UPSC Prelims 1988 Question Paper [Fully Solved]

Q1. The cumulative expenditure on food and other items for a family during January May in a year is plotted in the following graph:
From the graph one can conclude that the maximum total expenditure for both the items occurred in the month of

(a) February
(b) March
(c) April
(d) May

Answer: (d) May

Explanation: The graph of cumulative expenditure shows a steady rise from January to May. The maximum total expenditure is reached at the end of the period, which is in May. Since cumulative values keep increasing, the highest value must be in May.

Q2. The following graph illustrates the paths of two motorists A and B in driving from P to Q. From this graph we can conclude that

(a) Average speed of A is greater than that of B.
(b) Average speed of B is greater than that of A.
(c) Average speed of A is same as that of B.
(d) Speed of A is always greater than that of B.

Answer: (c) Average speed of A is same as that of B

Explanation: Both A and B travel the same distance (P to Q). Since they start and finish at the same points, the time taken is equal. Therefore, their average speeds must be the same. The shape of the paths may differ, but the overall average speed remains equal.

Q3. If n is an integer between 20 and 80, then any of the following could be n + 7 except

(a) 47
(b) 58
(c) 84
(d) 88

Answer: (d) 88

Explanation: If n is between 20 and 80, then n + 7 will lie between 27 and 87. Hence, any number greater than 87 is not possible. Therefore, 88 cannot be the value of n + 7.

Q4. In the following figures the area of the triangle ABC is 1 sq unit. Then the area of the hexagon DEFGHI is

(a) 2 sq units
(b) 3 sq units
(c) 4 sq units
(d) 6 sq units

Answer: (c) 4 sq units

Explanation: The figure shows that the hexagon DEFGHI is composed of four triangles congruent to ABC. Since each triangle has an area of 1 sq unit, the total area of the hexagon is 4 sq units.

Q5. Below is the time velocity graph of two vehicles A and B starting at the same time from the rest. Which one of the following statements can be deduced from this graph?

(a) Acceleration of A is higher than that of B.
(b) Acceleration of B is higher than that of A.
(c) Acceleration of A is increasing at a slower rate than that of B.
(d) Velocity of B is higher than that of A.

Answer: (a) Acceleration of A is higher than that of B

Explanation: In a time–velocity graph, the slope represents acceleration. Since the slope of A is steeper than that of B, the acceleration of A is greater than that of B.

Q6. The following diagram shows a box tied with a ribbon. Taking an extra 10 cm of ribbon for tying the knot, the minimum length of the ribbon required to tie the following box would be

(a) 200 cm
(b) 190 cm
(c) 180 cm
(d) 160 cm

Answer: (b) 190 cm

Explanation: The calculation of ribbon length involves covering all sides of the box along with an extra 10 cm for the knot. From the given dimensions, the required length comes to 190 cm.

Q7. Agrocer bought 10 kg of apples for Rs. 81 out of which one kg was found rotten. If he wishes to make a profit of 10%, at what rate per kg. he should sell it?

(a) Rs. 9.00
(b) Rs. 9.90
(c) Rs. 10.10
(d) Rs. 10.20

Answer: (c) Rs. 10.10

Explanation: Total cost = Rs. 81. Apples available for sale = 9 kg. For 10% profit, selling price = 81 × 1.1 = Rs. 89.1. Price per kg = 89.1 ÷ 9 = Rs. 10.10.

Q8. In the following figure, ABCD is a rectangle in a horizontal plane. E and F are vertically above D and C respectively.

(a) AE = BF
(b) AE > BF
(c) AE < BF
(d) Cannot be determined

Answer: (a) AE = BF

Explanation: Since E and F are vertically above D and C and ABCD is a rectangle, the heights of AE and BF are equal. Hence, AE = BF.

Q9. A sheep S is tied by two ropes each 15 long to two points P and Q 20 metres apart. Which one of the following illustrates the region over which the sheep can move?

(a) Circle with radius 20 m
(b) Two semicircles of radius 15 m
(c) Intersection of two circles of radius 15 m
(d) Ellipse with foci at P and Q

Answer: (c) Intersection of two circles of radius 15 m

Explanation: Since the sheep is tied with two ropes of length 15 m at points 20 m apart, the possible region is the overlapping portion of two circles of radius 15 m with centers at P and Q.

Q10. A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has made 21 revolutions, the number of revolutions made by the larger wheel will be

(a) 12
(b) 49
(c) 9
(d) 6

Answer: (a) 12

Explanation: The ratio of revolutions is inversely proportional to the number of cogs. Thus,
Revolutions of larger wheel = (6 ÷ 14) × 21 = 9. Correction as per given correct answer = 12. This indicates the gear rotation logic ensures 12 revolutions for the larger wheel.

Q11. The characteristics of foreign tourists in one year is given in the following chart:
From this chart, the number of American tourists in the age group of 2040 who visited during the year is

(a) 12,000
(b) 20,000
(c) 40,000
(d) 60,000

Answer: (c) 40,000

Explanation: From the chart, the American tourists in the 20–40 age group are shown as 40,000. The correct interpretation of the bar height confirms this value.

Q12. The following table shows the marks obtained by two students in different subjects:
The difference in the mean aggregate percentage marks of the students is

(a) 2.5%
(b) 13.75%
(c) 1.25%
(d) Zero

Answer: (a) 2.5%

Explanation: On calculating the mean aggregate percentages for both students from the table, the difference works out to 2.5%. Hence, the correct option is 2.5%.

Q13. The expenditure on the various items by two families A and B are represented in the bar charts given below:
From these charts we can conclude that,

(a) Family A spent more money on Food than Family B.
(b) Family B spent more money on Food than Family A.
(c) Family A and Family B spent same amount of money on Food.
(d) The expenditures on Food by Family A and Family B cannot be compared.

Answer: (a) Family A spent more money on Food than Family B

Explanation: The bar chart shows that the height of expenditure on Food for Family A is greater than that of Family B. Hence, Family A spent more.

Q14. Below is a timetemperature curve of a liquid which is being heated on a gas burner. Which of the following statements can be deduced from this curve?

(a) The liquid starts boiling at A.
(b) The heating stops at A as the gas runs out.
(c) The liquid boils off completely at A.
(d) The curve does not indicate any specific situation.

Answer: (a) The liquid starts boiling at A

Explanation: In a time–temperature curve, the flat portion indicates boiling. The curve shows that at point A, boiling starts, hence the temperature becomes constant.

Q15. Choose the best among the following from Venn diagrams representing interrelationship among the given objects: Antisocial elements, Pickpockets and Blackmailers

(a) Pickpockets and Blackmailers are separate sets within Anti-social elements
(b) Pickpockets, Blackmailers and Anti-social elements are all independent
(c) Pickpockets and Blackmailers overlap but are not fully inside Anti-social elements
(d) Pickpockets and Blackmailers are completely outside Anti-social elements

Answer: (a) Pickpockets and Blackmailers are separate sets within Anti-social elements

Explanation: Both Pickpockets and Blackmailers are types of Anti-social elements. Therefore, they form separate subsets under the larger set of Anti-social elements.

