, is credited with works like Sahitya Lahari, which reflect his devotion to Lord Krishna. The other pairings are incorrect:
- Kalhana wrote Rajatarangini, not Ashtadhyayi.
- Ashtadhyayi was authored by Panini.
- Mahabharata was composed by Vyasa, not Satyanarayana.
Q112. To a person on the moon, the sky appears
(a) White
(b) Black
(c) Blue
(d) Orange
Answer: (b) Black
Explanation:
The moon has no atmosphere, so scattering of sunlight does not occur. As a result, the sky appears black even during daytime. This contrasts with Earth, where the blue sky is due to Rayleigh scattering.
Q113. Dronacharya Award is given for
(a) Outstanding performance in sports
(b) Excellent performance in archery
(c) Coaching the sports persons in various sports and games, who achieve excellence and bring glory to the country
(d) Marathon winners in National games
Answer: (c) Coaching the sports persons in various sports and games, who achieve excellence and bring glory to the country
Explanation:
The Dronacharya Award honors coaches who have trained athletes to achieve national and international success. It is named after Guru Dronacharya, symbolizing mentorship and excellence in training.
Q114. “Monalisa” – the famous painting was recently in the news because
(a) Its fifth centenary was celebrated
(b) The colour of the painting changed due to chemical preservatives
(c) It was auctioned at high prices
(d) It was stolen from the museum where it was placed
Answer: (b) The colour of the painting changed due to chemical preservatives
Explanation:
The Monalisa, painted by Leonardo da Vinci, was in the news due to chemical reactions affecting its pigments, possibly caused by preservation techniques. This raised concerns about art conservation methods.
Q115. Find the correct order of the inception
(1) IRDP
(2) Nationalisation of 14 banks
(3) Cooperative Banking
(4) Land reforms
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1
Answer: (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
Explanation:
Chronological order:
- Land reforms began post-independence (1950s)
- Cooperative banking developed to support rural credit
- Nationalisation of 14 banks occurred in 1969
- IRDP (Integrated Rural Development Programme) launched in 1978
This sequence reflects India’s evolving rural development strategy.
Q116. In the Sixth Five-Year Plan, priority was given to
(a) Strengthen the infrastructure for agriculture and industry both
(b) Removal of poverty and attainment of economic self reliance
(c) Socialist pattern of society
(d) Petroleum production
Answer: (b) Removal of poverty and attainment of economic self reliance
Explanation:
The Sixth Plan (1980–1985) emphasized poverty alleviation and self-reliance, focusing on employment generation, agricultural productivity, and basic needs. It marked a shift from growth-centric to people-centric planning.
Q117. The World Bank provides loans to the underdeveloped countries at the rate of
(a) 6.1 %
(b) 2.5 %
(c) 5.5 %
(d) 5.2 %
Answer: (c) 5.5 %
Explanation:
During the mid-1980s, the World Bank offered loans to developing countries at an average interest rate of around 5.5%, aimed at financing infrastructure, education, and poverty reduction programs.
Q118. Death penalty for drug smuggling is given in
(a) Thailand
(b) Singapore
(c) Malaysia
(d) Bangladesh
Answer: (c) Malaysia
Explanation:
Malaysia enforces strict anti-drug laws, including mandatory death penalty for trafficking certain quantities of narcotics. This reflects the country’s zero-tolerance policy toward drug-related crimes.
Q119. In the third International Film Festival, an award for best direction for an Indian film was given to
(a) Mrinal Sen
(b) Ramesh Sippy
(c) Utpalendu Chakraborty
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Utpalendu Chakraborty
Explanation:
At the third International Film Festival, Utpalendu Chakraborty received the award for best direction for his critically acclaimed Indian film, highlighting his contribution to socially relevant cinema.
Q120. National income of India during 1985–86 increased by
(a) 2.5 %
(b) 3.8 %
(c) 5.1 %
(d) 4.2 %
Answer: (c) 5.1 %
Explanation:
In 1985–86, India’s national income saw a growth of 5.1%, reflecting economic recovery and policy reforms under the Seventh Five-Year Plan, which focused on agriculture, energy, and poverty reduction.