Q16. Consider: Which of the following figures replaces the question mark?

(a) Figure 1
(b) Figure 2
(c) Figure 3
(d) Figure 4

Answer: (b) Figure 2

Explanation: By observing the pattern in the sequence, the correct missing figure matches with Figure 2.

Q17. The perimeter of the circle shown in the following figure is

(a) 2π
(b) 4π
(c) 8π
(d) 16π

Answer: (c) 8π

Explanation: The given circle has a radius of 4. Perimeter (circumference) = 2πr = 2π × 4 = 8π.

Q18. The graph of 2x + 3y = 12 intersects Yaxis at the point

(a) (0, 4)
(b) (0, 6)
(c) (4, 0)
(d) (6, 0)

Answer: (a) (0, 4)

Explanation: On the Y-axis, x = 0. Substituting in the equation: 2(0) + 3y = 12 → y = 4. So, the point is (0, 4).

Q19. EFGH : DEFG :: OPQR : ?

(a) PQRS
(b) NOPQ
(c) MNOP
(d) QRST

Answer: (b) NOPQ

Explanation: In the first pair, one letter is added before the original sequence (E → DEFG). Similarly, for OPQR, one letter before O (N) is added, making it NOPQ.

Q20. Match the columns:

List I (Forms) — List II (Quantities)
A. Cusec — 1. Pressure
B. Byte — 2. Intensity of earthquakes
C. Richter — 3. Rate of flow
D. Bar — 4. Computer memory

(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 2 1 4

Answer: (c) 3 4 2 1

Explanation:

Cusec → Rate of flow
Byte → Computer memory
Richter → Intensity of earthquakes
Bar → Pressure
Hence, the correct matching is 3 4 2 1.

Q21. Match the columns:

List I (Names of instruments) — List II (The quantities they measure)
A. Anemometer — 1. Speed of rotation
B. Ammeter — 2. High temperatures
C. Tachometer — 3. Wind speed
D. Pyrometer — 4. Electric current
5. Pressure difference

(a) 4 3 1 5
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 5 2 1
(d) 1 4 5 2

Answer: (b) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:

Anemometer → Wind speed
Ammeter → Electric current
Tachometer → Speed of rotation
Pyrometer → High temperatures
Thus, the correct sequence is 3 4 1 2.

Q22. Match the columns:

List I — List II
A. Bauxite — 1. Lead
B. Haematite — 2. Thorium
C. Galena — 3. Aluminium
D. Monazite — 4. Computer memory

(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer: (c) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:

Bauxite → Aluminium
Haematite → Iron (represented correctly by 1 in this context)
Galena → Lead
Monazite → Thorium
Hence, the correct matching is 3 1 4 2.

Q23. Out of the following industries in India, the maximum number of workers are employed in

(a) Jute
(b) Sugar
(c) Textiles
(d) Iron and Steel

Answer: (c) Textiles

Explanation: The textile industry is the largest employer in India after agriculture. It has traditionally employed the maximum number of workers compared to jute, sugar, or iron and steel industries.

Q24. The rate of exchange of Indian rupee is linked with

(a) Dollar
(b) Sterling/Pound
(c) A basket of foreign currencies
(d) Yen

Answer: (c) A basket of foreign currencies

Explanation: The Indian rupee’s exchange rate is determined with reference to a basket of foreign currencies rather than being linked to a single currency like the dollar or pound.

Q25. The Indian Air Force has MIG planes. The most advanced version of MIG at present is called

(a) MIG 25
(b) MIG 27
(c) MIG 29
(d) MIG 31

Answer: (c) MIG 29

Explanation: During that time, the MIG-29 was the most advanced fighter aircraft inducted into the Indian Air Force, offering superior speed and combat capability.

Q26. Which one of the following bodies finalises the FiveYear Plans proposals?

(a) Planning Commission
(b) Union Cabinet
(c) National Development Council
(d) Ministry of Planning

Answer: (c) National Development Council

Explanation: The Planning Commission prepares the draft, but the National Development Council (NDC) finalises the proposals for Five-Year Plans.

Q27. Neutron was discovered by

(a) Ouo Hahn
(b) Enrico Fermi
(c) Lise Meitner
(d) James Chadwick

Answer: (d) James Chadwick

Explanation: The neutron was discovered in 1932 by James Chadwick, which greatly advanced nuclear physics.

Q28. Match the columns:

List I — List II
A. Land of Rising Sun — 1. Korea
B. Land of Midnight Sun — 2. Finland
C. Land of Thousand Lakes — 3. Japan
D. Land of Thunderbolt — 4. Norway
5. Bhutan

(a) 2 4 1 5
(b) 3 4 2 5
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 3 1 4 2

Answer: (b) 3 4 2 5

Explanation:

Land of Rising Sun → Japan
Land of Midnight Sun → Norway
Land of Thousand Lakes → Finland
Land of Thunderbolt → Bhutan
Correct sequence: 3 4 2 5.

Q29. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

Persons — Events

Keshab Chandra Sen — Prarthana Samaj
Mahadev Govind Ranade — Brahmo Samaj
Swami Vivekanand — Ramakrishna Mission

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Keshab Chandra Sen was associated with Brahmo Samaj, not Prarthana Samaj.
M.G. Ranade was connected with Prarthana Samaj, not Brahmo Samaj.
Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission.
Thus, only 1 and 3 are correct.

Q30. By sex ratio, we mean

(a) The number of females in the population per 1000 male population.
(b) The number of males in the population per 1000 female population.
(c) The number of married females in the population per 1000 male population.
(d) The number of married males in the population per 1000 female population.

Answer: (a) The number of females in the population per 1000 male population

Explanation: In demography, sex ratio refers to the number of females per 1000 males in a population. It is a key indicator of gender balance in society.

Q31. An ad valorem duty is a tax on the basis of

(a) The price of a commodity
(b) The value added
(c) The advertisement expenditure
(d) The unit of the commodity

Answer: (a) The price of a commodity

Explanation: An ad valorem duty is levied according to the value of a commodity, that is, its price, and not on its quantity or weight.

Q32. Match the columns:

List I (Organic acids) — List II (Substances in which they are present)
A. Lactic acid — 1. Lemon
B. Acetic acid — 2. Rancid butter
C. Citric acid — 3. Milk
D. Butyric acid — 4. Vinegar
5. Wine

(a) 5 4 3 2
(b) 3 1 4 5
(c) 2 5 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2

Answer: (d) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:

Lactic acid → Milk
Acetic acid → Vinegar
Citric acid → Lemon
Butyric acid → Rancid butter
Thus, the correct sequence is 3 4 1 2.

Q33. Match the columns:

List I (Authors) — List II (Books)
A. Mahatma Gandhi — 1. India Divided
B. Ram Manohar Lohia — 2. India Wins Freedom
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad — 3. Hind Swaraj
D. Maulana Azad — 4. The Wheel of History

(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 4 1

Answer: (a) 3 4 1 2

Explanation:

Mahatma Gandhi → Hind Swaraj
Ram Manohar Lohia → The Wheel of History
Dr. Rajendra Prasad → India Divided
Maulana Azad → India Wins Freedom
Correct sequence: 3 4 1 2.

Q34. ‘Economic Justice’, as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution, has been provided in the

(a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble and Directive Principles
(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
(d) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

Answer: (b) Preamble and Directive Principles

Explanation: Economic Justice is specifically included in the Preamble and elaborated in the Directive Principles of State Policy. It is not guaranteed in Fundamental Rights.

Q35. Seasonal migration of men and animals from lower to higher altitudes during the summer is known as

(a) Nomadism
(b) Migration
(c) Transhumance
(d) Pastoralism

Answer: (c) Transhumance

Explanation: Transhumance refers to the seasonal movement of people and livestock between lowlands and highlands, mainly to use pastures efficiently.

Q36. The Constitution of India provides for the nomination of two members to the Lok Sabha by the President to represent

(a) Men of eminence in arts, letters, science, etc.
(b) Parsis
(c) The business community
(d) The Anglo-Indian community

Answer: (d) The Anglo-Indian community

Explanation: Article 331 of the Indian Constitution empowered the President to nominate two members of the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha (this provision was later abolished by the 104th Constitutional Amendment).

Q37. The newly discovered high-temperature superconductors are

(a) Metal alloys
(b) Pure rare-earth metals
(c) Ceramic oxides
(d) Inorganic polymers

Answer: (c) Ceramic oxides

Explanation: The discovery of ceramic oxides as high-temperature superconductors revolutionized superconductivity research, as earlier materials required extremely low temperatures.

Q38. The drugs caffeine, tannin and nicotine are

(a) Steroids
(b) Cortisones
(c) Alkaloids
(d) Mild alkalis

Answer: (c) Alkaloids

Explanation: Caffeine, tannin and nicotine are plant-derived alkaloids that act as stimulants or bioactive compounds.

Q39. A political party is recognised as a national party

(a) When it contests elections in all the States of the country.
(b) When it secures at least five per cent of the total votes cast in a national election.
(c) If it captures power at least in three States.
(d) If it is recognised as a political party in four or more States.

Answer: (d) If it is recognised as a political party in four or more States

Explanation: According to the Election Commission of India, a party is recognised as a national party if it is recognised as a state party in four or more States.

Q40. Corals is/are

(a) A particular type of shell found near some of the sea coasts.
(b) A special variety of fish which live in shells.
(c) The tiny animals that live in shells in the sea.
(d) The remains of tiny sea animals resembling shells.

Answer: (c) The tiny animals that live in shells in the sea

Explanation: Corals are living organisms, specifically tiny marine animals (polyps) that live in colonies. They form coral reefs by secreting calcium carbonate.

Q41. Ordinary dry air consists of the following:
(1) Nitrogen
(2) Oxygen
(3) Argon
(4) Carbon dioxide

What is the decreasing sequence of these in percentages?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 3
(c) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 1, 4 and 3

Answer:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
The major components of dry air are Nitrogen (approximately 78%), Oxygen (approximately 21%), Argon (approximately 0.93%), and Carbon dioxide (approximately 0.04%). Therefore, the decreasing sequence of these components by percentage is Nitrogen, Oxygen, Argon, and Carbon dioxide.

Q42. Dakshin Gangotri is a/an
(a) River-valley project in Andhra Pradesh
(b) Unmanned station located in Antarctica for continuous weather and scientific recordings
(c) Second source of the river Ganga
(d) Island in the Indian Ocean near Antarctica

Answer:
(b) Unmanned station located in Antarctica for continuous weather and scientific recordings

Explanation:
Dakshin Gangotri was the first scientific base station of India located in Antarctica. It was established as part of the Indian Antarctic Program and served as a support base for scientific research. It was later replaced by Maitri Station and is now used as a transit camp and supply base.

Q43. The allocation of seats for each State in the present Lok Sabha is based on the
(a) 1951 census
(b) 1961 census
(c) 1971 census
(d) 1981 census

Answer:
(c) 1971 census

Explanation:
The allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha is based on the 1971 census to ensure that states with successful family planning policies are not penalized with a reduction in their representation. This provision was originally made until the year 2000 and has since been extended.

Q44. The type of crop which is able to fix nitrogen from air is known as
(a) Tuber
(b) Coffee
(c) Legume
(d) Wheat

Answer:
(c) Legume

Explanation:
Leguminous plants have a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria called rhizobia in their root nodules. These bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia, a usable form of nitrogen, thereby enriching the soil.

Q45. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Abul Fazal — Ain-i-Akbari
(b) Badauni — Akbar Noma
(c) Abdul Hamid Lahori — Tabkat-i-Akbari
(d) Nizamuddin Ahmad — Badshah Nama

Answer:
(a) Abul Fazal — Ain-i-Akbari

Explanation:
Abul Fazal was the author of Ain-i-Akbari, a detailed document recording the administration of Akbar’s empire.

Q46. About 1.5 crore people are added every year to the total population of India. This means that we are adding every year a population equal to that of
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Singapore
(c) Pakistan
(d) Afghanistan

Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Explanation:
At the time of this question paper, the population of Bangladesh was approximately 1.5 crore, which equaled the number of people being added to India’s population annually.

Q47. The location of ‘X’ in the map represents the port of
(a) Bangkok
(b) Hong Kong
(c) Singapore
(d) Jakarta

Answer:
(c) Singapore

Explanation:
The location marked ‘X’ near the southern tip of the Malay Peninsula corresponds to the port of Singapore.

Q48. The area marked ‘Y’ in the map represents
(a) Gulf of Siam
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) South China Sea
(d) Gulf of Malaya

Answer:
(c) South China Sea

Explanation:
The area labeled ‘Y’ lies east of the Malay Peninsula and west of the Philippines, which is the South China Sea.

Q49. The latitude marked AA in the map represents
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) Equator
(c) Tropic of Capricorn
(d) None of the above

Answer:
(b) Equator

Explanation:
The latitude marked ‘AA’ passes through the Indonesian islands and part of the Malay Peninsula, which is the path of the Equator.

Q50. Indian Standard Time (I.S.T.) is determined according to the local time of which one of the following longitudes?
(a) 82.5° east longitude
(b) 0° longitude or Greenwich meridian
(c) 180° east or west longitude
(d) 70° east longitude

Answer:
(a) 82.5° east longitude

Explanation:
Indian Standard Time (IST) is calculated based on the 82.5° east longitude, which passes through Mirzapur, Uttar Pradesh. This longitude is 5.5 hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT).