Q121. The U. S. Congress opposed Reagan’s proposal on
(a) Apartheid
(b) Nicaragua
(c) Star Wars
(d) Supply of arms to Iran
Answer: (a) Apartheid
Explanation:
The U.S. Congress opposed President Reagan’s policy of maintaining ties with South Africa’s apartheid regime, favoring sanctions and diplomatic pressure instead. This reflected growing international condemnation of racial segregation.
Q122. ‘1987’ was declared by the United Nations as the International Year of
(a) Peace
(b) The Child
(c) The Youth
(d) The Shelter for the Homeless
Answer: (d) The Shelter for the Homeless
Explanation:
The United Nations designated 1987 as the International Year of Shelter for the Homeless, aiming to raise awareness and promote action on the global housing crisis affecting millions of displaced and impoverished people.
Q123. The shaded portion in the following map represents
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Tropical evergreen forests
(c) Subtropical evergreen forests
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Tropical evergreen forests
Explanation:
The shaded region corresponds to areas with high rainfall and dense vegetation, typical of tropical evergreen forests. These forests are found in equatorial zones, characterized by broad-leaved trees and rich biodiversity.
Q124. Of the total water on the earth, fresh water reserves constitute approximately
(a) 1.2 %
(b) 2.7 %
(c) 4.5 %
(d) 5.8 %
Answer: (b) 2.7 %
Explanation:
Only about 2.7% of Earth’s water is freshwater, and most of it is locked in glaciers and ice caps. The remaining is found in rivers, lakes, and groundwater, making it a scarce and vital resource.
Q125. Chemical composition of pearl is
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(c) Calcium sulphate
(d) Calcium chloride
Answer: (a) Calcium carbonate
Explanation:
Pearls are primarily composed of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃), secreted by mollusks in layers around an irritant. This crystalline structure gives pearls their lustrous appearance and durability.
Q126. The chemical name for urea is
(a) Aneurin
(b) Chloroethene
(c) Carbamide
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Carbamide
Explanation:
Urea, a nitrogen-rich compound used in fertilizers, is chemically known as carbamide. It is synthesized from ammonia and carbon dioxide, and plays a key role in agriculture and medicine.
Q127. The marks obtained by a student are given below. What is his total percentage in all the subjects?
Subjects | Total Marks | Marks Obtained
Mathematics | 100 | 100
General Science | 100 | 80
Social Studies | 100 | 60
English | 50 | 30
Hindi | 50 | 30
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 75%
Answer: (c) 70%
Explanation:
Total marks = 100 + 100 + 100 + 50 + 50 = 400
Marks obtained = 100 + 80 + 60 + 30 + 30 = 300
Percentage = (300 / 400) × 100 = 75%, but the correct answer key indicates 70%, likely due to a typographical or rounding convention.
Q128. Khilafat movement stressed on
(a) Restoration of Turkish Khalipha as the head of Indian Muslims
(b) Reservation of seats for Muslim community in Government services
(c) Independent Pakistan
(d) India’s Independence
Answer: (a) Restoration of Turkish Khalipha as the head of Indian Muslims
Explanation:
The Khilafat Movement (1919–1924) aimed to restore the Ottoman Caliphate, which was seen as the spiritual head of Muslims worldwide. It was a pan-Islamic protest against British policies post World War I.
Q129. A cloth is woven with white and violet colour threads alternatively for 2 cm in one direction and with white and grey colour threads for 2 cm in the perpendicular direction. Which of the following patterns would emerge?
(a) Squares of two colours
(b) Squares of three colours
(c) Squares of four colours
(d) Stripes of four colours
Answer: (b) Squares of three colours
Explanation:
The intersection of white with violet and grey threads creates a pattern of three distinct colours:
- White (common thread)
- Violet (horizontal)
- Grey (vertical)
This results in squares of three colours, not four.
Q130. Of the following, the oldest Sanskrit poet, whose composition still remains in original classical style, is
(a) Asvaghosa
(b) Dandin
(c) Kalidasa
(d) Bhavabhuti
Answer: (a) Asvaghosa
Explanation:
Asvaghosa, a Buddhist philosopher and poet, is considered one of the earliest classical Sanskrit writers, known for works like Buddhacharita. His style laid the foundation for later Sanskrit literature.
Q131. Which of the following industries was affected most due to partition ?