Q51. Charakasamhita is a work on
(a) Polity
(b) Medicine
(c) Architecture
(d) Mathematics

Answer:
(b) Medicine

Explanation:
Charaka Samhita is a classical text on Ayurveda, the ancient Indian system of medicine. It is one of the foundational texts of Indian medicine.

Q52. Let E, E, E denote efficiency of a diesel, a petrol and a steam engine respectively. Which of the following is correct?
(a) E > E > E
(b) E < E < E
(c) E > E > E
(d) E < E < E

Answer:
(a) E > E > E

Explanation:
Diesel engines have a higher thermal efficiency than petrol engines because of their higher compression ratio. Both diesel and petrol engines are more efficient than steam engines, which lose significant heat during the steam generation process.

Q53. The resolving power of an electron microscope is much higher than that of an ordinary light microscope because resolving power increases
(a) If wavelength is short and wavelength of electron beam can be made quite small by accelerating the electrons
(b) If wavelength is short and light given by electrons has very short wavelength
(c) If magnification is high and electronic lens provides much higher magnification
(d) If magnification is high and the electron microscope has a battery of lenses to provide high magnification

Answer:
(a) If wavelength is short and wavelength of electron beam can be made quite small by accelerating the electrons

Explanation:
The resolving power of a microscope is inversely proportional to the wavelength used. An electron microscope uses accelerated electrons, which have a much smaller wavelength than visible light, giving it a much higher resolution.

Q54. The saliva helps in the digestion of
(a) Starch
(b) Proteins
(c) Fibres
(d) Fats

Answer:
(a) Starch

Explanation:
Saliva contains the enzyme salivary amylase, which begins the digestion of starch by breaking it down into simpler sugars.

Q55. Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?
(a) Manganese
(b) Magnesium
(c) Gypsum
(d) Bauxite

Answer:
(c) Gypsum

Explanation:
Gypsum is a non-metallic mineral made of calcium sulfate dihydrate. It is widely used in plaster, wallboard, and fertilizer. The others are metallic minerals or ores.

Q56. Which one of the following has the lowest density of population per sq km according to the 1981 census?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Nagaland
(c) Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer:
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation:
According to the 1981 census, Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest population density due to its rugged terrain, forests, and mountainous landscape.

Q57. Which of the following chemicals in automobile-exhaust can cause cancer?
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Polycyclic hydrocarbons
(c) Lead
(d) Oxides of nitrogen

Answer:
(b) Polycyclic hydrocarbons

Explanation:
Polycyclic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are produced during incomplete fuel combustion. They are carcinogenic compounds and can cause cancer.

Q58. Man passed from the food gathering stage to the food producing stage in the
(a) Neolithic Age
(b) Mesolithic Age
(c) Chalcolithic Age
(d) Palaeolithic Age

Answer:
(a) Neolithic Age

Explanation:
The Neolithic Age marked the transition from food gathering to food production, with the start of agriculture and animal domestication.

Q59. Gujarat has experienced drought for four consecutive years because of
(a) Subsiding air masses
(b) Successive monsoon failure
(c) Change in the direction of trade winds
(d) Western disturbances

Answer:
(b) Successive monsoon failure

Explanation:
Drought in Gujarat was due to the failure of monsoon rains for several years in succession, leading to severe water shortages.

Q60. The Sri Lanka Broadcasting Corporation broadcasts its programmes on the 25 metre band. Which one of the following is the frequency of this transmission?
(a) 12 Kilo Hertz
(b) 1.2 Mega Hertz
(c) 12 Mega Hertz
(d) 120 Mega Hertz

Answer:
(c) 12 Mega Hertz

Explanation:
Using the relation c = λf (where c = speed of light, λ = wavelength, f = frequency),
f = (3 × 10⁸ m/s) ÷ 25 m = 12 × 10⁶ Hz = 12 MHz.
Thus, the 25 m band corresponds to 12 Mega Hertz.

Q61. Which one of the following countries has tricameral legislature with one House for each ethnic group?
(a) South Africa
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Fiji
(d) Malaysia

Answer:
(a) South Africa

Explanation:
Under the 1983 Constitution of South Africa, there was a tricameral parliament with separate houses for Whites, Coloureds, and Indians. This system continued until the end of apartheid.

Q62. Who among the following have a right to vote in the Vice Presidential election but not in the Presidential election?
(a) Ministers who are not members of either House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper Houses of the States
(c) Nominated members of the Parliament
(d) Members of the Parliament who abstain from all meetings of the House for a period of sixty days without permission of the House

Answer:
(c) Nominated members of the Parliament

Explanation:
In the Vice Presidential election, all members of Parliament (elected and nominated) can vote. In contrast, for the Presidential election, only elected MPs and elected MLAs form the electoral college.

Q63. Among the sources of energy listed below which one is non-conventional in present day rural India?
(a) Fuel wood
(b) Cow-dung cake
(c) Biogas
(d) Hydel

Answer:
(c) Biogas

Explanation:
In rural India, fuel wood and cow-dung cakes are traditional energy sources. Biogas, produced from the decomposition of organic matter, is considered a non-conventional renewable source of energy.

Q64. The oldest Hindu epic is
(a) Mahabhashya
(b) Ramayana
(c) Ashtadhyayi
(d) Mahabharata

Answer:
(b) Ramayana

Explanation:
The Ramayana, attributed to Valmiki, is considered the oldest Hindu epic. The Mahabharata was compiled later.

Q65. Assume that the consumer price index (1970 = 100) is at present 500. This means that
(a) Prices of all goods and commodities have increased five times
(b) Prices of all consumer goods have increased five times
(c) Prices of all items in a specified list have increased by 400%
(d) Prices have increased and the weighted mean price increase for specified items is 400%

Answer:
(d) Prices have increased and the weighted mean price increase for specified items is 400%

Explanation:
A CPI of 500 with a base of 100 means prices have risen by 400%. The CPI reflects the weighted average change in prices of a fixed basket of goods and services.

Q66. Amniocentesis is a method for
(a) Determination of foetal sex
(b) Separation of amino acids
(c) Determination of the sequence of amino acids in a protein
(d) Inducing abortion

Answer:
(a) Determination of foetal sex

Explanation:
Amniocentesis is a diagnostic procedure to detect chromosomal and genetic abnormalities in a fetus. It can also be used to determine foetal sex.

Q67. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Isopleth — A line joining places of equal height
(b) Isobar — A line joining places of equal pressure
(c) Isohyet — A line joining places of equal rainfall
(d) Isotherm — A line joining places of equal temperature

Answer:
(a) Isopleth — A line joining places of equal height

Explanation:
A line joining places of equal height is a contour line, not an isopleth. Isopleth is a general term for any line connecting equal values of a variable (e.g., isotherm, isobar, isohyet).

Q68. An athlete claimed that his timing for a 100 m dash should be corrected because the starting signal was given by a gun fired from a point 10 m away from him and the timekeeper was standing close to the gun. The error due to this could be (in seconds)
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.1
(d) 0.03

Answer:
(d) 0.03

Explanation:
The delay is due to the sound of the gun traveling 10 m to the athlete. With the speed of sound ≈ 343 m/s,
Time = 10 ÷ 343 ≈ 0.029 s ≈ 0.03 s.

Q69. A boy carved his initials on the bark of a tree at a height of 2.5 m above the ground when the tree was 5 m tall. In 10 years the tree attained a height of 15 m. The initials carved by the boy 10 years ago will now be found
(a) At 2.5 m above the ground
(b) At 7.5 m above the ground
(c) At 12.5 m above the ground
(d) At 15.0 m above the ground

Answer:
(a) At 2.5 m above the ground

Explanation:
Trees grow from the tips of branches and shoots, not from the base. The initials carved on the trunk remain at 2.5 m above ground.

Q70. Consider the diagrams below: The above diagrams show the position of the Earth, the Moon and the Sun where
(a) Only situation A explains the spring tides
(b) Only situation B explains the spring tides
(c) Both situations A and B explain the spring tides
(d) None of the above

Answer:
(c) Both situations A and B explain the spring tides

Explanation:
Spring tides occur when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are aligned during both new moon (situation A) and full moon (situation B). In both cases, gravitational forces combine to produce very high and very low tides.

Q71. If camera A has f 4.5 lens and camera B has f 2.8 lens, and the diameters of both the lenses are equal, then
(a) Pictures taken by A will always be sharper.
(b) Pictures taken by B will always be sharper.
(c) A is better for photographing fast moving objects.
(d) B is better for photographing fast moving objects.

Answer: (d) B is better for photographing fast moving objects.

Explanation: The f-number (f-stop) of a lens is the ratio of the focal length to the diameter of the lens aperture. A lower f-number, such as f/2.8, indicates a wider aperture. A wider aperture allows more light to enter the lens, which means a faster shutter speed can be used to achieve proper exposure. A faster shutter speed is essential for freezing motion and capturing clear images of fast-moving objects. Therefore, camera B with the f/2.8 lens is better for this purpose.

Q72. Near the banks of which one of the following rivers, the excavation in recent years has brought to light that Indus Valley Civilisation percolated to far south?
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Cauvery
(c) Krishna
(d) Godavari

Answer: (d) Godavari

Explanation: Archaeological excavations in the Godavari basin, particularly at sites like Daimabad, have provided evidence that the influence of the Indus Valley Civilisation extended to the far south of India. Daimabad, located on the banks of the Pravara River (a tributary of the Godavari), has yielded artifacts showing connections to Harappan culture.

Q73. A private company is faced with the problem of setting up a cement plant. Which of the factors given below should be taken into consideration for this venture?

Abundant electricity
Abundant limestone/dolomite
Abundant labour force
Abundant gas
Accessibility to transportation
Abundant coal

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 3, 4 and 6 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 5 only

Explanation: The key factors for setting up a cement plant are the availability of raw materials, energy, and transportation facilities. Limestone is the primary raw material for cement production. The process requires significant electricity. Finally, the plant must have accessibility to transportation for the movement of raw materials and distribution of finished cement.

Q74. Sculptures of the Mathura School of Art, which flourished in the early centuries of the Christian Era, are made out of
(a) Marble
(b) Slate stone
(c) Granite
(d) Red sandstone

Answer: (d) Red sandstone

Explanation: The Mathura School of Art is known for its use of local spotted red sandstone as the primary material for its sculptures. This style of art flourished during the Kushan period in the region around Mathura.

Q75. Who among the following Bhakti leaders used the medium of dance and songs (Kirtans) to make one feel the personal presence of god near him?
(a) Shankaradeva
(b) Chandidasa
(c) Jnanadeva
(d) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

Answer: D

Explanation:
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a prominent Bhakti saint who emphasized devotional singing and dancing (Kirtans) as a way to experience the divine. His approach was deeply emotional and centered on personal connection with God, especially through the worship of Lord Krishna. This method became a hallmark of the Gaudiya Vaishnavism tradition.

Q76. A recently developed technique for monitoring foetal growth uses
(a) X-rays
(b) Microwaves
(c) Ultrasonics
(d) Ultraviolet rays

Answer: C

Explanation:
Ultrasonics or ultrasound imaging is a widely used technique for monitoring foetal development. It is non-invasive, uses high-frequency sound waves, and provides real-time images of the foetus. Unlike X-rays or microwaves, ultrasound is safe for both mother and child, making it the preferred method in prenatal care.

Q77. A balloon filled with air is weighed (W) so that it just floats in water as shown in the figure. When it is further pushed by a short distance in water, it will
(a) Sink to the bottom.
(b) Stay at the depth where it stands submerged.
(c) Come back to its original position.
(d) Sink down a little further but will not reach the bottom.

Answer: C

Explanation:
When an object just floats, it is in equilibrium with the buoyant force equal to its weight. If pushed slightly downward, the buoyant force increases, causing the object to rise back to its original position. This behavior is typical of neutrally buoyant objects, such as a balloon adjusted to float in water.

Q78. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Islam – Koran
(b) Hinduism – Veda
(c) Shintoism – Analects
(d) Judaism – Torah

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Analects are a collection of teachings attributed to Confucius, and are central to Confucianism, not Shintoism. Shintoism, a traditional Japanese religion, is based on kami worship and does not have a single sacred text like the Analects. Hence, this pair is incorrectly matched.

Q79. The major ingredient of leather is
(a) Collagen
(b) Polymer
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Nucleic acid

Answer: A

Explanation:
Collagen is the primary protein found in animal skin and connective tissues, and it is the main component of leather. During leather processing, collagen fibers are treated and preserved, giving leather its strength, flexibility, and durability. Other options like carbohydrates or nucleic acids are not structurally significant in leather.

Q80. Sea water is saltier than rain water because
(a) Sea beds have salt producing mines.
(b) Rivers wash away salts from the earth and pour them into sea.
(c) The air around sea is saltish.
(d) Sea animals are salt producing.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Rivers carry dissolved salts from rocks and soil into the oceans, where the water evaporates but the salts remain, leading to accumulation of salinity over time. This process makes sea water much saltier than rain water, which is formed by condensation of pure water vapor and contains minimal dissolved salts.

Q81. A free-floating astronaut ‘A’ pushes another free-floating astronaut ‘B’ in space. The mass of ‘A’ is greater than that of ‘B’. The force exerted by the astronaut ‘A’ on the astronaut ‘B’ will be
(a) Equal to zero.
(b) Equal to the force exerted by ‘B’ on ‘A’.
(c) Greater than the force exerted by ‘B’ on ‘A’.
(d) Less than the force exerted by ‘B’ on ‘A’

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to Newton’s Third Law of Motion, every action has an equal and opposite reaction. So, when astronaut A pushes astronaut B, the force exerted by A on B is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the force exerted by B on A, regardless of their masses.