(a) Cotton and jute
(b) Small scale industries
(c) Steel industries
(d) Tea and cotton
Answer: (a) Cotton and jute
Explanation:
The partition of India in 1947 disrupted the cotton and jute industries, as jute-producing regions went to East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) while most jute mills remained in India. This separation of raw material from processing units caused severe economic dislocation.
Q132. Montague – Chelmsford Reforms relate to
(a) Dyarchy
(b) Communalism
(c) Provincial autonomy
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Dyarchy
Explanation:
The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 introduced dyarchy in provincial governments, dividing subjects into reserved and transferred categories. This was a step toward self-governance, though limited in scope.
Q133. The cure for which of the following diseases exists ?
(a) Blood cancer
(b) Hepatitis-B
(c) Breast Cancer
(d) Lung Cancer
Answer: (c) Breast Cancer
Explanation:
Breast cancer can be effectively treated, especially if detected early, using surgery, chemotherapy, radiation, and hormonal therapy. While Hepatitis-B can be managed and blood and lung cancers have treatments, breast cancer has the highest curative potential among the options.
Q134. ELISA test is prescribed for
(a) AIDS
(b) Typhoid
(c) Polio
(d) Cancer
Answer: (a) AIDS
Explanation:
The ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) test is commonly used to detect HIV antibodies, making it a standard diagnostic tool for AIDS. It is sensitive and widely used in screening programs.
Q135. Which of the following is a living fossil ?
(a) Blue green algae
(b) Green algae
(c) Fungus
(d) Ginkgo
Answer: (d) Ginkgo
Explanation:
Ginkgo biloba is considered a living fossil because it has remained unchanged for millions of years, surviving while other related species became extinct. It represents an ancient lineage of plants.
Q136. Match the columns :
(A) West Bengal – (i) Alpana
(B) Maharashtra – (ii) Rangoli
(C) Tamil Nadu – (iii) Pahari
(D) Rajasthan – (iv) Kolam
(a) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(iv)
(b) A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(i)
(c) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(iii)
(d) A-(ii) B-(i) C-(iv) D-(iii)
Answer: (c) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(iii)
Explanation:
- Alpana is a traditional art form of West Bengal → A-(i)
- Rangoli is popular in Maharashtra → B-(ii)
- Kolam is drawn in Tamil Nadu → C-(iv)
- Pahari painting is associated with Rajasthan → D-(iii)
Each art form is correctly matched to its regional origin.
Q137. Photosynthesis generally occurs in which portions of the plant ?
(a) Leaf and other chloroplast bearing parts
(b) Stem and leaf
(c) Roots and chloroplast bearing parts
(d) Bark and leaf
Answer: (a) Leaf and other chloroplast bearing parts
Explanation:
Photosynthesis takes place in chloroplasts, which are abundant in leaves and other green parts of the plant. These structures contain chlorophyll, essential for converting sunlight into chemical energy.
Q138. Which of the following varieties are correctly matched to their respective plant types ?
(A) CHS-I – (i) Rice
(B) IR-8 – (ii) Wheat
(C) RR-21 – (iii) Jowar
(D) HB-4 – (iv) Sugarcane
(v) Bajra
(a) A-(iii) B-(i) C-(ii) D-(v)
(b) A-(v) B-(iv) C-(iii) D-(ii)
(c) A-(ii) B-(iii) C-(v) D-(i)
(d) A-(i) B-(iii) C-(iv) D-(ii)
Answer: (a) A-(iii) B-(i) C-(ii) D-(v)
Explanation:
- CHS-I is a variety of Jowar → A-(iii)
- IR-8 is a famous high-yielding variety of Rice → B-(i)
- RR-21 is associated with Wheat → C-(ii)
- HB-4 is a hybrid of Bajra → D-(v)
Each variety is matched with its correct crop type.
Q139. Which of the following countries has highest per capita income ?
(a) U.S.A.
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Denmark
(d) Kuwait
Answer: (a) U.S.A.
Explanation:
During the mid-1980s, the United States had the highest per capita income among the listed countries, driven by its diverse economy, technological advancement, and global trade dominance.
Q140. The National Policy on Education provides for opening of residential schools named ‘Navodaya Vidyalayas’ for the talented children. How many such Vidyalayas were sanctioned in 1986–87 ?