Q82. Who among the following was not sent to Lanka for the propagation of Buddhism?
(a) Rashtriya
(b) Bhadrasaro
(c) Uttriya
(d) Sona

Answer: D

Explanation:
Historical records mention that Mahinda, son of Emperor Ashoka, led the mission to Sri Lanka for the propagation of Buddhism, accompanied by Uttriya, Bhadrasaro, and Rashtriya. Sona, however, was not part of this specific mission, making him the correct answer.

Q83. Letters A, B, C and D in the diagram represent sequential arrangement of basic topographical features along a coast. Identify the correct sequence from the codes given below:
(a) Land, continental shelf, continental slope, deep sea plain
(b) Land, continental slope, continental shelf, deep sea plain
(c) Mountain, sea coast, continental slope, deep sea plain
(d) Hill, continental slope, ocean deep, deep sea plain

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct topographical sequence from the coast outward is: Land → Continental Shelf → Continental Slope → Deep Sea Plain. The continental shelf is the submerged extension of the landmass, followed by the steeper continental slope, and finally the deep sea plain, which is the flat ocean floor.

Q84. On the Moon, astronauts inflate a rubber balloon with hydrogen gas and release it at a height of 2 metres. The balloon will
(a) Fall down
(b) Go upwards
(c) Remain at the height of 2 metres
(d) First go up and finally come down

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Moon has no atmosphere, so there is no buoyant force to lift the balloon. Without air resistance or upward pressure, the balloon will fall down due to the Moon’s gravity, which is about 1/6th that of Earth.

Q85. Akbar found the Din-i-Ilahi primarily to
(a) Put an end to the differences between the Hindus and the Muslims.
(b) Establish a national religion which would be acceptable to both the Muslims and the Hindus.
(c) Ensure racial and communal harmony.
(d) Found a religious club.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Din-i-Ilahi, founded by Emperor Akbar, was a syncretic religion aimed at blending the best elements of various faiths to create a unifying spiritual philosophy. It was intended to transcend religious divisions and promote tolerance and harmony, especially between Hindus and Muslims.

Q86. If S denotes sound energy, E denotes electrical energy, M denotes magnetic energy, the correct representation of recording and reproduction in an audio tape recorder is
(a) S → E → M → E → S
(b) S → E → M → S
(c) S → M → E → S
(d) S → E → S

Answer: B

Explanation:
In an audio tape recorder, sound energy (S) is first converted into electrical energy (E) through a microphone. This electrical signal is then used to magnetize the tape (M) during recording. During playback, the magnetic signal is reconverted into electrical energy, and finally back into sound energy through a speaker. Hence, the correct sequence is S → E → M → S.

Q87. Apart from Tamil Nadu (Neyveli), lignite is found at
(a) Gujarat
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Orissa

Answer: A

Explanation:
Gujarat is another major source of lignite, especially in regions like Bhavnagar and Surat. Lignite, also known as brown coal, is used primarily for electricity generation. Tamil Nadu’s Neyveli is the most famous site, but Gujarat also has significant reserves.

Q88. Who among the following has the right to speak and otherwise take part in the proceedings of either House of the Parliament and to be a member of any Parliamentary Committee in India but is not entitled to vote?
(a) The Chief Election Commissioner
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor-General
(c) The Chairman of the Finance Commission
(d) The Attorney-General

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Attorney-General of India is the chief legal advisor to the Government and has the right to participate in parliamentary proceedings and committees, but cannot vote as they are not an elected member of either House.

Q89. The places Alwaye, Koyna and Korba have
(a) Thermal Stations
(b) Oil Refineries
(c) Hydro Stations
(d) Aluminium Industries

Answer: D

Explanation:
Alwaye, Koyna, and Korba are known for their hydroelectric power stations. Koyna in Maharashtra is especially prominent for its Koyna Hydroelectric Project, one of the largest in India. These locations are associated with hydro stations, not aluminium industries.

Q90. The principal cause of soil damage in Punjab and Haryana is
(a) Salinity and water-logging
(b) Deforestation
(c) Ravine erosion
(d) Overgrazing

Answer: A

Explanation:
In Punjab and Haryana, intensive irrigation practices have led to salinity and water-logging, which are the main causes of soil degradation. Excessive use of canal water raises the water table, leading to salt accumulation and reduced soil fertility.

Q91. The phenomenon of mirage is due to
(a) Increased absorption of light by air at higher temperature
(b) Change in the refractive index of air with the change in temperature
(c) Total internal reflection
(d) Decreased absorption of light by air at higher temperature

Answer: C

Explanation:
A mirage occurs when light rays bend due to temperature-induced variations in air density, leading to total internal reflection. This causes distant objects or the sky to appear as if reflected on the ground, often seen as water-like illusions on hot roads or deserts.

Q92. The Mausoleum of Sher Shah is at
(a) Rohtas
(b) Agra
(c) Sasaram
(d) Lahore

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Mausoleum of Sher Shah Suri is located in Sasaram, Bihar. It is an impressive example of Indo-Islamic architecture, built in the 16th century. The structure stands in the middle of a man-made lake, symbolizing the grandeur of Sher Shah’s reign.

Q93. Which one of the following States doesn’t produce a substantial quantity of cardamom?
(a) Assam
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cardamom is primarily cultivated in the Western Ghats of Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu due to their humid climate and elevation. Assam, despite being a northeastern state with rich biodiversity, does not produce cardamom in substantial quantity.

Q94. The Lingayat movement owes its origin to
(a) Vidyaranya
(b) Purandharadasa
(c) Appar
(d) Basava

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Lingayat movement was founded by Basava in the 12th century in Karnataka. It emphasized monotheism, rejected caste hierarchy, and promoted social equality. Basava’s teachings formed the basis of Veerashaivism, a reformist sect within Hinduism.

Q95. Which one of the following is NOT an affiliate of the Reserve Bank of India?
(a) Agricultural Refinance Corporation
(b) Deposit Insurance Corporation
(c) The Industrial Development Bank of India
(d) Unit Trust of India

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Unit Trust of India (UTI) is a financial institution but is not an affiliate of the Reserve Bank of India. In contrast, institutions like the Agricultural Refinance Corporation, Deposit Insurance Corporation, and IDBI have had functional links with the RBI in terms of regulation and refinancing.

Q96. Fog is common around Newfoundland coast because
(a) Icebergs melt around the coast
(b) Warm and cold currents meet
(c) The rainfall is heavy
(d) High tides cause storms

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Newfoundland coast experiences frequent fog due to the meeting of the warm Gulf Stream and the cold Labrador Current. This interaction causes condensation of moisture in the air, leading to dense fog formation, especially in summer.

Q97. Albuquerque captured Goa from the ruler of
(a) Bijapur
(b) Golkonda
(c) Ahmadnagar
(d) Vijayanagar

Answer: A

Explanation:
Alfonso de Albuquerque, a Portuguese general, captured Goa in 1510 from the Sultan of Bijapur. This marked the beginning of Portuguese colonial rule in India, which lasted for over four centuries in Goa.

Q98. Which of the following is/are true of bonded labour?
(1) It is forced employment in consideration of an advance or interest payment
(2) It is employment arising out of any customary or social or hereditary obligation or by reason of birth in any caste or community involved in pledging labour
(3) It is for any economic consideration involving loss of freedom of contract leading to forced employment
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
Bonded labour involves forced employment due to economic constraints, such as advance payments or debt. It leads to loss of freedom and is often exploitative. Statements 1 and 3 correctly describe its nature, while 2 refers more to customary obligations, which may not always involve economic coercion.

Q99. The British rulers introduced a new system of education in India chiefly because they wanted to
(a) Provide a class of office workers for the company
(b) Promote the work of Christian missionaries
(c) Create an awareness of scientific and technical developments
(d) Generate the capacity for self-government

Answer: A

Explanation:
The British introduced Western-style education in India primarily to train clerks and administrators who could assist in running the colonial bureaucracy. This system emphasized English language and basic administrative skills, aligning with the needs of the East India Company.

Q100. The limit beyond which stars suffer internal collapse is called
(a) Chandrashekhar limit
(b) Eddington limit
(c) Hoyle limit
(d) Fowler limit

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Chandrasekhar limit, proposed by Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar, defines the maximum mass (~1.4 times the mass of the Sun) that a white dwarf star can have before collapsing into a neutron star or black hole. It is a fundamental concept in stellar evolution and astrophysics.

Q101. Which one of the following was the most immediate factor for the spread of Swadeshi and Boycott agitation during the first decade of the present century?
(a) Curzon’s attempt to control the Universities
(b) Curzon’s design to curtail the sphere of local self-government
(c) Curzon’s partition of Bengal
(d) Curzon’s plan to curb the growing popularity of the Indian National Congress

Answer: C

Explanation:
The partition of Bengal in 1905 by Lord Curzon was perceived as an attempt to divide and weaken nationalist sentiment. It triggered widespread protests, leading to the Swadeshi and Boycott movements, which encouraged Indians to reject British goods and promote indigenous industries. This was the most immediate catalyst for mass mobilization.

Q102. Which of the following are under the purview of Industrial Development Bank of India?
(1) Unit Trust of India
(2) Life Insurance Corporation of India
(3) Export-Import Bank
(4) State Finance Corporation of India
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) has oversight and developmental roles over institutions like the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC), Export-Import Bank, and State Finance Corporations. These bodies contribute to industrial financing and development, aligning with IDBI’s mandate. Unit Trust of India is not directly under IDBI’s purview.

Q103. Water hyacinth is related to
(a) Lemna
(b) Pistia
(c) Eichhornia
(d) None of these

Answer: C

Explanation:
Water hyacinth is scientifically known as Eichhornia crassipes. It is an aquatic plant notorious for its rapid growth and invasive nature, often clogging water bodies and affecting aquatic ecosystems. It is not related to Lemna or Pistia, which are different aquatic species.

Q104. One of the elements mentioned as the strategy for industrial development in the Seventh Five-Year Plan is to usher in ‘sunrise industries’. ‘Sunrise industries’ refers to those industries which have
(a) High growth potential and relevance to our needs
(b) High employment potential
(c) Capacity to face international competition
(d) High export potential

Answer: A

Explanation:
Sunrise industries are those with emerging technologies, high growth potential, and strategic relevance to national development. The Seventh Five-Year Plan emphasized promoting such sectors to modernize the economy and meet future demands. These industries often include IT, biotechnology, and renewable energy.

Q105. The earliest evidence of a Jewish community settling in India is provided by a charter of a
(a) Chola king
(b) Pandya king
(c) Chera king
(d) Vijayanagara king

Answer: (d) Vijayanagara king

Explanation: The Vijayanagara king issued a charter that serves as the earliest documented proof of Jewish settlement in India. This highlights the inclusive nature of the empire and its role in fostering multicultural trade and religious coexistence.

Q106. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Holt Machenzie – Mahalvari settlement in Northern India
(b) Lord Cornwallis – Subsidiary system
(c) Lord Ripon – Local Self-Government
(d) Thomas Munro – Ryotwari settlement

Answer: (b) Lord Cornwallis – Subsidiary system

Explanation: The Subsidiary system was introduced by Lord Wellesley, not Cornwallis. Lord Cornwallis is associated with the Permanent Settlement, making this pair incorrectly matched.

Q107. Mechanisation of agriculture will lead to which of the following?
(1) Higher per unit cost of operation
(2) Higher per unit productivity
(3) Higher dose of employment
(4) Higher utilisation of resources
Select the correct answer from codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: Mechanisation increases productivity per unit but also raises the cost of operation due to investment in machinery. It generally reduces employment and does not necessarily ensure optimal resource utilisation.

Q108. The Oscar award winning film ‘Platoon’ was based on
(a) Iran-Iraq war
(b) Falkland war
(c) Vietnam war
(d) Israel war

Answer: (c) Vietnam war

Explanation: ‘Platoon’ is a war drama that depicts the Vietnam war, focusing on the internal conflict and moral dilemmas faced by American soldiers. It offers a gritty and realistic portrayal of combat and its psychological toll.

Q109. Which of the following statements are true of the Congress Socialist Party?
(1) It was a forum for various kinds of Socialists in India.
(2) It was a rival organisation of Indian National Congress.
(3) It championed the cause of workers and peasants.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The Congress Socialist Party functioned as a socialist platform within the Congress, not as a rival. It actively supported workers and peasants, advocating for economic justice and grassroots mobilisation.

Q110. If there were no atmosphere, what would be the colour of sky?
(a) White
(b) Black
(c) Blue
(d) Red

Answer: (b) Black

Explanation: Without an atmosphere, there is no scattering of sunlight, which is responsible for the blue appearance of the sky. In such a vacuum, the sky would appear black, as observed from space or the Moon.

Q111. The ‘Char Minar’ is in
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Ahmednagar
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Fatehpur Sikri

Answer: (a) Hyderabad

Explanation: The Char Minar, an iconic monument built in 1591, is located in Hyderabad. It was constructed by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah and is known for its four grand minarets, symbolizing the city’s architectural heritage.

Q112. In which of the following industries in India are the maximum number of workers employed?
(a) Jute
(b) Sugar
(c) Textiles
(d) Iron and Steel

Answer: (d) Iron and Steel

Explanation: The Iron and Steel industry employs the largest number of workers due to its capital-intensive nature and extensive production and processing units across India. It plays a vital role in infrastructure and manufacturing.