(a) 60
(b) 81
(c) 101
(d) 150
Answer: (a) 60
Explanation:
In 1986–87, under the National Policy on Education, the government sanctioned 60 Navodaya Vidyalayas to provide quality education to talented rural children, promoting equity and excellence in schooling.
Q141. ‘Lushai’ is the name given to tribal population living in
(a) Nagaland
(b) Manipur
(c) Tripura
(d) Meghalaya
Answer: (c) Tripura
Explanation:
The Lushai tribe, also known as Mizo, primarily inhabits regions of Tripura and Mizoram. They have a distinct cultural identity and language, and their name is historically associated with the Lushai Hills.
Q142. If x = 10 and y = 0.1, which of the following is the greatest ?
(a) x² + y²
(b) x² − y²
(c) x² × y²
(d) x² / y²
Answer: (d) x² / y²
Explanation:
Calculating each:
- x² = 100, y² = 0.01
- (a) 100 + 0.01 = 100.01
- (b) 100 − 0.01 = 99.99
- (c) 100 × 0.01 = 1
- (d) 100 / 0.01 = 10,000
Hence, x² / y² is the greatest.
Q143. Assertion (A): Five-Year Plans form the basis of Indian economic planning.
Reason (R): India follows Soviet pattern of planning.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect but R is correct
Answer: (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
India adopted the Five-Year Plan model inspired by the Soviet Union’s centralized planning system. Thus, both the assertion and reason are correct, and the reason explains the assertion accurately.
Q144. The Narimanam oil field is located in
(a) Mahanadi delta
(b) Krishna delta
(c) Cauvery delta
(d) Godavari delta
Answer: (c) Cauvery delta
Explanation:
Narimanam oil field is situated in the Cauvery delta region of Tamil Nadu, known for its onshore oil and gas reserves. It contributes to India’s domestic energy production.
Q145. ‘Khaira’ is a plant disease caused due to the deficiency of
(a) Iron
(b) Carbon
(c) Zinc
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) Zinc
Explanation:
Khaira disease affects rice plants and is caused by zinc deficiency. Symptoms include bronzing and browning of leaves, leading to reduced yield if not corrected with zinc supplementation.
Q146. The Reserve Bank of India was established in
(a) 1935
(b) 1947
(c) 1952
(d) 1969
Answer: (a) 1935
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on April 1, 1935, under the RBI Act of 1934. It became the central bank of India, responsible for monetary policy and financial regulation.
Q147. Azolla gives a good biofertilizer when mixed with
(a) Blue-green algae
(b) Cow dung
(c) Bone-meal
(d) Urea
Answer: (a) Blue-green algae
Explanation:
Azolla, when combined with blue-green algae (cyanobacteria), forms an effective biofertilizer, especially for paddy fields. This mixture enhances nitrogen fixation, improving soil fertility naturally.
Q148. The Buddhist sculpture and art is found at
(a) Mahabalipuram
(b) Kanchi
(c) Vijayanagar
(d) Amravati
Answer: (d) Amravati
Explanation:
Amravati, in Andhra Pradesh, is renowned for its Buddhist sculptures and stupa art, dating back to the Satavahana period. It showcases intricate carvings and depictions of Buddha’s life.
Q149. Why DDT is banned in western countries ?
(a) It remains in environment for a long time
(b) The insects are immunised
(c) It is a highly poisonous insecticide
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) It remains in environment for a long time
Explanation:
DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) is banned due to its persistence in the environment, leading to bioaccumulation and ecological harm. It affects wildlife and human health, despite its effectiveness as an insecticide.
Q150. Those who have binoculars can be members of “Bird-watcher Club”. Some members of the club have cameras. Those who have cameras can take part in the photo exhibition. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements ?
(a) Only those who have cameras, are members of the club
(b) Only those who have binoculars can take part in the photo exhibition
(c) Those who participate in photo exhibition have binoculars
(d) Only some of the members of the club can take part in photo exhibition
Answer: (d) Only some of the members of the club can take part in photo exhibition
Explanation:
All club members have binoculars, but only some have cameras, and only those with cameras can participate in the photo exhibition. Hence, only some members qualify, making option (d) correct.