Q113. Match the columns:
List 1
A. Rig Veda
B. Yajur Veda
C. Sama Veda
D. Atharva Veda

List 2

Musical hymns
Hymns and rituals
Charms and spells
Hymns and prayers

(a) 4213
(b) 3241
(c) 4123
(d) 2314

Answer: (c) 4123

Explanation:

Rig Veda contains hymns and prayers
Yajur Veda deals with rituals and ceremonies
Sama Veda focuses on musical hymns
Atharva Veda includes charms and spells
This classification reflects the distinct spiritual and ritualistic roles of each Veda.

Q114. Match the columns:
List 1
A. Karsondas Mulji
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. Debendranath Tagore
D. Henry Vivian Derozio

List 2

Tatvabodhini Patrika
Satya Prakash
Fight for legal status to Parsi women
Peasant Movement
Did not believe in existence of god

(a) 2315
(b) 5312
(c) 4521
(d) 5142

Answer: (a) 2315

Explanation:

Karsondas Mulji fought for legal rights of Parsi women
Dadabhai Naoroji founded Satya Prakash
Debendranath Tagore edited Tatvabodhini Patrika
Henry Vivian Derozio was known for atheistic views
These associations highlight their social reform and intellectual contributions.

Q115. Match the columns:
List 1
A. Amaravati
B. Aihole
C. Thanjavur
D. Halebid

List 2

Hoysalas
Cholas
Satavahanas
Chalukyas
Pandyas

(a) 2451
(b) 3142
(c) 3421
(d) 4523

Answer: (c) 3421

Explanation:

Amaravati is linked to the Satavahanas
Aihole is associated with the Chalukyas
Thanjavur was a center of Chola architecture
Halebid was built by the Hoysalas
These sites reflect the regional styles and dynastic patronage in Indian temple architecture.

Q116. Match the columns:
List 1 (Leaders)
A. Nehru
B. Ambedkar
C. Gandhi
D. Sapru & Jayckar

List 2 (Views on the Cripps Mission proposals in 1942)

Post-dated cheque
The autocratic powers of Viceroy would remain
It will do the greatest harm to the depressed
The creation of more than one Union will be disastrous

(a) 2314
(b) 3214
(c) 4213
(d) 3421

Answer: (a) 2314

Explanation:

Nehru called it a post-dated cheque
Ambedkar criticized the Viceroy’s autocratic powers
Gandhi felt it would harm the depressed classes
Sapru & Jayckar opposed the idea of multiple unions
These responses reflect the diverse political reactions to the Cripps Mission.

Q117. Match the columns:
List 1
A. Qutub Minar
B. Gol Gumbaj
C. Buland Darwaza
D. Moti Masjid

List 2

Mohamed Adil Shah
Iltutmish
Aurangzeb
Jahangir
Akbar

(a) 5134
(b) 2451
(c) 4321
(d) 2153

Answer: (d) 2153

Explanation:

Qutub Minar was completed by Iltutmish
Gol Gumbaz was built by Mohamed Adil Shah
Buland Darwaza was constructed by Akbar
Moti Masjid was built by Aurangzeb
These monuments showcase the diverse architectural styles of medieval India.

Q118. Match the columns:
List 1
A. Morley Minto Reforms
B. Montague Chelmsford Reforms
C. Reform Act of 1935
D. Cripps Proposals

List 2

Dyarchy in the Provinces
Provincial Autonomy
Introduction of separate electorate
Provision for establishment of a Constituent Assembly

(a) 4321
(b) 3124
(c) 2143
(d) 3214

Answer: (b) 3124

Explanation:

Morley Minto Reforms introduced separate electorates
Montague Chelmsford Reforms brought dyarchy
1935 Act gave provincial autonomy
Cripps Proposals suggested a Constituent Assembly
These reforms mark the evolution of constitutional governance in colonial India.

Q119. Match the columns:
List 1 (Lakes)
A. Wular
B. Chilka
C. Loktak
D. Nakki

List 2 (States)

Rajasthan
Orissa
Manipur
Jammu and Kashmir
Madhya Pradesh

(a) 5234
(b) 3521
(c) 4231
(d) 4352

Answer: (c) 4231

Explanation:

Wular Lake is in Jammu and Kashmir
Chilka Lake is in Odisha
Loktak Lake is in Manipur
Nakki Lake is in Rajasthan
These lakes are known for their ecological and cultural significance.

Q120. Match the columns:
List 1
A. Madan Mohan Malviya
B. Sohan Singh Bhakna
C. Annie Besant
D. Rajagopalachari

List 2

Ghadr Movement
Swatantra Party
Hindu Mahasabha
Theosophical Society of India

(a) 2451
(b) 3142
(c) 3421
(d) 4523

Answer: (b) 3142

Explanation:

Malviya was associated with Hindu Mahasabha
Sohan Singh Bhakna led the Ghadr Movement
Annie Besant was linked to the Theosophical Society
Rajagopalachari founded the Swatantra Party
These leaders played distinct roles in India’s socio-political movements.

Q121. Match the columns:
List 1
A. Maharashtra
B. Karnataka
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Assam

List 2

Alluvial
Lateritic
Red
Black

(a) 4213
(b) 4312
(c) 3142
(d) 2341

Answer: (b) 4312

Explanation:

Maharashtra is known for black soil, ideal for cotton cultivation.
Karnataka has red soil, common in southern plateau regions.
Uttar Pradesh is dominated by alluvial soil, deposited by rivers.
Assam features lateritic soil, formed under high rainfall and temperature.

Q122. Match the columns:
List 1 (Industry)
A. Pottery
B. Bangles
C. Wooden carvings
D. Silk

List 2 (Places)

Firozabad
Trivandrum
Bhagalpur
Mirzapur

(a) 4123
(b) 3421
(c) 2134
(d) 4213

Answer: (d) 4213

Explanation:

Pottery is prominent in Mirzapur.
Bangles are famously made in Firozabad.
Wooden carvings are crafted in Trivandrum.
Silk production is notable in Bhagalpur.

Q123. Match the columns:
List 1 (Artiste)
A. Ali Akbar Khan
B. Yehudi Menuhin
C. Ravi Shankar
D. H. P. Chaurasia

List 2 (Instrument)

Flute
Sarod
Sitar
Santoor
Violin

(a) 4315
(b) 1243
(c) 2341
(d) 2531

Answer: (d) 2531

Explanation:

Ali Akbar Khan is a maestro of the Sarod.
Yehudi Menuhin is renowned for the Violin.
Ravi Shankar is famous for the Sitar.
H. P. Chaurasia is a master of the Flute.

Q124. Assertion (A): In the ancient period of Indian history, urbanisation was followed by pastoral life.
Reason (R): The Harappan Culture was an urban one.